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Target PT 2025 Question Booklet: PTS-5102

General studies

Polity - 2
Time Allowed: One Hour Maximum Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS

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4. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four
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feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case,
choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
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question.
 2 TPT-PTS-5102/112024/11

1. Which of the following statements regarding 4. Consider the following statements:

the political classification of the territory of
1. National Register of Indian Citizens
India is incorrect?
finds its mention in original Citizenship
(a) A state’s legislature consists of a Act, 1955
Governor and a unicameral or a bicameral
legislature. 2. The first NRC was conducted immediately
after the enactment of the Citizenship
(b) In 1950, the Constitution of India
Act, 1955
described territories of India under four
heads namely part A, B, C, and D. Which of the above given statements is/are
(c) ‘Union Territories with legislature’ have correct?
the Chief Minister as their executive (a) 1 only
head while the ‘Union Territories without
legislature’ have the President as their (b) 2 only
executive head.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) ‘Union territories without legislature’
do not have representation in the Rajya (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Sabha of the Parliament.
5. Consider the following statements:
2. Which of the following statements regarding 1. Article 31A specifies that any law made to
the Inner Line Permit is/are correct? implement Article 39(b) and 39(c) , shall
1. The concept of the Inner Line Permit is an not be held void even if it contravenes
offshoot of the Bengal Eastern Frontier Fundamental right Article 14 and 19.
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Regulations, 1873
2. Article 31A was inserted through the
2. The states that are already in the Sixth
25th Constitutional Amendment Act.
Schedule can also have the Inner Line
Permit system. Which of the statements given above is/are
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Select the correct answer using the code given correct?
below: (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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(d) Neither 1 nor 2

6. Consider the following statements:

3. Which of the following statements is/are
correct? 1. Freedom of press is an essential element
1. Laws giving effect to a resolution of a of the Right to freedom of speech and
land boundary dispute between India and expression under Article 19 of the
a foreign country without exchanging of constitution of India.
enclaves and possessions must be passed 2. The Constitution guarantees the right
by a special majority.
to peaceful protest, therefore any public
2. Indian Territory can be ceded to a foreign way and public space can be occupied for
state only by amending the Constitution. assembly.
Select the correct answer using the code given
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
below:
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 or 2
TPT-PTS-5102/112024/11 3

7. Consider the following statements: (c) Both 1 and 2

1. A State is a political organization while a (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Nation is a social, cultural, psychological,
emotional and political unity.
10. Which of the following are fundamental rights
2. Possession of a definite territory is granted to prisoners in India?
essential for the State but not for a 1. To enjoy conjugal relationship
Nation.
2. To seek default bail
3. Sovereignty is essential for State but not
for Nation. 3. Minimum wage for prison labour

4. The State uses police power (force) for Select the correct answer using the code given
preserving its unity and integrity, the below:
Nation is bound by strong cultural and (a) 1 only
historical links.
(b) 2 only
Which of the above statements are correctly
highlighting the difference between a Nation (c) 2 and 3 only
and a State? (d) 1, 2, and 3

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(a) 1 and 2 only
11. Consider the following statements with respect
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
to right to property:
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only 1. The right to property is a constitutional
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 right but not a part of the basic structure
of the Constitution.
2. The Constitution protects private
8.
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Which of the following best describes the
purpose of Part IV of the constitution? property against executive action but not
against legislative action.
(a) It seeks to establish economic and social
3. In case of violation, the aggrieved person
democracy in the country.
cannot directly move to the Supreme
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(b) It essentially contains a codification of Court under Article 32 or to the High
tasks integral to the Indian way of life. Court under Article 226.
(c) It preserves individual liberty and Which of the above statements is/are correct?
democratic principles based on the
(a) 1 only
equality of all members of society.
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) It serves as a constant reminder to every
(c) 1 and 2 only
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citizen to observe certain basic norms

