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TEST BOOKLET
POLITY
TEST - II

Maximum Marks: 200 Time Allowed: TWO HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

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Q1. With reference to the Preamble of the Q3. Which one of the following statements
Constitution of India, consider the best explains the meaning of 'Social
following statements : Equality' as per provisions of the Indian
1. The Preamble is not enforceable in a Constitution?
court of law. (a) Provision of equal rights and
2. The Preamble forms the part of the opportunities for all people.
basic Structure of the Constitution, (b) Elimination of inequalities based on
hence not subject to amendment by income
the Parliament. (c) Special efforts by the state to
3. The Preamble mentions the date of improve the lot of weaker section
enactment of the Constitution of (d) Provison of Universal Adult Franchise
India. in Parliamentary Elections
4. The Preamble is a source of power
for legislature to establish a just Q4. With reference to Fundamental Rights,
social and economic order. which one of the following statements is
How many statements given above are not correct?
correct? (a) Flying of the national flag is a symbol
(a) Only one of expression that comes within the
(b) Only two purview of Article 19 of the
(c) Only three Constitution.
(d) All four (b) An Individual is permitted to avoid
providing potentially self damaging
testimony under Article 20.
(c) Right to consult a lawyer is a
fundamental right in India under the
provisions of Article 22.
(d) Right to marriage is a fundamental
Q2. Consider the following organizations/ right under Article 21
bodies in India :
1. The National Commission for Q5. Consider the following statements :
Backward Classes 1. Protection against prosecution and
2. The National Human Rights punishment for the same offence
Commission more than once.
3. Finance Commission 2. Right to refuse to give his/her
4. The National Consumer Disputes sample of handwriting as evidence to
Redressal Commission support a prosecution against
How many of the above are him/her.
Constitutional bodies? 3. Right not to be compelled to act as a
(a) Only one witness against himself/herself.
(b) Only two How many of the above rights are
(c) Only three guaranteed by the Constitution of India
(d) All four under Part III?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

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Q6. Consider the following pairs with respect Q8. Consider the following pairs :
to important parts of the constitution
and the subject matter dealt with : 1. 4th Schedule Allocation of
1. Part IX : The Panchayats seats in Rajya Sabha
2. Part II : Citizenship
3. Part IV : Fundamental Rights 2. 7th Schedule Division of powers
4. Part X : The Scheduled and Tribal between Legislative,
Areas : Relations between Executive, and
the Union and the States Judiciary
How many of the statements given
above are correct? 3. 8th Schedule Languages
(a) Only one recognized by the
(b) Only two Constitution.
(c) Only three
(d) All four 4. 12th Schedule Responsibilities
and powers of
Panchayats

How many of the above pairs are NOT

correctly matched?
(a) Only one
Q7. Consider the following statements (b) Only two
regarding the Indian Councils Act, 1861. (c) Only three
1. It gave recognition to the ‘portfolio’ (d) All four
system, introduced by Lord Canning.
2. It initiated the process of
decentralization by restoring the
legislative powers to the Bombay and
Madras Presidencies.
3. It empowered the Viceroy to issue
ordinances without the concurrence
of the legislative council during an Q9. Which Act introduced an open
emergency. competition system of selection and
4. It provided for the establishment of recruitment of civil servants in British
new legislative councils for Bengal, India and led to the opening of
North-Western Frontier Province covenanted civil service to the Indians?
(NWFP), and Punjab. (a) Charter Act, 1853
How many of the statements given (b) Indian Councils Act, 1861
above are correct? (c) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(a) Only one (d) Government of India Act, 1935
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

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Q10. Constitutionalism is best described as : Q13. Consider the following statements.
(a) It is the principle that emphasizes on 1. Indian territory can be ceded to a
the control of the masses or public foreign state only by amending the
over a property or a natural resource. Constitution under Article 368.
(b) It emphasizes that the state should 2. Settlement of a boundary dispute
remove the obstacles for individuals between India and another country
to enjoy freedom of thought, does not require a constitutional
expression, belief, faith, and worship. amendment.
(c) It is the idea that people are equals 3. Laws regarding reorganization can
in a society that is a system of fair be passed by a simple majority and
cooperation. by the ordinary legislative process.
(d) It denotes the principle that the How many of the statements given
government derives its authority above are correct?
from a body of fundamental law and (a) Only one
is limited by it. (b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Q11. Consider the following statements :
1. Different tiers of government govern
the same citizens, but each tier has
its own jurisdiction.
2. The existence and authority of each
tier of government generally is Q14. Consider the following statements.
constitutionally guaranteed. 1. The term ‘Minority’ is clearly defined
3. Each tier of government must draw in the Indian Constitution.
all its financial resources 2. The Constitution of India recognizes
independent of the other tier. religious, linguistic and ethnic
How many of the above are the features minorities.
of Indian Federalism? Which of the above statements is/are
(a) Only one correct?
(b) Only two (a) 1 only
(c) All three (b) 2 only
(d) None (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q12. Consider the following instruments of
democracy
1. Referendum
2. Gram Sabha
3. Right to recall Q15. The Interstate Council is chaired by
4. Social Audit (a) Union Minister of Home Affairs
How many above are the instruments of (b) Chief Ministers of the states in
participatory democracy? Rotation
(a) Only one (c) Prime Minister
(b) Only two (d) President
(c) Only three
(d) All four

