VTU-ETR Seat No.

Question Paper Version : A

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research), January – 2025
Electrical & Electronics Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.
 PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 Marks]
1. What is the main objective of applied research?
a) Develop theories for future studies b) Solve specific, practical problems
c) Investigate unexplored phenomena d) Study the historical context of an issue

2. Which of the following steps is NOT part of the research process?

a) Defining the research problem b) Reviewing related literature
c) Avoiding data collection d) Formulating a hypothesis

3. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of good research?

a) Systematic and logical b) Based on subjective interpretation
c) Replicable and verifiable d) Directed towards problem-solving

4. Why is it necessary to define a research problem clearly?

a) To reduce the scope of the study b) To formulate irrelevant hypotheses
c) To guide the research process effectively d) To avoid reviewing related literature

5. Which research approach combines both qualitative and quantitative methods?

a) Descriptive research b) Experimental research
c) Mixed-method research d) Longitudinal research

6. What is the primary purpose of a literature review in research?

a) To test hypotheses b) To identify gaps in existing knowledge
c) To collect primary data d) To summarize the results

7. Which of the following is NOT a feature of a good research design?

a) Flexibility b) Objectivity
c) Economical execution d) Bias in data collection

8. Which of the following is a principle of experimental design?

a) Randomization b) Subjectivity
c) Hypothesis elimination d) Literature review

Ver - A : EE 1 of 14
9. What is a conceptual framework?
a) A plan for data analysis
b) A framework to explain concepts and relationships in the research
c) A compilation of all references
d) A step-by-step experimental protocol

10. Which type of research design is best for studying cause-and-effect relationships?
a) Descriptive design b) Correlational design
c) Experimental design d) Exploratory design

11. Type-I errors occurs if ________

a) Null Hypothesis is rejected even if it is true
b) Null Hypothesis is accepted even if it is false
c) Both Null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis are rejected
d) Both Null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis are accepted

12. Which is a preferred sampling method for the population of a finite size.
a) Systematic sampling b) Purposive Sampling
c) Cluster Sampling d) Area Sampling

13. Which of the following is a probability sampling method?

a) Convenience sampling b) Stratified random sampling
c) Quota sampling d) Judgmental sampling

14. Which classification of measurement scale represents ordered categories but does not have a
true zero point?
a) Nominal scale b) Ordinal scale
c) Interval scale d) Ratio scale

15. Which method is most suitable for collecting primary data when studying behaviour over time?
a) Case study method b) Experimental method
c) Longitudinal survey d) Secondary data collection

16. Which of the following is NOT a step in the data preparation process?
a) Editing b) Coding c) Data collection d) Transcribing

Ver - A : EE 2 of 14
17. What type of analysis focuses on summarizing the data collected?
a) Inferential analysis b) Diagnostic analysis
c) Predictive analysis d) Descriptive analysis

18. Which measure of central tendency is best suited for categorical data?
a) Mean b) Median c) Mode d) Standard deviation

19. What does skewness measure in a dataset?

a) The average value of the data b) The spread of data points
c) The relationship between variables d) The symmetry of the data distribution

20. What is the correlation coefficient used to measure?

a) The degree of dispersion in the data b) The relationship between two variables
c) The central value of a dataset d) The extent of symmetry in the distribution

21. Which of the following is an example of a non-sampling error?

a) Errors in calculating the standard error b) Errors due to small sample size
c) Errors due to incomplete responses d) Errors caused by random sampling

22. What does the Central Limit Theorem state?

a) The sampling distribution of the mean approaches a normal distribution as sample size
increases
b) The mean of the population equals the mean of the sample
c) The variance of the population is less than that of the sample
d) The sampling method used always determines the distribution

23. What is the standard error?

a) The difference between the sample mean and population mean
b) The standard deviation of the sampling distribution
c) The sum of all errors in data collection
d) The variance of a data set

24. What is the main goal of statistical inference?

a) To describe the collected data
b) To evaluate the quality of the data
c) To calculate the mean of the sample
d) To make predictions about the population based on the sample

Ver - A : EE 3 of 14
25. What is a sampling distribution?
a) The distribution of the population data
b) The histogram of the sampled data
c) The error associated with a specific sample
d) The distribution of a statistic derived from all possible samples of the same size

26. What does the P-value represent in hypothesis testing?

a) The probability of making a Type II error
b) The probability of observing the data if the null hypothesis is true
c) The critical value for the test statistic
d) The standard deviation of the sample

27. Which test is used to compare the means of two independent samples?
a) Chi-square test b) Z-test for proportion
c) Two-sample t-test d) ANOVA

28. What does the chi-square goodness-of-fit test evaluate?

a) The mean difference between two groups
b) Whether observed data follows a specific distribution
c) The equality of variances between two samples
d) The correlation between two variables.

29. Which hypothesis test is used to compare the variances of two populations?
a) Z-test for variance b) F-test
c) Paired t-test d) Chi-square test for independence

30. What is a null hypothesis (H0)?

a) A hypothesis that predicts a significant relationship between variables
b) A hypothesis that states there is no significant effect or relationship
c) A hypothesis tested only for large samples
d) A hypothesis that must always be true

31. What does the analysis of variance (anova) primarily test for?
a) Differences in means across multiple groups
b) Differences in medians across two groups
c) Relationships between two variables
d) Equality of variances across groups

Ver - A : EE 4 of 14
32. What is the main difference between one-way and two-way ANOVA?
a) One-way ANOVA tests one group, while two-way ANOVA tests two groups
b) One-way ANOVA examines one independent variable, while two-way ANOVA examines
two independent variables
c) Two-way ANOVA is only for experimental designs
d) One-way ANOVA includes interaction effects

33. In a Latin-square design, how are the treatments arranged?

a) Randomly across all rows
b) Such that each treatment appears once in each row and column
c) To maximize variability in the design
d) Only within rows and not columns

34. What is the F-ratio in ANOVA?

a) The ratio of between-group variance to within-group variance
b) The ratio of group means to total variance
c) The sum of squares within groups
d) The mean of all variances

35. Which of the following is NOT an assumption of ANOVA?

a) Homogeneity of variances
b) Independence of observations
c) Equal sample sizes in all groups
d) Normality of residuals

36. Which of the following is a key characteristic of dependent and independent variables in linear
regression?
a) Dependent variable is predicted by the independent variable.
b) Both dependent and independent variables are random variables.
c) Independent variables depend on dependent variables.
d) Dependent variables are not affected by independent variables.

37. What problem arises when independent variables in a multiple regression model are highly
correlated with each other?
a) Heteroscedasticity b) Homoscedasticity
c) Autocorrelation d) Multicollinearity

Ver - A : EE 5 of 14
38. Which of the following is an example of a qualitative explanatory variable in regression
analysis?
a) Age of a person
b) Height of an individual
c) Weight of an individual
d) Type of education (e.g., High School, College, Graduate)

39. What is the primary purpose of factor analysis?

a) To predict future values based on historical data.
b) To reduce the number of variables by identifying underlying factors.
c) To determine the causal relationship between variables.
d) To test hypotheses in a regression model.

40. Which of the following is a key difference between R-type and Q-type factor analysis?
a) R-type focuses on factors affecting the variables, while Q-type analyzes the variables' impact
on the factors
b) R-type is used when analyzing observations across multiple time periods, while Q-type
focuses on cross-sectional data
c) R-type factor analysis is applied to variables, whereas Q-type is applied to cases
(individuals)
d) There is no significant difference between R-type and Q-type factor analysis

41. Which of the following best defines a random experiment?

a) A process that results in one of a set of outcomes, with certainty.
b) A process with uncertain outcomes that can be repeated under identical conditions.
c) A deterministic process where outcomes are predictable.
d) A set of outcomes that always yield the same result.

42. The probability of the occurrence of a single event, such as P(A) or P(B), which takes a specific
value irrespective of the values of other events, i.e. unconditioned on any other events, is called?
a) Unconditional Probability b) Marginal Probability
c) Conditional Probability d) Joint Probability

43. What is the probability mass function (PMF) used to describe?

a) The likelihood of each outcome in a discrete probability distribution.
b) The cumulative probability of outcomes in a continuous distribution.
c) The variance of a continuous random variable.
d) The mean of a discrete random variable.

Ver - A : EE 6 of 14
44. What does the Axiom of Probability P(S) = 1 mean, where S is the sample space?
a) The probability of any event is 0.
b) The probability of the sample space is 0.
c) The probability of the sample space is 1.
d) The probability of any event is 1.

45. Which of the following is true about a random variable?

a) It takes a fixed set of values.
b) It is a function that assigns a numerical value to each outcome in a sample space.
c) It has a deterministic relationship with other random variables.
d) It is not subject to probability distributions.

46. The binomial distribution is used to model which of the following?

a) The number of successes in a fixed number of independent trials with two possible outcomes.
b) The time between events in a fixed interval.
c) The number of occurrences of an event in a fixed interval of time.
d) The number of unique outcomes in a sample space.

47. The normal distribution is characterized by which of the following?

a) A skewed distribution with a peak at the right.
b) A symmetric bell-shaped curve where the mean, median, and mode are equal.
c) A discrete distribution with a fixed number of outcomes.
d) A distribution that models time between events.

