FOR FURTHER STUDIES ONLY

1. Which of these is not boundary of the posterior abdominal wall

(a) Pelvic brim
(b) Iliac crest
(c) Diaphragm
(d) Rectus sheath
2. One of these is not a role of the posterior abdominal wall
(a) Structural support
(b) Blood supply and innervations
(c) Movement

(d) Exhalation
3. The posterior abdominal wall is primarily composed of three major muscles one of which is NOT
(a) Internal oblique muscles
(b) Psoas Major
(c) Quadratus Lumborum
(d) Psoas Minor
4. The posterior abdominal wall receives its blood supply primarily from the _____
(a) inferior epigastric artery
(b) Aorta
(c) Superior epigastric artery
(d) None of the above
5. The aorta bifurcates into________ which supply blood to the pelvis and lower limbs.
(a) The common iliac arteries
(b) lumbar arteries

(c) inferior epigastric

(d) lumbar arteries

6. Anterior relationships of the first part of duodenum are with:

(a) Gastroduodenal artery
(b) Common bile duct
(c) Portal vein
(d) Inferior vena cava
7. Which vein collects deoxygenated blood from the lower body and returns it to the heart?
(a)Lumbar veins
(b) Mesenteric veins
(c) Inferior vena cava
(d) Superior vena cava

8. The posterior abdominal wall is primarily innervated by the spinal nerves that arise from
the thoracic vertebra ____and lumbar vertebra ______
(a) T1-L5
(b) T12-L5
(c) T2-L1
(d) T11-L1
9. Medial relationships of second part of the duodenum are:
(a) Head of the pancreas
(b) Right kidney
(c) Gallbladder
(d) Hepatic flexure of the colon
10. The differences between the ileal and jejunal vascular arches are:
a) The ileal arcade are supply by middle colic artery
b) The ileal arcade are supply by inferior mesenteric artery
c) There are 4-6 jejunal branches
d) Jejunal branches are smaller and shorter than ileal ones
11. Ampulla of Vater is:
(a) Opening of common hepatic duct
(b) Opening of accessory pancreatic duct
(c) Opening of Santorini duct

(d) Opening of pylorus

12. Which acid can be found in the stomach
(a) Sulphuric acid
(b) Hydrochloric acid
(c) Nitric acid
(d) All of the above
13. The stomach is supplied by what artery
(a) Celiac artery
(b) Inferior phrenic artery
(c) Esophageal arteries
(d) Superior mesenteric artery
14. The anterior relations of the horizontal part of the duodenum are:
(a) Right psoas major
(b) Transverse mesocolon
(c) Root of the sigmoid mesocolon
(d) Inferior mesenteric vein
15. The nerve supply to the digestive system is primarily regulated by the_____
(a) Autonomic nervous system
(b) Somatic nervous system

(c) Sympathetic nervous system

(d) None of the above

16. Lymphatic vessels from the stomach drain into the _____ and __________
(a) Gastric and Gastroepiploic lymph nodes
(b) Mesenteric and Gastric lymph nodes
(c) Colic and inferior mesenteric lymph nodes.
(d) Pancreaticoduodenal and superior mesenteric lymph nodes
17. The fourth part of the duodenum has lateral and posterior relation with:
(a) Superior mesenteric vein
(b) Inferior vena cava
(c) Pancreaticoduodenal vein
(d) Inferior mesenteric vein
18. _______ is a serous membrane which covers (fully or partly) most of the contents of the
abdominal cavity.
(a) Pericardium
(b) Peritoneal sphincter
(c) Peritoneum
(d) Pleura
19. _________hold the organs in place, are sites of fat storage, and provide a route by which
circulatory vessels and nerves reach the organs wrapped by the peritoneal cavity.
(a) Peritoneum
(b) Mesenteries
(c) Viscera peritoneum
(d) Parietal peritoneum
20. Inflammation and infection of the peritoneum is called ______
(a) Colitis
(b) Peritonitis
(c) dysentry
(d) Gastritis
21. Inferior rectal artery is a branch of:
a) Internal iliac artery
b) Inferior mesenteric artery
c) Internal pudendal artery
d) Superior mesenteric artery
22. Superior rectal artery is a branch/continuation of:
a) Superior mesenteric artery
b) Inferior mesenteric artery
c) Internal iliac artery

