ARMED FORCES

1. The head of the Indian Army is __ _

(a) CDS (b) Army Commander (c) COAS (d) Defence Minister

2. Which of the following is NOT a Gallantry award.

(a) Sarvottam Yudh Seva Medal (b) Param Vir Chakra (c) Vir Chakra (d) Maha Vir Chakra

3. Identify the Shoulder Rank.

(a) Brigadier (b) Field Marshal (c) Army Commander (d) Colonel

4. Central Command of Indian Army is located at ____ _

(a) Delhi (b) Lucknow (c) Bhopal (d) Pune

5. Identify the Shoulder Rank.

(a) General (b) Army Commander (c) Field Marshal (d) Brigadier

6. There are ___ number of Commands in Indian Anny.

(a) 7 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 5

7. Who is the Supreme Commander of Armed Forces of the country.

(a) Prime Minister (b) Defence Minister (c) COAS (d) President

8. Identify the Shoulder Rank.

(a) Subedar (b) Subedar Major (c) Naib Subedar (d) Havildar.

9. The ___ arm of the Indian Army has battle tanks which provide mobility and fire power.
(a) Para (b) Infantry (c) Armoured (d) Artillery

10. There are number of Commands in Indian Air Force.

(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 7

11. Which of the following is NOT a Field Formation.

(a) Division (b) Corps (c) Brigade (d) Area HQs

12. The _____ is the main combat arm in the Indian Armyy, best arm for close battle.
(a) Infantry (b) Artillery (c) Armoured (d) Engineers

13. The Armoured Corps is one of the ___ arms of the Indian Army.
(a) Fighting (b) Support (c) Combat (d) Attacking
14.The role of ____ is to provide fire power in the battle area so that the enemy does not
interfere with our operations.
(a) Engineers (b) Artillery (c) Armoured (d) Mechanized Infantry

15. The____ is infantry with more mobility and fire power and it operates in armoured personnel
carrier (APC).
(a) Armoured (b) Artillery (c) Paratroopers (d) Mechanized Infantry

16. Defence Services plays a vital role in maintaining sovereignty and ______ of our nation
(a) Dignity (b) Government (c) Territorial integrity (d) Superiority

17. A Defence University has also been established in Binola, Gurugram District of____
(a) Delhi (b) Uttar Pradesh (c) Haryana (d) Rajasthan

18. In the Indian Army, apart from the Vice Chief of Army Staff, there are __ Deputy Chiefs of
Army Staff, who assist the Chief of Army Staff.
(a) Five (b) Two (c) Four (d) Three

19. Integrated HQ of Ministry of Defence (Army) is located at ____ _

(a) New Delhi (b) Old Delhi (c) Nizamuddin (d) Udhampur

20. The Indian Navy is the _____ largest in the world.

(a) Tenth (b) Sixth (c) Largest (d) Fourth

21. Indian Air Force is the ____ of the three Services

(a) Youngest (b) Largest (c) Smallest (d) Oldest

22. The _____ an IAS officer, acts as the administrative head of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
(a) Home Minister (b) Home Secretary (c) Chief Secretary (d) Minister of State for Home

23. Eastern Command HQ of the Indian Army is located at ___ _

(a) Kolkata (b) Shillong (c) Guwahati (d) Kohima

24. HQ Western Naval Command is located at ____ _

(a) Karwar (b) Kochi (c) Mumbai (d) Goa

25. HQ of Training Command of IAF is located at ____ _

(a) New Delhi (b) Varanasi (c) Nagpur (d) Bengaluru

26. Each state and union territory of India has a state police force, headed by a
(a) Dy Director General of Police (b) Inspector General of Police (c) Director General of Police
(d) Commissioner of Police

27. A Captain of Indian Army, in uniform, can be identified by __ star(s) on the shoulder badges.
(a) Two (b) Four (c) One (d) Three

28. Northern Command HQ of the Indian Army is located at ----

(a) Srinagar (b) Udhampur (c) Chandimandir (d) Shimla

29. Eastern Naval Command HQ is located at ____ _

(a) Visakhapatnam (b) Paradip (c) Kakinada (d) Chennai
30. HQ of Maintenance Command of IAF is located at -----
(a) Coimbatore (b) Bhubaneswar (c) Nagpur (d) Pune

31. A Head Constable of police, while in uniform, can be identified by ___ stripes on his sleeve.
(a) Three (b) Two (c) Four (d) Nil

32. HQ of Central Air Command of IAF is located at -----'

(a) Lucknow (b) Allahabad (c) New Delhi (d) Varanasi

33. District police HQ are commanded by _____ of Police.

(a) Inspector (b) DIG (c) Chief Inspector (d) Superintendent

34. Southern Command HQ of the Indian Armyy is located at ___ _

(a) Bengaluru (b) Hyderabad (c) Bhopal (d) Pune

35. Southern Naval Command HQ is located at ____ _

(a) Kochi (b) Thiruvananthapuram (c) Kanyakumari (d) Chennai

36. Indian Air Force is the world's ___ largest air force in terms of both personnel and aircraft.
(a) Largest (b) Sixth (c) Tenth (d) Fourth

37. Western Command HQ of the Indian Army is located at ___ _

(a) Chandimandir (b) Jodhpur (c) Amritsar (d) Jallandhar

38. HQ of Eastern Air Command of IAF is located at ____ _

(a) Kolkata (b) Dispur (c) Shillong (d) Jorhat

39. Strategic Forces Command HQ of the Indian Army is located at ___ _

(a) Bhopal (b) New Delhi (c) Lucknow (d) Nagpur

40. HQ of Western Air Command of IAF is located at ____ _

(a) Hissar (b) Chandi mandir (c) New Delhi (d) Jaipur

41. An Army Brigadier in uniform can be identified by __ stars and an Ashoka emblem on his
shoulder badges.
(a) Two (b) Four (c) Three (d) None

42. South-Western Command HQ of the Indian Army is located at ___ _

(a) Kota (b) Jodhpur (c) Jaisalmer (d) Jaipur

43. HQ of Southern Air Command of IAF is located at ____ _

(a) Coimbatore (b) Thiruvananthapuram (c) Bengaluru (d) Mysuru

44. A Naib Subedar of Indian Army, in uniform, can be identified by ___ star(s) along with a
yellow & red stripe on his shoulder badges.
(a) Two (b) Three (c) One (d) Nil

45. During time of need, ____ are employed in Aid to Civil Authorities
(a) Police (b) RSS (c) NGOs (d) Armed Forces
46. Training Command HQ of the Indian Army is located at ___
(a) Bengaluru (b) Shimla (c) Dehradun (d) Delhi

47. An Army Havildar in uniform can be identified by __ stripes on his sleeve.

(a) Two (b) Four (c) Three (d) Nil

48. HQ of Southwestern Air Command of IAF is located at

(a) Nashik (b) Rajkot (c) Jaipur (d) Gandhinagar

49. Andaman and Nicobar Command HQ of the Indian Army is located at

(a) Port Blair (c) Great Nicobar (b) Indira Point (d) Car Nicobar

50. Command HQs have field formations and ___ formations under them execute the role and
tasks assigned.
(a) Peace (b) Static (c) Mobile (d) Roaming

51. A Brigade is commanded by a Brigadier and has 3-4 __ under it.

(a) Battalions (b) Divisions (c) Companies (d) Platoons

52. The role of ___ is to close in with the enemy and destroy him or capture his territory.
(a) Armoured (b) Artillery (c) Engineers (d) Infantry

53. The role of __ is to provide such fire power in the battle area that enemy neither interferes
with our operations, nor develops his own effectively.
(a) Artillery (b) Infantry (c) Air Defence (d) Armoured

54. A Corps is the highest field formation, and has 3-4 ____ under its command
(a) Brigades (b) Divisions (c) Battalions (d) Groups

55. The major role of ___ is repair, recovery and maintenance of all arms, electrical, electronic
and mechanical equipment
(a) EME (b) AOC (c) AMC (d) ASC

56. Operation ___ is the name given to military action carried out in Lanka from 1987 to 1990 by
the Indian Armed Forces.
(a) Vijay (b) Colombo (c)Rakshak (d) Pawan

57. ---- Infantry operates in armoured personnel carrier (APC) which has enough protection
against small arms fire
(a) Mechanised (b) Protected (c) Modern (d) Mounted

58. _____ formations are extended all over the country and look after the infrastructural assets,
lines of communication, logistics, administration and all civil-military matters.
(a) Defensive (b) Static (c) Holding (d) Field

59. There are two types of corps, depending on their role; Holding and __
(a) Non-holding (b) Releasing (c) Pivot (d) Strike

60. A Central Armed Police Forces officer with an Ashoka emblem on his shoulder
badge is of the rank of ____ _
(a) Assistant Commandant (b) Second in Command (c) Deputy Commandant (d) Inspector
61. __ provides the security 24 by 7 all over India to Prime Minister including ex-prime Ministers
and their Family Members at any location across India.
(a) NSG (b) NIA (c) SPG (d) RAW

62. The primary task of ___ is providing industrial security

(a) CRPF (b) CISF (c) SSB (d) CEIB

63. Duration of training for NDA entry officers is ___ years at NDA and 1 year at IMA.
(a) Three (b) Four (c) Two (d) Five

64. Raised in 1986, the ____ is popularly known as the "Black Cats" for the uniform worn by its
operators.
(a) Para Commando (b) Special Forces (c) NSG (d) Vikas

65. Sub Inspectors of CAPFs are recruited through competitive examination conducted by
_____ and they are referred as DASOs.
(a) Staff Selection Commission (b) UPSC (c) NCERT (d) SSB

66. ____ comprises of light, medium and field guns, howitzers multi barrel rocket lauchers and
missiles.
(a) Mechanised Infantry (b) Armoured (c) Artillery (d) Engineers

67 1.5 years training is carried out at for IMA direct entry cadets.
(a) Chennai (b) Dehradun (c) khadakawasla (d) Gaya

68. Corps of _____ are the communicators of Indian Army and providers of Radio, Radio Relay,
data and line communication.
(a) IT (b) Telecommunications (c) EME (d) Signals

69. For NCC Special entry scheme, to join OTA Chennai, SD/SW cadet must have obtained
minimum ____ in 'C Certificate examination.
(a) A Grade (b) B Grade (c) C Grade (d) No Restriction

70. _____ is the oldest paramilitary force in India whose primary role is to protect part of India's
Northeastern borders and also the internal security
(a)BSF (b) SPG (c) ITBP (d) Assam Rifles

71. The Chief of Army Staff is of ________________rank

a) General b) Commander c) President d) Maj General

72. Supreme commander of all the armed forces is ________________

a) General b) COAS c) President d) Prime Minister

73. Army Headquarters is located at ______________

a) Pune b) Mumbai c) Bangalore d) Delhi

74. The highest rank of the Indian Army is _____________

a) Col b) Brig c) Maj Gen d) General
75. Indian Military Academy is located in
a) Pune b) Delhi c) Dehradun d) Bangalore

76. National Defence Academy is located in ____________

a) Pune b) Delhi c) Mumbai d) Bangalore

77. The senior most rank of JCO in the Army is ________________

a) Havildar b) Subedar c) Subedar Major d) Naib Subedar

78. There are ----------- number of Command HQs in the Indian Army
a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 10

79. Battalion Commander in the army is of the rank of ____________

a) Captain b) Lieutenant Colonel c) Colonel d) Lieutenant

80. The highest bravery award during war is _______________

a) PVC b) AC c) VSM d) SM

81. The highest bravery award in time of peace is __________________

a) PVC b) AC c) YSM d) SM

82. Headquarters Central Command is located at ____________

a) Pune b) Kolkata c) Lucknow d) Delhi

83. The Eastern Command Headquarters of Indian Army is in _____________

a) Udhampur b) Kolkata c) Pune d) Delhi

84. The Western Command Headquarters of Indian Army is in _____________

a) Kolkata b) Pune c) Udhampur d) Chandi Mandir

85. The Northern Command Headquarters of Indian Army is in ______________

a) Udhampur b) Pune c) Jaipur d) Kolkata

86. The Southern Command Headquarters of Indian Army is in ______________

a) Udhampur b) Pune c) Jaipur d) Kolkata

87. The South-Western Command Headquarters of Indian Army

a) Udhampur b) Pune c) Jaipur d) Kolkata

88. The army Training Command Headquarters is in _______________

a) Pune b) Delhi c) Jaipur d) Shimla

89. The present Chief of Army Staff is _________________

a) Gen Manoj Pandey b) Gen Manoj Mukund Naravane c) Gen Upendra Dwivedi d) Gen Suhag

90. The first Field Marshal of Indian Army was _____________

a) KM Cariappa b) Sam Manekshaw c) Bipin Rawat d) None of above
91. There are _____________ Infantry Sections in a Platoon
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four