48. Under which condition can the binomial distribution be approximated by a normal distribution?
a) When the number of trials is very small
b) When the probability of success is very high
c) When the probability of success is close to 0.5
d) When the trials are dependent

49. The Poisson distribution is typically used to model:

a) The number of successes in a fixed number of trials
b) The number of events occurring in a fixed interval of time or space
c) The time between events in a Poisson process
d) The number of distinct outcomes in a discrete sample

Ver - A : EE 7 of 14
50 The hypergeometric distribution is used to model which of the following?
a) The number of successes in a fixed number of independent trials with two outcomes
b) The number of successes when the probability of success is constant across trials
c) The number of events occurring in a fixed interval of time
d) The number of successes in a fixed number of trials without replacement from a finite
population

Ver - A : EE 8 of 14
 PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
( Electrical & Electronics Engineering)
[50 MARKS]

51. For the network shown, the equivalent Thevenin voltage and Thevenin impedance as seen across
terminals 'ab' is,

a) 10 V in series with 12Ω

b) 65 V in series with 15Ω
c) 50 V in series with 2Ω
d) 30 V in series with 2Ω
52. In the figure, the potential difference between points P and Q is,

a) 12 V b) 10 V c)  6 V d) 8 V
53. The driving point impedance Z(s) for the circuit shown below is,

s 4  3s 2  1 s 4  3s 2  4
a) b)
s 3  2s s2  2
s2 1 s3  1
c) 4 d) 4
s  s2 1 s  s2 1

54. The total capacitance of the series connected capacitors is ___________________.

a) always same as the largest capacitor b) greater than any one of the individual capacitor
c) always same as the smallest capacitor d) less than any one of the individual capacitor

55. The average power delivered to an impedance (4 – j3) Ω by a current 5 cos (100πt + 100)A is,
a) 44.2 W b) 50 W c) 62.5 W d) 125 W

56. The voltage gain of amplifier is 300 at cut off frequencies. Then maximum voltage gain is,
a) 324.26 b) 101.45 c) 201.25 d) 424.26
Ver - A : EE 9 of 14
57. The gain of current series feedback amplifier is given by,
a) Tranconductance b) Resistance
c) Admittance d) Impedance

58. The salient feature of look-ahead carry adder is,

a) It is slower than ripple carry adder b) It is faster than ripple carry adder
c) It is slower than half adder d) It is faster than half adder

59. Voltage series feedback amplifier can be considered as,

a) Voltage controlled current source b) Voltage controlled voltage source
c) Current source only d) Voltage source only

60. The operating cycle of Class B power amplifier lies from,

a) b)
c) d)

61. The default value of stack pointer in 8051 is,

a) 04H b) 06H c) 08H d) 07H

62. The range of 16 bit unsigned data in 8051 C is,

a) 0 to 32767 b) 0 to 65535
c) -32768 to +32767 d) 0 to 32767

63. In successive approximation ADC, the function of Successive Approximation Register (SAR) is,
a) To generate input to DAC by changing bits starting from MSB
b) To work as BCD counter
c) To work as ripple counter
d) To work as binary counter

64. The instruction JZ in 8051 works when,

a) the zero flag sets b) the carry flag sets
c) the overflow flag sets d) the content of accumulator is zero

65. Clamp diodes are used in comparator designed using opamp, because,
a) to increase output current b) to decrease the input current
c) to increase the output voltage d) it will protect the opamp from damage

66. Fundamental period of a signal means,

a) Time taken to complete the first full cycle of a periodic signal
b) Time taken to complete last cycle of a periodic signal
c) Time taken to complete first cycle of a non-periodic signal
d) Time taken to complete last cycle of non-periodic signal

67. The Z transform X(Z) can be applied to,

a) Continuous time signal b) Discrete time signal
c) Continuous time non-periodic signal d) Discrete time non-periodic signal

Ver - A : EE 10 of 14
68. FIR filter is,
a) Inherently unstable b) Always stability problem is present
c) Not related to stability factors d) Inherently stable

69. A continuous time signal is given by , the minimum sampling rate to avoid aliasing
is,
a) 500 Hz b) 100 Hz c) 400Hz d) 200Hz

70. In DTFT, the limits of integration is from , because of ,

a) Periodicity property b) Convolution property
c) Multiplication property d) Frequency shift property

71. The maximum flux density in the core of a 250/3000 Volts, 50 Hz, single phase transformer is
1.2 wb/m2. Determine the LV and HV turns of the transformer if the emf per turn is 8 V.
a) NLV = 64, NHV = 750 b) NLV = 375, NHV = 32
c) NLV = 750, NHV = 64 d) NLV = 32, NHV = 375

72. A transformer has a 120 V primary and 20 V secondary rated at 4 A. The measured winding resistances
are 0.3 Ω and 5 Ω for secondary and primary respectively. The full load copper loss is.
a) 7 W b) 14 W c) 32 W d) 48 W

73. Generally the no-load losses of an electrical machine is represented in its equivalent circuit by a,
a) Parallel resistance with a low value b) Series resistance with a low value
c) Parallel resistance with a high value d) Series resistance with a high value

74. A synchronous generator connected to an infinite bus delivers power at lagging power factor. If its field
excitation is increased, what is the effect?
a) Terminal voltage increases b) Voltage angle increases
c) Current delivered increases d) All of these

75. A series motor of resistance 1 Ω between the terminals runs at 800 r. p. m. at 200 V with a current of 15
A . Find the speed at which it will run when connected in series with a 5 Ω resistance and taking the
same current at the same supply voltage.
a) 476 r.p.m. b) 384 r.p.m. c) 572 r.p.m. d) 602 r.p.m.

76. For the system represented by the characteristic equation s 4  12s 3  69s 2  198s  ( 200  K )  0 the
range of values of K for the system to be Stable is,
a) 0 < K < 200 b) 0 < K < 666.25
c)   K  125.23 d) 70 > K >0

77. The characteristic equation of a system is given by s 4  4s 3  s 2  8s  1  0 . The system is,

a) Stable b) Unstable
c) Marginally stable d) None of these

78. The Nyquist plot intersects the real axis at – a = – 2. The gain margin is,
a) 2 b) 1/2 c) -2 d) 0.5
Ver - A : EE 11 of 14
 K (s  2)
79. The open loop transfer function of a system is G (s )H(s)  . The Centroid is at,
s(s  3)(s  4)
a) s = – 3 b) s = 0 c) s = –2.5 d) s = – 4

80. The Nyquist plot intersects the real axis at – a = – 0.02. The gain margin is,
a) 0.02 b) – 0.02 c) 50 d) 0.5

81. Resonant converters are basically used to

a) Generate peak voltages b) Reduce the switching losses
c) Eliminate harmonics d) Convert sine wave to square wave

82. In a 3-phase controlled bridge rectifier with an increase of overlap angle the output dc voltage
a) Increases b) Decreases
c) Does not change d) Depends on load inductance

83. The output of the dc-ac converter will be free from 5th harmonics when
a) α = 720 b) α = 360 c) α = 1500 d) α = 1200

84. A single-phase triac based AC voltage controller feeds a series RL load. The input AC supply
is 230 V,50 Hz. The values of R and L are 10Ωand 18.37mH, respectively. The minimum
triggering angle of the triac to obtain controllable output voltage is,
a) 600 b) 300 c) 450 d) 150

85. In the circuit shown in the figure, the diode used is ideal. The input power factor is _______.

a) 0.55 b) 0.25 c) 0.707 d) 0.95

86. According to the Paschen’s Law, the breakdown voltage of a uniform field gap is,
a) Directly proportional to the gas pressure and inversely proportional to the electrode gap.
b) Inversely proportional to the gas pressure and directly proportional to the electrode gap.
c) directly proportional to the both electrode gap and gas pressure.
d) inversely proportional to the both electrode gap and gas pressure

87. What is the third winding in the transformer called?

a) primary winding b) secondary winding
c) high voltage winding d) meter winding

88. Sphere gap is used for the measurement of peak value of _________.
a) ac voltage b) dc voltage
c) impulse voltage d) ac, dc and impulse voltage
Ver - A : EE 12 of 14
89. Which is the most serious problem in vacuum circuit breaker?
a) Poor arc quenching b) Low thermal stability
c) Current chopping d) All of these

90. If dC/dt is negative ___________ is converted into _________

a) electrical energy, mechanical energy b) mechanical energy, electrical energy
c) electrical energy, thermal energy d) thermal energy, electrical energy

91. What percentage of fault occurring in the power system is line to line fault?
a) 5% b) 15% c) 25% d) 30%

92. In the ABCD parameters, what does the parameter A represent?

a) Series impedance of the line b) Shunt admittance of the line
c) Voltage ratio between sending and receiving ends d) The effect of capacitance

93. In a long transmission line, which of the following constants becomes most significant?
a) Resistance only b) Inductance only
c) Capacitance and inductance d) Resistance and capacitance

94. Formative time lag depends on the mechanism of the avalanche growth in gap. The formative
time lag is usually,
a) Much shorter than the statistical time lag.
b) Much greater than the statistical time lag.
c) Equal to the statistical time lag.
d) None of these

95. A long transmission line has considerable ___________ effect.

a) Series capacitance b) Shunt capacitance
c) Series inductance d) Shunt inductance

96. For power system network, without mutual coupling between transmission lines, the Bus
Admittance Matrix is a,
a) Singular, Symmetric, Full Matrix b) Singular, Symmetric, Sparse matrix
c) Non singular, Symmetric, Sparse matrix d) Non singular, Un Symmetric, Full matrix

97. The incremental transmission loss associated with ith generating plant is expresses in terms of
loss coefficients (B-coefficients as) and generation of other plants as, where j varies from 1 to
number of generating plants.
a)  B ij Pj b)  2B ij Pj
2 2 2
c) B P
ij j d) B Pij j

Q
98. At a bus in power system, is equal to,
V
a) the reciprocal of short circuit current
b) the square of short circuit current
c) the square root of short circuit current
d) the short circuit current
Ver - A : EE 13 of 14
99. The constraint to be considered for optimal generation scheduling among different generating
plants is,
a)  PGi  PD  PL  0 b)  Q Gi  Q D  Q L  0
c) S Gi  SD  SL  0 d) Q Gi  QD  0

100. Consider a two area control system.

Let f1 , f 2 are the change in frequencies of area 1 and area 2 respectively.
Let Ptie1 , Ptie 2 are the change in tieline power flowing out of area 1 and area 2 respectively.
The area control error of area 1 is given by,
a) Ptie1  Ptie 2 b) Ptie1  b1f1
c) f1 + f 2 d) Ptie 2  b1f1

*****

Ver - A : EE 14 of 14
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : B

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research), January – 2025
Electrical & Electronics Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.
 PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 Marks]
1. Which of the following best defines a random experiment?
a) A process that results in one of a set of outcomes, with certainty.
b) A process with uncertain outcomes that can be repeated under identical conditions.
c) A deterministic process where outcomes are predictable.
d) A set of outcomes that always yield the same result.