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Q16. Consider the following statements : Q18. Consider the following
1. During a national emergency, the 1. Article 371
executive power of the Centre 2. 5th and 6th Schedule
extends to directing any state 3. Rajya Sabha seats allocation
regarding the manner in which its 4. Amending power federal features
executive power is to be exercised. 5. GST council
2. The laws made by Parliament on the How many of the above are examples of
state subjects during a National asymmetric federalism?
Emergency would exist until repealed (a) Only two
by State Legislature or Parliament. (b) Only three
3. When a proclamation of national (c) Only four
emergency is made, under Article (d) All five
358 the six Fundamental Rights
under Article 19 are automatically Q19. Consider the following :
suspended. 1. Forest
How many of the statements given 2. Education
above are correct? 3. Administration of justice
(a) Only one 4. Wild animals and birds
(b) Only two 5. Public order
(c) All three How many of the above are listed under
(d) None the Concurrent List of the 7th Schedule
of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
Q17. Consider the following statements : (c) Only four
Statement I : The Supreme Court enjoy (d) All five
original but not exclusive jurisdiction
over River Water disputes between two Q20. Consider the following statements
or more states. about Statutory Grant-in-aid, that are
Statement II : The constitution given to the states by the Central
empowers the Parliament to legislate for government :
the adjudication of river water disputes. 1. They find mention in the
Which one of the following is correct in Constitution.
respect of the above statements? 2. They are awarded annually to every
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II State.
are correct and Statement-II is the 3. They are charged on the
correct explanation for Statement-I Consolidated Fund of India.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II 4. These grants are to be given on the
are correct and Statement-II is not recommendations of the Finance
the correct explanation for Commission.
Statement-1 How many of the above statements are
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement correct?
II is incorrect (a) Only one
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but (b) Only two
Statement-II is correct (c) Only three
(d) All four

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Q21. Through which of the following Q24. Which of the following provisions of the
provisions, Parliament can make laws on Constitution of India have a bearing on
any matter in the State List for the Education?
implementation of international 1. Direction Principales of State Policy
agreements? 2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies
(a) With necessary ratification of 3. Fifth Schedule
minimum fifty percent of States 4. Sixth Schedule
(b) Without the consent of any State 5. Seventh Schedule
(c) With necessary consent of all the Select the correct answer using the
States and Union Territories codes given below :
(d) With necessary guidance of United (a) 1 and 2 only
Nations (b) 3, 4 and 5 only
Q22. Consider the following statements : (c) 1, 2 and 5 only
1. All revenues received by the (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
Goverment of India are credited in
the Consolidated Fund of India. Q25. Who among the following takes the
2. The payments from Public Account oath to preserve, protect and defend the
of India can be made without Constitution and the law in India?
parliamentary appropriation. (a) President
3. The Contingency Fund of India is (b) Vice- President
held by the Finance Secretary on (c) Chief Justice of India
behalf of the President. (d) Prime Minister
How many of the statements given
above NOT correct? Q26. Consider the following statements with
(a) Only one reference to the election of members
(b) Only two and chairpersons mentioned 73rd
(c) All three Amendment Act of 1992
(d) None 1. All the members of panchayats at the
Q23. Consider the following statements : village, intermediate and district
1. With respect to Concurrent List the levels shall be elected directly by the
executive power rests with the Centre people.
except when a Constitutional 2. The chairperson of panchayats at the
provision or a parliamentary law intermediate and district levels shall
specifically confers it on the states be elected indirectly by and from
2. The term ‘Federation’ is explicitly amongst the elected members
mentioned in the Constitution of thereof.
India. 3. The chairperson of a panchayat at
3. Supreme Court of India has exclusive the village level shall be elected
jurisdiction in the case of federal directly by the people.
disputes. How many of the statement(s) given
How many of the above statements are above is/are correct?
correct? (a) Only one
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(b) Only two (c) All three
(c) All three (d) None
(d) None