d) External iliac artery

23. Which of the following is formed by mesonephric duct?

a) Uterus
b) Penis
c) Ureter
d) Uterine tube

24. Which of the following is true regarding the innervations of urinary bladder?
a) Parasympathetic efferent fibres are motor to detrusor muscle
b) Sympathetic nerves are sensory to sphincter urethrae
c) Pudendal nerve innervates sphincter vesicae
d) Awareness of distension of urinary bladder is mediated by lateral spinothalamic
tract
25. The Capacity of urinary bladder in adult is about:
a) 300 ml
b) 200 ml
c) 500 ml
d) 1500 ml
26. Which of the following sphincters is missing in female?

a) Rhabdosphincter
b) Preprostatic sphincter
c) Urethral smooth
d) Pubourethral part of muscle levator ani
27. Ovarian artery is a branch of:

a) Abdominal aorta
b) Common iliac artery
c) Internal iliac artery
d) External iliac artery
28. Left gonadal vein drains into:
a) Internal iliac vein
b) Inferior vena cava
c) Left renal vein vein
d) Splenic vein
29. The Following are ventral branches of aorta, EXCEPT:
a) Coeliac axis
b) Superior mesenteric artery
c) Inferior mesenteric artery
d) Gonadal artery
30. Layers of thoracolumbar fascia are following, EXCEPT:
a) Anterior layer
b) Middle layer
c) Medial layer

d) Posterior layer
31. Which of the following structures does NOT pass through the diaphragm?
a) Oesophagus

b) Aorta
c) Cisterna chyli
d) Inferior vena cava
32. Which of the following structures does NOT pass through oesophageal hiatus?

a) Vagus nerve

b) Oesophagus

c) Left gastric artery

d) Thoracic duct
33. Which of the following apertures lies in the central tendon of diaphragm?
a) Oesophagus
b) Inferior vena cava
c) Foramen of Morgagni
d) Abdominal aorta
34. Which of the following structures forms proper sphincter at the lower end of
oesophagus?
a) Left crus of diaphragm
b) Intrinsic muscle of oesophagus
c) Right crus of diaphragm
d) Phrenico-oesophageal ligament
35. Right suprarenal vein drains into:
a) Right renal vein

b) Inferior vena cava

c) Left renal vein
d) Lumbar vein
36. Suprarenal gland does NOT receive blood supply from:
a) Inferior phrenic artery
b) Renal artery
c) Superior mesenteric artery
d) Abdominal aorta
37. Left suprarenal vein drains into:
a) Left renal vein
b) Right renal vein
c) Inferior vena cava
d) Lumbar vein
38. All of the following are related to the anterior surface of left kidney, EXCEPT:
a) Spleen
b) Pancreas

c) Duodenum
d) Left colic flexure

39. Which of the following muscles does NOT form the posterior relation of kidney?
a) Latissimus dorsi
b) Transversus abdominis
c) Psoas major
d) Quadratus lumborum
40. Which structure is an NOT anterior relation to the left of the ureter?
a) Gonadal artery
b) Left colic artery
c) Pelvic colon
d) Internal iliac artery
41. Which the following areas on the anterior surface of right kidney are is covered by
peritoneum?
a) Suprarenal
b) Hepatic
c) Duodenal
d) Colic
42. The following information about duodenum are NOT true:
a) It is the first part of the small intestine
b) Continues proximal the stomach
c) Continues distally with the jejunum
d) Has 2 main parts
43. Number of minor calyces in a kidney is about:
a) 7–14
b) 14–24
c) 2–4

d) 25–28
44. Where is the perirenal fat thickest?
a) At the poles
b) Along the borders
c) Along posterior surface
d) Along anterior surface
45. What forms the lobe of the kidney?
a) Two renal pyramids with intervening renal column

b) Two renal columns with intervening pyramid

c) A renal pyramid with the cortex overlying it
d) Two renal columns plus the adjoining cortex
46. Accessory pancreatic duct is also called:
a) Wirsung duct
b) Santorini duct

c) Henson’s duct
d) Hoffmann’s duct
47. Which of the following does not contribute to the formation of the posterior wall of
inguinal canal?