2. The probability of the occurrence of a single event, such as P(A) or P(B), which takes a specific
value irrespective of the values of other events, i.e. unconditioned on any other events, is called?
a) Unconditional Probability b) Marginal Probability
c) Conditional Probability d) Joint Probability

3. What is the probability mass function (PMF) used to describe?

a) The likelihood of each outcome in a discrete probability distribution.
b) The cumulative probability of outcomes in a continuous distribution.
c) The variance of a continuous random variable.
d) The mean of a discrete random variable.

4. What does the Axiom of Probability P(S) = 1 mean, where S is the sample space?
a) The probability of any event is 0.
b) The probability of the sample space is 0.
c) The probability of the sample space is 1.
d) The probability of any event is 1.

5. Which of the following is true about a random variable?

a) It takes a fixed set of values.
b) It is a function that assigns a numerical value to each outcome in a sample space.
c) It has a deterministic relationship with other random variables.
d) It is not subject to probability distributions.

6. The binomial distribution is used to model which of the following?

a) The number of successes in a fixed number of independent trials with two possible outcomes.
b) The time between events in a fixed interval.
c) The number of occurrences of an event in a fixed interval of time.
d) The number of unique outcomes in a sample space.
Ver - B : EE 1 of 14
7. The normal distribution is characterized by which of the following?
a) A skewed distribution with a peak at the right.
b) A symmetric bell-shaped curve where the mean, median, and mode are equal.
c) A discrete distribution with a fixed number of outcomes.
d) A distribution that models time between events.

8. Under which condition can the binomial distribution be approximated by a normal distribution?
a) When the number of trials is very small
b) When the probability of success is very high
c) When the probability of success is close to 0.5
d) When the trials are dependent

9. The Poisson distribution is typically used to model:

a) The number of successes in a fixed number of trials
b) The number of events occurring in a fixed interval of time or space
c) The time between events in a Poisson process
d) The number of distinct outcomes in a discrete sample

10. The hypergeometric distribution is used to model which of the following?

a) The number of successes in a fixed number of independent trials with two outcomes
b) The number of successes when the probability of success is constant across trials
c) The number of events occurring in a fixed interval of time
d) The number of successes in a fixed number of trials without replacement from a finite
population
11. What does the analysis of variance (anova) primarily test for?
a) Differences in means across multiple groups
b) Differences in medians across two groups
c) Relationships between two variables
d) Equality of variances across groups

12. What is the main difference between one-way and two-way ANOVA?
a) One-way ANOVA tests one group, while two-way ANOVA tests two groups
b) One-way ANOVA examines one independent variable, while two-way ANOVA examines
two independent variables
c) Two-way ANOVA is only for experimental designs
d) One-way ANOVA includes interaction effects

Ver - B : EE 2 of 14
13. In a Latin-square design, how are the treatments arranged?
a) Randomly across all rows
b) Such that each treatment appears once in each row and column
c) To maximize variability in the design
d) Only within rows and not columns

14. What is the F-ratio in ANOVA?

a) The ratio of between-group variance to within-group variance
b) The ratio of group means to total variance
c) The sum of squares within groups
d) The mean of all variances

15. Which of the following is NOT an assumption of ANOVA?

a) Homogeneity of variances
b) Independence of observations
c) Equal sample sizes in all groups
d) Normality of residuals

16. Which of the following is a key characteristic of dependent and independent variables in linear
regression?
a) Dependent variable is predicted by the independent variable.
b) Both dependent and independent variables are random variables.
c) Independent variables depend on dependent variables.
d) Dependent variables are not affected by independent variables.

17. What problem arises when independent variables in a multiple regression model are highly
correlated with each other?
a) Heteroscedasticity b) Homoscedasticity
c) Autocorrelation d) Multicollinearity

18. Which of the following is an example of a qualitative explanatory variable in regression

analysis?
a) Age of a person
b) Height of an individual
c) Weight of an individual
d) Type of education (e.g., High School, College, Graduate)

Ver - B : EE 3 of 14
19. What is the primary purpose of factor analysis?
a) To predict future values based on historical data.
b) To reduce the number of variables by identifying underlying factors.
c) To determine the causal relationship between variables.
d) To test hypotheses in a regression model.

20. Which of the following is a key difference between R-type and Q-type factor analysis?
a) R-type focuses on factors affecting the variables, while Q-type analyzes the variables' impact
on the factors
b) R-type is used when analyzing observations across multiple time periods, while Q-type
focuses on cross-sectional data
c) R-type factor analysis is applied to variables, whereas Q-type is applied to cases
(individuals)
d) There is no significant difference between R-type and Q-type factor analysis

21. Type-I errors occurs if ________

a) Null Hypothesis is rejected even if it is true
b) Null Hypothesis is accepted even if it is false
c) Both Null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis are rejected
d) Both Null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis are accepted

22. Which is a preferred sampling method for the population of a finite size.
a) Systematic sampling b) Purposive Sampling
c) Cluster Sampling d) Area Sampling

23. Which of the following is a probability sampling method?

a) Convenience sampling b) Stratified random sampling
c) Quota sampling d) Judgmental sampling

24. Which classification of measurement scale represents ordered categories but does not have a
true zero point?
a) Nominal scale b) Ordinal scale
c) Interval scale d) Ratio scale

25. Which method is most suitable for collecting primary data when studying behaviour over time?
a) Case study method b) Experimental method
c) Longitudinal survey d) Secondary data collection

Ver - B : EE 4 of 14
26. Which of the following is NOT a step in the data preparation process?
a) Editing b) Coding c) Data collection d) Transcribing

27. What type of analysis focuses on summarizing the data collected?

a) Inferential analysis b) Diagnostic analysis
c) Predictive analysis d) Descriptive analysis

28. Which measure of central tendency is best suited for categorical data?
a) Mean b) Median c) Mode d) Standard deviation

29. What does skewness measure in a dataset?

a) The average value of the data b) The spread of data points
c) The relationship between variables d) The symmetry of the data distribution

30. What is the correlation coefficient used to measure?

a) The degree of dispersion in the data b) The relationship between two variables
c) The central value of a dataset d) The extent of symmetry in the distribution

31. What is the main objective of applied research?

a) Develop theories for future studies b) Solve specific, practical problems
c) Investigate unexplored phenomena d) Study the historical context of an issue

32. Which of the following steps is NOT part of the research process?
a) Defining the research problem b) Reviewing related literature
c) Avoiding data collection d) Formulating a hypothesis

33. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of good research?

a) Systematic and logical b) Based on subjective interpretation
c) Replicable and verifiable d) Directed towards problem-solving

34. Why is it necessary to define a research problem clearly?

a) To reduce the scope of the study b) To formulate irrelevant hypotheses
c) To guide the research process effectively d) To avoid reviewing related literature

35. Which research approach combines both qualitative and quantitative methods?
a) Descriptive research b) Experimental research
c) Mixed-method research d) Longitudinal research

Ver - B : EE 5 of 14
36. What is the primary purpose of a literature review in research?
a) To test hypotheses b) To identify gaps in existing knowledge
c) To collect primary data d) To summarize the results

37. Which of the following is NOT a feature of a good research design?

a) Flexibility b) Objectivity
c) Economical execution d) Bias in data collection

38. Which of the following is a principle of experimental design?

a) Randomization b) Subjectivity
c) Hypothesis elimination d) Literature review

39. What is a conceptual framework?

a) A plan for data analysis
b) A framework to explain concepts and relationships in the research
c) A compilation of all references
d) A step-by-step experimental protocol

40. Which type of research design is best for studying cause-and-effect relationships?
a) Descriptive design b) Correlational design
c) Experimental design d) Exploratory design

41. Which of the following is an example of a non-sampling error?

a) Errors in calculating the standard error b) Errors due to small sample size
c) Errors due to incomplete responses d) Errors caused by random sampling

42. What does the Central Limit Theorem state?

a) The sampling distribution of the mean approaches a normal distribution as sample size
increases
b) The mean of the population equals the mean of the sample
c) The variance of the population is less than that of the sample
d) The sampling method used always determines the distribution

43. What is the standard error?

a) The difference between the sample mean and population mean
b) The standard deviation of the sampling distribution
c) The sum of all errors in data collection
d) The variance of a data set
Ver - B : EE 6 of 14
44. What is the main goal of statistical inference?
a) To describe the collected data
b) To evaluate the quality of the data
c) To calculate the mean of the sample
d) To make predictions about the population based on the sample

45. What is a sampling distribution?

a) The distribution of the population data
b) The histogram of the sampled data
c) The error associated with a specific sample
d) The distribution of a statistic derived from all possible samples of the same size

46. What does the P-value represent in hypothesis testing?

a) The probability of making a Type II error
b) The probability of observing the data if the null hypothesis is true
c) The critical value for the test statistic
d) The standard deviation of the sample

47. Which test is used to compare the means of two independent samples?
a) Chi-square test b) Z-test for proportion
c) Two-sample t-test d) ANOVA

48. What does the chi-square goodness-of-fit test evaluate?

a) The mean difference between two groups
b) Whether observed data follows a specific distribution
c) The equality of variances between two samples
d) The correlation between two variables.

