Composite Test Solution

Q1. Consider the following statements with reference to the Nipah virus:

1. The virus can be transmitted from animals to humans.

2. The virus can also be spread through the consumption of contaminated food, or through direct person-to-person
transmission.

3. Currently, there are no vaccines available for the virus.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one
(b)Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Ans- (c) All three

Solution

Statement 1 is correct:

➢ The Nipah virus is a zoonotic virus, which means it can be transmitted from animals to humans.
➢ In this case, fruit bats are recognized as the natural reservoir of the virus, and when humans come into contact
with infected animals or their secretions, they can contract the virus.

Statement 2 is correct:

➢ It can be transmitted to humans through contact with infected animals, which includes not only bats but also
other animals that may carry the virus.
➢ Additionally, it can spread through the consumption of contaminated food, particularly when the food has
been in contact with infected animals or their secretions.
➢ Furthermore, the virus can be transmitted directly from person to person through close contact, which makes
it a concerning public health threat.

Statement 3 is correct:

➢ Currently, there are no vaccines available for the Nipah virus.

➢ This lack of a vaccine makes it challenging to prevent and control outbreaks of Nipah virus infections, and
efforts primarily focus on isolation and supportive care for infected individuals, as well as implementing
measures to reduce transmission.

Q2. With respect to NISAR space mission, consider the following statements:
1. It is a joint mission of the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) and the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency
(JAXA).
2. Its main objective is to design, develop and launch dual frequency (L and S band) Radar Imaging Satellite.
3. It will study the Earth from space in terms of the future global environmental aspect.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one
(b)Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Ans- (b) Only two

Solution
Statement 1 is NOT CORRECT:
➢ The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) and the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO)
have jointly manufactured the earth science satellite named, NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar).
➢ While NASA is delivering the L-Band SAR payload, high precision GPS and 12m unfurlable antenna, ISRO is
delivering S-band SAR payload, spacecraft bus and facilitating launch.
Statements 2 and 3 are CORRECT:
➢ The mission objectives are- Design, Develop and launch Dual Frequency (L and S band) Radar Imaging
Satellite and to Explore newer applications areas using L & S Band microwave data especially in surface
deformation studies, terrestrial biomass structure, natural resource mapping and monitoring and studies
related to dynamics of ice-sheets, glaciers, forests, oil slick etc.
➢ The mission is expected to study the Earth from space in terms of the future global environmental aspect.

Q3. In the context of reproductive technologies, consider the following statements regarding In Vitro Fertilization (IVF):

1. IVF is an Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) in which the egg is fertilized outside the body and then transferred
to the uterus.

2. IVF babies face a higher mortality risk than those who are conceived naturally.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans - (c) Both 1 and 2

Solution

Statement 1 is correct:

➢ In vitro fertilization (IVF) is a type of assisted reproductive technology (ART).

➢ It involves retrieving eggs from a woman’s ovaries and fertilizing them with sperm.
➢ This fertilized egg is known as an embryo.
➢ The embryo is then transferred to a woman’s uterus.

Statement 2 is correct:

➢ Babies that have been conceived through assisted reproductive techniques like IVF face a higher risk of
mortality than naturally conceived babies.
➢ It is due to the fact that there are many premature births in IVF-conceived children.

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding Vitamin D:

1. It is a water-soluble vitamin and is not soluble in fat.

2. Glycogen stored in the skeletal muscles is not converted into a usable form of energy without Vitamin D.

3. Vitamin D deficiency is associated with rickets.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans- (b) Only two

Solution

Statement 1 is not correct:

➢ Vitamin D (also referred to as “calciferol”) is a fat-soluble vitamin that is naturally present in a few foods, added
to others, and available as a dietary supplement.
➢ It is also produced endogenously when ultraviolet (UV) rays from sunlight strike the skin and trigger vitamin D
synthesis.

Statement 2 is correct:

➢ Skeletal muscles normally brim with energy, yet they starve in the absence of Vitamin D, says recent research
led by researchers of National Institute of Immunology, New Delhi.
➢ This research demonstrates that glycogen stored in the skeletal muscles is not converted into a usable form of
energy without Vitamin D.
➢ Usually, the glucose absorbed from the food is converted into glycogen and stored in the skeletal muscle.
➢ This stored energy reserve is used by muscles to produce energy after the food consumed is digested.
➢ However, in the absence of vitamin D, the skeletal muscle is starved of energy, decreasing muscle mass.