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Q27. Indian version of socialism can be best Q30. Consider the following statements :
described as 1. Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)
(a) Democratic political system where was set up during the Prime
both public and private enterprises Ministership of Lal Bahadur.
function together towards egalitarian 2. The Members of CAT are drawn from
goals both judicial and administrative.
(b) An economic system based on public Which of the statements given above
ownership of property and control of is/are correct? (UPSC 2009)
the methods of production, and in (a) 1 only
which no person profits from the (b) 2 only
work of others (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) The economic system in which (d) Neither 1 nor 2
businesses are owned and run for
profit by individuals and not by the
state
(d) Political philosophy that exalts nation
above the individual and that stands
for a centralized autocratic
government headed by a dictatorial
leader

Q28. Considers the following statement with

reference to Cantonment board : Q31. Consider the following statements :
1. It is set up as a statutory body. (UPSC - 2007)
2. It consists of partly elected and partly 1. Jawaharlal Nehru was in his fourth
nominated members term as the Prime Minister of India at
3. The executive officer of the the time of his death.
cantonment board is appointed by 2. Jawaharlal Nehru represented Rae
the Governor of the concerned state. Bareilly constituency as a Member of
How many of the statements given Parliament
above are correct? 3. The first non-Congress Prime
(a) Only one Minister of India assumed office in
(b) Only two the year 1977.
(c) All three Which of the statements given above
(d) None is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
Q29. The Supreme Court of India tenders (b) 3 only
advice to the President on a matter of (c) 1 only
law or fact: (UPSC- 2001) (d) 1 and 3 only
(a) on its own initiative
(b) only if he seeks such advice
(c) only if the matter relates to the
Fundamental Rights of citizens
(d) only if the issue poses a threat to the
unity and integrity of the country

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Q32. Consider the following statements with Q34. The Indian Constitution prescribes
reference to the District Planning mandatory reservation for Scheduled
Committee (DPC) in India : Caste and Scheduled Tribes in which of
1. It consolidates the plans prepared by the following bodies?
both panchayats and municipalities 1. Lok Sabha
in the district. 2. Rajya Sabha
2. The provisions of the composition of 3. Legislative assembly of a state
such committees are made by the 4. All three levels of panchayat bodies
respective State legislature. 5. Chairpersons of Urban Local Bodies
3. Half of the members of DPC are How many of the statements given
nominated by the Governor of the above are correct?
respective state. (a) Only two
How many of the statements given (b) Only three
above are incorrect? (c) Only four
(a) Only one (d) All five
(b) Only two
(c) All three Q35. Consider the following statements
(d) None regarding Public Interest Litigation.
1. Any citizen can file PIL only in
Supreme Court and High court
2. A PIL may be filed against state
government, central government,
municipal authority but not against
private party.
Q33. With reference to urban local bodies in 3. PIL is not defined in any statute or in
India, which one of the following any act.
statements is correct? How many of the statements given
(a) The township form of urban above are correct?
government has both elected and (a) Only one
nominated members. (b) Only two
(b) A Port Trust is a statutory body (c) All three
chaired by officials appointed by the (d) None
Central Government.
(c) The military officer commanding the Q36. Who among the following Presidents of
station acts as ex-officio Chief India was also the Vice-President of
executive officer of the cantonment India?
board. 1. K. R Narayanan
(d) The Directive Principles of State 2. R. Venkataraman
Policy provides for organisation of 3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
Municipalities in for areas in 4. Shankar Dayal Sharma
transition from a rural area to urban\ 5. Giani Zail Singh
area. Select the correct answer using the code
given below :
(a) 1,2,3 and 4 only
(b) 1,2 and 4 only
© 1,2,4 and 5 only
(d) 1,2,3,4 and 5