49. Which hypothesis test is used to compare the variances of two populations?
a) Z-test for variance
b) F-test
c) Paired t-test
d) Chi-square test for independence

Ver - B : EE 7 of 14
50 What is a null hypothesis (H0)?
a) A hypothesis that predicts a significant relationship between variables
b) A hypothesis that states there is no significant effect or relationship
c) A hypothesis tested only for large samples
d) A hypothesis that must always be true

Ver - B : EE 8 of 14
 PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
( Electrical and Electronics Engineering)
[50 MARKS]

51. What percentage of fault occurring in the power system is line to line fault?
a) 5% b) 15% c) 25% d) 30%

52. In the ABCD parameters, what does the parameter A represent?

a) Series impedance of the line b) Shunt admittance of the line
c) Voltage ratio between sending and receiving ends d) The effect of capacitance

53. In a long transmission line, which of the following constants becomes most significant?
a) Resistance only b) Inductance only
c) Capacitance and inductance d) Resistance and capacitance

54. Formative time lag depends on the mechanism of the avalanche growth in gap. The formative
time lag is usually,
a) Much shorter than the statistical time lag.
b) Much greater than the statistical time lag.
c) Equal to the statistical time lag.
d) None of these

55. A long transmission line has considerable ___________ effect.

a) Series capacitance b) Shunt capacitance
c) Series inductance d) Shunt inductance

56. For power system network, without mutual coupling between transmission lines, the Bus
Admittance Matrix is a,
a) Singular, Symmetric, Full Matrix b) Singular, Symmetric, Sparse matrix
c) Non singular, Symmetric, Sparse matrix d) Non singular, Un Symmetric, Full matrix

57. The incremental transmission loss associated with ith generating plant is expresses in terms of
loss coefficients (B-coefficients as) and generation of other plants as, where j varies from 1 to
number of generating plants.
a)  B ij Pj b)  2B ij Pj
2 2 2
c) B P ij j d) B Pij j

Q
58. At a bus in power system, is equal to,
V
a) the reciprocal of short circuit current
b) the square of short circuit current
c) the square root of short circuit current
d) the short circuit current

Ver - B : EE 9 of 14
59. The constraint to be considered for optimal generation scheduling among different generating
plants is,
a)  PGi  PD  PL  0 b)  Q Gi  Q D  Q L  0
c) S Gi  SD  SL  0 d) Q Gi  QD  0

60. Consider a two area control system.

Let f1 , f 2 are the change in frequencies of area 1 and area 2 respectively.
Let Ptie1 , Ptie 2 are the change in tieline power flowing out of area 1 and area 2 respectively.
The area control error of area 1 is given by,
a) Ptie1  Ptie 2 b) Ptie1  b1f1
c) f1 + f 2 d) Ptie 2  b1f1

61. Resonant converters are basically used to

a) Generate peak voltages b) Reduce the switching losses
c) Eliminate harmonics d) Convert sine wave to square wave

62. In a 3-phase controlled bridge rectifier with an increase of overlap angle the output dc voltage
a) Increases b) Decreases
c) Does not change d) Depends on load inductance

63. The output of the dc-ac converter will be free from 5th harmonics when
a) α = 720 b) α = 360 c) α = 1500 d) α = 1200

64. A single-phase triac based AC voltage controller feeds a series RL load. The input AC supply
is 230 V,50 Hz. The values of R and L are 10Ωand 18.37mH, respectively. The minimum
triggering angle of the triac to obtain controllable output voltage is,
a) 600 b) 300 c) 450 d) 150

65. In the circuit shown in the figure, the diode used is ideal. The input power factor is _______.

a) 0.55 b) 0.25 c) 0.707 d) 0.95

66. According to the Paschen’s Law, the breakdown voltage of a uniform field gap is,
a) Directly proportional to the gas pressure and inversely proportional to the electrode gap.
b) Inversely proportional to the gas pressure and directly proportional to the electrode gap.
c) directly proportional to the both electrode gap and gas pressure.
d) inversely proportional to the both electrode gap and gas pressure

Ver - B : EE 10 of 14
67. What is the third winding in the transformer called?
a) primary winding b) secondary winding
c) high voltage winding d) meter winding

68. Sphere gap is used for the measurement of peak value of _________.
a) ac voltage b) dc voltage
c) impulse voltage d) ac, dc and impulse voltage

69. Which is the most serious problem in vacuum circuit breaker?

a) Poor arc quenching b) Low thermal stability
c) Current chopping d) All of these

70. If dC/dt is negative ___________ is converted into _________

a) electrical energy, mechanical energy b) mechanical energy, electrical energy
c) electrical energy, thermal energy d) thermal energy, electrical energy

71. The default value of stack pointer in 8051 is,

a) 04H b) 06H c) 08H d) 07H

72. The range of 16 bit unsigned data in 8051 C is,

a) 0 to 32767 b) 0 to 65535
c) -32768 to +32767 d) 0 to 32767

73. In successive approximation ADC, the function of Successive Approximation Register (SAR) is,
a) To generate input to DAC by changing bits starting from MSB
b) To work as BCD counter
c) To work as ripple counter
d) To work as binary counter

74. The instruction JZ in 8051 works when,

a) the zero flag sets b) the carry flag sets
c) the overflow flag sets d) the content of accumulator is zero

75. Clamp diodes are used in comparator designed using opamp, because,
a) to increase output current b) to decrease the input current
c) to increase the output voltage d) it will protect the opamp from damage

76. Fundamental period of a signal means,

a) Time taken to complete the first full cycle of a periodic signal
b) Time taken to complete last cycle of a periodic signal
c) Time taken to complete first cycle of a non-periodic signal
d) Time taken to complete last cycle of non-periodic signal

77. The Z transform X(Z) can be applied to,

a) Continuous time signal b) Discrete time signal
c) Continuous time non-periodic signal d) Discrete time non-periodic signal

Ver - B : EE 11 of 14
78. FIR filter is,
a) Inherently unstable b) Always stability problem is present
c) Not related to stability factors d) Inherently stable

79. A continuous time signal is given by , the minimum sampling rate to avoid aliasing
is,
a) 500 Hz b) 100 Hz c) 400Hz d) 200Hz

80. In DTFT, the limits of integration is from , because of ,

a) Periodicity property b) Convolution property
c) Multiplication property d) Frequency shift property

81. For the network shown, the equivalent Thevenin voltage and Thevenin impedance as seen across
terminals 'ab' is,

a) 10 V in series with 12Ω

b) 65 V in series with 15Ω
c) 50 V in series with 2Ω
d) 30 V in series with 2Ω
82. In the figure, the potential difference between points P and Q is,

a) 12 V b) 10 V c)  6 V d) 8 V
83. The driving point impedance Z(s) for the circuit shown below is,

s 4  3s 2  1 s 4  3s 2  4
a) b)
s 3  2s s2  2
s2 1 s3  1
c) 4 d) 4
s  s2 1 s  s2 1

84. The total capacitance of the series connected capacitors is ___________________.

a) always same as the largest capacitor b) greater than any one of the individual capacitor
c) always same as the smallest capacitor d) less than any one of the individual capacitor
Ver - B : EE 12 of 14
85. The average power delivered to an impedance (4 – j3) Ω by a current 5 cos (100πt + 100)A is,
a) 44.2 W b) 50 W c) 62.5 W d) 125 W

86. The voltage gain of amplifier is 300 at cut off frequencies. Then maximum voltage gain is,
a) 324.26 b) 101.45 c) 201.25 d) 424.26

87. The gain of current series feedback amplifier is given by,

a) Tranconductance b) Resistance
c) Admittance d) Impedance

88. The salient feature of look-ahead carry adder is,

a) It is slower than ripple carry adder b) It is faster than ripple carry adder
c) It is slower than half adder d) It is faster than half adder

89. Voltage series feedback amplifier can be considered as,

a) Voltage controlled current source b) Voltage controlled voltage source
c) Current source only d) Voltage source only

90. The operating cycle of Class B power amplifier lies from,

a) b)
c) d)

91. The maximum flux density in the core of a 250/3000 Volts, 50 Hz, single phase transformer is
1.2 wb/m2. Determine the LV and HV turns of the transformer if the emf per turn is 8 V.
a) NLV = 64, NHV = 750 b) NLV = 375, NHV = 32
c) NLV = 750, NHV = 64 d) NLV = 32, NHV = 375

92. A transformer has a 120 V primary and 20 V secondary rated at 4 A. The measured winding resistances
are 0.3 Ω and 5 Ω for secondary and primary respectively. The full load copper loss is.
a) 7 W b) 14 W c) 32 W d) 48 W

93. Generally the no-load losses of an electrical machine is represented in its equivalent circuit by a,
a) Parallel resistance with a low value b) Series resistance with a low value
c) Parallel resistance with a high value d) Series resistance with a high value

94. A synchronous generator connected to an infinite bus delivers power at lagging power factor. If its field
excitation is increased, what is the effect?
a) Terminal voltage increases b) Voltage angle increases
c) Current delivered increases d) All of these

95. A series motor of resistance 1 Ω between the terminals runs at 800 r. p. m. at 200 V with a current of 15
A . Find the speed at which it will run when connected in series with a 5 Ω resistance and taking the
same current at the same supply voltage.
a) 476 r.p.m. b) 384 r.p.m. c) 572 r.p.m. d) 602 r.p.m.