Statement 3 is correct:

➢ Vitamin D deficiency is often associated with rickets.

➢ In rickets, the bone tissue does not correctly mineralise calcium and phosphorus, leading to softening of bones
resulting in skeletal deformities.

Q5. Consider the following diseases:

1. Cholera

2. Hepatitis B

3. Tuberculosis

How many of the diseases are caused by viruses?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans - (a) Only one

Solution
 ➢ Cholera is an acute diarrhoeal infection caused by the ingestion of food or water contaminated with
the bacterium Vibrio cholerae.
➢ Hepatitis B is an infection in the liver which happens because of the Hepatitis B virus or HBV.
o The virus usually spreads through blood, semen or other body fluids.
➢ Tuberculosis (TB) is a disease that is caused by a bacterium, Mycobacterium tuberculosis (Mtb), that is
transmitted by people infected with pulmonary (lung) TB who release Mtb into the air through coughing,
sneezing or spitting.

Q6. Consider the following pairs:

Commonly used material: Unwanted or controversial chemicals found in them

1. Lipstick: Lead

2. Soft drinks: Brominated vegetable oils

3. Chinese fast food: Monosodium glutamate

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) All three pairs

(d) None of the pairs

Ans- (c) All three pairs

➢ Pair 1 is correctly matched: Lead is a common impurity found in cosmetic lip products, such as lipsticks, and
other cosmetics, such as eye shadows, blushes, compact powders, shampoos, and body lotions.
➢ Pair 2 is correctly matched: Brominated vegetable oil is a food additive sometimes used to keep citrus flavoring
from separating out in some sodas and soft drinks.
➢ Pair 3 is correctly matched: Monosodium glutamate(MSG), is a glutamate, or salt of glutamic acid, a "non-
essential" amino acid. It is a neurotransmitter - transporting messages from one nerve cell to another.
o Glutamic acid is found naturally in tomatoes, grapes, cheese, mushrooms and other foods. It is
commonly used in Chinese fast food.

Q7. Consider the following fibres:

1. Cotton

2. Coir

3. Rayon

4. Hemp

How many of the above are natural fibres?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Ans- (c) Only three

➢ Natural fibres are a renewable resource and have several advantages associated with them, such as that they
impart the composite high specific stiffness and strength, have a desirable fibre aspect ratio, are biodegradable,
are readily available from natural sources, and more importantly, they have a low cost per unit volume.
➢ Jute, kenaf, hemp, sisal, coir, flax, cashmere and cotton are some of the examples of natural fibres.
o Natural fibres derived from plants mainly consist of cellulose, hemicellulose, lignin, pectin, and other
waxy substances.
➢ Rayon is a manufactured fibre made from regenerated cellulose fibre.
o The many types and grades of rayon can imitate the feel and texture of natural fibres such as silk, wool,
cotton, and linen.
o The types that resemble silk are often called artificial silk.

Q8. Which of the following is NOT the characteristics of Lagrange points?

(a) It is a position where the gravitational pull of two large masses precisely equals the centripetal force required for a
small object to move with them.

(b) There are three Lagrange points in the earth-sun system where a small mass can orbit in a constant pattern.

(c) These points are used by spacecraft to reduce fuel consumption needed to remain in position.

(d) L1 Lagrange point of the earth-sun system is a home to the solar and heliospheric observatory satellites.

Ans- (b)

➢ Option (a) is correct: Lagrange points is a position where the gravitational pull of two large masses precisely
equals the centripetal force required for a small object to move with them. This is the point overall forces
balance.
➢ Option (b) is not correct: There are five lagrange points in the earth- sun system where a small mass can orbit
in a constant pattern.
➢ Option (c) is correct: Since, overall force balances out, these are the points where spacecraft needs less fuel
consumption to remain in position.
➢ Option (d) is correct:
o Aditya Mission to study the corona of the sun will take its position at L1 lagrange point.
o L1 point is a home for solar and heliospheric observatory satellites.

Q9. Consider the following statements regarding Japanese Encephalitis:

1. It is a mosquito-borne disease.

2. It is caused by bacteria.

3. At present, there is no cure available for this disease.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans - (b) Only two

Solution

➢ Statement 1 is correct: Japanese encephalitis virus (JEV) is a flavivirus related to dengue, yellow fever and
West Nile viruses, and is spread by mosquitoes.
➢ Statement 2 is not correct: It is caused by a virus and not bacteria.
➢ Statement 3 is correct: Since there is no cure available for JEV, early detection is essential to mitigate a
breakout.