92. Corps, Division & Brigade are parts of ____________

a) Army b) Navy c) Air Force d) BSF

93. The first PVC was given in __________

a) 1948 b) 1947 c) 1946 d) 1955

94. The name of our Defence Minister is ___________

a) Narendra Modi b) Rajnath Singh c) Amit Shah d) Nirmala Sitharaman

95. There are __________Operational Commands in the Indian Army

a) 7 b) 6 c) 5 d) 4

96. Vijayanta Tank was used in the Indo – Pak war of ____________
a) 1971 b) 1974 c) 1982 d) 1970

97. Infantry Battalion consist of ____________ riffle company

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

98. How many Officers are authorized in an Infantry Battalion

a) 15 b) 21 c) 24 d) 28

99. How many Jawans are there in a Section

a) 5 b) 6 c) 10 d)12

100. When was the Yudh Seva Medal introduced in the Indian Army
a) 1978 b) 1982 c)1984 d)1988

101. There are ___________ Commands of the Indian Air force

a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8

102. An Infantry Division is Commanded by an Officer of the Rank of _____________

a) Brigadier b) Colonel c) Major General d) Lieutenant General

103. The Sub area Headquarters of the army is a ___________ Unit

a) Mobile b) Static c) Semi Mobile d) None of the above

104. LMG group consist of _____________ Jawans

a) 1 b) 4 c) 3 d) 2

105. Major General of the army is equivalent to _____________ in the Navy

a) Admiral b) Vice Admiral c) Real Admiral d) Commodore

106. Sergeant rank in Navy is equivalent to ___________ rank of army.

a) Sepoy b) Naik c) Havildar d) None of above
107. The rank of ___ in the Indian Air Force equivalent to the rank of Colonel of the Indian Army
a) Wing Commander b) Squadron Leader c) Group Captain d) None of above

108. ASC, AMC and AOC are _____________

a) Supporting forces b) Fighting Forces c) Services d) none of above

109. ________________ is the smallest unit of Infantry Bn

a) Section b) Company c) Brigade d) Platoon

110. The rank of Master Warrant Officer is equivalent to which rank of the army
a) Naib Subedar b) Subedar c) Subedar Major d) None of above

111. In the order of seniority, Mahavir Chakra is on which number

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

112. When did the Kargil War take place

a) 1995 b) 1997 c) 1999 d) 2000

113. The Central Air Command of the Air Force is at

a) Lucknow b) Allahabad c) Delhi d) Agra

114. Sino Indian Operation in NEFA was in the year

a) 1965 b) 1962 c) 1990 d) 1971

115. Operation Pawan was the operation in ________ Country

a) Pakistan b) Sri Lanka c) China d) Russia

116. Artillery, Engineers are part of ___________

a) Fighting Arms b) Supporting Arms c) Services d) None of the above

117. Mechanised Infantry moves in ___________

a) APC b) Tanks c) Foot d) Aircrafts

118. _____________ is the first rank in the Navy

a) Lieutenant b) Sub Lieutenant c) Captain d) Admiral

119. ____________ is responsible to lay minefields during war

a) Corps of Engineers b) Artillery c) Signals d) Miners

120. ________ provides logistics and Equipment support during war and peace
a) AMC b) AOC c) AEC d) AAD

121. Minimum qualification for joining NDA is

a) 12th class b) Graduate c) 10th Class d) Postgraduate.

122. Age limit for NCC Special Entry Scheme is ___________

a) 18 – 22 b) 19 – 25 c) 18 – 26 d) 19 – 2
123. The two Officers Training Academies are located at _________ and __________
a) Chennai and Pune b) Chennai and Gwalior c) Chennai and Gaya d) Pune and Dehradun

124. To destroy enemy by relentless mobile and offensive action is the role of ___________.
a) Artillery b) Armoured Corps c) Engineers d) Infantry

125. Eastern Naval Command is located at _____________

a) Mumbai b) Goa c) Vishakhapatnam d) Kolkata

126. Highest rank of the Air Force is _______________

a) Air Marshal b) Air Chief Marshal c) Group Captain d) Air Commodore

127. Indian Military Academy is in _____________

a) Pune b) Bhopal c) Chennai d) Dehradun

128. The combat commands are grouped as Corps, Divisions and ____________
a) Brigades b) Corps c) Battalion d) Commandos

129. There are ____________ major fighting arms in army

a) Two b) Three c) Five d) Nine

130. Training of NCC special entry is carried out at _____________

a) OTA Chennai b) OTA Gaya c) IMA Dehradun d) NDA Pune

131. Corps Headquarters is Commanded by an officer of the rank of ___________ .

a) Lieutenant General b) Maj General c) Brigadier d) Colonel

132. Brigade is commanded by an officer of the rank of _____________

a) Maj General b) Brigadier c) Colonel d) Lt Gen

133. Indian Armed Forces Honours and awards can be divided _________ categories
a) Three b) Two c) Five d) Four

134. The Indian Navy is the ____________ largest in the world

a) Fourth b) Fifth c) Third d) Sixth

135. The Navy is divided into _____________ commands

a) Two b) Five c) Nine d) Three

136. The Air Force is organized into ___ commands which are controlled by Air Headquarters.
a) 7 b) 3 c) 9 d) 8

137. The Chief of Army Staff is the head of the _____________

a) Indian Army b) Indian Navy c) Indian Air Force d) Coast Guard

138. The Headquarters of Indian Army is located at ____________

a) Lucknow b) Kolkata c) New Delhi d) Jaipur

139. The ___________ of India is the Supreme commander of the Armed Forces
a) Prime Minister b) President c) Defense Minister d) Home Minister
 MAP READING (MR)

1. The horizontal and vertical lines, covering the complete area on a map are called
(a) Longitudes (b) Magnetic Lines (c) Grid Lines (d) Latitudes

2. Which organisation prepares the topographical maps in India for the entire country?
(a) Indian Cartographic Organisation (b) Directorate of Map Survey (c) Department of
Cartography (d) The Survey of India

3. 'Degree' is the proportion which the distances between the two points on the map relates to
the distance between the two points on the ground.
(a) True (b) False

4. A map represents selected natural and man-made features of the whole or part of the ____
on a sheet of paper.
(a) Earth's Surface (b) Landmass (c) Country (d) None of the Above

5. Symbols used to represent certain artificial or natural features/objects on the map are called
(a) Datum Points (b) Reference Points (c) Conventional Signs (d) Reference Signs

6. The science of making maps is called ___ _

(a) Scalography (b) Mapography (c) Cartography (d) Survey

7. Grid Reference should be given in the ___ format.

(a) Four Figure (b) Ten Figure (c) Six Figure (d) Any of these

8. On a map, black/red coloured vertical lines whose numbers increase from to East, are called
(a) Northings (b) Eastings (c) Grid Lines (d) Bearings

9. There are two methods of expressing a scale of the map. One of them is in Words'. What is
the other method?
(a) Representative Fraction (b) In Degrees (c) Reference Scale (d) In Distances

10. Ground which is not visible to the observer because of undulations or hills is called ____ _
(a) Unseen Ground (b) Dead Ground (c) Undulating Ground (d) No Man's Land

11. A piece of high ground jutting out of range of hills into lower ground is called
(a) Spur (b) Watershed (c) Crest (d) Ridge

12. Contour lines never touch or cross each other.

(a) TRUE (b) FALSE

13. In a Grid Reference, the first half represents the ____ value.
(a) Easting (b) Latitudinal (c) Northing (d) Longitudinal

14. If the scale of a map is 1:25,000, then 4 cm on the map will be equal to ____ on the ground.
(a) 1,00,000 centimetres (c) 1000 meters (b) One Kilometre (d) All of these

15. ____ is the angle formed by a line joining two points and the North-South line.
(a) Bearing (b) Direction Line (c) Degree Line (d) Direction Angle
16. A small, isolated hill is known as __ _
(a) Single Hill (b) Re-entrant (c) Knoll (d) Salient

17. If the map distance between two consecutive km stones on a road is 2 cm, what is the scale
of the map?
(a) 1:25,000 (b) 1:50,000 (c) 1:10,000 (d) 1 inch to 1 mile

18. A service protractor measures __ inches long and 2 inches wide

(a) Four (b) Eight (c) Five (d) Six

19. On a map, black/red coloured horizontal lines whose numbers increase from South to North,
are called ___ _
(a) Grid Lines (b) Bearings (c) Northings (d) Eastings

20. The slope of a hill expressed as a fraction is known as ____ _

(a) Defile (b) Gradient (c) Variation (d) None of these

21. Global Positioning System (GPS) is funded and controlled by the _____ Department of the
United States.
(a) Space (b) Satellite Technology (c) NASA (d) Defence

22. A map is said to be Set, when the magnetic NORTH line on the map is in the direction of
magnetic NORTH as indicated by the Compass Needle.
(a) True (b) False

23. A line drawn on the map joining up all points of equal height above sea level is called ---
(a) Elevation Line (b) Bearing Line (c) Height Line (d) Contour Line

24. The direction having a bearing of 135 degrees is ____ _

(a) North West (b) South South East (c) West North West (d) South East

25. If you walk along a ____ line, you neither gain nor loose elevation.
(a) Magnetic Line (b) Ridge Line (c) Grid Line (d) Contour Line

26. Bearings are always measured anti-clockwise direction.

(a) TRUE (b) FALSE

27. While finding own position by Resection/Compass method, if the three ray do not intersect
at the same point, a ____ is formed, the centre of which is to be taken as your own position.
(a) Rectangle of Error (b) Octagon of Error (c) Triangle of Error (d) Rectangle of Error

28. A Pointer Staff is used for _____ _

(a) Showing an object to another person (b) Showing the Bearing to another person
(c) Identifying an object by another person located at a faraway place (d) Find the angular
difference between two objects

29. A thick Blue Dot with a black boundary line shown on the map represents
(a) a Dry Well (b) a Trig Height (c) an Unwalled Well (d) a Walled Well

30. Grid Bearing is measured on the map from the Grid North with the help of a
(a) Service Protractor (b) Scale (c) Service Compass (d) Triangle
31. The rise between successive contour lines is known as the
(a) Contour Difference (b) Height Variation (c) Vertical Interval (d) Ridge Variation

32. What is the back bearing of 139 degrees?

(a) 319 degrees (b) 419 degrees (c) 289 degrees (d) 359 degrees

33. A line along a hill or range of hills or mountains from which water flows in opposite directions
is called ____ _
(a) Defile (b) Ridge (c) Plateau (d) Spur

34. The deviation of the magnetic needle in the compass from the magnetic north is called ----
(a) Magnetic Deviation (b) Magnetic Variance (c) North Error (d) Compass Error

35. The difference between True North and Magnetic North is called __ _
(a) Magnetic Variation (b) North Variation (c) Grid Convergence (d) Grid Variation

36. While finding own position by Resection/Compass method, the prominent features selected
should not be less than __ degrees apart.
(a) 120 (b) 60 (c) 30 (d) 45

37. ____ is basically a "Car Mode" App from Google for your phone; an app interface that's
optimized for driving.
(a) Android Auto (b) Google Driver (c) Android Kunjappan (d) Chrome Remote Car

38. The height of an object relative to its surroundings is depicted by __ _

(a) Trig Height (b) Refractive Height (c) Bench Mark (d) Relative Height

39. Magnetic Bearing is measured from Magnetic North by using a __ _

(a) Compass (b) Pointer (c) Protractor (d) Triangle

40. ____ is a program launched by Google Maps to enable its users to contribute to Google
Maps.
(a) Google Local Circles (b) Google Mapping Groups (c) Google Local Guides (d) Google Map
Suite

41. The difference between True North and Grid North is called ----
(a) Magnetic Variation (b) North Variation (c) Grid Convergence (d) Grid Variation

42. The direction which corresponds to a bearing of 22 ½ degrees is __ _

(a) East North East (b) North North West (c) North North East (d) West North West

43. While travelling in the North West direction, if you turn 90 degrees to your Right, which
direction will you be travelling?
(a) North (b) East (c) South West (d) North East

44. In the diagram of a Prismatic Compass given at Q No 28, identify the part marked with
number 7.
(a) Bearing Line (b) Milled Wane (c) White Line (d) Direction Mark

45. The direction which corresponds to 247 ½ degrees from the North is
(a) West South West (b) West North West (c) South South East (d) South South West
46. If Mumbai is at 201 degrees from Delhi, in which direction will Delhi be from Mumbai?
(a) 271 degrees (b) 181 degrees (c) 91 degrees (d) 21 degrees

47. If the bearing of Gorakhpur from Lucknow is 93 degrees, what is the bearing from Lucknow
from Gorakhpur?
(a) 203 degrees (b) 273 degrees (c) 183 degrees (d) 343 degrees

48. Grid references are of _________ types.

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

49. Water features in a map are shown in ___________ colour.

a) White b) Black c) Blue d) Red

50. Hairline is a part of ___________.

a) Compass b) Map c) Service Protractor d) None of above

51. The magnetic bearing of an object is 275 degree and its back bearing is_____ degree.
a) 90 b)95 c) 100 d) 105

52. The back bearing of an object is 95 degree & its magnetic bearing is ____ degree.
a) 260 b) 265 c) 270 d) 275

53. _________ describes rise & fall of ground or hills valleys.

a) Crest b) Contour c) Relief d) Spur

54. __________ lines are drawn on map joining points of equal height above sea level.
a) Contour b) Crest c) Relief d) Spur

55. The rises between successive contour lines are _________.

a) Vertical interval b) Horizontal equivalent c) Gradient d) None of above

56. The distance measured flat on the map between object contour lines is ___________.
a) Vertical interval b) Horizontal equivalent c) Gradient d) None of above

57. Clock – wise angle formed by a straight line joining two points & direction of north is called
_____.
a) Relief b) Contour c) Convex d) Bearing