Ver - B : EE 13 of 14
96. For the system represented by the characteristic equation s 4  12s 3  69s 2  198s  ( 200  K )  0 the
range of values of K for the system to be Stable is,
a) 0 < K < 200 b) 0 < K < 666.25
c)   K  125.23 d) 70 > K >0

97. The characteristic equation of a system is given by s 4  4s 3  s 2  8s  1  0 . The system is,

a) Stable b) Unstable
c) Marginally stable d) None of these

98. The Nyquist plot intersects the real axis at – a = – 2. The gain margin is,
a) 2 b) 1/2 c) -2 d) 0.5

K (s  2)
99. The open loop transfer function of a system is G (s )H(s )  . The Centroid is at,
s(s  3)(s  4)
a) s = – 3 b) s = 0 c) s = –2.5 d) s = – 4

100. The Nyquist plot intersects the real axis at – a = – 0.02. The gain margin is,
a) 0.02 b) – 0.02 c) 50 d) 0.5

*****

Ver - B : EE 14 of 14
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : C

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research), January – 2025
Electrical & Electronics Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.
 PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 Marks]
1. What does the analysis of variance (anova) primarily test for?
a) Differences in means across multiple groups
b) Differences in medians across two groups
c) Relationships between two variables
d) Equality of variances across groups

2. What is the main difference between one-way and two-way ANOVA?

a) One-way ANOVA tests one group, while two-way ANOVA tests two groups
b) One-way ANOVA examines one independent variable, while two-way ANOVA examines
two independent variables
c) Two-way ANOVA is only for experimental designs
d) One-way ANOVA includes interaction effects

3. In a Latin-square design, how are the treatments arranged?

a) Randomly across all rows
b) Such that each treatment appears once in each row and column
c) To maximize variability in the design
d) Only within rows and not columns

4. What is the F-ratio in ANOVA?

a) The ratio of between-group variance to within-group variance
b) The ratio of group means to total variance
c) The sum of squares within groups
d) The mean of all variances

5. Which of the following is NOT an assumption of ANOVA?

a) Homogeneity of variances
b) Independence of observations
c) Equal sample sizes in all groups
d) Normality of residuals

Ver - C : EE 1 of 14
6. Which of the following is a key characteristic of dependent and independent variables in linear
regression?
a) Dependent variable is predicted by the independent variable.
b) Both dependent and independent variables are random variables.
c) Independent variables depend on dependent variables.
d) Dependent variables are not affected by independent variables.

7. What problem arises when independent variables in a multiple regression model are highly
correlated with each other?
a) Heteroscedasticity b) Homoscedasticity
c) Autocorrelation d) Multicollinearity

8. Which of the following is an example of a qualitative explanatory variable in regression

analysis?
a) Age of a person
b) Height of an individual
c) Weight of an individual
d) Type of education (e.g., High School, College, Graduate)

9. What is the primary purpose of factor analysis?

a) To predict future values based on historical data.
b) To reduce the number of variables by identifying underlying factors.
c) To determine the causal relationship between variables.
d) To test hypotheses in a regression model.

10. Which of the following is a key difference between R-type and Q-type factor analysis?
a) R-type focuses on factors affecting the variables, while Q-type analyzes the variables' impact
on the factors
b) R-type is used when analyzing observations across multiple time periods, while Q-type
focuses on cross-sectional data
c) R-type factor analysis is applied to variables, whereas Q-type is applied to cases
(individuals)
d) There is no significant difference between R-type and Q-type factor analysis

11. What is the main objective of applied research?

a) Develop theories for future studies b) Solve specific, practical problems
c) Investigate unexplored phenomena d) Study the historical context of an issue

Ver - C : EE 2 of 14
12. Which of the following steps is NOT part of the research process?
a) Defining the research problem b) Reviewing related literature
c) Avoiding data collection d) Formulating a hypothesis

13. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of good research?

a) Systematic and logical b) Based on subjective interpretation
c) Replicable and verifiable d) Directed towards problem-solving

14. Why is it necessary to define a research problem clearly?

a) To reduce the scope of the study b) To formulate irrelevant hypotheses
c) To guide the research process effectively d) To avoid reviewing related literature

15. Which research approach combines both qualitative and quantitative methods?
a) Descriptive research b) Experimental research
c) Mixed-method research d) Longitudinal research

16. What is the primary purpose of a literature review in research?

a) To test hypotheses b) To identify gaps in existing knowledge
c) To collect primary data d) To summarize the results

17. Which of the following is NOT a feature of a good research design?

a) Flexibility b) Objectivity
c) Economical execution d) Bias in data collection

18. Which of the following is a principle of experimental design?

a) Randomization b) Subjectivity
c) Hypothesis elimination d) Literature review

19. What is a conceptual framework?

a) A plan for data analysis
b) A framework to explain concepts and relationships in the research
c) A compilation of all references
d) A step-by-step experimental protocol

20. Which type of research design is best for studying cause-and-effect relationships?
a) Descriptive design b) Correlational design
c) Experimental design d) Exploratory design

Ver - C : EE 3 of 14
21. Which of the following best defines a random experiment?
a) A process that results in one of a set of outcomes, with certainty.
b) A process with uncertain outcomes that can be repeated under identical conditions.
c) A deterministic process where outcomes are predictable.
d) A set of outcomes that always yield the same result.

22. The probability of the occurrence of a single event, such as P(A) or P(B), which takes a specific
value irrespective of the values of other events, i.e. unconditioned on any other events, is called?
a) Unconditional Probability b) Marginal Probability
c) Conditional Probability d) Joint Probability

23. What is the probability mass function (PMF) used to describe?

a) The likelihood of each outcome in a discrete probability distribution.
b) The cumulative probability of outcomes in a continuous distribution.
c) The variance of a continuous random variable.
d) The mean of a discrete random variable.

24. What does the Axiom of Probability P(S) = 1 mean, where S is the sample space?
a) The probability of any event is 0.
b) The probability of the sample space is 0.
c) The probability of the sample space is 1.
d) The probability of any event is 1.

25. Which of the following is true about a random variable?

a) It takes a fixed set of values.
b) It is a function that assigns a numerical value to each outcome in a sample space.
c) It has a deterministic relationship with other random variables.
d) It is not subject to probability distributions.

26. The binomial distribution is used to model which of the following?

a) The number of successes in a fixed number of independent trials with two possible outcomes.
b) The time between events in a fixed interval.
c) The number of occurrences of an event in a fixed interval of time.
d) The number of unique outcomes in a sample space.

Ver - C : EE 4 of 14
27. The normal distribution is characterized by which of the following?
a) A skewed distribution with a peak at the right.
b) A symmetric bell-shaped curve where the mean, median, and mode are equal.
c) A discrete distribution with a fixed number of outcomes.
d) A distribution that models time between events.

28. Under which condition can the binomial distribution be approximated by a normal distribution?
a) When the number of trials is very small
b) When the probability of success is very high
c) When the probability of success is close to 0.5
d) When the trials are dependent

29. The Poisson distribution is typically used to model:

a) The number of successes in a fixed number of trials
b) The number of events occurring in a fixed interval of time or space
c) The time between events in a Poisson process
d) The number of distinct outcomes in a discrete sample

30. The hypergeometric distribution is used to model which of the following?

a) The number of successes in a fixed number of independent trials with two outcomes
b) The number of successes when the probability of success is constant across trials
c) The number of events occurring in a fixed interval of time
d) The number of successes in a fixed number of trials without replacement from a finite
population

31. Which of the following is an example of a non-sampling error?

a) Errors in calculating the standard error b) Errors due to small sample size
c) Errors due to incomplete responses d) Errors caused by random sampling

32. What does the Central Limit Theorem state?

a) The sampling distribution of the mean approaches a normal distribution as sample size
increases
b) The mean of the population equals the mean of the sample
c) The variance of the population is less than that of the sample
d) The sampling method used always determines the distribution

Ver - C : EE 5 of 14
33. What is the standard error?
a) The difference between the sample mean and population mean
b) The standard deviation of the sampling distribution
c) The sum of all errors in data collection
d) The variance of a data set

34. What is the main goal of statistical inference?

a) To describe the collected data
b) To evaluate the quality of the data
c) To calculate the mean of the sample
d) To make predictions about the population based on the sample

35. What is a sampling distribution?

a) The distribution of the population data
b) The histogram of the sampled data
c) The error associated with a specific sample
d) The distribution of a statistic derived from all possible samples of the same size

36. What does the P-value represent in hypothesis testing?

a) The probability of making a Type II error
b) The probability of observing the data if the null hypothesis is true
c) The critical value for the test statistic
d) The standard deviation of the sample

37. Which test is used to compare the means of two independent samples?
a) Chi-square test b) Z-test for proportion
c) Two-sample t-test d) ANOVA

38. What does the chi-square goodness-of-fit test evaluate?

a) The mean difference between two groups
b) Whether observed data follows a specific distribution
c) The equality of variances between two samples
d) The correlation between two variables

39. Which hypothesis test is used to compare the variances of two populations?
a) Z-test for variance b) F-test
c) Paired t-test d) Chi-square test for independence

Ver - C : EE 6 of 14
40. What is a null hypothesis (H0)?
a) A hypothesis that predicts a significant relationship between variables
b) A hypothesis that states there is no significant effect or relationship
c) A hypothesis tested only for large samples
d) A hypothesis that must always be true

41. Type-I errors occurs if ________

a) Null Hypothesis is rejected even if it is true
b) Null Hypothesis is accepted even if it is false
c) Both Null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis are rejected
d) Both Null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis are accepted

42. Which is a preferred sampling method for the population of a finite size.
a) Systematic sampling b) Purposive Sampling
c) Cluster Sampling d) Area Sampling

43. Which of the following is a probability sampling method?

a) Convenience sampling b) Stratified random sampling
c) Quota sampling d) Judgmental sampling

44. Which classification of measurement scale represents ordered categories but does not have a
true zero point?
a) Nominal scale b) Ordinal scale
c) Interval scale d) Ratio scale

45. Which method is most suitable for collecting primary data when studying behaviour over time?
a) Case study method b) Experimental method
c) Longitudinal survey d) Secondary data collection

46. Which of the following is NOT a step in the data preparation process?
a) Editing b) Coding c) Data collection d) Transcribing

47. What type of analysis focuses on summarizing the data collected?

a) Inferential analysis b) Diagnostic analysis
c) Predictive analysis d) Descriptive analysis

Ver - C : EE 7 of 14
48. Which measure of central tendency is best suited for categorical data?
a) Mean b) Median
c) Mode d) Standard deviation

49. What does skewness measure in a dataset?

a) The average value of the data b) The spread of data points
c) The relationship between variables d) The symmetry of the data distribution