of democratic conduct and democratic (d) 1 and 3 only
behaviour.
12. Which of the following can be the reasons
9. The justiciability of Fundamental Rights and for restricting Fundamental Rights of an
the moral obligation of State to implement individual, according to the Constitution?
Directive Principles have led to a conflict
1. Imposition of Military Rule
between the two since the commencement of
the Constitution. In this context, consider the 2. President’s Rule
following statements: 3. During war or external aggression
1. The Parliament can amend the 4. Contempt of Court
Fundamental Rights for implementing of
5. Incitement of offences
the Directive Principles.
2. Articles 39(b) and 39(c) have been given Select the correct answer from the code given
priority over the all the Fundamental below:
Rights. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (b) 4 and 5 only
(a) 1 only (c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
 4 TPT-PTS-5102/112024/11

13. Which of the following statements regarding 3. In preventive detention case, a person
the Article 20 is /are correct? cannot be detained for more than three
1. The limitation of the ex-post-facto law is months without the report of an advisory
imposed only on criminal laws and not on board report.
civil laws. Select the correct answer using the code given
2. The protection against double jeopardy below:
is not available in proceedings before (a) 1 and 2 only
authorities which are not of judicial
nature. (b) 2 and 3 only

Select the correct answer using the code given (c) 2 only
below: (d) 3 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 16. Which of the following directive principles of
state policy was/were introduced by the 42nd
(c) Both 1 and 2 Amendment Act, 1976?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Take steps to secure the participation

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of workers in the management of
14. Match the following List I with List II. industries.

List I List II 2. Promote cottage industries on an

individual or co-operation basis in rural
(A) Habeas Corpus (1) Against public
areas.
official for
failing to 3. Organize agriculture and animal
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perform their husbandry on modern and scientific
duty lines.
(B) Certiorari (2) To enforce 4. Minimise inequalities in income, status,
individual facilities and opportunities.
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liberty against Select the correct answer using the code given
unlawful below:
detention
(a) 1 and 4 only
(C) Mandamus (3) To direct
inactivity (b) 4 only
(D) Prohibition (4) For transfer of a (c) 1 only
case from lower
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(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

to higher court
Select the correct answer using the code given 17. Consider the following statements:
below.
1. The Parliament is authorised to transfer
A B C D some of the power of the Supreme Court
(a) 4 3 1 2 regarding issuing writs to any courts
other than the High Courts.
(b) 2 4 1 3
2. President can suspend the right to
(c) 1 4 3 2 move any court for the enforcement of
(d) 2 4 3 1 the fundamental rights during national
emergency.
15. Which of the followings statements regarding Which of the statements given above is/are
the Right to Freedom under the Constitution correct?
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
1. Right to elementary education is available
(b) 2 only
to the children of Indian citizens only.
2. Punitive detention is to detain a person (c) Both 1 and 2
after an offence has been committed. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
 TPT-PTS-5102/112024/11 5

18. Which of the following states/UTs was/were 21. Consider the following statements:
foreign territories before acquisition by the 1. A linguistic minority for the purpose
independent India? of Art. 30(1) is one which must have a
separate spoken language with a distinct
1. Sikkim
script.
2. Daman and Diu 2. Unlike under the Art. 29, the protection
3. Dadra and Nagar Haveli under Art. 30 is confined only to
minorities.
4. Nagaland
Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the code given correct?
below:
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 1, 2, and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 2, 3, and 4 only

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22. Which of the following statements is/are
19. Which of the following is/are the significance correct about the right to privacy in India?
of Part IV-A? 1. Supreme Court in Puttaswamy vs. Union
1. They serve as a warning against the of India case, 2017, declared the Right to
antinational and antisocial activities. Privacy as a fundamental right.
2. They help the courts in examining and 2. Right to privacy has been interpreted
determining the constitutional validity as an intrinsic part of the right to life and
of a law.
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3. Parliament can provide for the imposition
personal liberty under Article 21
3. Supreme Court made Right to be
Forgotten (RTBF) as the rational in its
of appropriate penalty or punishment for judgment about right to privacy.
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failure to fulfill any of them.
Select the correct answer using the code given
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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(d) 1, 2, and 3
23. Consider the following statements regarding
20. Which of the following states/UTs were newly the National Population Register (NPR):
created by the States Reorganisation Act of 1. It is mandatory for every usual resident
1956? of India to register in the NPR.
1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Only citizens are included in the NPR.
2. Kerala 3. The data for NPR was first collected in
2010 along with the house-listing phase
3. Mysore
of Census 2011
4. Union Territory of Laccadive, Minicoy
4. All the states of North-East will be
and Amindivi Islands included for the registration in the NPR.
Select the correct answer using the code given Which of the statements given above is/are
below: correct?
(a) 1, 2, and 4 only (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 (d) 1 and 3 only
 6 TPT-PTS-5102/112024/11

24. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 is not 27. Which of the following statements regarding
applicable in which of the following areas? the Unlawful Activities Prevention Act (UAPA)
1967 is/are correct?
1. Areas covered by the Sixth Schedule
1. The definition of terrorist Act under
2. Areas regulated through the Inner Line
UAPA is aligned with that given by
Permit
United Nations.
3. Areas covered by the Fifth Schedule
2. Bail under UAPA can be granted if the
Select the correct answer using the code given accused’s trial has been delayed.
below: 3. UAPA can be imposed against Indians
(a) 1 only and foreigners both and is applicable on
crimes committed outside India.
(b) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code given
(c) 1 and 3 only below:
(d) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
25. Consider the following statements with respect

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to constitutional provision of citizenship in (c) 2 and 3 only
India: (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. If any foreign territory becomes a part
of India, the Parliament specifies the 28. The term “Law” mentioned in Article 13 of
persons who among the people of the the constitution is related to which of the
territory shall be the citizens of India. following:
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2. The parliament is the sole authority 1. Notification issued by District Collector
for making laws on any matter of 2. Ordinances made by Governors
citizenship.
3. Laws made through delegated
Which of the statements given above is/are legislation
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correct? 4. The law of any religious origin
(a) 1 only Select the correct answer from the code given
(b) 2 only below:

(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 3 and 4 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 1 and 2 only

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(c) 1 and 3 only

26. Consider the following statements with respect (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
to overseas citizen of India (OCI):
1. In the matters of Rights under Article 29. Consider the following statements:
16 of the Constitution, the registered
1. A law contained in the Ninth schedule of
Overseas Citizens of India have the same
the Constitution cannot be reviewed by
rights as of an Indian citizen. the judiciary as the schedule provides
2. OCI cardholders are exempted from the immunity to its provisions from judicial
registration with Foreigner’s Regional review.
Registration Officer (FRRO) for any 2. First Amendment Act 1951, provided
length of stay in India. for insertion of Ninth schedule in the
Which of the statements given above is/are Constitution.
incorrect? Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
 TPT-PTS-5102/112024/11 7

30. Why Fundamental Rights are considered 2. The power of judicial review under
fundamental? Article 32 is restricted to the violation
(a) Because they derive their origin from of fundamental rights through executive
ancient English law, the “Magna Carta”. and not legislative actions.
(b) Because they cannot be amended or How many of the statements given above are
altered by Parliament. correct?
(c) Because they put negative constraints on (a) 1 only
the state.
(b) 2 only
(d) Because they are essential for all round
development of an individual. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
31. With reference to an Anticipatory Bail,
consider the following statements:
34. Consider the following statements regarding
1. It is a direction issued to release a Fundamental Duties under the Indian
person on bail even before the person is
Constitution:
arrested.
1. The Fundamental Duties are applicable

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2. In cases of non-bailable offences, an
anticipatory bail cannot be granted as a to both citizens and non-citizens of
matter of right. India.
3. It can be issued by the Sessions Court 2. The concept of Fundamental Duties was
and High Court. borrowed from the Constitution of the
Which of the above statements are correct? erstwhile Soviet Union.