58. A bearing is always measured in _________ direction.

a) Clockwise b) Anti clockwise c) Both d) None of above

59. Difference between true north & magnetic north is called ________.
a) Vertical interval b) Horizontal equivalent c) Magnetic variation d) None of above

60. North, South, East, West are called ________.

a) Cardinal points b) saddle c) Spur d) Contour
61._________ is a piece of high ground jutting out from a range of hill onto lower ground.
a) Contour b) Saddle c) Spur d) Relief

62. _________ is a long deep valley closed at one end separating two spurs.
a) Contour b) Saddle c) Spur d) Ravine

63. ________ is a network of purple lines and small squares on the map.
a) Easting line b) Northing line c) Grid line d) None of above

64. The ground not visible due to undulation or hills is ____________.

a) Broken ground b) Open ground c) High ground d) Dead ground

65. Vertical lines running from south to north on the map are known as ___________.
a) Easting line b) Northing line c) Grid line d) None of above

66. Horizontal lines running from west to east on map are known as _________.
a) Easting line b) Northing line c) Grid line d) None of above

67. _________ is a narrow passage.

a) Knoll b) Defile c) Slope d) Spur

68. ________ a rise or fall of earth’s surface.

a) Knoll b) Defile c) Slope d) Spur

69. _______ is a hill side curved inwards towards two salient points.
a) Knoll b) Re-entrant c) Slope d) Spur

70. The direction of north pole from the point is known as ___________.
a) True north b) Magnetic north c) Grid north d) None of above

71. Bearings on the map are always measured with ___________.

a) Service protractor b) Prismatic compass c) Both d) None of above

72. Bearings on the ground are measured with a _________.

a) Service protector b) Prismatic compass c) Both d) None of above

73. _________ is a line drawn on the map joining up all points of equal height above sea level.
a) Easting line b) Northing line c) Grid line d) contour line

74. ________ is the bearing taken from the observation point back on to the original position.
a) Back bearing b) Magnetic bearing c) Both d) None of above

75. _________ is used to find & maintain direction.

a) Service Protractor b) Compass c) Contours d) None of above

76. GPS was founded by ____________ department of defense.

a) India b) USA c) Pakistan d) China
77. The map which is used in map reading is called ________
a) Atlas map b) Topographical map c) Relief Map d) Road Map

78. During night navigation the measurement of distance is done by ________

a) Guide b) Assistant Guide c) Recorder d) Scout

79. How many types of slopes are there?

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

80. The angular difference between true north and magnetic North at a particular place is called.
a) Grid Bearing b) True North c) Magnetic Bearing d) Magnetic Variation

81. There are ____ main cardinal points

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

82. North is of ____ types

a) 3 b) 4 c) 6 d) 7

83. Service protractor is _____inches long & _____ inches wide.

a) 6x2 b)6x3 c)7x2 d) 6x4

84. __________ is a slope expressed as fraction.

a) Vertical interval b) Horizontal equivalent c) Gradient d) None of above

85. ________ is the highest part of a hill or mountain range.

a) Crest b) Relief c) Saddle d) Spur

86. ________ ia a low isolated hill.

a) Knoll b) Defile c) Slope d) Spur

87. Where contour lines are very close to each other, the slope is very ___________.
a) Steep b) Contour c) Saddle d) Relief

88. The direction of North Pole from any point is _____

a) all directions are south b) Defile c) North d) East

89. Line drawn on the map joining up all points of equal heights above sea level is called.
a) Vertical Interval b) Horizontal Equivalent c) Contour d) Slopes

90. A narrow ridge of highland joining up to higher hill is _________

a) A knoll b) A ridge c) Contours d) Spot height

91. A small, isolated hill is______

a) Bearing b) Contours c) Benchmark d) Knoll

92. There are ________ types of maps

a) 6 b) 8 c) 10 d) 12
93. Photograph which is taken vertically from an aeroplane is called _____
a) Atlas Map b) Relief Map c) Road Map d) Photo Map

94. The angular difference between true north and magnetic North at a particular place is called.
a) Grid Bearing b) True North c) Magnetic Bearing d) Magnetic Variation

95. The vertical distance on the ground which separates adjacent contour lines on a map is
called?
a) Gradient b) Horizontal Equivalent c) Vertical Interval d) Contour

96. The horizontal distance between any two adjacent contours is called ______
a) Horizontal Equivalent b) Vertical Interval c) Gradient d) Contour

97. What will be the degree if you are heading Northwest

a) 225 b) 315 c) 135 d) 95

98. What is the full form of GPS

a) Global Systematic System b) Global Passive System c) Global present System d) Global
Positioning System

99. How many persons are there in the navigation party

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

100. The numbers that increase from the left hand side of the map to the right hand side of the
map are called _______
a) Northing Lines b) Easting Lines c) Contour d) Knoll

101. The back bearing of an object is 70 degree & its magnetic bearing is ____ degree.
a) 230 b) 240 c) 250 d) 260

102. The back bearing of an object is 250 degree & its magnetic bearing is ____ degree.
a) 60 b) 70 c) 80 d) 90

103. Narrow ridge of high land joining up two higher hills _________.
a) Contour b) Saddle c) Spur d) Relief

104. The air force usually uses the __________ map.

a) Atlas map b) Relief map c) Million map d) Military map

105. The difference between True North and Magnetic North is called ____
a) Magnetic Variation b) Grid North c) Declination d) None of the above

106. How many degrees can be measured with the help of a Service Protractor?
a) 180 b) 240 c) 360 d) 410

107. Prismatic compass is of _______ types

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
108. The horizontal lines that increase from the bottom of the map to the top of the map are
called.
a) Easting lines b) contours c) Northing lines d) Gridlines

109. Which tool is used to measure bearings in a map

a) Service Protractor b) Compass c) Scale d) Thread

110. What helps in finding the north direction at night

a) Pointer Staff b) Service Protractor c) Map d) Pole star

111. What is the ratio of RE?

a) 1:50,000 b) 2: 50,000 c) 1: 60,000 c) 1: 40,000

112. If the forward bearing is measured 30* then what would be the back bearing?
a) 200* b) 300* c) 210* d) 310*

113. In order to find out GR which line is used first?

a) Northing line b) Easting line d) Grid conversance d) Ridge

114. Which chart is used for marching at night?

a) Service Protector b) Compass c) None of the above d) Night March Chart

115. What is the primary purpose of using a map in NCC activities?

a) To showcase artistic skills b) To find hidden treasures c) To navigate and locate specific
locations d) To practice calligraphy

116. What is the scale of a map?

a) The number of colors used in the map b) The size of the map in inches c) The proportion
between map distance and ground distance d) The number of landmarks shown on the map

117. The orientation of a map refers to:

a) The artistic style used to draw the map b) The way the map is folded c) The alignment of the
map with the cardinal directions d) The type of symbols used on the map

118. What does the symbol of a small circle with a dot in the center represent on a military map?
a) A village or settlement b) A hilltop or peak c) A bridge or river crossing d) A campsite or resting
point

119. The contour lines on a topographic map represent:

a) The different colors of the landscape b) The boundaries between countries and states c) The
elevation and relief of the terrain d) The location of major cities and towns

120. What is the purpose of using a map legend?

a) To show the distance between two points on the map b) To display the names of important
landmarks c) To explain the meaning of symbols and colors used on the map d) To indicate the
direction of travel
121. In a military map, the grid lines are used for:
a) Displaying the map title and scale b) Measuring distances between two points c) Indicating
the cardinal directions d) Locating latitude and longitude

122. What is the magnetic north arrow used for on a map?

a) To indicate the direction of magnetic north b) To display the location of the nearest magnetic
field c) To determine the elevation of the terrain d) To show the direction of the sunrise and
sunset

123. What is the term for the line connecting points of equal elevation on a map?
a) Latitude line b) Longitude line c) Contour line d) Reference line

124. What is the primary purpose of a topographic map?

a) Navigation b) Artistic representation c) Weather prediction d) Historical documentation

125. The distance between contour lines on a topographic map represents:

a) Elevation change b) Distance in kilometers c) Land ownership boundaries d) Latitude and
longitude

126. The direction between two points on a map is called:

a) Gradient b) Azimuth c) Contour interval d) Relief

127. What does the term "scale" refer to on a map?

a) The size of the paper b) The ratio of distance on the map to distance on the ground c) The
thickness of contour lines d) The type of projection used

128. Which map symbol represents a church?

a) A small cross b) A tiny circle c) A square d) A triangle with a dot inside

129. What does a double dashed line on a map usually represent?

a) River b) Railway c) Major Road d) International border

130. A "spot height" on a topographic map indicates:

a) The presence of a deep valley b) The highest point on the map c) A place of historical
significance d) The elevation of a specific point

131. A "benchmark" on a map signifies:

a) A location for geocaching b) A point with known elevation used for surveying c) A site of
archaeological importance d) A military campsite

132. What does the symbol of three connected peaks represent on a map?
a) A mountain pass b) A volcano c) A cave system d) A forested area

133. Which direction lies directly between north and east?

a) Northeast b) Southeast c) Northwest d) Southwest

134. What is the term for the angle between true north and magnetic north?
a) Deviation b) Declination c) Variation d) Inclination
135. To calculate the magnetic azimuth from a true azimuth, you need to:
a) Add the magnetic declination b) Subtract the magnetic declination c) Multiply by the magnetic
declination d) Divide by the magnetic declination

136. Which instrument is used to determine the magnetic azimuth of a direction?

a) Compass b) Protractor c) Clinometer d) Altimeter

137. In map reading, what does the term "pace count" refer to?
a) The number of steps taken in a minute b) The distance between two contour lines c) The
angle of inclination of a hill d) The number of steps to travel a certain distance

138. When using a map and compass, what does "triangulation" refer to?
a) Estimating distances using a protractor b) Determining your location by intersecting lines of
position c) Calculating elevation changes between two points d) Measuring the curvature of the
Earth

139. What is the purpose of "resection" in map reading?

a) Aiming to reach a landmark directly b) Estimating the gradient of a slope c) Finding the
magnetic declination of a location d) Determining your own location using known landmarks

140. Which map type emphasizes accurate representation of shape, but distorts area?
a) Conic projection b) Mercator projection c) Cylindrical projection d) Orthographic projection

141. When should a topographic map be oriented using a compass?

a) Always, regardless of the situation b) Only in dense forests c) When taking azimuth readings
d) When the map's orientation is uncertain

FIELD CRAFT AND BATTLE CRAFT (FC & BC)

1. ____ are very useful in tackling minor tactical problems.

(a) Field Signals (b) Battle Drills (c) Field Crafts (d) Section Formations

2. There are __ methods of Judging Distance.

(a) Six (b) Four (c) Ten (d) Three

3. The art of using the ground and the weapon to the best of one's own advantage is called ---
(a) Camouflage (b) Field Signal (c) Field Craft (d) Battle Craft

4. In the ___, you judge the distance with the help of the blade of the foresight of your weapon.
(a) Rifle Method (b) Foresight Method (c) Blade Method (d) Appearance Method
1 B 2 A 3 C 4 D S A 6 D 7 B 8 A 9 A 10 A 11 D 12 C 13 B 14 C 15 D 16 A 17 B 18 D 19 A
5. In the ___ method, the known distance of an object is used to estimate the distances of other
objects.
(a) Key Range (b) Estimation (c) Judging (d) Appearance

6. 'Unit of Measure' method is also called ' _ yards method'.