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Q37. Consider the following statements with Q39. Consider the following statements :
reference legislative proceedings 1. When an Indian citizen voluntarily
consider the following statements : acquires citizenship of another
Statement I : Adjournment is a short country, his Indian citizenship is
recess within the session of the automatically terminated.
Parliament ordered by the Presiding 2. A person applying for citizenship by
Officer of the House. Naturalisation should have an
Statement II : When the Presiding adequate knowledge of a language
Officer adjourns the House without specified in the Eighth Schedule.
fixing any date or time of the next 3. When a person renounces his Indian
meeting of the House, it is known as citizenship, every minor child of that
adjournment sine die. person also loses Indian citizenship.
Which of the following statements is 4. The children of foreign diplomats
correct? posted in India can acquire Indian
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II citizenship by birth.
are correct and Statement-II is the How many statements given above are
correct explanation for Statement-I correct?
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II (a) Only one
are correct and Statement-II is not (b) Only two
the correct explanation for (c) All three
Statement-1 (d) None
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement
II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but
Statement-II is correct

Q38. With reference to “preventive Q40. With reference to Martial Law and
detention” which of the following National Emergency, consider the
statements is correct? following statements :
1. There is no authoritative definition of 1. Unlike the Martial Law the National
the term “preventive detention” in emergency suspends the
the Indian Constitution. government and ordinary law courts.
2. Preventive detention means 2. Both Martial Law and National
detention of a person without trial. Emergency affects the Fundamental
3. The Parliament has exclusive Rights of the Citizen.
authority to make a law of preventive Which of the statements given above
detention in India. is/are correct?
How many statements given above (a) 1 only
are correct? (b) 2 only
(a) Only one (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Only two (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) All three
(d) None

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Q41. With reference to Paid News, consider Q43. With reference to the State Legislative
the following statements : Councils, consider the following
Statement I : Publishing and abetting of statements :
publishing of paid news is an electoral 1. Some of the members of the council
offence under Section 8 of the are indirectly elected.
Representation of Peoples Act 1951. 2. The size of the Council depends on
Statement II : Paid news violates the the size of the assembly of the
right to information of voters in a concerned state.
constituency. 3. Its strength is fixed by the
Which of the following statements is Parliament.
correct? How many of the statements given
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II above are correct?
are correct and Statement-II is the (a) Only one
correct explanation for Statement-I (b) Only two
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II (c) All three
are correct and Statement-II is not (d) None
the correct explanation for
Statement-1
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement
II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but
Statement-II is correct

Q44. With reference to State Finance

Q42. Consider the following directives in the Commission, consider the following
Constitution of India : statements :
1. Provision of facilities for instruction 1. The purview of the State Finance
in the mother tongue at the primary Commission extends to city councils
stage of education to children and municipalities in the state.
belonging to linguistic minority 2. The Constitution of India has not
groups in the state specified any qualifications for the
2. Drawing up and execution of the members of the State Finance
specified schemes for the welfare of Commission.
the Scheduled Tribes in the state. 3. The governor of the state has a
3. measures to be taken for the mandate to appoint the State
protection of the railways within the Finance Commission every five years.
state How many statements given above are
In how many of the above situations correct?
under the Constitution of India the (a) Only one
directions given by the Centre to the (b) Only two
states is/are coercive in nature? (c) All three
(a) Only one (d) None
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

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Q45. With reference to the composition of Q47. Consider the following :
the National Commission of Backward 1. Punished for practicing
Classes , consider the following untouchability.
statements : 2. Holder of office of profit under the
1. The rules provide for the mandatory State Government.
appointment of at least one woman 3. Having a vested interest in
member in the Commission. government contracts.
2. The Chairperson of the commission 4. Having an age of 25 years or above.
is appointed from amongst eminent How many of the are the grounds for
socio-political workers belonging to disqualification for being a Member of
the socially and educationally the State Legislative Assembly?
backward classes. (a) Only one
Which of the statements given above (b) Only two
is/are correct? (c) Only three
(a) 1 only (d) All four
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q48. With reference to the office of

Governor, consider the following
statements :
1. The advice of the council of ministers
is binding on the Governor.
2. The discretionary powers of the
Q46. Consider the following lits : Governor are wider than those of
1. Concurrent List President.
2. State List 3. The oath of office to the Governor is
3. Union Territory List administered by the President.
4. Union List (a) Only one
A Union territory with a legislative (b) Only two
assembly can make laws on subjects (c) All three
mentioned in how many of the above (d) None
lists?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three Q49. A separate provision for the
(d) All four administration of the ‘acquired
territories’ is provided under which of
the following parts of the Constitution of
India?
(a) Part I
(b) Part V
(c) Part VIII
(d) None of the Above