Q10 Packets of potato chips are usually flushed with which one of the following gases to prevent rancidity?

(a) Carbon dioxide

(b) Hydrogen

(c) Nitrogen

(d) Oxygen

Ans- (c) Nitrogen

Solution

➢ Nitrogen gas is used to prevent rancidity in potato chips because it slows down the oxidation of chips.
➢ Nitrogen gas is an antioxidant that prevents oxidation of fat and oil molecules.
➢ It also controls oxygen reactivity.
➢ Nitrogen is stable and less reactive because it contains a triple bond (N ≡ N). It's also an inert gas, meaning it
doesn't react with metals and prevents oxidation or rust.
➢ Manufacturers try to eliminate oxygen from packaging completely. Once opened, the contents can become
stale or spoil due to exposure to oxygen.

Q11. Oil and water do not mix because of the property of

(a) bulk modulus

(b) shear strain

(c) volume effect

(d) surface tension

Ans- (d) surface tension

Solution

➢ Surface tension is the property of a liquid that allows it to resist external forces.
➢ In the case of oil and water, the difference in their molecular structures causes them to be immiscible, meaning
they do not easily mix.
➢ This is due to the surface tension of water, which is caused by the cohesive forces between water molecules at
the surface.
➢ This cohesive force prevents the oil from easily mixing with the water, leading to the formation of distinct
layers.

Q12. Consider the following statements regarding the Singularity Theory about the black hole:

1. Inside a black hole, matter is compressed down to an infinitely tiny point.

2. All conceptions of time and space completely break down at the center of the black hole.
3. Sun is a massive star and can turn into a black hole at end of the life cycle.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans- (b) Only two

Statements 1 and 2 are CORRECT:

➢ A black hole is a place in space where gravity pulls so much that even light cannot get out.

➢ Gravity is so strong because matter has been squeezed into a tiny space.

➢ This can happen when a star is dying.

➢ According to the Singularity theory, at the centre of a black hole is the ultimate no man's land, which is a
place where matter is compressed down to an infinitely tiny point, and all conceptions of time and space
completely break down.

Statement 3 is NOT CORRECT:

➢ Our Sun is an average-sized star.

➢ The sun is much smaller in size to become a black hole at the end of the life cycle.

➢ The Sun would need to be about 20 times more massive to end its life as a black hole.

➢ Stars that are born this size or larger can explode into a supernova at the end of their lifetimes before collapsing
back into a black hole, an object with a gravitational pull so strong that nothing, not even light, can escape.

➢ The life cycle of Sun will end up as a white dwarf not as Black hole.

Q13. Consider the following diseases:

1. Diphtheria

2. Chickenpox

3. Smallpox

How many of the above diseases have been eradicated from India?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans- (a) Only one

Solution
 ➢ Smallpox was a serious infectious disease caused by the Variola virus.

o Smallpox was eradicated, and no cases of naturally occurring smallpox have happened since 1977.

o It was mainly spread by direct and fairly prolonged face-to-face contact between people.

➢ Diphtheria is a serious bacterial infection that affects the mucous membranes of the throat and nose.

o A type of bacteria called Corynebacterium diphtheriae causes diphtheria.

➢ The chickenpox infection caused by the Varicella-zoster virus (VZV).

o The virus can spread through: saliva, coughing, sneezing, contact with fluid from the blisters.

Q14. Consider the following communication technologies:

1. Closed-circuit Television

2. Radio Frequency Identification

3. Wireless Local Area Network

How many of the above are considered Short-Range devices/technologies?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans- (c)

Solution

➢ Short Range Devices (SRD) are radio devices that offer a low risk of interference with other radio services,
usually because their transmitted power, and hence their range, is low.

➢ The definition ‘Short Range Device’ may be applied to many different types of wireless equipment, including
various forms of:

o Access control (including door and gate openers)

o Alarms and movement detectors

o Closed-circuit television (CCTV)

o Cordless audio devices, including wireless microphones

o Industrial control

o Local Area Networks

o Medical implants

o Metering devices

o Remote control

o Radio frequency identification (RFID)

o Road Transport Telematics

Q15. With reference to the Laser Interferometer Gravitational Wave- Observatory (LIGO), which of the following
statements is NOT correct?

(a) LIGO - India is being funded by the Department of Atomic Energy and Department of Science and Technology.

(b) One of the aims of LIGO mission is to study the cosmic sources simultaneously over a wide range of the
electromagnetic spectrum.