(a) 25 (b) 50 (c) 150 (d) 100
7. The full form of FC & BC is Fire Craft and Battle Craft.
(a) True (b) False
8. An object, which is important on the ground and which is used in verbal orders to explain the
ground in front is called ___ _
(a) Landmark (b) Reference Point (c) Objective (d) Conventional Sign

9. Which of these does NOT fall under the Field Craft?

(a) Section Formations (b) Visual training (c) Judging Distance (d) Fire Control

10. Dead Ground does not offer protection from - --- weapons.
(a) Artillery (b) Flat Trajectory (c) Small Arms (d) Company Support

11. A set of drills which are essential for conduct of successful operation in the battlefield is
called____
(a) Concealment (b) Tactics (c) Field Craft (d) Battle Craft

12. Ground up to 300 yards from the observer is called ----

(a) Middle Distance (b) Short Distance (c) Fore Ground (d) Middle Ground

13. Ground far above the general level of the area, which facilitates control of area around it by
observation and fire is called a ___ _
(a) Elevation (b) High Ground (c) Knoll (d) Raised Ground

14. An object, having tactical significance which is indicated with a view to bring down fire on it
is called a
(a) Landmark (b) Objective (c) Target (d) Ground of Tactical Importance

15. While indicating landmarks, if the ground all around is to be described, we start from the
____, go around to the right and finish at the GLD.
(a) Left (b) Farthest (c) Closest (d) GLD
16. In the 'Unit of Measure' method, the distance of an object will be a multiple of the imaginary
unit, as placed between the observer and the __
(a) Object (b) Flag (c) Enemy (d) Target

17. In order to camouflage a rifle, it's wooden/plastic parts should be wrapped around with ____
of suitable colour.
(a) Plastic Sheet (b) Garnish (c) Tape (d) Paint

18. While judging distances, if the sun is in the observer's eye, he tends to ______ the distance.
(a) Under-estimate (b) No effect (c) Any of these (d) Over-estimate

19 Ground that is hidden from an observer's view, and that cannot be covered by flat trajectory
weapons is called a ___ _
(a) Dead Ground (b) No Man's Land (c) High Fire Zone (d) No Fire Zone

20. In the ____ method, the maximum and minimum possible distances are worked out, and
their average is accepted as the distance of the object.
(a) Estimation (b) Company Averaging (c) Bracketing (d) Section Average

21. Field signals are alternate means of giving orders and to control troops when ___ control is
not possible.
(a) Tactical (b) Voice (c) Military (d) Line of Sight
22. A ___ is the smallest subunit of an Infantry Battalion and can undertake independent tasks.
(a) Section (b) Company (c) Group (d) Platoon

23. In the Section Average method, the mean of the distance estimated by each section of the
Rifle company is accepted as the distance.
(a) True (b) False

24. The process of keeping one element on the ground to give covering fire, while the other
element is on move, is called ____ _
(a) Covering Fire (b) One Hand on Ground (c) Grounding Oneself (d) Fire and Move

25. An even ground with little or no cover, which is not suitable for move of infantry by day is
called ___ _
(a) Open Ground (b) Middle Ground (c) Dead Ground (d) Useless Ground

26. A Section consists of ___ persons who are organized into a Rifle Group and a Support
Group.
(a) 36 (b) 50 (c) 10 (d) 16

27. Ground from 300 yards to 500 yards from the observer is called ___ _
(a) Far Distance (b) Middle Ground (c) Beyond Firing Range (d) Middle Distance

28. An uneven ground, generally scattered with nullahs, bump and fields, which is suitable for
move of infantry is called a ___ _
(a) Broken Ground (b) Useful Ground (c) Dead Ground (d) Undulating Ground

29. Unless otherwise stated, all directions are taken to be with reference to
(a) Front (b) Observer's position (c) General Line of Direction (d) North
30. ___ are the eyes and ear of the section.
(a) Weapons (b) Sentries (c) Commanders (d) Scouts

31. When there is no requirement of bringing down the maximum fire quickly following Section
Formation should NOT be used.
(a) Extended Line Formation (b) Spear Head (c) File Formation (d) Single File Formation

32. An important and unmistakable object, with the help of which you can indicate other
landmarks or targets is called a ______ _
(a) Important Landmark (b) Reference Point (c) Main Target (d) Prime Landmark

33. While indicating landmarks, we mostly start with the GLD, which is a centrally located, if
possible, a prominent landmark. What is the full form of GLD?
(a) Group Line of Direction (b) General Level of Domination (c) General Level of Distance (d)
General Line of Direction

34. No fire order can be effective unless the ___ is clearly indicated and easily recognized by
the men of the fire unit.
(a) Reference Point (b) Enemy (c) Weapon (d) Section

35. During Indication of Landmarks, 'Half Left' corresponds to __ degrees to your Left.
(a) 23 ½ (b) 45 (c) 90 (d) 60
36. There are two factors, because of which things are visible/perceivable at night One is
'Sound'. Which is the other one?
(a) Shine (b) Silhouette (c) Light (d) Noise

37. The correct sequence of giving out the Fire Control Orders is ___ _
(a) Group- Range - Indication of Target -Type of Fire
(b) Range - Group - Type of Fire - Indication of Target
(c) Indication of Target - Range -Group -Type of Fire
(d) Indication of Target - Type of Fire -Range - Group

38. Scouts work ahead of the section and advance from bound to ___ _
(a) Target (b) Bound (c) Landmark (d) High Ground

39. While indicating landmarks within an arc of boundaries, we must start describing from the __
(a) Top (b) Right (c) Left (d) Middle

40. Enemy moving in dead ground can best be engaged by ____ fire
(a) Indirect firing weapons (b) Direct firing weapons (c) MMG (d) INSAS

41. An action of misleading the enemy by concealing or misrepresenting the identity of own
troops, equipment, installations and activities is called __ _
(a) Tactics (b) Camouflage (c) Isolation (d) Concealment

42. Cover from view is often not cover from

(a) Sight (b) Observation (c) Sound (d) Fire

43. The following is not responsible for things to be seen during day.
(a) Sound (b) Light (c) Shine (d) Smoke

44. An ideal Fire Position should

(a) Be easy to advance from (b) Provide cover from view (c) Have covered approach (d) All of
these

45. When fire orders are given as an early warning so that troops can make necessary
preparations to open fire as and when enemy comes within range, are called _____ Fire Control
Orders.
(a) Full (b) Opportunity (c) Delayed (d) Brief

46. In the battlefield, a commander ensures effective fire and judicious expenditure of
(a) Time (b) Soldiers (c) Weapons (d) Ammunition

47. In battle, skilful use of ____ can help achieve surprise and save lives.
(a) Ground (b) Time (c) Rations (d) Communications

48. 'Right Hand Thumb Down, is a Field signal for ____ _

(a) Enemy in Sight (b) Tum about (c) Enemy LMG firing (d) Close
49. Identify the Knot/Lashing

(a) Figure Eight (b) Reef Knot (c) Bowline (d) Clove Hitch

50. 'Right arm raised to full above head, is a Field Signal for ___ _
(a) Advance (b) Attack (c) Close (d) Halt

51. Orders given when the target is not continuously seen by everyone in the section, are called
____ Fire Control Orders.
(a) Opportunity (b) Delayed (c) Brief (d) Full

52. During hours of poor visibility / darkness, men are jittery and tend to fire on ____ targets.
(a) Moving (b) Stationary (c) Imaginary (d) Camouflaged

53. There are certain operations which, by design are carried out in utmost silence. Which are
these?
(a) Ambush (c) Patrolling (b) Cordon (d) All of these

54. The area of ground for which the fire unit is responsible and within which it can engage
targets is called ____ _
(a) Arc of Fire (b) Firing Range (c) Field of Fire (d) Firing Area

55. Air photographs allow gradient to be seen in relief with the help of a __.
(a) Binocular (b) Stereoscope (c) Periscope (d) Stethoscope

56. Orders given when there is no time to give out a Full fire order, are called ___ Fire Control
Orders.
(a) Delayed (b) Opportunity (c) Brief (d) Full

57. On a narrow mountain track leading up to a hilltop, which section formation would you
suggest to be the best to adopt?
(a) Arrow Head Formation (b) Single File Formation (c) File Formation (d) Extended Line
Formation

58. Identify the Knot/Lashing

(a) Thumb Knot (b) Overhand Knot (c) Thief Knot (d) Reef Knot

59. Identify the Knot/Lashing

(a) Square Lashing (b) Thief Knot (c) Fisherman's Knot (d) Overhand Knot
60. Clove Hitch is used to _______ _
(a) Join ropes (b) Secure a rope to a Spar (c) Make loops in rope (d) Make rope-ends

61. Enemy patrols try to draw fire from the ___ in order to find his disposition.
(a) Own patrols (b) Defender (c) Attacker (d) Artillery Guns

62. In Fire and Move tactics, the angle of ___ should be as wide as possible without loss of
control or time.
(a) Direct Fire (b) Indirect Fire (c) Enemy Fire (d) Covering Fire

63. Identify the Knot/Lashing

(a) Clove Hitch (b) Fisherman's Knot (c) Square Lashing (d) Thief Knot

64. While going in for the final assault on an enemy position, which section formation would you
suggest to be the best to adopt?
(a) File Formation (b) Single File Formation (c) Extended Line Formation (d) Arrow Head
Formation
65. ______ is the basic skill of tactics.
(a) Field Craft (b) Fire and Move (c) Baffle Craft (d) Section Formation

66.As a rule, section commander must keep his section within range of ______ control.
(a) Visible (b) Mental (c) Radio (d) Long range weapon

67. A Section Commander will receive Fire Direction Orders from his ____ Commander.
(a) Group (b) Battalion (c) Company (d) Platoon

68. Identify the Knot/Lashing

(a) Fisherman's Knot (b) Clove Hitch (c) Square Lashing (d) Thief Knot

69. Orders given by the fire unit commander to direct and control the fire order unit are called __
(a) Fire Direction Orders (b) Fire Control Orders (c) Attack Orders (d) Firing Orders

70. Which of the following section formations should be avoided while moving through open
terrain/ plain land?
(a) Single File Formation (b) Arrow Head Formation (c) Diamond Formation (d) Spear Head
Formation

71. The following does NOT form part of Battle Craft.

(a) Field Signals (b) Fire and Move (c) Judging Distance (d) Fire Control Orders
72. If an object is large in relation to its surroundings, one tends to ___ the distance.
(a) Under-estimate (b) Over-estimate (c) Estimate correctly (d) None of these

73. Distances are under-estimated when there is a ____ ground between the observer and the
object.
(a) High (b) Jungle (c) Dead (d) Open

74. During Indication of Landmarks, 'Three quarters Right, corresponds to __ degrees to your
Right.
(a) 67 ½ (b) 22 ½ (c) 135 (d) 10

75. What is Field Craft primarily concerned with?

a) Utilizing weapons effectively b) Using terrain and weapons advantageously
c) Developing physical fitness d) Mastering communication skills

76. Which of the following is NOT a component of Field Craft?

a) Visual Training b) Target Recognition c) Hand-to-hand combat techniques
d) Fire discipline and control

77. Battle Craft drills are essential for:

a) Improving physical endurance b) Tackling minor tactical problems c) Enhancing
communication skills d) Mastering camouflage techniques

78. What is one of the methods for judging distance?

a) Tactical estimation b) Random guessing c) Bracketing d) Visual approximation

79. What does the "Key Range" method rely on?

a) Knowledge of various weapons b) The accuracy of GPS devices c) The known range of a
certain object d) Guessing based on appearances

80. Which method involves doubling the distance to a selected object to estimate the distance to
the target?
a) Bracketing b) Halving c) Key Range d) Unit of Measure

81. What is emphasized as crucial for achieving success in warfare?

a) Mastering hand-to-hand combat b) Understanding targets and mechanics of field and battle
crafts c) Memorizing military tactics d) Enhancing physical strength

82. What is the primary focus of Battle Craft?

a) Visual Training b) Utilizing terrain c) Conducting successful operations d) Camouflage
techniques

83. Which method involves selecting an object halfway between the observer and the target?
a) Bracketing b) Key Range c) Halving d) Unit of Measure

84. Which method of judging distance relies on the appearance of a target at various ranges?
a) Halving b) Appearance method c) Section average d) Bracketing

85. What is the purpose of judging distance accurately?

a) To choose the best weapon b) To decide when to open fire c) To pass back accurate
information d) All of the above
86. Which method of judging distance involves determining the maximum and minimum
possible distances of the object?
a) Bracketing b) Key Range c) Appearance method d) Section average

87. What is the primary purpose of Field Craft?

a) Conducting successful operations b) Mastering physical fitness
c) Utilizing terrain and weapons advantageously d) Enhancing communication skills

88. What method involves each man in the section judging the distance of a given object?
a) Appearance method b) Section average c) Halving d) Unit of Measure

89. What is the "Key Range" method based on?

a) Knowledge of various weapons b) Guessing based on appearances
c) The known range of a certain object d) Doubling the distance to a selected object

90. What is one of the practical hints for judging distance during the night?
a) Use the "Key Range" method b) Look for prominent objects in daylight
c) Rely on visual appearance d) Estimate based on terrain features

91. Why is it important to indicate landmarks and other objects on the ground carefully and
accurately?
a) To impress superiors b) To confuse enemies c) To ensure quick and accurate indication by
commanders and recognition by soldiers d) To create obstacles for navigation

92. What is the definition of a "Landmark"?

a) A significant event in history b) An important object on the ground used inverbal orders
c) A type of map feature d) A famous building

93. What is a "Target"?

a) An enemy soldier b) A physical goal to be reached c) An object with technical significance
indicated for fire d) A point of reference for navigation

94. How is "Reference Point" defined?

a) A point of interest for tourists b) An important location for a military base
c) A specific object used to indicate other landmarks or targets d) A point on a compass

95. What type of ground is described as "uneven and generally scattered with nullahs, bumps,
and fields"?
a) Flat and Open Ground b) High Ground c) Broken Ground d) Dead Ground

96. What type of ground is not suitable for the movement of infantry by day?
a) High Ground b) Dead Ground c) Flat and Open Ground d) BrokenGround

97. What advantage does high ground provide in a battlefield scenario?

a) Better camouflage b) Control of the area by observation or fire c) Easier movement for
infantry d) Access to water sources

98. What is "Dead Ground"?

a) Ground that is hidden from an observer's view b) Ground with no vegetation
c) Ground with high elevation d) Ground covered in debris
99. Why is it dangerous to move or take fire positions in an open area in the vicinity of the
enemy?
a) Because it's too noisy b) Because it's too hot
c) Because there's no cover from view and fire d) Because it's too crowded

100. What is the normal method of scanning and describing ground?

a) Divide and conquer b) Divide it into sections and describe systematically c) Make a rough
sketch d) Describe from left to right

101. How can easy targets be indicated?

a) Only by description b) Only by direction c) By description, direction, or range d) By using
Morse code

102. What are "Difficult Targets"?

a) Targets that are too small to see b) Targets that are hard to reach c) Targets that cannot be
indicated easily d) Targets that move quickly