a) Fascia transversalis
b) Conjoint tendon

c) Lacunar ligament
d) Reflected part of inguinal ligament
48. Which is the most important landmark for distinguishing inguinal from femoral hernia?
a) Superficial inguinal ring
b) Pubic tubercle
c) Midinguinal point
d) Inguinal ligament
49. Hernia resulting from non-return of the umbilical loop of midgut is:
a) Acquired

b) Congenital
c) Infantile
d) None of the above
50. Indirect inguinal hernia coming out at the superficial inguinal ring will have the
following coverings:
a) Cremasteric fascia
b) Internal spermatic fascia
c) External spermatic fascia
d) All of the above

January marking key

1. The neck region is divided into

(a) 5 triangles
(b) 3 triangles
(c) 4 triangles
(d) 2 triangles
2. One of this is not a structure forming the anterior triangle of the neck
(a) Sternocleidomastoid muscle1
(b) Investing fascia
(c) Midline of the neck
(d) Inferior border of the jaw line
3. The anterior triangle of the neck is divided into
(a) 5
(b) 4

(c) 6
(d) 3
4. What is not true about the submental triangle
(a) Contain lymph nodes
(b) Bounded by the hyoid bone
(c) Contain inter jugular vein
(d) Bounded by midline of the neck
5. The muscle triangle contains the following except
(a) Infrahyoid muscle
(b) Pharynx
(c) Parathyroid gland
(d) Mylohyoid muscle
6. Which of the following is a muscle responsible for elevating the hyoid bone?
(a) Geniohyiod

(b)Digastric
(c) Mylohyoid
(d) Stylohyoid
7. The nerve that passes through the posterior triangle of the neck is known as _______? (a)
Vagus nerve
(b) Accessory nerve
(c) Hypoglossal nerve
(d) glossopharyngeal nerve
8. __________ Arteries supplies blood to the anterior triangle of the neck?

(a) Common carotid artery

(b) Subclavian artery
(c) Internal carotid artery
(d) External carotid artery
9. Which of the following muscle forms the floor of the posterior triangles of the neck
(a)Seratusposterior
(b) Trapezius
(c) Rhomboid major
(d) levator scapulae
10. The muscle responsible for rotating the head to the right is known as __________

(a)Suboccipital
(b)Sternocleidomastoid
(c)Scalene
(d) Rectus Capitalis Lateralis
11. The cervical plexus is formed in what region?
(a) Head
(b) Chest
(c) Thorax
(d) Neck

12. The cervical nerve ______ to _____ forms the basis of the cervical plexus.
(a) c1-c4
(b) T1-T3
(c)C1-C5
(d) None of the above
13. The cervical plexus gives rise to numerous branches which supply structures in the head
and neck. They can broadly be divided into two groups ________ and ________
(a) Muscular (Motor) branches and Sensory branches
(b) Peripheral and systemic branch
(c)Intrainguinal and ventral branch
(d) all of the above
14. What branch of the cervical plexus supply some of the muscles of the neck, back and
the diaphragm
(a)Cervical branch
(b)Muscular branch
(c)Supplementary branch
(d)Sensory branch
15. The ansa cervicalis is a loop of nerves, formed by nerve roots ______ to _____
(a)C1-C3
(b)C2-C4
(c)T1-T3
(d)C1-C4
16. What branch of the cervical plexus supply the skin of the neck, upper thorax scalp and ear?
(a) Cutaneous branches

(b) Muscular branches

(c) Sensory branches
(d) Parasympathetic branches
17. What part of the neck is utilized when performing a cervical nerve block?
(a)Deltoid symphysis
(b)Cervical plexus
(c) Erbs point
(d) Cutaneous point
18. What nerve provides sensation to the external ear and the skin over the parotid gland?
(a) Greater Auricular Nerve
(b) Lesser Auricular nerve
(c) Conjugal occipital nerve