(c) It will help in observing the phenomenon of the explosion of giant stars, the collision of ultradense dead ones and
the coming together of black holes.

(d) It validated the existence of gravitational waves which Einstein has predicted in his general theory of relativity.

Ans – (b)

Solution

Option (a) is correct: LIGO- India is being funded by the Department of Atomic Energy and Department of Science
and Technology.
Option (b) is not correct:

➢ It is the goal of Astrosat mission to study the cosmic sources simultaneously over a wide range of the
electromagnetic spectrum.

➢ LIGO has the aim of detecting gravitational waves which provides information about the evolution of galaxies
and black holes.

Option (c) is correct:

➢ The ability to detect gravitational waves opens up the “new field of gravitational-wave astronomy”, in which
scientists will now “listen to the waves” to know more about the objects that can produce them, including
black holes, neutron stars and supernovae and directly study violent events like mergers of very massive and
dense stars.

➢ Till LIGO came into the picture, black holes were never directly detected.

Option (d) is correct:

➢ According to the theory of general relativity, the pair of black holes orbiting around each other lost energy
through the emission of gravitational waves.
➢ As the holes lost energy, they were gravitationally drawn closer to each other.
➢ As they came closer, the spinning became faster and they emitted even more gravitational waves and lost even
more energy.
➢ The LIGO validated the existence of gravitational waves.

Q16. ‘Yellowcake’, an item of smuggling across border is

(a) a crude form of heroin

(b) a crude form of cocaine

(c) uranium oxide

(d) unrefined gold

Ans- (c) uranium oxide

Solution
 ➢ Yellow cake, an item of smuggling across border, is Uranium oxide.
➢ Uranium oxide smuggled across border as yellow cake. Enriched uranium can be used in making illegal nuclear
explosive that is dangerous to humanity.

Q17 Which one of the following methods can used to remove permanent hardness of water?

(a) Boiling

(b) Ion exchange

(c) Lime treatment

(d) Bubbling sulphur dioxide gas

Ans - (b) Ion exchange

Solution

➢ Boiling - Boiling water is effective in removing temporary hardness but not permanent hardness. Permanent
hardness is caused by the presence of insoluble compounds such as calcium sulfate and magnesium sulfate,
which cannot be removed by boiling.
➢ Ion-exchange - This method involves passing the hard water through a special resin that contains exchangeable
ions. The resin exchanges the calcium and magnesium ions in the water with sodium or potassium ions,
effectively removing the hardness. This process is commonly used in water softeners.
➢ Lime treatment - Lime treatment is effective in removing temporary hardness but not permanent hardness. It
involves adding slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) to the water, which reacts with the calcium and magnesium
ions to form insoluble precipitates that can be removed.
➢ Bubbling sulfur dioxide gas - This method is not effective in removing permanent hardness. Sulfur dioxide gas
may react with the dissolved oxygen in water, but it does not have a direct effect on the calcium and
magnesium ions that cause permanent hardness.

Q18. Which one of the following is the major function of platelets?

(a) Clotting of blood

(b) O2 transport

(c) Immunity

(d) Phagocytosis

Ans- (a) Clotting of blood

Solution

➢ The major function of platelets is the clotting of blood.

➢ Platelets, also known as thrombocytes, play a crucial role in the process of hemostasis, which is the body`s
mechanism to stop bleeding.
➢ When a blood vessel is damaged, platelets gather at the site and form a plug to prevent further blood loss.
This process is known as primary hemostasis.
Q19 Brilliance of diamond is due to

(a) interference of light

(b) diffraction of light

(c) polarisation of light

(d) total internal reflection of light

Ans – (d) total internal reflection of light

Solution

➢ The brilliance of a diamond is due to the phenomenon of total internal reflection of light. Total internal
reflection occurs when light traveling through a denser medium, such as a diamond, reaches the boundary
with a less dense medium, like air, at a specific angle called the critical angle.
➢ At this critical angle, the light is reflected into the denser medium instead of refracting out.
➢ In the case of diamonds, the high refractive index of the diamond causes a large critical angle. As a result, when
light enters the diamond, it undergoes multiple internal reflections before finally exiting the diamond.
➢ These internal reflections keep the light trapped inside the diamond for a longer period, enhancing its
brilliance.

Q20. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Artificial satellites are always launched from the earth in the eastward direction.