103. What are the directions used for indicating targets, and what are their approximate angles?
a) North, South, East, West b) Up, Down, Left, Right c) Slight Left/Right (approximately 10
degrees), Quarter Left/Right (approximately 22.5 degrees), Half Left/Right (approximately 45
degrees), Three Quarter Left/Right (approximately 67.5 degrees), Full Left/Right (approximately
90 degrees) d) Clockwise, Counterclockwise, Diagonal

104. Why is it important for troops to clearly understand and recognize targets in war?
a) To impress the enemy b) To avoid boredom c) To achieve success in warfare d) To win
prizes

105. What is the purpose of indicating landmarks and targets accurately?

a) To confuse the enemy b) To ensure quick and accurate communication and recognition
c) To make the map look more interesting d) To increase the difficulty of navigation

106. What does the term "General Line of Direction" refer to?
a) A line drawn on a map b) The direction in which the wind is blowing c) A centrally located
prominent landmark used as a reference point d) The overall direction of movement or
observation

107. Which type of ground is described as "ground that is hidden from an observer's view"?
a) Flat and Open Ground b) High Ground c) Dead Ground d) Broken Ground

108. What is the primary concern when describing the ground in front?
a) Making it sound impressive b) Providing entertainment c) Ensuring accuracy and clarity
d) Confusing the enemy

109. How should the ground be systematically described after giving the general line of
direction?
a) From right to left b) From left to right c) Clockwise d) Counter-clockwise

110. What is the significance of a "Reference Point" in indicating targets?

a) It is used as a target itself b) It helps in identifying other landmarks or targets
c) It confuses the enemy d) It serves as a resting point for troops
111. What type of ground is described as "even ground with little cover"?
a) Broken Ground b) Dead Ground c) High Ground d) Flat and Open Ground

112. What is the primary purpose of dividing the ground into sections during description?
a) To confuse the enemy b) To create barriers for navigation c) To systematically describe the
area d) To avoid getting lost

113. What is the term for ground that cannot be covered by flat path weapons?
a) Broken Ground b) Dead Ground c) High Ground d) Flat and Open Ground

114. What is the significance of boundaries in describing the ground?

a) To confuse the enemy b) To establish a perimeter for defense c) To systematically describe
the area d) To provide reference points for navigation

115. What is the importance of clear communication in indicating targets?

a) It confuses the enemy b) It ensures quick and accurate response
c) It slows down the process d) It increases the likelihood of errors

116. What is the origin of the term "camouflage"?

a) German b) English c) French d) Latin

117. Which of the following factors does NOT contribute to visibility?

a) Shine b) Smell c) Shadow d) Sound

118. What are the two factors responsible for making things visible at night?
a) Heat and humidity b) Sound and light c) Shape and surface d) Shine and shadow

119. What is the primary objective of personal camouflage?

a) To increase visibility b) To deceive the enemy c) To attract attention d) To enhance comfort

120. Which method is NOT mentioned as a way to achieve personal camouflage?

a) Use of disruptive pattern b) Wearing bright colors c) Camouflage of face d) Camouflage of
equipment

121. What is used to reduce shine on metal parts of rifles?

a) Oil b) Paint c) Phosphate coating d) Varnish

122. How is the outline of backpacks camouflaged?

a) By painting them in bright colorsb) By covering them with hessian cloth
c) By tying ropes andattaching vegetationd) By adding reflective strips

123. Which type of cover protects a concealed person from both view and enemy fire?
a) Cover from view b) Cover from fire c) Look through cover d) Isolated cover

124. What is recommended when looking through or around cover?

a) Look over it b) Look under it c) Look through binoculars d) Look around it

125. Why is isolated cover considered dangerous?

a) It attracts wildlife b) It provides inadequate protection c) It offers perfect concealment
d) It enhances visibility
126. What is the modern adaptation of the saying "If it can be seen, it can be hit, if it can be hit it
can be killed"?
a) "If it can be seen, it will be killed" b) "If it can be seen, it can be avoided" c) "If it can be seen,
it can be captured" d) "If it can be seen, it can be tracked"

127. What isthe importance of camouflage and concealment in modern warfare?

a) They are obsolete tactics b) They are unnecessary burdensc) They are crucial for survival
d) They are optional strategies

128. What is the primary benefit of emphasizing the art of camouflage and concealment?
a) Enhanced comfort b) Tactical advantage c) Improved communication d) Better equipment

129. What is the primary aim of infantry operations?

a) To retreat from the enemy b) To engage in long-range combat c) To close in with and destroy
the enemy d) To establish diplomatic relations with the enemy

130. What tactic is employed when cover is denied by the enemy?

a) Retreat and regroup b) Fire and movement c) Surrender d) Call for air support

131. What does "fire and movement" involve?

a) Firing at random while staying still b) Advancing without providing covering fire
c) Providing covering fire while advancing d) Withdrawing from the battlefield

132. Which of the following is a method of conveying messages in the army?

a) Smoke signals b) Carrier pigeons c) Morse code d) All of the above

133. When is field signals used as an alternate means of giving orders?

a) Only during peacetime b) When voice control is not possible
c) When written orders are unavailable d) Only during nighttime operations

134. What method is used to attract the attention of troops before executing field signals?
a) Yelling loudly b) Playing music c) Short blasts of a whistle d) Igniting a bonfire

135. Which of the following is not a method of attracting attention of troops?

a) Bird call b) Clicks by fingers c) Shouting loudly d) Using tongue clicks

136. What visual signals are used during the day?

a) Morse code b) Mercury coated mirrors c) Whistle blasts d) Radio sets

137. Which method is used for field signals at night?

a) Smoke signals b) Morse code c) Colour light d) Flags

138. What is the primary aim of using field signals?

a) To confuse the enemy b) To ensure effective communication c) To entertain troops d) To
create chaos
139. How is the tactic of "fire and movement" described?
a) Advancing without firing b) Firing without advancing c) Advancing while providing covering
fire d) Advancing while retreating

140. What is the signal for "Halt"?

a) Both arms raised to form the letter U b) Right arm fully extended above the head &waved
from side-to-side c) Right arm raised to full extent above head d) Right hand placed on top of
head, elbow to the right

141. What is the signal for "Advance" using weapons?

a) Rifle held above the head parallel to the small number muzzle in the direction of the enemy
b) Both arms raised to form the letter U c) Short blasts of a whistle d) Clicks by fingers

142. How is the signal for "Enemy in Sight in largenumber" given with weapons?
a) A succession of short blasts b) Rifle held above the head c) Both arms raised to form the
letter U d) As per (b) above, but arm moved up and several times

143. What does a short blast of a whistle typically signify?

a) The presence of enemy aircraft b) Enemy approaching c) A cautionary signal d) Enemy
aircraft departed

144. What does asuccession of alternate long and short whistle blastssignify?
(a) Alarm Blast (b) Cautionary Blast (c) Enemy aircraft approaching (d) None of these

145. What are the four basic factors determining the type of formation adopted by a section in
contact with the enemy?
a) Terrain, weather, time of day, troop morale b) Degree of control, type of ground, necessity of
rapid fire, task c) Weapon availability, enemy strength, ammunition supply, communication
d) Section size, unit commander preference, historical precedent, enemy tactics

146. What is the smallest subunit of an Infantry Battalion capable of undertaking independent
tasks?
a) Battalion Group b) Platoon c) Section d) Squad

147. How many peopletypically make up a Section?

a) 5 b) 8 c) 10 d) 12

148. What is the main role of Scouts within a section?

a) Engage the enemy in close combat b) Provide covering fire for advancing troops
c) Serve as the eyes and ears of the section d) Carry out reconnaissance behind enemy lines

149. Which formation is particularly vulnerable to frontal fire but offers better control and speed?
a) Spear Head b) Diamond c) Single File d) File

150. Which type of fire control order is given as an early warning when the enemy is seen
approaching at a longer range?
a) Full Fire Control Orders b) Delayed Fire Control Orders c) Opportunity Fire Control Orders
d) Brief Fire Control Orders
151. When is it important to exercise good fire discipline to prevent premature disclosure of the
defender’s position?
a) During hours of good visibility b) When enemy patrols are absent
c) During hours of poor visibility/darkness d) When friendly reinforcements arrive

152. What is the catchword used to remember the sequence for giving fire control orders?
a) SHOOT b) FIRE c) GRIT d) AIM

153. What does the "G" stand for in the GRIT sequence for giving fire control orders?
a) Group b) Gauge c) Gear d) Ground

154. Which type of fire control orders are given when fire is to be brought down immediately on
a target within the effective range of weapons?
a) Delayed Fire Control Orders b) Full Fire Control Orders c) Opportunity Fire Control Orders
d) Brief Fire Control Orders

155. Which type of cover is often not cover from fire but may provide concealment from view?
a) Woods b) Hedges c) Sunken roads d) Buildings

156. What is the primary purpose of using fire and movement tactics?
a) To engage the enemy in close combat b) To maximize ammunition expenditure
c) To achieve surprise and minimize casualties d) To test the enemy's defensive capabilities

157. In what circumstances may fire and movement tactics be used?

a) When enemy patrols are sighted nearby b) When the enemy's position is well-fortified
c) When the enemy has opened effective small arms fire d) When friendly troops are conducting
reconnaissance

158. What is one of the basic considerations for fire and movement tactics?
a) All troops must remain stationary until enemy fire ceases b) Movement should be conducted
only under the cover of darkness c) Troops should advance cautiously without engaging the
enemy d) No movement on exposed ground without covering fire

159. What is the term for ground which a soldier cannot see from his position?
a) Invisible ground b) Concealed ground c) Dead ground d) Hidden ground

161. How should maps and air photographs be used to obtain the best picture of the ground?
a) Independently b) Sequentially c) Separately d) Together

162. What should a fire position ideally provide?

a) A clear line of retreat b) A wide-open field of fire c) A covered approach d) A direct line of
sight to the enemy

163. What is the main distinction between fire control in attack and in defense?
a) In attack, troops have more freedom to engage targets b) In defense, troops must conserve
ammunition more strictly c) In attack, early opening of fire is less crucial than in defense

164. When should troops advancing by day in action move at a brisk walking pace?
a) Until they make contact with the enemy b) Until they reach the objective
c) Until they encounter an obstacle d) Until they receive orders to halt
165. What category does the soldiers fall into based on their mastery of camouflage and
concealment?
a) "The visible and the invisible" b) "The seen and the unseen" c) "The exposed and the
protected" d) "The good and the dead"

166. Which type of cover only conceals a person from view and not from enemy fire?
a) Cover from fire b) Cover from view c) Look through cover d) Isolated cover

167. What is the primary purpose of camouflaging equipment?

a) To increase its weight b) To reduce its effectiveness c) To enhance its visibility
d) To decrease its visibility

168. What method is NOTsuggested for camouflaging equipment?

a) Breaking its outline b) Preventing shine c) Using bright colors d) Blending with surroundings

169.Which type of cover is advised to be avoided due to its susceptibility to enemy detection?
a) Cover from view b) Cover from fire c) Isolated cover d) Look through cover

170. What is the relationship between visibility and vulnerability in modern warfare?
a) They are inversely proportional b) They are unrelated c) Visibility increases vulnerability
d) Vulnerability increases visibility

171. What is the purpose of using a Clove Hitch knot?

a) To join two ropes together b) To create a loop that will not slip c) For securing a rope to a
spar d) To prevent the rope from fraying

172. Which knot is used to prevent the end of the rope from fraying?
a) Bowline b) Figure Eight c) Thumb Knot d) Fisherman’s Knot

173, What is the primary use of a Square Lashing?

a) To join poles at right angles b) To create a loop on a rope end c) To secure a rope to a
stationary object d) To tie two ropes of equal thickness together

174. A scoop stretcher is particularly useful for:

a) Carrying patients over long distances b) Moving patients through confined spaces
c) Lifting patients with minimal movement d) Transporting equipment

175. What is the primary function of frapping turns in lashing?

a) To prevent the ends of the rope from fraying b) To create decorative knots
c) To pull the lashing tight d) To form loops on the rope

176. Which knot is used to securely join two ropes of equal thickness together?
a) Reef Knot b) Thief Knot c) Fisherman’s Knot d) Overhand Knot

177. What is a key feature of a flexible stretcher like the Reeves Sleeve?
a) It has wheels for easy movement b) It can be split into two halves
c) It is supported by wooden or plastic planks d) It includes a variable-height frame

178. The primary use of a Figure Eight knot is:

a) To join two ropes together b) To create an ornamental stop knot c) To secure a rope to a spar
d) To create a loop that will not slip
179. Which stretcher is designed to accommodate an adult in a face-up position and is used in
search and rescue operations?
a) Simple Stretcher b) Scoop Stretcher c) Litter d) Wauk Board

180. What does the letter "F" stand for in the context of tying knots?
a) Fixed end b) Free end c) Fastened end d) Final end

181. What is the purpose of a Thief Knot?

a) To secure a rope to a spar b) To create a non-slip loop c) To tie two ropes so they appear as
a reef knot d) To make a decorative knot

182. The WauK board is especially useful for:

a) Creating a loop on a rope end b) Moving patients through tight stairwells
c) Joining two ropes together d) Creating a stop knot

183. Which of the following is NOT a use for a clove hitch?

a) Securing a rope to a spar b) Preventing rope from slipping on a smooth surface
c) Starting lashings d) Creating a loop that will not slip