50 What is the correlation coefficient used to measure?

a) The degree of dispersion in the data b) The relationship between two variables
c) The central value of a dataset d) The extent of symmetry in the distribution

Ver - C : EE 8 of 14
 PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
( Electrical and Electronics Engineering)
[50 MARKS]

51. The maximum flux density in the core of a 250/3000 Volts, 50 Hz, single phase transformer is
1.2 wb/m2. Determine the LV and HV turns of the transformer if the emf per turn is 8 V.
a) NLV = 64, NHV = 750 b) NLV = 375, NHV = 32
c) NLV = 750, NHV = 64 d) NLV = 32, NHV = 375

52. A transformer has a 120 V primary and 20 V secondary rated at 4 A. The measured winding resistances
are 0.3 Ω and 5 Ω for secondary and primary respectively. The full load copper loss is.
a) 7 W b) 14 W c) 32 W d) 48 W

53. Generally the no-load losses of an electrical machine is represented in its equivalent circuit by a,
a) Parallel resistance with a low value b) Series resistance with a low value
c) Parallel resistance with a high value d) Series resistance with a high value

54. A synchronous generator connected to an infinite bus delivers power at lagging power factor. If its field
excitation is increased, what is the effect?
a) Terminal voltage increases b) Voltage angle increases
c) Current delivered increases d) All of these

55. A series motor of resistance 1 Ω between the terminals runs at 800 r. p. m. at 200 V with a current of 15
A . Find the speed at which it will run when connected in series with a 5 Ω resistance and taking the
same current at the same supply voltage.
a) 476 r.p.m. b) 384 r.p.m. c) 572 r.p.m. d) 602 r.p.m.

56. For the system represented by the characteristic equation s 4  12s 3  69s 2  198s  ( 200  K )  0 the
range of values of K for the system to be Stable is,
a) 0 < K < 200 b) 0 < K < 666.25
c)   K  125.23 d) 70 > K >0

57. The characteristic equation of a system is given by s 4  4s 3  s 2  8s  1  0 . The system is,

a) Stable b) Unstable
c) Marginally stable d) None of these

58. The Nyquist plot intersects the real axis at – a = – 2. The gain margin is,
a) 2 b) 1/2 c) -2 d) 0.5

K (s  2)
59. The open loop transfer function of a system is G (s )H(s)  . The Centroid is at,
s(s  3)(s  4)
a) s = – 3 b) s = 0 c) s = –2.5 d) s = – 4

60. The Nyquist plot intersects the real axis at – a = – 0.02. The gain margin is,
a) 0.02 b) – 0.02 c) 50 d) 0.5
Ver - C : EE 9 of 14
61. What percentage of fault occurring in the power system is line to line fault?
a) 5% b) 15% c) 25% d) 30%

62. In the ABCD parameters, what does the parameter A represent?

a) Series impedance of the line b) Shunt admittance of the line
c) Voltage ratio between sending and receiving ends d) The effect of capacitance

63. In a long transmission line, which of the following constants becomes most significant?
a) Resistance only b) Inductance only
c) Capacitance and inductance d) Resistance and capacitance

64. Formative time lag depends on the mechanism of the avalanche growth in gap. The formative
time lag is usually,
a) Much shorter than the statistical time lag.
b) Much greater than the statistical time lag.
c) Equal to the statistical time lag.
d) None of these

65. A long transmission line has considerable ___________ effect.

a) Series capacitance b) Shunt capacitance
c) Series inductance d) Shunt inductance

66. For power system network, without mutual coupling between transmission lines, the Bus
Admittance Matrix is a,
a) Singular, Symmetric, Full Matrix b) Singular, Symmetric, Sparse matrix
c) Non singular, Symmetric, Sparse matrix d) Non singular, Un Symmetric, Full matrix

67. The incremental transmission loss associated with ith generating plant is expresses in terms of
loss coefficients (B-coefficients as) and generation of other plants as, where j varies from 1 to
number of generating plants.
a)  B ij Pj b)  2B ij Pj
2 2 2
c) B P ij j d) B Pij j

Q
68. At a bus in power system, is equal to,
V
a) the reciprocal of short circuit current
b) the square of short circuit current
c) the square root of short circuit current
d) the short circuit current

69. The constraint to be considered for optimal generation scheduling among different generating
plants is,
a)  PGi  PD  PL  0 b)  Q Gi  Q D  Q L  0
c) S Gi  SD  SL  0 d) Q Gi  QD  0

Ver - C : EE 10 of 14
70. Consider a two area control system.
Let f1 , f 2 are the change in frequencies of area 1 and area 2 respectively.
Let Ptie1 , Ptie 2 are the change in tieline power flowing out of area 1 and area 2 respectively.
The area control error of area 1 is given by,
a) Ptie1  Ptie 2 b) Ptie1  b1f1
c) f1 + f 2 d) Ptie 2  b1f1

71. Resonant converters are basically used to

a) Generate peak voltages b) Reduce the switching losses
c) Eliminate harmonics d) Convert sine wave to square wave

72. In a 3-phase controlled bridge rectifier with an increase of overlap angle the output dc voltage
a) Increases b) Decreases
c) Does not change d) Depends on load inductance

73. The output of the dc-ac converter will be free from 5th harmonics when
a) α = 720 b) α = 360 c) α = 1500 d) α = 1200

74. A single-phase triac based AC voltage controller feeds a series RL load. The input AC supply
is 230 V,50 Hz. The values of R and L are 10Ωand 18.37mH, respectively. The minimum
triggering angle of the triac to obtain controllable output voltage is,
a) 600 b) 300 c) 450 d) 150

75. In the circuit shown in the figure, the diode used is ideal. The input power factor is _______.

a) 0.55 b) 0.25 c) 0.707 d) 0.95

76. According to the Paschen’s Law, the breakdown voltage of a uniform field gap is,
a) Directly proportional to the gas pressure and inversely proportional to the electrode gap.
b) Inversely proportional to the gas pressure and directly proportional to the electrode gap.
c) directly proportional to the both electrode gap and gas pressure.
d) inversely proportional to the both electrode gap and gas pressure

77. What is the third winding in the transformer called?

a) primary winding b) secondary winding
c) high voltage winding d) meter winding

78. Sphere gap is used for the measurement of peak value of _________.
a) ac voltage b) dc voltage
c) impulse voltage d) ac, dc and impulse voltage
Ver - C : EE 11 of 14
79. Which is the most serious problem in vacuum circuit breaker?
a) Poor arc quenching b) Low thermal stability
c) Current chopping d) All of these

80. If dC/dt is negative ___________ is converted into _________

a) electrical energy, mechanical energy b) mechanical energy, electrical energy
c) electrical energy, thermal energy d) thermal energy, electrical energy

81. The default value of stack pointer in 8051 is,

a) 04H b) 06H c) 08H d) 07H

82. The range of 16 bit unsigned data in 8051 C is,

a) 0 to 32767 b) 0 to 65535
c) -32768 to +32767 d) 0 to 32767

83. In successive approximation ADC, the function of Successive Approximation Register (SAR) is,
a) To generate input to DAC by changing bits starting from MSB
b) To work as BCD counter
c) To work as ripple counter
d) To work as binary counter

84. The instruction JZ in 8051 works when,

a) the zero flag sets b) the carry flag sets
c) the overflow flag sets d) the content of accumulator is zero

85. Clamp diodes are used in comparator designed using opamp, because,
a) to increase output current b) to decrease the input current
c) to increase the output voltage d) it will protect the opamp from damage

86. Fundamental period of a signal means,

a) Time taken to complete the first full cycle of a periodic signal
b) Time taken to complete last cycle of a periodic signal
c) Time taken to complete first cycle of a non-periodic signal
d) Time taken to complete last cycle of non-periodic signal

87. The Z transform X(Z) can be applied to,

a) Continuous time signal b) Discrete time signal
c) Continuous time non-periodic signal d) Discrete time non-periodic signal

88. FIR filter is,

a) Inherently unstable b) Always stability problem is present
c) Not related to stability factors d) Inherently stable

89. A continuous time signal is given by , the minimum sampling rate to avoid aliasing
is,
a) 500 Hz b) 100 Hz c) 400Hz d) 200Hz

Ver - C : EE 12 of 14
90. In DTFT, the limits of integration is from , because of ,
a) Periodicity property b) Convolution property
c) Multiplication property d) Frequency shift property

91. For the network shown, the equivalent Thevenin voltage and Thevenin impedance as seen across
terminals 'ab' is,

a) 10 V in series with 12Ω

b) 65 V in series with 15Ω
c) 50 V in series with 2Ω
d) 30 V in series with 2Ω
92. In the figure, the potential difference between points P and Q is,

a) 12 V b) 10 V c)  6 V d) 8 V
93. The driving point impedance Z(s) for the circuit shown below is,

s 4  3s 2  1 s 4  3s 2  4
a) b)
s 3  2s s2  2
s2 1 s3  1
c) 4 d) 4
s  s2 1 s  s2 1

94. The total capacitance of the series connected capacitors is ___________________.

a) always same as the largest capacitor b) greater than any one of the individual capacitor
c) always same as the smallest capacitor d) less than any one of the individual capacitor

95. The average power delivered to an impedance (4 – j3) Ω by a current 5 cos (100πt + 100)A is,
a) 44.2 W b) 50 W c) 62.5 W d) 125 W

96. The voltage gain of amplifier is 300 at cut off frequencies. Then maximum voltage gain is,
a) 324.26 b) 101.45 c) 201.25 d) 424.26

Ver - C : EE 13 of 14
97. The gain of current series feedback amplifier is given by,
a) Tranconductance b) Resistance
c) Admittance d) Impedance

98. The salient feature of look-ahead carry adder is,

a) It is slower than ripple carry adder b) It is faster than ripple carry adder
c) It is slower than half adder d) It is faster than half adder

99. Voltage series feedback amplifier can be considered as,

a) Voltage controlled current source b) Voltage controlled voltage source
c) Current source only d) Voltage source only