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Q50. Consider the following events with Q53. With reference to the administration of
respect to the Union of India : ‘Schedule areas’ consider the following
1. Formation of the State of Nagaland statements :
2. Enactment of the States 1. The power to amend the
Reorganisation Act Constitutional provisions for the
3. Formation of the State of Haryana administration of ‘Schedule area’ in
4. Formation of the State of any state is vested with the
Maharashtra Parliament.
Which one of the following is the correct 2. The State Legislature can only
chronological order of the events given increase but cannot decrease the size
above? of an ‘Schedule area’.
(a) 4-2-3-1 3. The Governor of a state with
(b) 2-4-3-1 Schedule areas has powers to modify
(c) 4-2-1-3 the provisions of an act of Parliament
(d) 2-4-1-3 in relation to such areas.
How many statements given above are
correct?
(a) Only one
Q51. Which of the following is not a (b) Only two
compulsory provision under the 73rd (c) All three
Constitutional Amendment Act? (d) None
(a) 21 years to be the minimum age for
contesting elections to Panchayats.
(b) Establishment of District Planning Q54. With reference to the Model code of
Committee for consolidation of plans conduct, consider the following
prepared by the local bodies. statements :
(c) Organization of Gram Sabha in a 1. No officer connected with the
village or group of villages. conduct of the election can be
(d) Establishment of a State Election transferred without the prior
Commission for conducting elections approval of the Election Commission
to the Panchayats. during the moral code of conduct is
in place.
2. The code is enforced from the date
of announcement of the election
Q52. Consider the following schedule by the Election Commission
1. Ministry of Home Affairs and is operational till the process of
2. Ministry of Urban Development elections are completed.
3. Ministry of Defence 3. It is not a legally enforceable
At the Central level, the subject of ‘Urban document and its observance is left
Local Government’ is dealt with by How to parties and candidates.
many of above ministries? How many of the above statements are
(a) Only one correct?
(b) Only two (a) Only one
(c) All three (b) Only two
(d) None (c) All three
(d) None

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Q55. With reference to the Representation of Q57. Consider the following statements with
the People Act, 1951, a person convicted reference to the role of the Comptroller
of any offence and sentenced to and Auditor General of India (CAG) :
imprisonment for not less than ____ shall 1. The CAG is an agent of the
be disqualified from the date of such Parliament and conducts audit of
conviction and shall continue to be expenditure on behalf of the
disqualified for a further period of ____ Parliament.
since his/her release. 2. It is obligatory for the CAG to
Which of the following best fill-up the conduct the legal and regulatory
blanks given above? audit whereas conducting the
(a) 2 years, 6 years propriety audit is discretionary.
(b) 3 years, 5 years 3. The CAG cannot call for particulars of
(c) 2 years, 5 years expenditure incurred by the
(d) 3 years, 6 years executive agencies like the secret
services.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
Q56. Consider the following statements (c) All three
about the None-of-the-Above (NOTA) (d) None
provision :
1. The NOTA provision has been given
in the Representation of People Act,
1951.
2. If in a constituency the number of
NOTA votes exceeds 50% of total
votes polled, then election will stand Q58. With reference to the Union Public
void and canceled. Service Commission (UPSC), which of the
3. The NOTA provision is meant only for following statements is/are correct?
general constituencies, not for 1. The total strength of the UPSC is
reserved ones. decided by the President.
4. It is not used in the elections to the 2. No educational qualifications are
Rajya Sabha and the State Legislative prescribed in the Constitution to be
Councils. appointed as the member of the
How many of the above statements are UPSC.
correct? Select the correct answer using the code
(a) Only one given below :
(b) Only two (a) 1 only
(c) Only three (b) 2 only
(d) All four (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q59. The qualifications and manner in which Q62. Consider the following statements :
the Chairman and members of the 1. Unlike the National Investigation
Finance Commission are selected is Agency (NIA), the Central Bureau of
determined by : Investigation (CBI) has jurisdiction all
(a) President over India.
(b) Parliament 2. Consent of the states is mandatory
(c) NITI Aayog for the NIA for conducting an
(d) Prime Minister investigation in the jurisdiction of a
State.
Q60. Consider the following statements with Which of the statements given above
reference to the Attorney General of is/are correct?
India : (a) 1 only
1. He is appointed by the President of (b) 2 only
India and holds the office at the (c) Both 1 and 2
pleasure of the President. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. He has the right to take part in the
proceedings of both Houses of the
Parliament or their Joint sitting and Q63. The Indian Census is the largest single
any Committee of the Parliament. source of a variety of statistical
3. He enjoys all the rights and information on different characteristics
immunities available to a member of of the people of India. In this context,
Parliament. the responsibility of conducting the
How many of the above statements are decennial Census in India rests with
correct? (a) Ministry of Statistics and Programme
(a) Only one Implementation
(b) Only two (b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) All three (c) NITI Aayog
(d) None (d) Prime Minister's Office