184. Which knot is most suitable for joining two springy materials like wire or fishing gut?
a) Reef Knot b) Thief Knot c) Fisherman’s Knot d) Bowline

185. What type of stretcher is designed to be used in small spaces and can be maneuvered by
one person?
a) Simple Stretcher b) Litter c) WauK Board d) Scoop Stretcher

186. What is the main advantage of a Figure Eight knot over a Thumb Knot?
a) Easier to tie b) More decorative c) Easier to undo d) Stronger grip

187. The primary use of a Bowline knot is to:

a) Prevent a rope end from fraying b) Secure a rope to a stationary object
c) Create a loop that will not slip d) Join two ropes of equal thickness

188. Which knot is often used by sailors to tie their sea chests?
a) Reef Knot b) Fisherman’s Knot c) Thief Knot d) Overhand Knot

189. What is the key value of a collapsible wheeled stretcher in ambulances?

a) It is lightweight and portable b) It can be split into two halves c) It facilitates moving the
patient onto a fixed bed or table d) It includes a removable head/torso cover
 INTRODUCTION TO INFANTRY WEAPONS AND EQUIPMENT

1. When we refer to types of ammunition, the full form of HE is ----·

(a) Heat Equipment (b) His Excellency (c) High Energy (d) High Explosive

2. In 5.56 mm INSAS Rifle, there are __ modes of fire

(a) 03 (b) 01 (c) 02 (d) 04

3. There are __ positions of the Safety Catch on 5.56 mm INSAS Rifle

(a) 02 (b) 04 (c) 05 (d) 03

4. In the options given below, ___ is NOT one of the capabilities of an Infantry bn.
(a) Hold Ground (b) Fire Power (c) Self Reliance (d) Adaptability

5. The 84mm Rocket Launcher can fire_ types of ammunition?

(a) 04 (b) 05 (c) 03 (d) 02

6. ____ number of rounds are filled in the magazine of 7 .62mm LMG

(a) 20 (b) 40 (c) 30 (d) 15

7. The maximum range of 81 mm Mortar is __ metres.

(a) 5200 (b) 4500 (c) 6400 (d) 3000

8. Fromm the options given below __ is NOT one of the Company Weapons.
(a) 7.62mm Sniper Rifle (b) 81mm Mortar (c) 30mmMGL (d) 7.62mm MMG

9. The calibre of Rocket Launcher held with Infantry Battalion is __ _

(a) 100 mm (b) 7.62 m (c) 20 mm (d) 84 mm

10. The normal rate of fire of 5.56 mm INSAS rifle is rounds/minute.

(a) 80 (b) 40 (c) 60 (d) 90

11. The length of 0.22 mm Rifle is. __ _

(a) 43.5 in (b) 40 in (c) 35 in (d) 30 in

12. The maximum range of Anti-Tank Guided Missile held with an Infantry Bn is __ metres.
(a) 4500 (b) 3500 (c) 1500 (d) 2500

13. The Muzzle Velocity of 5.56 mm INSAS rifle is __ metre/sec.

(a) 1200 (b) 1000 (c) 900 (d) 2700

14. The back blast area of 84 mm Rocket Launcher is metres.

(a) 15 (b) 20 (c) 10 (d) 25

15. The number of grooves in the barrel of 7.62mm LMG is __ _

(a) 04 (b) 07 (c) 05 (d) 06

16. In the options given below, __ is not a part of 5.56 INSAS Rifle.
(a) Barrel (b) Gas Plug (c) Tripod (d) Magazine
17. The normal rate of fire of 7.62mm MMG is __ rounds per minute.
(a) 200 (b) 100 (c) 250 (d) 150

18. The effective range of 7.62mm IMG on tripod is __ _

(a) 1000 metre (b) 300 metre (c) 1500 metre (d) 400 metre

19. There are __ Rifle Companies in a standard Infantry Bn.

(a) 05 (b) 03 (c) 04 (d) 06

20. From a safety point of view, the minimum range of 81 mm Mortars is __ metres.
(a) 120 (b) 90 (c) 80 (d) 100

21. What is the primary role of an infantry battalion?

a) To provide medical support b) To close in with and destroy or capture the enemy and hold
ground c) To conduct reconnaissance missions d) To support artillery units

22. What is the caliber of the 81mm Mortar used by an infantry battalion?
a) 75mm b) 81mm c) 105mm d) 120mm

23. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the 7.62mm Dragunov Sniper Rifle?
a) Range with telescope sight - 1300m b) Weight - 4.3kg c) Magazine capacity - 20 Rounds
d) Ammunition includes Armor Piercing, Sniper Balls, Steel Core, Tracer, Incendiary

24. What is the maximum effective battle range of the 7.62mm Medium Machine Gun?
a) 1200m b) 1800m c) 1500m d) 1000m

25. The effective range of the 5.56mm INSAS Rifle is:

a) 300m b) 500m c) 400m d) 600m

26. Which of the following is a company support weapon?

a) 5.56mm INSAS Rifle b) 81mm Mortar c) 7.62mm Dragunov Sniper Rifle d) Anti-Tank Guided
Missile (ATGM)

27. What is the rate of fire for the 7.62mm Medium Machine Gun in rapid mode?
a) 100 rounds per minute b) 200 rounds per minute c) 300 rounds per minute
d) 400 rounds per minute

28. The 84mm Rocket Launcher can fire which types of ammunition?
a) Ball Round, Tracer Round, Blank Round, High Density Cartridge b) HEAT, HE, Smoke,
Illumination c) Armor Piercing, Sniper Balls, Steel Core, Tracer, Incendiary d) Fragmentation
Grenade, Smoke Grenade, Flash Grenade

29. Which of the following is NOT a capability of an infantry battalion?

a) Self-reliance b) Ability to hold ground c) Adaptability d) Invisibility

30. The 30mm Automatic Grenade Launcher has a killing area of:
a) 5m all around the point of burst b) 10m all around the point of burst
c) 7m all around the point of burst d) 15m all around the point of burst
31. What is the weight of the 5.56mm INSAS Rifle with a loaded magazine?
a) 3.6kg b) 3.69kg c) 4.0kg d) 4.3kg

32. What is the minimum range of the Anti-Tank Guided Missile (ATGM)?
a) 50m b) 100m c) 75m d) 150m

33. The infantry battalion's capability of holding ground effectively with or without outside
support is known as:
a) Mobility b) Adaptability c) Self-reliance d) Ability to Hold Ground

34. The 7.62mm Medium Machine Gun can maintain normal rate of fire indefinitely with barrel
changes after how many belts?
a) 2 belts b) 3 belts c) 4 belts d) 5 belts

35. Which company support weapon has a weight of 16kg with mount and telescopic sight?
a) 7.62mm Dragunov Sniper Rifle b) 7.62mm Medium Machine Gun
c) 30mm Automatic Grenade Launcher d) 84mm Rocket Launcher

36. The rate of fire of the 81mm Mortar in rapid mode is:
a) 6-8 rounds per minute b) 9-11 rounds per minute c) 12-20 rounds per minute
d) 20-30 rounds per minute

37. The Anti-Tank Guided Missile (ATGM) has a hit probability of:
a) 80% to 85% b) 90% to 96% c) 70% to 75% d) 95% to 99%

38. Which part of the 5.56mm INSAS Rifle should NOT be oiled?
a) Complete breech box less its face b) Magazine Catch c) Trigger mechanism d) Barrel

39. What is the maximum range of the 30mm Automatic Grenade Launcher?
a) 1200m b) 1300m c) 1500m d) 1700m

40. What is the rate of fire for the 5.56mm INSAS Rifle in intense mode?
a) 60 rounds/min b) 90 rounds/min c) 120 rounds/min d) 150 rounds/min

41. What is the muzzle velocity of the 81mm Mortar?

a) 250 m/sec b) 275 m/sec c) 300 m/sec d) 305 m/sec

42. Which type of ammunition is NOT used in the 5.56mm INSAS Rifle?
a) Ball Round b) Tracer Round c) Blank Round d) Armor Piercing

43. The elevation limit of the 81mm Mortar is:

a) 30 degrees to 85 degrees b) 45 degrees to 85 degrees c) 50 degrees to 90 degrees
d) 40 degrees to 90 degrees

44. The effective range of the 84mm Rocket Launcher for stationary targets with HEAT
ammunition is:
a) 300m b) 400m c) 500m d) 600m

45. What is the maximum range of the Anti-Tank Guided Missile (ATGM)?
a) 2000m b) 2500m c) 3000m d) 3500m
 MILITARY HISTORY (MH)

1. The famous battle of ______ was fought between Rajput and Mughal Army.
(a) Dobhigati (b) Haldighati (c) Mewar (d) Jaipur

2. Who had the title 'Shahanshah' in India?

(a) Shahjahan (b) Aurangzeb (c) Akbar (d) Humayun

3. The First Kashmir War took place in __ _

(a) 1947 (b) 1965 (c) 1934 (d) 1971

4. Name of the local group of freedom fighters who fought alongside the Army during the 1971
Bangladesh war was ______ _
(a) Bangla Bandhu (b) Bengal Liberation Tigers (c) Bengal Tigers (d) Mukti Vahini

5. Which new country was born after the 1971 War?

(a) Bangladesh (b) Nepal (c) Pakistan (d) Bhutan

6. In 1947, Who was the Maharaja of Kashmir?

(a) Guiab Singh (b) Kewal Singh (c) Ranjit Singh (d) Hari Singh

7. The name of the military operation launched by Pakistan in 1965 to support insurgency in
Jamrnu and Kashmir was called Operation ___ _
(a) Gibralter (b) Pawan Putra (c) Safed Sagar (d) Sher-e-Kashmir

8. Which Hindu king was known as 'Chhatrapati'.

(a) Baji Rao (b) Krishnadevaraya (c) Shivaji (d) Akbar

9. In 1962, Indian Navy was deployed in the ___ area of the border.
(a) Sikkim (b) Arunachal Pradesh (c) Ladakh (d) None of these

10. The Pakistan Army officer who signed the 'Instrument of Surrender' in Dhaka on 16
December 1971 was _______ _
(a) Lt Gen Zulfikar Khan (b) Lt Gen AAK Niazi (c) Lt Gen Shehnaz Khan (d) Lt Gen Yahya Khan

11. Who was the President of Pakistan during the 1971 War?
(a) Mujib-ur-Rehman (b) Zulfikar Ali Bhutto (c) Benazir Bhutto (d) Yahya Khan

12. Who was the Indian Prime Minister during the 1965 war
(a) Shri Jagjivan Ram (b) Shri L B Shastry (c) Smt Indira Gandhi (d) Shri Jawaharlal Nehru

13. In 1962, Indian Air Force was deployed in the __ area of the border.
(a) Sikkim (b) Arunachal Pradesh (c) Ladakh (d) None of these

14. Maharana Pratap Singh was born in ____ _

(a) Rajasthan (b) Haryana (c) Punjab (d) Jammu

15. First Indian Chief of Army Staff of Independent India was ____ _
(a) VK Raina (b) SFJ Manekshaw (c) SJ Rodrigues (d) KM Cariappa
16. During the Kargil war, who was the Prime Minister of Pakistan?
(a) Mr Asif Zardari (b) Mr Nawaz Sharif (c) Gen Parvez Musharaff (d) Mr Liyakat Ali Khan

17. Kargil war took place in the year ________

(a) 1971 (b) 1988 (c) 1999 (d) 1984

18. The area held by India at the end of First Kashmir War includes __ _
(a) Kashmir Valley (b) Ladakh (c) Jammu (d) All of these

19. The Siachen War between India and Pakistan took place in __ _
(a) 1971 (b) 1962 (c) 1984 (d) 1999

20. The motif of Vajra, on the face of PVC medal, is inspired by the sacrifice of _____ rishi/
sage?
(a) Parashuram (b) Dadhichi (c) Valmiki (d) Agasthya

21. The Siachen War between India and Pakistan was code named as 'Operation ________.’
(a) Rakshak (b) White Cloud (c) Meghdoot (d) Safed Sagar

22. The 'Tashkent Declaration' was issued at the end of War.

(a) 1962 (b) 1965 (c) 1971 (d) 1999

23. On 16 December 1971, more than ____ Pakistani soldiers surrendered at Dhaka.
(a) 90,000 (b) 25,000 (c) 50,000 (d) 1,00,000

24. The piece of Kashmir occupied by Pakistan is called _____ _

(a) Azad Kashmir (b) POK (c) Pakistan Occupied Kashmir (d) All of these

25. Battle of Tololing was part of the

(a) Indo-Pak War 1971 (b) Indo- Pak War 1965 (c) Kargil War (d) Inda-China War 1962

26. ______________ Was the first Mughal ruler of INDIA

a) Babur b) Akbar c) Shahjahan d) Sher Shah

27. First world war was fought from the year _______ to _______
a) 1916 to 1918 b) 1914 to 1918 c) 1915 to 1918 d) 1919 to 1920

28. The Kargil War was fought in the year ___________

a) 1998 b) 1996 c) 1999 d) 1971

29. Kargil war was also referred to as ___________

a) Operation Polo b) Operation Vijay c) Operation Blue Star d) Operation Pawan

30. Sino-Indian Operations in NEFA (Arunachal) and Ladakh was in ______________Year.

a) 1947 b) 1962 c)1971 d) 1999

31. Field marshal Sam Manekshaw was born on 3 April 1914 in ___________
a) Kanpur b) Chandigarh c) Amritsar d) Delhi

32. During the Indo-Pakistan war of 1971, ___________ was the prime minister of India
a) Jawaharlal Nehru b) Indira Gandhi c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee d) Rajiv Gandhi
33. ___________ Indian Army officers hold the highest rank of Field Marshal till date
a) Three b) Two c) Five d) One