100. The operating cycle of Class B power amplifier lies from,

a) b)
c) d)

*****

Ver - C : EE 14 of 14
VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : D

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research), January – 2025
Electrical & Electronics Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.
 PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 Marks]
1. Which of the following is an example of a non-sampling error?
a) Errors in calculating the standard error b) Errors due to small sample size
c) Errors due to incomplete responses d) Errors caused by random sampling

2. What does the Central Limit Theorem state?

a) The sampling distribution of the mean approaches a normal distribution as sample size
increases
b) The mean of the population equals the mean of the sample
c) The variance of the population is less than that of the sample
d) The sampling method used always determines the distribution

3. What is the standard error?

a) The difference between the sample mean and population mean
b) The standard deviation of the sampling distribution
c) The sum of all errors in data collection
d) The variance of a data set

4. What is the main goal of statistical inference?

a) To describe the collected data
b) To evaluate the quality of the data
c) To calculate the mean of the sample
d) To make predictions about the population based on the sample

5. What is a sampling distribution?

a) The distribution of the population data
b) The histogram of the sampled data
c) The error associated with a specific sample
d) The distribution of a statistic derived from all possible samples of the same size

Ver - D : EE 1 of 14
6. What does the P-value represent in hypothesis testing?
a) The probability of making a Type II error
b) The probability of observing the data if the null hypothesis is true
c) The critical value for the test statistic
d) The standard deviation of the sample

7. Which test is used to compare the means of two independent samples?

a) Chi-square test b) Z-test for proportion
c) Two-sample t-test d) ANOVA

8. What does the chi-square goodness-of-fit test evaluate?

a) The mean difference between two groups
b) Whether observed data follows a specific distribution
c) The equality of variances between two samples
d) The correlation between two variables

9. Which hypothesis test is used to compare the variances of two populations?

a) Z-test for variance b) F-test
c) Paired t-test d) Chi-square test for independence

10. What is a null hypothesis (H0)?

a) A hypothesis that predicts a significant relationship between variables
b) A hypothesis that states there is no significant effect or relationship
c) A hypothesis tested only for large samples
d) A hypothesis that must always be true

11. Which of the following best defines a random experiment?

a) A process that results in one of a set of outcomes, with certainty.
b) A process with uncertain outcomes that can be repeated under identical conditions.
c) A deterministic process where outcomes are predictable.
d) A set of outcomes that always yield the same result.

12. The probability of the occurrence of a single event, such as P(A) or P(B), which takes a specific
value irrespective of the values of other events, i.e. unconditioned on any other events, is called?
a) Unconditional Probability b) Marginal Probability
c) Conditional Probability d) Joint Probability

Ver - D : EE 2 of 14
13. What is the probability mass function (PMF) used to describe?
a) The likelihood of each outcome in a discrete probability distribution.
b) The cumulative probability of outcomes in a continuous distribution.
c) The variance of a continuous random variable.
d) The mean of a discrete random variable.

14. What does the Axiom of Probability P(S) = 1 mean, where S is the sample space?
a) The probability of any event is 0.
b) The probability of the sample space is 0.
c) The probability of the sample space is 1.
d) The probability of any event is 1.

15. Which of the following is true about a random variable?

a) It takes a fixed set of values.
b) It is a function that assigns a numerical value to each outcome in a sample space.
c) It has a deterministic relationship with other random variables.
d) It is not subject to probability distributions.

16. The binomial distribution is used to model which of the following?

a) The number of successes in a fixed number of independent trials with two possible outcomes.
b) The time between events in a fixed interval.
c) The number of occurrences of an event in a fixed interval of time.
d) The number of unique outcomes in a sample space.

17. The normal distribution is characterized by which of the following?

a) A skewed distribution with a peak at the right.
b) A symmetric bell-shaped curve where the mean, median, and mode are equal.
c) A discrete distribution with a fixed number of outcomes.
d) A distribution that models time between events.

18. Under which condition can the binomial distribution be approximated by a normal distribution?
a) When the number of trials is very small
b) When the probability of success is very high
c) When the probability of success is close to 0.5
d) When the trials are dependent

Ver - D : EE 3 of 14
19. The Poisson distribution is typically used to model:
a) The number of successes in a fixed number of trials
b) The number of events occurring in a fixed interval of time or space
c) The time between events in a Poisson process
d) The number of distinct outcomes in a discrete sample

20. The hypergeometric distribution is used to model which of the following?

a) The number of successes in a fixed number of independent trials with two outcomes
b) The number of successes when the probability of success is constant across trials
c) The number of events occurring in a fixed interval of time
d) The number of successes in a fixed number of trials without replacement from a finite
population
21. What does the analysis of variance (anova) primarily test for?
a) Differences in means across multiple groups
b) Differences in medians across two groups
c) Relationships between two variables
d) Equality of variances across groups

22. What is the main difference between one-way and two-way ANOVA?
a) One-way ANOVA tests one group, while two-way ANOVA tests two groups
b) One-way ANOVA examines one independent variable, while two-way ANOVA examines
two independent variables
c) Two-way ANOVA is only for experimental designs
d) One-way ANOVA includes interaction effects

23. In a Latin-square design, how are the treatments arranged?

a) Randomly across all rows
b) Such that each treatment appears once in each row and column
c) To maximize variability in the design
d) Only within rows and not columns

24. What is the F-ratio in ANOVA?

a) The ratio of between-group variance to within-group variance
b) The ratio of group means to total variance
c) The sum of squares within groups
d) The mean of all variances

Ver - D : EE 4 of 14
25. Which of the following is NOT an assumption of ANOVA?
a) Homogeneity of variances
b) Independence of observations
c) Equal sample sizes in all groups
d) Normality of residuals

26. Which of the following is a key characteristic of dependent and independent variables in linear
regression?
a) Dependent variable is predicted by the independent variable.
b) Both dependent and independent variables are random variables.
c) Independent variables depend on dependent variables.
d) Dependent variables are not affected by independent variables.

27. What problem arises when independent variables in a multiple regression model are highly
correlated with each other?
a) Heteroscedasticity b) Homoscedasticity
c) Autocorrelation d) Multicollinearity

28. Which of the following is an example of a qualitative explanatory variable in regression

analysis?
a) Age of a person
b) Height of an individual
c) Weight of an individual
d) Type of education (e.g., High School, College, Graduate)

29. What is the primary purpose of factor analysis?

a) To predict future values based on historical data.
b) To reduce the number of variables by identifying underlying factors.
c) To determine the causal relationship between variables.
d) To test hypotheses in a regression model.

Ver - D : EE 5 of 14
30. Which of the following is a key difference between R-type and Q-type factor analysis?
a) R-type focuses on factors affecting the variables, while Q-type analyzes the variables' impact
on the factors
b) R-type is used when analyzing observations across multiple time periods, while Q-type
focuses on cross-sectional data
c) R-type factor analysis is applied to variables, whereas Q-type is applied to cases
(individuals)
d) There is no significant difference between R-type and Q-type factor analysis

31. Type-I errors occurs if ________

a) Null Hypothesis is rejected even if it is true
b) Null Hypothesis is accepted even if it is false
c) Both Null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis are rejected
d) Both Null hypothesis and alternative hypothesis are accepted

32. Which is a preferred sampling method for the population of a finite size.
a) Systematic sampling b) Purposive Sampling
c) Cluster Sampling d) Area Sampling

33. Which of the following is a probability sampling method?

a) Convenience sampling b) Stratified random sampling
c) Quota sampling d) Judgmental sampling

34. Which classification of measurement scale represents ordered categories but does not have a
true zero point?
a) Nominal scale b) Ordinal scale
c) Interval scale d) Ratio scale

35. Which method is most suitable for collecting primary data when studying behaviour over time?
a) Case study method b) Experimental method
c) Longitudinal survey d) Secondary data collection

36. Which of the following is NOT a step in the data preparation process?
a) Editing b) Coding c) Data collection d) Transcribing

Ver - D : EE 6 of 14
37. What type of analysis focuses on summarizing the data collected?
a) Inferential analysis b) Diagnostic analysis
c) Predictive analysis d) Descriptive analysis

38. Which measure of central tendency is best suited for categorical data?
a) Mean b) Median c) Mode d) Standard deviation

39. What does skewness measure in a dataset?

a) The average value of the data b) The spread of data points
c) The relationship between variables d) The symmetry of the data distribution

40. What is the correlation coefficient used to measure?

a) The degree of dispersion in the data b) The relationship between two variables
c) The central value of a dataset d) The extent of symmetry in the distribution

41. What is the main objective of applied research?

a) Develop theories for future studies b) Solve specific, practical problems
c) Investigate unexplored phenomena d) Study the historical context of an issue

42. Which of the following steps is NOT part of the research process?
a) Defining the research problem b) Reviewing related literature
c) Avoiding data collection d) Formulating a hypothesis

43. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of good research?

a) Systematic and logical b) Based on subjective interpretation
c) Replicable and verifiable d) Directed towards problem-solving

44. Why is it necessary to define a research problem clearly?

a) To reduce the scope of the study b) To formulate irrelevant hypotheses
c) To guide the research process effectively d) To avoid reviewing related literature

45. Which research approach combines both qualitative and quantitative methods?
a) Descriptive research b) Experimental research
c) Mixed-method research d) Longitudinal research

46. What is the primary purpose of a literature review in research?

a) To test hypotheses b) To identify gaps in existing knowledge
c) To collect primary data d) To summarize the results

Ver - D : EE 7 of 14
47. Which of the following is NOT a feature of a good research design?
a) Flexibility b) Objectivity
c) Economical execution d) Bias in data collection

48. Which of the following is a principle of experimental design?

a) Randomization b) Subjectivity
c) Hypothesis elimination d) Literature review

49. What is a conceptual framework?

a) A plan for data analysis
b) A framework to explain concepts and relationships in the research
c) A compilation of all references
d) A step-by-step experimental protocol