(a) 1 and 2 only 3. The Fundamental Duties are justiciable

(b) 1 and 3 only

O and can be enforced through the courts.
How many of the statements given above is/
(c) 2 and 3 only
are correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
SC
(a) 1 only

32. On which of the following fundamental rights (b) 2 only

can a state impose reasonable restrictions on (c) 1 and 2 only
ground of ‘public order’?
1. Freedom of speech and expression (d) 2 and 3 only
2. Freedom to form associations or unions
35. Consider the following statements:
3. Freedom to move freely throughout the
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territory of India 1. The Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA)

4. Freedom to reside and settle in any part seeks to grant Indian citizenship to
of the territory of India persecuted minorities from neighboring
5. Freedom of religion countries but excludes Muslims.

Select the correct answer using the code given 2. The National Register of Citizens (NRC)
below: is a process aimed at identifying illegal
immigrants in India, irrespective of
(a) 2, 3 and 5 only religion.
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only 3. The NRC exercise has been conducted
(c) 1, 3, 4, and 5 only in the entire country so far, including all
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only northeastern states.
How many of the statements given above is/
33. Consider the following statements regarding are correct?
article 32 of Indian constitution:
(a) 1 and 2 only
1. Article 32 provides the right to
constitutional remedies, which enables (b) 2 and 3 only
citizens to move directly to the Supreme (c) 1 and 3 only
Court for enforcement of fundamental
rights. (d) 1, 2, and 3
 8 TPT-PTS-5102/112024/11

36. Consider the following statements with respect How many of the above statements are
to preventive detention: correct?
1. Preventive detention means detention of (a) None
a person with trial and conviction by a
(b) Only two
court, on a mere reasonable apprehension
of him doing an activity dangerous to (c) All three
public order.
(d) Only one
2. Protection against arrest and detention
under Articles 22 (1) and 22 (2) is not
39. Consider the following statements with respect
available to a person arrested or detained
to doctrine of “essentiality”:
under preventive detention laws (Article
22(3)). 1. The doctrine of “essentiality” was
invented by a seven-judge Bench of the
3. Parliament has exclusive authority to Supreme Court in the ‘Kesavananda
make a law of related to preventive Bharti’ case in 1973
detention.
2. Essential religious practice test is a
How many of the above statements are contentious doctrine evolved by the

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correct? court to protect all religious practices
(a) Only one which were essential and integral to the
religion.
(b) Only two
3. Article 29 of the Indian Constitution
(c) All three deals with doctrine of essentiality.
(d) None How many of the above statements are
O correct?
37. Consider the following statements with respect (a) Only one
to personality Rights:
(b) Only two
1. Personality rights or their protection
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are expressly mentioned in a statute in (c) All three
India. (d) None
2. It includes name, voice, signature, images
or any other feature easily identified as 40. Consider the following statements under
markers of personality. the Directive Principles of State Policy as
3. There is no explicit international enshrined in the constitution of India:
convention or treaty on protection of the 1. Right to an adequate means of
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publicity rights to date. livelihood to all the citizens.

How many of the above statements are 2. Equal pay for equal work for both men
correct? and women.
(a) Only one 3. Promotion educational and economic
interests of the weaker sections.
(b) Only two
4. To provide early childhood care and
(c) All three education for all children until they
(d) None complete the age of six years.
5. To improve public health and prohibit
38. Consider the following statements with respect consumption of intoxicating drinks and
to Oversees Citizens of India: drugs that are injurious to health.
1. The Ministry of External Affairs defines Which of the above are Gandhian principles
criteria for a person who is eligible for which are reflected in DPSP?
obtaining overseas citizenship. (a) Only two
2. They have Right to vote and can purchase
(b) Only three
agriculture land in India.
(c) Only four
3. They are eligible to hold public offices in
India. (d) None
 TPT-PTS-5102/112024/11 9

41. Consider the following statements with respect Select the correct answer using the code given
to doctrine of “severability”: below:
1. It is an Indian judicial interpretation.
(a) 1 and 2 only
2. It is derived from article 32 of the Indian
(b) 1, 2, and 4
Constitution.
3. It is also known as the doctrine (c) 1 and 4 only
of separability and protects (d) 2, 3, and 4
the Fundamental Rights of the citizens.
How many of the above statements are 44. Consider the following statements regarding
correct?
the reorganization of states in post-
(a) Only one
independence India:
(b) Only two
1. The Indian Independence Act (1947)
(c) All three
provided princely states the options
(d) None
to join India, join Pakistan, or remain