34. In which year the atomic bombs in Hiroshima and Nagasaki were dropped.
a) 1945 b) 1947 c) 1948 d) 1952

35. Third battle of Panipat was fought in ____________

a) 1765 b) 1761 c) 1766 d) 1947

36. For the first time India a nuclear device tested at ___________.
a) Pokhran b) BARC c) Jammu d) Chandipur

37. Gun powder in battle for the first time in India was used by ___________
a) Akbar b) Babar c) Birbal d) Sher Shah

38. ____________ agreement was signed between India and Pakistan in 1965
a) Tashkent b) Mac Mohan Line c) Lahore d) Kashmir

39. Who was the first awardee of Param Vir Chakra

a) Maj Somnath Sharma b) Maj Hoshiyar Singh c) Lt Arun Khetrapal d) Sub Bana Singh

40. Goa got liberated from the Portuguese in the year _______
a) 1961 b) 1963 c) 1942 d) 1947

41. What is the primary focus of military history?

A. Economics and trade B. Cultural festivals C. Armed conflicts and their impact
D. Technological advancements

42. According to historian John Keegan, what is the written history of the world largely a history
of?
A. Trade B. Warfare C. Agriculture D. Diplomacy

43. Which nation is mentioned as being forged by the Revolutionary War?

A. India B. United States C. Great Britain D. France

44. Which leader is NOT mentioned as being best remembered for their contribution in wars?
A. Abraham Lincoln B. Winston Churchill C. Indira Gandhi D. Mahatma Gandhi

45. When was Field Marshal K.M. Cariappa born?

A. 28 January 1899 B. 15 May 1899 C. 15 January 1949 D. 28 May 1993

46. Field Marshal Cariappa was the first Indian officer to hold which rank?
A. General B. Major General C. Field Marshal D. Lieutenant General

47. In which war did Field Marshal Cariappa lead the Indian forces on the Western Front?
A. Indo-China War B. Indo-Pakistan War of 1947-48 C. World War II D. Kargil War

48. Which regiment did Cariappa serve with permanently?

A. Carnatic Infantry B. 37 (Prince of Wales) Dogra C. 2nd Queen Victoria's Own Rajput Light
Infantry D. 16th Punjab Regiment
49. Cariappa was the first Indian officer to undergo a course at which college in 1933?
A. Sandhurst B. Staff College, Quetta C. West Point D. Cranwell

50. After retiring from the Indian Army, Cariappa served as the high commissioner to which
countries?
A. Australia and New Zealand B. United Kingdom and Canada C. United States and Mexico
D. France and Germany

51. When was Field Marshal Sam Manekshaw born?

A. 3 April 1914 B. 27 June 2008 C. 28 January 1899 D. 15 May 1993

52. Manekshaw was the first Indian officer to be promoted to which rank?
A. General B. Lieutenant General C. Field Marshal D. Major General

53. Which military academy did Manekshaw join in 1932?

A. Sandhurst B. Indian Military Academy C. West Point D. Cranwell

54. During World War II, Manekshaw was awarded which honor for gallantry?
A. Victoria Cross B. Distinguished Service Order C. Military Cross D. Padma Bhushan

55. Manekshaw led the Indian Army to victory in which war?

A. Indo-Pakistani War of 1965 B. Indo-China War of 1962 C. Indo-Pakistani War of 1971
D. Kargil War

56. What nickname was Manekshaw popularly known by?

A. Sam the Brave B. Kipper C. Chesty D. Black Jack

57. When was Marshal of the Air Force Arjan Singh born?
A. 3 April 1914 B. 15 April 1919 C. 28 January 1899 D. 27 June 2008

58. Arjan Singh was promoted to five-star rank in which year?

A. 1965 B. 1971 C. 1986 D. 2002

59. Arjan Singh led No. 1 Squadron of the Indian Air Force during which campaign in 1944?
A. North African Campaign
B. Arakan Campaign
C. Burma Campaign
D. Italian Campaign

60. Which honor was awarded to Arjan Singh in 1944?

A. Victoria Cross B. Distinguished Service Order C. Distinguished Flying Cross
D. Military Cross

61. Which position did Arjan Singh hold from 1964 to 1969?
A. Chief of Army Staff B. Chief of Naval Staff C. Chief of the Air Staff D. High Commissioner to
Kenya

62. In which year did Arjan Singh retire from the Indian Air Force?
A. 1969 B. 1971 C. 1986 D. 2002
63. Arjan Singh served as the Ambassador to which country in 1971?
A. United Kingdom B. Switzerland C. Australia D. Canada

64. How many major wars has the Indian Army fought with its neighboring countries?
A) Three B) Four C) Five D) Six

65. With which country has India fought four wars?

A) China B) Pakistan C) Bangladesh D) Sri Lanka

67. What is the highest military decoration awarded by India for valour or self-sacrifice?
A) Ashoka Chakra B) Param Vir Chakra C) Maha Vir Chakra D) Vir Chakra

68. How many times has the Param Vir Chakra been awarded?
A) 21 B) 14 C) 25 D) 30

69. Who designed the Param Vir Chakra medal?

A) Savitri Khanolkar B) Major General Hira Lal C) Captain Vikram Batra D) Lt Col A B Tarapore

70. What does the Param Vir Chakra medal symbolize?

A) Bravery B) Sacrifice C) Victory D) Both A and B

71. How many of the Param Vir Chakra awards have been posthumous?
A) 7 B) 10 C) 14 D) 18

72. Who was the first recipient of the Param Vir Chakra?
A) Naik Jadunath Singh B) Major Somnath Sharma C) Captain Vikram Batra D) Lance Naik
Karam Singh

73. Major Somnath Sharma was awarded the Param Vir Chakra for his actions in which
location?
A) Ladakh B) Badgam, Kashmir C) Tithwal sector, J&K D) Naushera, Kashmir

74. Which regiment did Company Havildar Major Piru Singh belong to?
A) 6 Rajputana Rifles B) 13 Kumaon Regiment C) 1 Sikh D) 4 Grenadiers

75. During which operation did Major Dhan Singh Thapa receive the Param Vir Chakra?
A) Operation Vijay B) Indo-Pakistani War of 1947 C) Sino-Indian War D) Kargil War

76. Which Indian Army officer was called 'Sher Shah' by the Pakistani Army?
A) Major Somnath Sharma B) Captain Vikram Batra C) Major Hoshiar Singh D) Lt Col A B
Tarapore

77. Where was Major Shaitan Singh awarded the Param Vir Chakra posthumously?
A) Tawang, Arunachal B) Rezang La, Ladakh C) Phillora, Sialkot D) Gangasagar, Agartala

78. Which battalion was Captain Vikram Batra a part of during the Kargil War?
A) 17 Poona Horse B) 13 JAK Rifles C) 1/11 Gorkha Rifles D) 14 Guards
79. What was the heroic action of Major Hoshiar Singh that led to him receiving the Param Vir
Chakra?
A) Defending Rezang La B) Capturing a strategic position in Shakargarh sector
C) Leading an attack in the Tithwal sector D) Saving his company from a Pakistani ambush

80. Captain Vikram Batra was posthumously awarded the Param Vir Chakra for his actions
during which war?
A) Indo-Pakistani War of 1971 B) Kargil War C) Sino-Indian War D) Operation Pawan

81. Which unit did Major Shaitan Singh command during the battle of Rezang La?
A) 17 Poona Horse B) 13 Kumaon C) 6 Rajputana Rifles D) 1 Sikh

82. What was Major Ramaswamy Parameswaran awarded the Param Vir Chakra for?
A) His actions in Sri Lanka (Operation Pawan) B) His actions in Ladakh
C) His actions in Naushera, Kashmir D) His actions in Shakargarh sector

83. How many children were there in Piru Singh's family?

A) Five B) Six C) Seven D) Eight

84. Which sport was Piru Singh's favourite during his youth?
A) Cricket B) Shikar C) Kabaddi D) Hockey

85. What phrase did Captain Vikram Batra use during his final mission?
A) "Jai Hind!" B) "Jai Mata Di" C) "Bharat Mata Ki Jai" D) "Victory is ours"

86. How many Pakistani soldiers did Captain Vikram Batra single-handedly kill in close combat
during the Kargil War?
A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four

87. What is the approximate height of Rezang La where Major Shaitan Singh fought?
A) 4,000 meters B) 5,000 meters C) 6,000 meters D) 7,000 meters

88. Which areas experienced the most intense communal riots during partition?
A) Delhi and Mumbai B) Punjab and Bengal C) Kerala and Tamil Nadu D) Gujarat and
Rajasthan

89. In which month and year did Pakistani troops cross into Kashmir for the first time after
partition?
A) October 1947 B) September 1948 C) November 1947 D) December 1948

90. What action did the Maharaja of J&K take in response to the invasion?
A) Sought help from the United Nations B) Signed the Instrument of Accession
C) Fled the region D) Declared independence

91. What operation did Pakistan launch in August 1965?

A) Operation Desert Storm B) Operation Gibraltar C) Operation Thunderbolt D) Operation Blue
Star

92. Which battle resulted in India capturing a large number of Pakistani tanks?
A) Battle of Dograi B) Battle of Longewala C) Battle of Chawinda D) Battle of Asal Uttar
93. What was the result of the ceasefire on 23 September 1965?
A) India gained territory B) Return to pre-war positions C) Pakistan gained territory
D) No significant change

94. What was the Mukti Bahini?

A) Pakistani military unit B) Bengali rebel group C) Indian paramilitary force D) United Nations
peacekeeping force

95. Which battle was the only front where the Pakistani Army built up considerable resistance in
1971?
A) Battle of Longewala B) Battle of Hilli C) Battle of Asal Uttar D) Battle of Chawinda

96. What major event occurred on 16 December 1971?

A) Ceasefire agreement B) Pakistani surrender in Dhaka C) Indian withdrawal
D) UN intervention

97. Which agreement did not specify the authority over the Siachen Glacier area?
A) Simla Agreement B) Tashkent Agreement C) Karachi Agreement D) Delhi Agreement

98. Who led the notable Indian expedition to the glacier in 1978?
A) General JS Arora B) Lt General Prem Nath Hoon C) Colonel Narinder Kumar D) Major R. S.
Sandhu

99. What was the name of the Indian operation to control the glacier?
A) Operation Vijay B) Operation Meghdoot C) Operation Rajiv D) Operation Blue Star

100. What triggered the Kargil conflict in 1999?

A) Pakistani invasion of Kashmir B) Pakistani paramilitary forces capturing strategic heights
C) Indian preemptive strike D) Ceasefire violation by India

101. Which operation did India launch to reclaim the captured areas during the Kargil conflict?
A) Operation Blue Star B) Operation Gibraltar C) Operation Vijay D) Operation Meghdoot

102. When is Kargil Vijay Diwas celebrated?

A) 15 August B) 26 January C) 26 July D) 2 October

103. Which treaty followed the 1965 Indo-Pakistani war?

A) Simla Agreement B) Tashkent Agreement C) Delhi Agreement D) Karachi Agreement

104. Who was the Pakistani President during the 1965 war?
A) Ayub Khan B) Zia-ul-Haq C) Pervez Musharraf D) Benazir Bhutto

105. What was the primary reason for the 1971 Indo-Pak war?
A) Kashmir dispute B) Refugee crisis and independence movement in East Pakistan
C) Water sharing issues D) Border disputes

106. Which mountain pass did Captain Sanjay Kulkarni secure during Operation Meghdoot?
A) Sia La B) Bilafond La C) Gyong La D) Khyber Pass

107. Who led the Indian operation to occupy the Siachen Glacier?
A) Col Narinder Kumar B) Lt Gen Prem Nath Hoon C) Gen JS Arora D) Brig Vijay Channa
108. Which battle in the Kargil conflict was pivotal for India’s success?
A) Battle of Hilli B) Battle of Tololing C) Battle of Longewala D) Battle of Chawinda

109. Which agreement established the Line of Control (LOC) between India and Pakistan?
A) Tashkent Agreement B) Simla Agreement C) Karachi Agreement D) Delhi Agreement

110. How many Pakistani prisoners of war were taken by India after the 1971 war?
A) 10,000 B) 30,000 C) 60,000 D) 90,000

111. Which post did Bana Singh capture during Operation Rajiv in 1987?
A) Quaid Post B) Bana Post C) Bilafond La D) Sia La

112. Which Pakistani leader taunted Zia-ul-Haq after the Siachen loss?
A) Benazir Bhutto B) Pervez Musharraf C) Ayub Khan D) Nawaz Sharif

113. Which year did India conduct nuclear tests that led to the Kargil conflict?
A) 1997 B) 1998 C) 1999 D) 2000

114. What was the main strategic disadvantage for India during the Kargil conflict?
A) Lack of artillery B) Control of heights by Pakistani forces C) Poor communication
D) Inadequate manpower
 COMMUNICATION

1. In wireless communication, to exchange information, two antennas must be tuned to the

same __.
(a) Amplitude (b) Frequency (c) Spectrum (d) Bandwidth

2. A barrier to communication is known as __

(a) Noise (b) Speech (c) Voice (d) Diffuse

3.The communication process begins with a __ _

(a) Receiver (b) Message (c) Encoding (d) Sender

4. There is a lot of Flexibility in ___ network.

(a) Radio (b) Satellite (c) Wi-Fi (d) Fiber-Optic

5. Radio communication is of _ types?

(a) Three (b) Two (c) One (d) Four

6. Fear during communication is _____ type of barrier of communication.

(a) Linguistic and Cultural Barriers (b) Mechanical barriers (c) Physical barriers (d)
Psychological Barrier.