50 Which type of research design is best for studying cause-and-effect relationships?

a) Descriptive design b) Correlational design
c) Experimental design d) Exploratory design

Ver - D : EE 8 of 14
 PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
( Electrical and Electronics Engineering)
[50 MARKS]

51. Resonant converters are basically used to

a) Generate peak voltages b) Reduce the switching losses
c) Eliminate harmonics d) Convert sine wave to square wave

52. In a 3-phase controlled bridge rectifier with an increase of overlap angle the output dc voltage
a) Increases b) Decreases
c) Does not change d) Depends on load inductance

53. The output of the dc-ac converter will be free from 5th harmonics when
a) α = 720 b) α = 360 c) α = 1500 d) α = 1200

54. A single-phase triac based AC voltage controller feeds a series RL load. The input AC supply
is 230 V,50 Hz. The values of R and L are 10Ωand 18.37mH, respectively. The minimum
triggering angle of the triac to obtain controllable output voltage is,
a) 600 b) 300 c) 450 d) 150

55. In the circuit shown in the figure, the diode used is ideal. The input power factor is _______.

a) 0.55 b) 0.25 c) 0.707 d) 0.95

56. According to the Paschen’s Law, the breakdown voltage of a uniform field gap is,
a) Directly proportional to the gas pressure and inversely proportional to the electrode gap.
b) Inversely proportional to the gas pressure and directly proportional to the electrode gap.
c) directly proportional to the both electrode gap and gas pressure.
d) inversely proportional to the both electrode gap and gas pressure

57. What is the third winding in the transformer called?

a) primary winding b) secondary winding
c) high voltage winding d) meter winding

58. Sphere gap is used for the measurement of peak value of _________.
a) ac voltage b) dc voltage
c) impulse voltage d) ac, dc and impulse voltage

Ver - D : EE 9 of 14
59. Which is the most serious problem in vacuum circuit breaker?
a) Poor arc quenching b) Low thermal stability
c) Current chopping d) All of these

60. If dC/dt is negative ___________ is converted into _________

a) electrical energy, mechanical energy b) mechanical energy, electrical energy
c) electrical energy, thermal energy d) thermal energy, electrical energy

61. For the network shown, the equivalent Thevenin voltage and Thevenin impedance as seen across
terminals 'ab' is,

a) 10 V in series with 12Ω

b) 65 V in series with 15Ω
c) 50 V in series with 2Ω
d) 30 V in series with 2Ω

62. In the figure, the potential difference between points P and Q is,

a) 12 V b) 10 V c)  6 V d) 8 V
63. The driving point impedance Z(s) for the circuit shown below is,

s 4  3s 2  1 s 4  3s 2  4
a) b)
s 3  2s s2  2
s2 1 s3  1
c) 4 d) 4
s  s2 1 s  s2 1

64. The total capacitance of the series connected capacitors is ___________________.

a) always same as the largest capacitor b) greater than any one of the individual capacitor
c) always same as the smallest capacitor d) less than any one of the individual capacitor

65. The average power delivered to an impedance (4 – j3) Ω by a current 5 cos (100πt + 100)A is,
a) 44.2 W b) 50 W c) 62.5 W d) 125 W

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66. The voltage gain of amplifier is 300 at cut off frequencies. Then maximum voltage gain is,
a) 324.26 b) 101.45 c) 201.25 d) 424.26

67. The gain of current series feedback amplifier is given by,

a) Tranconductance b) Resistance
c) Admittance d) Impedance

68. The salient feature of look-ahead carry adder is,

a) It is slower than ripple carry adder b) It is faster than ripple carry adder
c) It is slower than half adder d) It is faster than half adder

69. Voltage series feedback amplifier can be considered as,

a) Voltage controlled current source b) Voltage controlled voltage source
c) Current source only d) Voltage source only

70. The operating cycle of Class B power amplifier lies from,

a) b)
c) d)

71. What percentage of fault occurring in the power system is line to line fault?
a) 5% b) 15% c) 25% d) 30%

72. In the ABCD parameters, what does the parameter A represent?

a) Series impedance of the line b) Shunt admittance of the line
c) Voltage ratio between sending and receiving ends d) The effect of capacitance

73. In a long transmission line, which of the following constants becomes most significant?
a) Resistance only b) Inductance only
c) Capacitance and inductance d) Resistance and capacitance

74. Formative time lag depends on the mechanism of the avalanche growth in gap. The formative
time lag is usually,
a) Much shorter than the statistical time lag.
b) Much greater than the statistical time lag.
c) Equal to the statistical time lag.
d) None of these

75. A long transmission line has considerable ___________ effect.

a) Series capacitance b) Shunt capacitance
c) Series inductance d) Shunt inductance

76. For power system network, without mutual coupling between transmission lines, the Bus
Admittance Matrix is a,
a) Singular, Symmetric, Full Matrix b) Singular, Symmetric, Sparse matrix
c) Non singular, Symmetric, Sparse matrix d) Non singular, Un Symmetric, Full matrix

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77. The incremental transmission loss associated with ith generating plant is expresses in terms of
loss coefficients (B-coefficients as) and generation of other plants as, where j varies from 1 to
number of generating plants.
a)  B ij Pj b)  2B ij Pj
2 2 2
c) B P ij j d) B Pij j

Q
78. At a bus in power system, is equal to,
V
a) the reciprocal of short circuit current
b) the square of short circuit current
c) the square root of short circuit current
d) the short circuit current

79. The constraint to be considered for optimal generation scheduling among different generating
plants is,
a)  PGi  PD  PL  0 b)  Q Gi  Q D  Q L  0
c) S Gi  SD  SL  0 d) Q Gi  QD  0

80. Consider a two area control system.

Let f1 , f 2 are the change in frequencies of area 1 and area 2 respectively.
Let Ptie1 , Ptie 2 are the change in tieline power flowing out of area 1 and area 2 respectively.
The area control error of area 1 is given by,
a) Ptie1  Ptie 2 b) Ptie1  b1f1
c) f1 + f 2 d) Ptie 2  b1f1

81. The maximum flux density in the core of a 250/3000 Volts, 50 Hz, single phase transformer is
1.2 wb/m2. Determine the LV and HV turns of the transformer if the emf per turn is 8 V.
a) NLV = 64, NHV = 750 b) NLV = 375, NHV = 32
c) NLV = 750, NHV = 64 d) NLV = 32, NHV = 375

82. A transformer has a 120 V primary and 20 V secondary rated at 4 A. The measured winding resistances
are 0.3 Ω and 5 Ω for secondary and primary respectively. The full load copper loss is.
a) 7 W b) 14 W c) 32 W d) 48 W

83. Generally the no-load losses of an electrical machine is represented in its equivalent circuit by a,
a) Parallel resistance with a low value b) Series resistance with a low value
c) Parallel resistance with a high value d) Series resistance with a high value

84. A synchronous generator connected to an infinite bus delivers power at lagging power factor. If its field
excitation is increased, what is the effect?
a) Terminal voltage increases b) Voltage angle increases
c) Current delivered increases d) All of these

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85. A series motor of resistance 1 Ω between the terminals runs at 800 r. p. m. at 200 V with a current of 15
A . Find the speed at which it will run when connected in series with a 5 Ω resistance and taking the
same current at the same supply voltage.
a) 476 r.p.m. b) 384 r.p.m. c) 572 r.p.m. d) 602 r.p.m.

86. For the system represented by the characteristic equation s 4  12s 3  69s 2  198s  ( 200  K )  0 the
range of values of K for the system to be Stable is,
a) 0 < K < 200 b) 0 < K < 666.25
c)   K  125.23 d) 70 > K >0

87. The characteristic equation of a system is given by s 4  4s 3  s 2  8s  1  0 . The system is,

a) Stable b) Unstable
c) Marginally stable d) None of these

88. The Nyquist plot intersects the real axis at – a = – 2. The gain margin is,
a) 2 b) 1/2 c) -2 d) 0.5

K (s  2)
89. The open loop transfer function of a system is G (s )H(s)  . The Centroid is at,
s(s  3)(s  4)
a) s = – 3 b) s = 0 c) s = –2.5 d) s = – 4

90. The Nyquist plot intersects the real axis at – a = – 0.02. The gain margin is,
a) 0.02 b) – 0.02 c) 50 d) 0.5

91. The default value of stack pointer in 8051 is,

a) 04H b) 06H c) 08H d) 07H

92. The range of 16 bit unsigned data in 8051 C is,

a) 0 to 32767 b) 0 to 65535
c) -32768 to +32767 d) 0 to 32767

93. In successive approximation ADC, the function of Successive Approximation Register (SAR) is,
a) To generate input to DAC by changing bits starting from MSB
b) To work as BCD counter
c) To work as ripple counter
d) To work as binary counter

94. The instruction JZ in 8051 works when,

a) the zero flag sets b) the carry flag sets
c) the overflow flag sets d) the content of accumulator is zero

95. Clamp diodes are used in comparator designed using opamp, because,
a) to increase output current b) to decrease the input current
c) to increase the output voltage d) it will protect the opamp from damage

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96. Fundamental period of a signal means,
a) Time taken to complete the first full cycle of a periodic signal
b) Time taken to complete last cycle of a periodic signal
c) Time taken to complete first cycle of a non-periodic signal
d) Time taken to complete last cycle of non-periodic signal

97. The Z transform X(Z) can be applied to,

a) Continuous time signal b) Discrete time signal
c) Continuous time non-periodic signal d) Discrete time non-periodic signal

98. FIR filter is,

a) Inherently unstable b) Always stability problem is present
c) Not related to stability factors d) Inherently stable

99. A continuous time signal is given by , the minimum sampling rate to avoid aliasing
is,
a) 500 Hz b) 100 Hz c) 400Hz d) 200Hz

100. In DTFT, the limits of integration is from , because of ,

a) Periodicity property b) Convolution property
c) Multiplication property d) Frequency shift property

*****

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