(d) Sternocleidomastoid nerve

19. Which of these nerves supplies sensations to the anterior neck
(a) Posterolateral anterior nerve
(b) Anterior cervicalis nerve
(c) Transverse nerve
(d) Auricular nerve
20. Which nerve supplies the posterosuperior scalp
(a) Lesser occipital nerve
(b) Superior occipital nerve
(c) Posterior occipital nerve
(d) Vagus nerve
21. A 38-year-old man has had thyroid surgery to remove his papillary carcinoma. The
external laryngeal nerve that accompanies the superior thyroid artery is damaged during
the surgery. This injury could result in a severe impairment of function of which of the
following?
a) Relaxing the vocal cords
b) Rotating the arytenoid cartilages
c) Tensing the vocal cords
d) Widening the rima glottides
22. A 27-year-old woman with a goiter comes to the hospital for surgical treatment. The
surgeon must ligate the superior laryngeal artery before surgically resecting the goiter, so
care must be taken to avoid injury to which of the following nerves?
a) External laryngeal nerve
b) Internal laryngeal nerve.

c) Superior laryngeal nerve

d) Hypoglossal nerve
23. A young singer at the local music theater visits her physician and complains of vocal
difficulties. On examination, she is unable to abduct the vocal cords during quiet
breathing. Which of the following muscles is most likely paralyzed?
a) Vocalis muscle
b) Cricothyroid muscle
c) Oblique arytenoid muscle
d) Posterior cricoarytenoid muscle
24. A 71-year-old woman often visits an emergency department with swallowing difficulties
and subsequent choking while eating food. Which of the following pairs of muscles is
most instrumental in preventing food from entering the larynx and trachea during
swallowing?
a) Sternohyoid and sternothyroid muscles
b) Oblique arytenoid and aryepiglottic muscles
c) Inferior pharyngeal constrictor and thyrohyoid muscles
d) Levator veli palatini and tensor veli palatine muscles
25. A 12-year-old boy has diffi culty in breathing because he is choking on food. A school
nurse performs the Valsalva maneuver to expel air from his lungs and thus dislodge the
food. When that fails, she performs a needle cricothyrotomy, which would open into
which of the following regions?
a) Rima glottidis

b) Laryngeal vestibule

c) Laryngeal ventricle
d) Infraglottic cavity
Diagram:
31. Which cranial nerve does not pass through jugular foramen?
a. Glossopharyngeal
b. Vagus
c. Accessory
d. Hypoglossal
32. Which is not a cranial nerve?
a. Vagus
b. Glossopharyngeal
c. Phrenic
d. Hypoglossal
33. Which cranial nerve innervates muscle that raises the upper eyelid?
a. Trochlear
b. Oculomotor
c. Abducent
d. Facial
34. Which cranial nerve passes through stylomastoid foramen?
a. Facial nerve
b. Glossopharyngeal nerve
c. Vagus nerve
d. Hypoglossal nerve
35. First pharyngeal arch gives rise to:
a. Muscles of facial expression
b. Muscles of mastication
c. Muscles of soft palate
d. Stylopharyngeus (muscle of pharynx)
36. Nucleus of tractus solitarius receives part of which 3 cranial nerves?
a. III, IV and VI

b. VII, IX and X
c. IX, X and XI
d. None of the above
37. Nucleus ambiguus is present in:
a. Midbrain
b. Spinal cord
c. Pons

d. Medulla oblongata
38. Cranial nerve that are mainly sensory of:
a. Optic, vestibulocochlear and vagus
b. Ophthalmic, optic and facial
c. Ophthalmic, optic and vestibulocochlear
d. Optic, olfactory and vestibulocochlear