7. __ is a type of Verbal Communication.

(a) Eyes (b) Voice (c) Posture (d) Body parts

8. Abbreviation of www is
(a) Wide World Web (b) World Web Wide (c) World Wide Web (d) Web World Wide

9. Each mobile equipment device has a unique __ digit number.

(a) 12 (b) 21 (c) 18 (d) 15

10. Two-way visual communication over long distances is called ___ _

(a) Wireless Fidelity (b) Video Conferencing (c) Tele conferencing (d) Television

11. Each mobile handset has a unique identification number, given to it at the time of
manufacture known as ___ number.
(a) IMEI (c) IMI (b) IME (d) SIM

12. Cellular radio network was first introduced in the year __ _

(a) 1995 (b) 1945 (c) 2003 (d) 1980

13. In 4G mobile communication technology, the letter 'G' stands for __

(a) Global (b) Generation (c) Gradient (d) General

14. _________ is not a Principle of Effective Comm

(a) Knowledge of Receiver (b) Selection of Media / Method (c) Clarity of Objective (d) All of the
above

15. GPS is a set of -----satellites that orbit the earth in 12 hours.

(a) 24 (b) 48 (c) 12 (d) 30
16. The difference between the upper and lower limits of a signals equipment operation range is
called ______ _
(a) Amplitude (b) Spectrum (c) Bandwidth (d) Modulation

17. Appointment code for the Commanding Officer of the Battalion

(a) King (b) Tiger (c) Lion (d) Panther

18. Which Type of Formal Communication in Organizations is not generally observed?

(a) Downward Communication (b) Horizontal Communication (c) Upward Communication
(d) Vertical Communication

19. Wi-Fi stands for ----

(a) Wireless Fidelity (b) Wireless Fibre (c) Wireless Function (d) Wireless Fiction

20. In Radio Telephony procedure, a message that lasts for ___ seconds is referred to as a
'Short Message”?
(a) 15 (b) 60 (c) 30 (d) 10

21. Which of the following is not acting as a barrier to communication?

(a) Mechanical barriers (b) Physiological Barrier (c) Physical barriers (d) Linguistic and Cultural
Barriers

22. The sender must choose certain words or non-verbal methods to send an intentional
message. This activity is called ____
(a) Encoding (b) Decoding (c) Message (d) Receiver

23. The letters 'RT' in RT Procedure mean --------

(a) Radio Transmission (b) Artillery (c) Radio Telephony (d) Rapid Talking

24. Walkie-talkie radio transceiver was developed during the ___ _

(a) Russo-German War (b) Second World War (c) Falkland War (d) First World ·war

25. In Radio Telephony procedure, the standard phrase used to convey that 'the
message has been received, understood and will be complied with' is __.
(a) Wilco (b) OK (c) Roger (d)· Done

26. ________ is the basic means of signal communications for a force which is static.
a) Radio b) Telephone c) Line d) Tele printer

27. _________ communication involves net radio and radio relay.

a) Radio b) Line c) Telephone d) Fax

28. A ___________ is a handheld, portable, two-way radio transceiver.

a) Radio b) Walkie – talkie c) Telephone d) Fax

29. Acronym for Principles of radio telephony procedure.

a) BASS b) BOSS c) CASS d) COSS

30. Radio set GP 338 Motorola has _________ channel and can be preset into eight zone.
a) 129 b) 128 c) 132 d) 140
31. Weight of GP 338 Motorola with NI MH high-capacity battery is __________gm.
a) 420 b) 520 c) 650 d) 320

32. Power supply of GP-338 Motorola ________ volt batteries.

a) 7.9 Volt b) 7.2 Volt c) 7.6 Volt d) 7.1 Volt

33. Communication range of GP 338 Motorola set is ______ to ____ km

a) 5-6 km b) 4-7km c) 4-5 km d) 4-9 km

34. There are _________ types of communication.

a) 3 b) 2 c) 5 d) 4

35. Station working on same frequency to communicate with each is called ______.
a) Radio net b) Radio telephony c) Radio d) Fax

36. __________ is three letter group allotted to HQ formation or unit to conceal their identity and
these are changed daily.
a) Link code b) Code sign c) Code word d) Password

37. ____________station is the senior HQ in the radio net.

a) Control HQ b) Control station c) Signal d) Radio

38. A _____ is a single word used to provide security cover for reference to a classified matter.
a) Code sign b) Link sign c) Code word d) Password

39. ___________ is used to denote that my transmission has ended and I expect to hear a
further transmission from you on this subject.
a) Out b) Over c) Roger d) Wilco

40. ________ is used to denote that message received and understood.

a) Over b) Out c) Roger d) Wilco

41. ______ is used to denote that message received, understood and will be complied with.
a) Wilco b) Over c) Roger d) Out

42. There are ___________ type of calls in RT Procedure.

a) Two b) Three c) Four d) Five

43. _______ Call When Only One Station On a net is addressed by any one station of the net
a) Multiple call b) Single call c) Net call d) Radio call

44. ________ Call When two or more but no tall stations on the net are addressed.
a) Multiple call b) Single call c) Radio call d) Net call

45. Advantage of line communication ______________.

a) Relatively secure b) text time to construct c) Both d) None of above
46. Disadvantages is line communication _________.
a) Dependable and free from electrical interference b) Relatively secure c) Takes time to
construct d) None of above

47. Radio telephony is used for ____________.

a) Voice Communication b) Transmission of Msg c) Fax d) Satellite

48. Radio Relay Communications advantage is ______________

a) It cannot work on the move b) Terrain between stations must permit line of sight
c) Provides greater flexibility than line d) Slightly more expensive in men and material than in
the case of net radio

49. Radio Set GP 338 Motorola can be operated in ____________ and 2-way simple mode.
a) UHF/HF b) VHF/UHF c) HF d) VHF

50. Radio Set GP 338 Motorola option of ___________ calls facilities available.
a) Un selective b) Selective c) Remote d) None of above

51. Satellite Communication India launched its first Satellite ________________ on 19th April
1975 from Kapustin yar with the help of Soviet Union.
a) Aryabhata b) Bhaskara c) Rohini d) Apple

52. ____________ satellite can be used to forecast rains.

a) Military Satellite b) Navigational Satellite c) Weather Satellite d) Scientific Satellite

53. ______ is a single word used to provide Security cover for reference to a classified matter.
a) Code Word b) Password c) Both d) None of above

54. Radio relay implies that a series of radio transmitters and receivers normally spaced
between ____ Kms apart and are used to provide point signal communication.
(a) 15-20 (b) 40-50 (c) 20-35 (d) None of the above

55. Radio Set Gp338 Motorola can be operated in VHF/UHF and ______ way simplex mode
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) None of the above

56. Frequency of Radio Set Gp338 Motorola is

(a) 136 MHz -174 MHz (b) 136 KHz -174 KHz (c) 403 MHz - 470 MHz (d) 403 KHz - 470 KHz

57. Communication range of Radio Set Gp338 Motorola is _______ Km without repeaters.
(a) 20 to40 (b) 10 to15 (c) 4 to 5 (d) 7 to 9

58. Walkie Talkie can be divided into ______ portions

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

59. There are a total of ____ buttons in the front panel of Walkie Talkie.
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 3

60. The lower layer of the atmosphere below 15 Km height is called ________region?
(a) Stratosphere (b) Troposphere (c) Mesosphere (d) Thermosphere
61. Tropo Scatter can achieve Radio Communication over the horizon covering a range
between 70 Km to _____Km.
(a) 100 (b) 500 (c) 700 (d) 1000

62. Fax is the common short form of FACSIMILE.

(a) True (b) False (c) Cannot Say (d) None of the above

63. Telex. is the abbreviated form of.

(a) Telephone Exchange (b) Tele Printer Exchange (c) Tele Exercise (d) None of the above

64. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of line communication?

A) Reliable and free from electrical interference B) Flexible once laid
C) Relatively secure D) Number of circuits and message carrying capacity is high

65. What is one major disadvantage of line communication?

A) Vulnerable to electrical interference B) Expensive in men and material
C) Limited number of circuits D) Slow communication speed

66. Which type of wave can travel through the vacuum of outer space?
A) Mechanical Waves B) Sound Waves C) Electromagnetic Waves D) Surface Waves

67. Which of the following is a disadvantage of net radio communication?

A) Inherently secure B) Flexible and can be re-arranged C) Economical in personnel and
equipment D) Susceptible to enemy interception

68. Which communication method provides point-to-point signal communication using a series
of transmitters and receivers?
A) Net Radio B) Line Communication C) Radio Relay D) Satellite Communication

69. What is the communication range of the Radio set GP338 Motorola with a repeater?
A) 1 to 5 Km B) 5 to 10 Km C) 10 to 20 Km D) 20 to 40 Km

70. Which of the following is NOT a feature of Wi-Fi technology?

A) Mobility and elasticity B) Inability to transfer data between devices
C) High-speed internet D) Secure wireless solutions

71. What is the power output of the Radio set GP338 Motorola on UHF mode?
A) 1 to 5 Watt B) 1 to 4 Watt C) 2 to 6 Watt D) 3 to 5 Watt

72. Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of Wi-Fi technology?

A) Security issues due to wireless transmission B) High power consumption
C) Variable wireless reception D) Sensitivity to electromagnetic interference

73. What type of radio communication is the basic means for any mobile force?
A) Line Communication B) Net Radio C) Radio Relay D) Satellite Communication

74. Which of the following is an advantage of radio relay communication?

A) Insecure and susceptible to interception B) Liable to interference from enemy jamming
C) Quick to set up and move D) Requires critical sitting
75. Which of the following is NOT a principle of Radio Telephony Procedure?
A) Bravery B) Accuracy C) Security D) Speed

76. What is the purpose of a modem in communication?

A) Convert sound waves into radio waves B) Transmit messages over long distances
C) Convert computer-generated output into signals for telephone lines D) Amplify radio signals

77. Which of the following is NOT a facility of the Radio set GP338 Motorola?
A) Portable and light in weight B) Can be operated in VHF/UHF mode C) Provides internet
access D) Call alert feature

78. Which of the following describes a "long message" in Radio Telephony?

A) Lasts for more than a minute B) Consists of more than thirty groups
C) Is not registered D) Sent by a control station only

79. What is the main purpose of standard procedures in RT communication?

A) Ensure speed, uniformity, and security B) Enhance flexibility and reduce costs
C) Increase the number of radio operators D) Simplify communication with non-military
personnel

80. What does the standard RT phrase "Wilco" mean?

A) Message received and understood B) Message received and will be complied with
C) Transmission ended, no reply expected D) Transmission ended, reply expected

81. Which of the following is NOT a type of call in RT communication?

A) Single Call B) Group Call C) Multiple Call D) Net Call

82. What is the frequency range of the Radio set GP338 Motorola on VHF mode?
A) 136 MHz to 174 MHz B) 403 MHz to 470 MHz C) 100 MHz to 200 MHz D) 200 MHz to 300
MHz

83. Which communication technology allows users to make phone calls from many locations
worldwide using radio waves from signal-transmission towers?
A) Wi-Fi B) Satellite Communication C) Mobile Telephones D) Walkie-Talkie

84. What is the key disadvantage of telex communication?

A) High cost of equipment B) Inability to transmit graphics C) Requires continuous human
operation D) Low range of operation

85. Which of the following is a benefit of using a Wi-Fi network?

A) Limited mobility B) High cost of installation C) Secure and high-speed internet
D) Requires professional installation

86. Which type of wave propagation allows for communication over the horizon covering a
range between 70 Km to 1000 Km?
A) Sky Wave Propagation B) Ground Wave Propagation C) Space Wave Propagation
D) Tropospheric Scatter

87. Which of the following describes a "net call" in RT communication?

A) Addressing one station on the net B) Addressing two or more but not all stations on the net
C) Addressing all stations on the net D) Addressing all stations except a few
88. What is the main feature of optical fibre communication?
A) Low bandwidth capacity B) High power requirement C) Susceptible to electromagnetic
interference D) Wide bandwidth and low power requirement

89. Which of the following is NOT a facility of walkie-talkies?

A) Portable and light in weight B) Operates in VHF/UHF mode C) High-speed internet access
D) Simplex mode communication

90. What is the key feature of video-conferencing systems?

A) Only voice communication B) Transmission of data only C) Full benefits of face-to-face
communication with sound, graphics, and data D) Requires physical presence at one location

91. What is the main advantage of using satellites for communication?

A) Limited coverage area B) High operational cost C) Ability to cover wide geographical areas
D) Susceptible to interference

92. Which of the following is a key advantage of internet communication?

A) High installation cost B) Slow data transfer speed C) Instant, trouble-free, and cheap means
of communication D) Requires wired connections only