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independent.
42. Consider the following statements with respect
to Non-Resident Indian: 2. The S.K. Dhar Commission recommended
1. A NRI person who or whose ancestors were the reorganization of states on the basis
of Indian nationality and who is presently
of linguistic factors.
holding another country’s citizenship.
2. They are required to register with local 3. The JVP Committee rejected the

days.
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police if their stay is more than 180 language-based reorganization of states
in its final report.
3. They are allowed to vote in general
elections. Which of the statements given above is/are
SC
How many of the above statements are correct?
correct? (a) 1 and 3 only
(a) Only one (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) Only two (c) 1 and 2 only
(c) All three (d) 1 only
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(d) None
45. Consider the following statements regarding
43. Which of the following statements correctly citizenship in India:
describe the power of Parliament under Article
3 of the Indian Constitution? 1. Both citizens by birth and naturalized
1. The Parliament can form a new state by citizens are eligible for the office of the
uniting two or more states or parts of President of India.
states. 2. In India, friendly aliens enjoy the same
2. A bill for altering the boundaries of a rights as Indian citizens under Article 19
state can only be introduced with the of the Constitution.
prior recommendation of the President. Which of the statements given above is/are
3. The state legislature’s opinion is binding correct?
on the President before recommending (a) 1 only
any bill related to state boundaries. (b) 2 only
4. The Parliament cannot diminish the area (c) Both 1 and 2
of a state. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
10 TPT-PTS-5102/112024/11

46. Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
1. Enemy aliens do not enjoy the protection
against arrest and detention under (a) 1 only
Article 22 of the Indian Constitution. (b) 1 and 2
2. A naturalized citizen in India can hold
(c) 2 and 3
the office of the Vice-President but cannot
hold the office of the Governor of a state. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 49. Consider the following statements regarding
Article 15 of the Indian Constitution:
(a) 1 only
1. The prohibition of discrimination under
(b) 2 only Article 15 applies only to the State and
(c) Both 1 and 2 not to private individuals.

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. The State is permitted to make special

provisions for the advancement of

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socially and educationally backward
47. Consider the following statements regarding
classes, including in private educational
the definition of ‘State’ under Article 12 of the
institutions.
Indian Constitution:
3. The 10% reservation for Economically
1. The term ‘State’ includes the executive
Weaker Sections (EWSs) is applicable
and legislative organs of both the Union
in both public and private educational
and state governments.
institutions, except minority
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2. Private bodies can never be considered institutions.
‘State’ under Article 12, even if they
How many of the statements given above is/
perform public functions.
are correct?
3. Local authorities, such as municipalities
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and panchayats, are included within the (a) 1 and 2 only
definition of ‘State’ under Article 12 (b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) 1 and 3 only
correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only
(b) 50. Consider the following statements regarding
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1 and 3 only
directive principles of the state policy:
(c) 2 only
1. They are legally enforceable by courts if
(d) 1, 2, and 3 violated by the State.
2. They resemble the ‘Instrument of
48. Consider the following statements regarding
Instructions’ from the Government of
Article 14 of the Indian Constitution:
India Act of 1935
1. Article 14 grants equality before the law
3. They can be used by courts to determine
to both citizens and foreigners within the
the constitutional validity of a law.
territory of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
2. The concept of ‘equality before law’ is of
correct?
British origin, while ‘equal protection of
laws’ has been adopted from the American (a) Only 1 and 2
Constitution.
(b) Only 2 and 3
3. Article 14 permits class legislation,
(c) Only 1 and 3
allowing unequal treatment of individuals
under certain circumstances. (d) All of the above

vvvvv
TPT-PTS-5102/112024/11 11

Space for Rough Work

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O
SC
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