39. Cranial nerves that carry taste from the tongue are:
a. Trigeminal, facial and glossopharyngeal
b. Facial, glossopharyngeal and hypoglossal
c. Facial, glossopharyngeal and accessory
d. Facial, glossopharyngeal and vagus
40. The cranial nerve that arise from both brain as well as spinal cord:
a. Hypoglossal
b. Accessory
c. Vagus
d. Glossopharyngeal
41. Foramen of Monro connects:
a. Lateral ventricle to 4th ventricle
b. 3rd ventricle to 4th ventricle
c. 3rd ventricle to aqueduct
d. Lateral ventricle to 3rd ventricle
42. Which of the following is largest horn of lateral ventricle?
a. Posterior horn
b. Inferior horn

c. Anterior horn
d. Central part
43. Inferolaterally IV ventricle is not bounded by:
a. Gracile tubercles
b. Cuneate tubercles
c. Inferior cerebellar peduncles
d. Superior cerebellar peduncles
44. Which structure form choroid plexus?
a. Tela choroidea with secretory ependyma
b. Obex
c. Lateral recess

d. Secretory ependymal

45. Which of the following nuclei is related to IV ventricle?

a. Facial nerve nucleus
b. Hypoglossal nucleus
c. Vestibular nuclei
d. All of the above
46. The neck region is divided into
a. 5 triangles
b. 3 triangles
c. 4 triangles
d. 2 triangles

47. The anterior triangle is bounded by 3 structures which are

a. sternocleidomastoid muscle
b. investing fascia

c. midline of the neck

d. inferior border of the jaw line
48. The anterior triangle is divided into
a. 5
b. 4
c. 6
d. 3
49. What is not true about the submental triangle?
(a) contain lymph nodes
(b) bounded by the hyoid bone
(c) contain inter jugular vein
(d) bounded by midline of the neck
50. The muscle triangle contains the following except
(a) infrahyoid muscle
(b) pharynx
(c) parathyroid gland

JULY 2023 INTAKE CA 2 18TH NOVEMBER, 2024

DURATION: 1:30 MINUTES

1. Which of the following structures does not pass through the superior orbital fissure?

a) Optic nerve (CNII)

b) Oculomotor nerve (CNIII)

c) Trochlear nerve (CNIV)

d) Abducens nerve (CNVI

2. Which foramina of the skull does the accessory nerve pass through?

a) Jugular foramen

b) Foramen ovale

c) Internal acoustic meatus

d) Foramen rotundum

3. In which part of the central nervous system is the nuclei of the third cranial nerve affected?

a) Thalamus

b) Midbrain

c) Pons

d) Medulla Oblongata

4. Which one of the following is not a content of the cavernous sinus?

a) Oculomotor nerve

b) Maxillary nerve

c) Ophthalmic nerve

d) Optic nerve

5. Which bone is the internal acoustic meatus/internal auditory canal located jn?

a) Frontal bone

b) Parietal bone

c) Temporal bone
d) Occipital bone

6. Which of the following cranial nerves passes through the internal auditory canal/internal acoustic
meatus?

a) Glossopharyngeal and Vagus

b) Hypoglossal and Vagus

c) Vestibulocochlear and Hypoglossal

d) Vestibulocochlear and Facial

7. Which of the following structures does not pass through the jugular foramen?

a) Vagus nerve

b) Internal jugular vein

c) Hypoglossal nerve

d) Glossopharyngeal nerve

8. Which of the following structures does not pass through the superior orbital fissure?

a) Optic nerve (CNII)

b) Oculomotor nerve (CNIII)

c) Trigeminal nerve (CNV)

d) Abducens nerve (CNVI)

9. What cranial nerve is most likely affected in a patient who presents with defective eye abduction?

a) Trochlear nerve (CNIV)

b) Trochlear nerve (CNIV)

c) Abducens nerve (CNVI)

d) Oculomotor nerve (CNIII)