Q61. Consider the following statements

regarding the Social Audit in India : Q64. Consider the following statements :
1. It is a process by which citizens 1. The National Human Rights
review and monitor government Commission is a statutory body.
actions on the ground. 2. The Central Vigilance Commission
2. It took root in government (CVC) is the main agency for
nomenclature through the Mahatma preventing corruption in the Central
Gandhi National Rural Employment government.
Guarantee Act (MGNREGA). 3. The Prime Minister of India acts as a
3. It has been made mandatory in all Chairperson of the NITI Aayog.
central sectors schemes in the How many of the above statements are
country. correct?
How many of the above statements are (a) Only one
correct? (b) Only two
(a) Only one (c) All three
(b) Only two (d) None
(c) All three
(d) None

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Q65. With reference to the Competition Q67. Consider the following statements
Commission of India (CCI), consider the regarding the Central Vigilance
following statements : Commission (CVC) :
1. It is a statutory body under the 1. It was created by an Executive order
Monopolies and Restrictive in 2003.
Trade Practices Act, 1969. 2. It was established on the
2. The chairperson of the CCI must be recommendations of the Santhanam
qualified to be a judge of the Committee on Prevention of
Supreme Court of India. Corruption.
Which of the statements given above 3. It presents an annual report on its
is/are correct? performance to the President.
(a) 1 only How many of the above statements are
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) Only one
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Q66. Consider the following statements with Q68. Consider the following statements
reference to State Human Rights regarding the Unique Identification
Commission (SHRC) : Authority of India :
1. National Human Rights Commission 1. It is a non-statutory body established
and State Human Rights by a resolution of the Central
Commission, both are created by the government.
same Act. 2. It works under the aegis of the
2. SHRC can neither inquire into cases Ministry of Electronics and
related to Centre list (List-I) of Information technology.
Seventh Schedule nor into cases 3. It is responsible for enrolment,
already being inquired into by any authentication and development of
other Statutory Commission. policy related to Aadhaar.
Which of the statements given above How many of the above statements are
is/are correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) Only one
(b) 2 only (b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) All three
(d) either 1 nor 2 (d) None

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Q69. Consider the following statements Q71. With references to the Goverment of
regarding the National Commission on National Capital Territory of Delhi
Minority Educational Institutions (GNCTD) Amendment Act, 2021,
(NCMEI) : consider the following statements :
1. It is a quasi-judicial body set up 1. The Act says that 'Goverment' int the
through an executive resolution. National Capital Territory of Delhi
2. No court can entertain any suit, means the Lieutenant-Governor (LG)
application or other proceedings in of Delhi.
respect of any order made by the 2. The opinion of the LG must be
Commission. obtained before taking any executive
3. The Commission can make action on the decisions of the
recommendations to both Centre Minister/Concil of Ministers on
and States on any matter which certain matters, as specified ny the
directly or indirectly deprives the LG.
minority community of their rights 3. It prohibits the Legislative Assembly
under Article 30. from making any rule to enable itself
How many of the above statements are to consider the matters of the day
correct? to-day administration of the NCT of
(a) Only one Delhi.
(b) Only two How many of the statements given
(c) All three above NOT correctly?
(d) None (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Q72. How many of the following

Q70. With reference to Zonal Councils, fundamental duties were through the
consider the following statements : Constitution (86th Amendment) Act,
1. They are Constitutional Bodies. 2002?
2. These are advisory bodies. 1. To strive towards excellence in
3. It is chaired by the Union Home individual and collective activity
Minister. through Education
How many of the above statements are 2. To provide opportunities for
correct? education to one's child between the
(a) Only one age of 6 and 14 years
(b) Only two 3. To provide early childhood care and
(c) All three education for all children until they
(d) None complete the age of six years.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

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Q73. What is the ground on which the Q77. With reference to the composition of
Supreme Court can refuse relief under the Council of States, consider the
Article 32? following statements :
(a) The aggrieved person can get 1. Only the elected members of the
remedy from another court State Legislative Assembly take part
(b) That disputed facts have to be in the election of members to the
investigated Council of States.
(c) That no fundamental right has been 2. The Constitution of India prescribes
infringed indirect election with single
(d) That the petitioner has not asked for transferable vote for the
the proper writ applicable to his/her representatives of the Union
case Territories in the Council of States.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
Q74. Which of the following Articles in the (b) 2 only
Constitution of India are exceptions to (c) Both 1 and 2
the Fundamental Rights enumerated in (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Article 14 and Article 19? (CDS (II) 2020)
(a) Article 31A and Article 31C
(b) Article 31B and Article 31D
(c) Article 12 and Article 13
(d) Article 16 and Article 17