10. Which of the following extraocular muscle is innervated by the Trochlear nerve (CNIV)?

a) Superior oblique muscle

b) Inferior rectus muscle

c) Medial oblique muscle

d) Lateral rectus muscle

11. How do you test the function of the abducens nerve (CNVI)?

a) Ask patient to look medially and then downwards

b) Ask patients to look laterally medially

c) Ask patient to look medially. Check upper lid is fully retracted on upwards gaze

d) Ask patients to look laterally

12. How do you test the function of the trochlear nerve (CNIV)?

a) Ask patient to look medially and then downwards

b) Ask patients to look laterally

c) Ask patient to look medially. up

d) Ask patient to look medially and then downwards

13. How do you test the function of the Oculomotor nerve (CNIII)?

a) Ask patient to look medially and then downwards

b) Ask patients to look laterally

c) Ask patient to look medially. Check upper lid is fully retracted on upwards gaze

c) Ask patient to look laterally. Check upper lid is fully retracted on upwards gaze

14. Which of the following muscle is not an intraocular muscle?

a) Sphincter pupillae

b) Dilator pupillae

c) Levator palpebrae superioris

d) Ciliary muscle

15. A motorcyclist is injured in a road traffic accident and is not wearing a helmet. He suffers a severe
closed head injury and develops raised intracranial pressure. The first cranial nerve to be affected by this
process is likely to be:

a) Oculomotor

b) Hypoglossal
c) Motor branch of the trigeminal

d) Abducens

16. A 64-year-old male presents to the emergency department with double vision. He is a known
diabetic. On examination his left eye is facing down and out and he cannot move it. What is the most
likely cause?

a) Oculomotor nerve palsy

b) Optic nerve palsy

c) Trochlear nerve palsy

d) Abducens nerve palsy

17. A 32-year-old man presents to an ophthalmology clinic complaining of double vision when walking
down the stairs. He gives a history of a recent mountain biking accident that required attendance to the
emergency department. He has since recovered but mentions he suffered a hard frontal blow to his
head against a tree. On examination, his left eye is elevated and medially deviated and he has vertical
diplopia when looking up and down. What cranial nerve is most likely damaged in this patient?

a) Abducens nerve

b) Oculomotor nerve

c) Trochlear nerve

d) Trigeminal nerve

18. A 30-year-old man presents with an outward and downward gaze of the right eye. You notice there
is also ptosis of the right eye. A lesion of which cranial nerve is most likely to be causing this
presentation?

a) Optic

b) Oculomotor

c) Trochlear

d) Abducens

19. The jejunum receives sympathetic nerves from the

a) vagus nerves.

b) pelvic splanchnic nerves.

c) spinal cord segments L1 and 2.

d) greater splanchnic nerves and lesser splanchnic nerves.

20. Regarding the ileum

a) it occupies mostly the left upper quadrant of abdomen

b) it has a thicker walls than jejunum.

c) it has more mesenteric fat with related to jejunum.

d) it has long vasa recta

21. Ophthalmic artery is a branch of which of the following arteries?

a) Internal carotid

b) External carotid

c) Maxillary

d) Vertebral

22. Supraorbital artery is a branch of:

a) Maxillary

b) External carotid

c) Ophthalmic

d) Internal carotid

23. Which of the following arteries supply primary visual cortex?

a). Anterior and middle cerebral

b) Middle cerebral

c) Middle and posterior cerebral

d) Posterior cerebral

24. Anterior spinal aftery is a branch of:

a) Vertebral

b) Internal carotid

c) Basilar
d) Labyrinthine

25. Which is the largest direct branch of internal carotid artery?

a) Middle cerebral

b) Anterior cerebral

c) Posterior cerebral

d) Posterior inferior cerebellar

26. Nucleus of tractus solitarius receives part of which 3 cranial nerves?

a) III, IV and VI

b) VII, IX and X

c) IX, X and XI

d) None of the above

27. Which of the following muscle is not innervated by the oculomotor nerve?

a) Superior rectus

b) Medial rectus

c) Lateral rectus

d) Inferior oblique

28. At what level of the brainstem do you find the trochlear nerve nucleus?

a) Level of superior colliculus

b) Level of inferior colliculus

c) The upper pons

d) The lower pons

29. A patient comes with ptosis, dilated pupils, lateral squint and loss of accommodation, and diplopia.
Which cranial nerve is most likely affected?

a) Abducens nerve,

b) Optic nerve

c) Facial nerve
d). Oculomotor nerve

30. All are the muscles form boundaries of carotid triangle, except

a) Posterior belly of digastric

b) Superior belly of omohyoid

c) Inferior belly of omohyoid

d) Sternocleidomastoid

31. part of the hindbrain, is primarily responsible for coordinating movement, balance, and posture

a) Cerebrum

b) Cerebellum

c) Pons

d) None of the above

32. The outer layer of the cerebellum is composed of:

a) Gray matter

b) White matter

c) 6 layers

d) 8 layers

33. The cerebellum is divided into two hemispheres, each of which is further subdivided into three
lobes: and

a) the anterior lobe, the posterior lobe, and the flocculonodular lobe

b) the anterior lobe, the posterior lobe and the inferior

c) the anterior lobe, the superior lobe and the inferior lobe

d) the ventral lobe, the dorsal lobe, the lateral lobe

34. The interior of the cerebellum has the following prominent nucleus

a) dentate..

b) inferior olivary

c) ambigus
d) pontine

35. The following are layers of the cortex of the cerebellum except:

a) molecular

b) pyramidal

c) Purkinje cell

d) granular

36. Which part of the nervous system transmits information between the centers of integration,
processing and the body's tissues, organs, and external environment?

a) The central nervous system

b) The peripheral nervous system-

c) The somatic cells

d) The brain

37. Which cranial nerves transmit sympathetic information?

a) III

b) VII

c) X

d) None

38. What part of the nervous system is responsible for controlling involuntary functions and maintaining
homeostasis within the body

a) Autonomic Nervous system

b) Sympathetic Nervous system

c) Peripheral Nervous system

d) None of the above

39. Which of the following is not an example of spinal nerve

a) intercostal

b) hypoglossal
c) Sacral,

d) Coccygeal

40. plexus is formed by the ventral rami of the first four cervical spinal nerves

(C1-C4).

a) Cervical

b) Brachial

c) Sacral,

d) Coccygeal

41. lower back. is a long, thin bundle of nerve tissue that extends from the base of the brain to the

a) The filum terminali

b) The spinal cord

c) The conus medullaris

d) The corda equine

42. The spinal cord is in shape, with a slightly flattened anterior surface

a) Straight.

b) Flat

c) Cylindrical

d) conical

43. The spinal cord is surrounded by the following layers of meninges:

a) The dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater

b) The dura and arachnoid mater only

c) The arachnoid and pia mater only

d) only the dura mater

44. What root carries afferent information to the spinal cord?

a) Dorsal Root
b) Ventral Root

c) motor root

d) none of the above

45. The main arteries that supply the spinal cord are the and

a) posterior cerebral and vertebral artery

b) anterior spinal artery and posterior spinal arteries.

c) Lateral and medial spinal arteries

d) The arterioles and venules

46. The bundles of nerve fibers that carry sensory and motor information up and down the spinal cord
are called

a) gray matter

b) autonomic and systemic nervous system

c) ascending and descending tracts

d) all of the above

47. is an essential ascending sensory pathway within the spinal cord that transmits information related
to pain, temperature, and crude touch from the body to the brain.

a) Spinothalamic tract

b) Dorsal column

c) Pyramidal tract

d) Corticospinal tract

48. is an ascending pathway within the spinal cord that transmits proprioceptive information from the
body to the cerebellum, which plays a crucial role in coordinating movement, maintaining balance, and
motor learning.

a) Spinocerebellar tract

b) Spinothalamic tract

c) Corticospinal tract

d) Rubospinal tract
49. is a descending motor pathway that originates from the cerebral cortex and terminates in the
brainstem.

a) Spinocerebellar tract

b) Spinothalamic tract

c) Corticobulbar tract

d) Corticospinal tract

50. is a descending motor pathway that originates in the red nucleus of the midbrain and terminates in
the spinal cord.

a) Spinocerebellar tract

b) Spinothalamic tract

c) Corticospinal tract

d) Rubrospinal tract