Q75. Which one among the following is not

a character of a secular State? Q78. Which of the following is not under the
(a) It refuses theocracy. powers and functions of the Election
(b) It separates religion from the State. Commission of India?
(c) A State in order to be secular must (a) Superintendence, direction and
be democratic. control of the electoral rolls
(d) It must prevent religious conflict and preparation of
promote religious harmony. (b) Conduct of elections to the
Parliament and to the Legislature of
each State
(c) Conduct of election to the office of
Q76. Which one of the following Articles of the President and the Vice President
the Constitution of India lays down that (d) Appointment of the Regional
no citizen can be denied the use of wells, Commissioners to assist the Election
tanks and bathing Ghats maintained out Commission in the performance of
of State funds? the functions
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 15
(c) Article 16
(d) Article 17

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Q79. Consider the following statements: Q82. With reference to Critical Mineral
Statement I : The Indian Federalism is Alliance, consider the following
described as "an indestructible Union statements :
composed of destructible States’. 1. It is a global initiative by developing
Statement II : The Constitution of India and least developed countries to
offers no guarantee to the States against bolster critical mineral supply chains.
their territorial integrity. 2. India is a founding member of this
Which of the following statements is Alliance.
correct? Which of the statements given above
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II is/are correct?
are correct and Statement-II is the (a) 1 only
correct explanation for Statement-I (b) 2 only
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II (c) Both 1 and 2
are correct and Statement-II is not (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the correct explanation for
Statement-1
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement
II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but
Statement-II is correct

Q80. The term ‘Nine Dash Line’ is often

heard in the news in the context of
affairs of
(a) Piracy in Western Indian Ocean
(b) Disputes in South China Sea
(c) Israel Palestine conflict across Jordan
river Q83. Which of the following statements best
(d) Dispute between Russia & Ukraine describes the ‘Tampon Tax’ sometimes
seen in the news :
Q81. With reference to Just Energy Transition (a) It a tax applied on the Menstrual
Partnership (JETP), consider the products
following statements : (b) It is direct tax levied on the Income
1. It aims to reduce emissions in the derived from Digital assets
energy sector and accelerate the coal (c) It is a prohibitory tax levied on sin
phase-out. goods
2. It was launched at the 26th UN (d) It is a tax on all spot conversions of
Climate Change Conference of the one currency into another.
Parties (COP 26) in Glasgow.
3. India has become the first country to
sign the JETP.
How many statements given above are
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

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Q84. Consider the following statements : Q86. Consider the following pairs :
Statement I : In polygraph test a drug
called sodium pentothal is injected into Conventions / Related to
the body of the accused, which Protocols
transports them to a hypnotic or
sedated state. 1. Maputo Women’s rights
Statement II : A polygraph test is based Protocol
on the assumption that physiological
responses that are triggered when a 2. Incheon Rights of
person is lying are different from what Strategy Differently
they would be otherwise. abled People
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? 3. Yogyakarta Rights of
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II Principles Gender Identity
are correct and Statement-II is the
correct explanation for Statement-I How many pairs given above are
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II correct?
are correct and Statement-II is not (a) Only one
the correct explanation for (b) Only two
Statement-1 (c) All three
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement (d) None
II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but
Statement-II is correct

Q85. Consider the following pairs

Places/Region located in Q87. With reference to Urban 20 (U20),

in news consider the following statements :
1. It brings together mayors from major
1. Heliopolis Syria G20 cities to inform the discussions
Memorial of national leaders at the G20.
2. It was launched at Ahmedabad in
2. Nagorno Kazakhstan 2023 during India’s Presidency of
Karabakh G20.
Which of the statements given above
3. Liptako Myanmar is/are correct?
Gourma (a) 1 only
Region (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
How many pairs given above are (d) Neither 1 nor 2
correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

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Q88. With reference to the Anti-Defection Q90. Consider the following statements :
law in India, consider the following 1. Under the provisions of Part III of the
statements : Indian Constitution, the state
Statement I : The Constitution (91st legislatures are empowered to
Amendment) Act provided protection to provide reservation to weaker
the defectors on grounds of a split in the sections based on Domicile.
party. 2. The Constitution does not expressly
Statement II : The Constitution permit reservation for women in
Commission (NCRWC) recommended public employment.
that all the defectors whether individuals Which of the statements given above
or in groups of one-third should be is/are correct?
disqualified for continuing as members. (a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above (b) 2 only
is/are correct? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II (d) Neither 1 nor 2
are correct and Statement-II is the
correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is not
the correct explanation for
Statement-1
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement
II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but
Statement-II is correct

Q91. With reference to Exit Polls, consider

the following statements :
1. An exit poll asks voters which
Q89. Which of the following statements best political party they are supporting
describes the term “Polar Motion” after they have cast their votes in an
sometimes seen in the news? election.
(a) Periodic changes in the Earth's 2. Currently, exit polls can’t be telecast
magnetic Poles due to Sun’s energy from before voting begins till the last
(b) Natural shifting of poles and the axis phase concludes.
of the earth due to change in mass Which of the statements given above are
distribution on Earth. not correct?
(c) An a nticyclonic movement of air (a) 1 only
mass at Poles due to prolonged low (b) 2 only
temperature conditions (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Episodic rise and fall of sea water (d) Neither 1 nor 2
leading unusual weather
phenomenon at Arctic and Antarctic
circles

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Q92. With reference to Deputy Chief Minister Q95. With reference to capital markets, which
(CM) in states, consider the following of the following statements best explains
statements : the ‘Book Building’ process?
1. The office of Deputy CM is not (a) A process used in Initial Public Offer
provided in the Constitution of India. (IPO) for efficient price discovery
2. The legislative procedures and (b) A process of removing the securities
conventions in various states allow of a listed company from a stock
for maximum two persons to be exchange.
appointed to the post of Deputy CM (c) A process through which an
at time. investment bank (the underwriter)
3. In the official hierarchy the rank of acts as a broker between the issuing
the deputy CM is placed above all company and the investing public.
the cabinet Ministers. (d) A process of listing of commercial
How many statements given above are entities at the Stock exchanges
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Q93. The Universal Periodic Review (UPR) is a

unique process which reviews the Q96. With reference to the GOBARdhan
progress of the UN Member States in initiative, consider the following
the domain of statements :
(a) Sustainable Development Goals 1. It aims to convert waste to wealth
(SDG) towards promoting a circular
(b) Human Rights economy.
(c) Intended Nationally Determined 2. It is a joint initiative of the Ministry of
Contributions (INDC) Agriculture and Farmers Welfare and
(d) Employment Ministry of Rural Development.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
Q94. ‘Clarion Clipperton Zone (CCZ)’ was (d) Neither 1 nor 2
recently seen in the news, in the context
of developments in
(a) Deep Sea Mining
(b) Radioactivity
(c) Space Exploration
(d) Quantum Technology

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Q97. Which of the following statements best Q99. Consider the following statements with
explains the meaning of ‘Carbon reference to Liberalised Remittance
Leakage’ a term often seen in the news? Scheme :
(a) A difference between the promised 1. It was introduced by Ministry of
carbon emissions targets and the Finance, Government of India.
actual emissions by industries. 2. It allows remittance of a certain
(b) Relocation of production of carbon amount of money during a financial
intensive materials to countries with year from a current or capital
less stringent climate rules. account.
(c) A situation where companies 3. The scheme is also available to
deliberately underreport their corporations, partnership firms,
emission target efforts. Hindu Undivided Family (HUF) and
(d) A process where greenhouse gases Trusts.
with high Global Warming Potential How many of the above statements are
(GWP) escape into the Stratosphere correct?
from the Tropospheric layer . (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Q98. With reference to Performance Grading Q100. With reference to Special Window for
Index (PGI) recently seen in the news, Affordable & Mid-Income Housing
consider the following statements : (SWAMIH) Fund, consider the following
1. It is released by NITI Aayog in statements :
collaboration with state education 1. It is a type of Alternative Investment
departments. Fund.
2. It assesses states’ performance in 2. It is set up under the Pradhan Mantri
school education based on the Awas Yojana (PMAY) scheme for
Unified District Information System providing affordable housing to the
for Education Plus, National middle-Income group of India.
Achievement Survey, and Mid-Day 3. The National Housing Bank is the
Meal. lead sponsor of this fund on behalf
3. The PGI grading system has 10 levels of the Government of India.
where Level 1 indicates top-notch How many of the above statements are
performance and a score between correct?
951 and 1,000 points. (a) Only one
How many statements given above are (b) Only two
correct? (c) All three
(a) Only one (d) None
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

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