Statement II: The earth rotates from west to east and so the satellite attains the escape velocity.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Ans – (a)

Solution

➢ Statement I state that artificial satellites are always launched eastwards from Earth, which is generally true.
This is done to take advantage of the Earth`s rotational velocity, which provides extra push to the satellite.
➢ Statement II explains this further by stating that the Earth rotates from west to east.
➢ This provides the satellites with additional momentum to reach escape velocity, the speed necessary to break
free from the Earth`s gravitational pull.

Q21. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Unsaturated fats are more reactive compared with the saturated fats.

Statement II: Unsaturated fats have only single bonds in their structure.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Ans – (c)

Solution

➢ Statement I is true because unsaturated fats are more reactive compared with saturated fats due to multiple
bonds present between carbon atoms.
➢ Statement II is false because unsaturated fats have at least double bond in their structure.

Q22. When ants bite, they inject

(a) glacial acetic acid

(b) methanol

(c) formic acid

(d) stearic acid

Ans - (c) formic acid

Solution

➢ When ants bite, they inject formic acid into the skin. Formic acid is a weak acid that's found in the ant's
mandible.
➢ The acid can cause pain and sometimes be harmful.
➢ Some people are allergic to formic acid, which can cause a reaction beyond the bite site.
➢ The pain can be relieved by applying wet baking soda to the affected area.

Q23 Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In human beings, females play a major role in determining the sex of the offspring.

Statement II: Women have two ‘X’ chromosomes.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? [PYQ 2000]

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Ans- (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Solution

➢ The sex of the offspring in human beings is determined by the combination of sex chromosomes inherited from
both parents. While it is true that women have two X chromosomes (XX), the major role in determining the
sex of the offspring lies with the male.
➢ Human males have one X chromosome and one Y chromosome (XY). The presence of the Y chromosome
determines the development of male characteristics. If a sperm carrying an X chromosome fertilizes the egg,
 the resulting offspring will be female (XX). If a sperm carrying a Y chromosome fertilizes the egg, the resulting
offspring will be male (XY).
➢ Therefore, the presence or absence of the Y chromosome in the sperm determines the sex of the offspring.
The female`s contribution is always an X chromosome, but it is the male`s contribution that determines
whether the resulting offspring will be male or female.

Q24. Regular intake of fresh fruits and vegetables is recommended in the diet since they are a good source of
antioxidants. How do antioxidants help a person maintain health and promote longevity?

(a) They activate the enzymes necessary for vitamin synthesis in the body and help prevent vitamin deficiency

(b) They prevent excessive oxidation of carbohydrates, fats and proteins in the body and help avoid unnecessary
wastage of energy

(c) They neutralize the free radicals produced in the body during metabolism

(d) They activate certain genes in the cells of the body and help delay the ageing process

Ans - (c) They neutralize the free radicals produced in the body during metabolism

Solution

➢ Antioxidants are molecules that help prevent or slow down the damage caused by free radicals in the body.
Free radicals are unstable molecules that can damage cells and contribute to aging and diseases such as cancer,
heart disease, and Alzheimer`s disease. Antioxidants neutralize free radicals by donating an electron, which
stabilizes them and reduces their ability to cause harm.
➢ Regular intake of fresh fruits and vegetables is recommended in the diet since they are rich sources of
antioxidants. By consuming antioxidants through diet or supplements, a person can reduce the damage caused
by free radicals and promote longevity. Antioxidants also have other health benefits, such as reducing
inflammation and improving the immune system.

Q25. Consider the following properties

1. Flexibility

2. Allotrope of carbon

3. High electrical resistance

4. Transparent material

How many of above are properties of Graphene?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Ans- (c) Only three

Solution

• Graphene is a material that is extracted from graphite and is made up of pure carbon. It is considered tough,
flexible, light and with very low electrical resistance. So, Statement 1 is correct and Statement 3 is not correct.
 • It is an abundant mineral which is an allotrope of carbon that is made up of very tightly bonded carbon atoms
organised into a hexagonal lattice. So, Statement 2 is correct.
• One of the most useful properties of graphene is that it is a zero-overlap semimetal (with both holes and
electrons as charge carriers) with very high electrical conductivity. Carbon atoms have a total of 6 electrons; 2
in the inner shell and 4 in the outer shell.
• It has applications in the energy, construction, health and electronics sectors. Through the use of graphene,
the useful life of batteries could be increased by 10, as well as charging in less time. It is also suitable for
manufacturing batteries for drones, as these would be lighter and tougher. It is a transparent material and
absorbs very little light. So, Statement 4 is correct.

Q26. Lightning occurs as a result of:

(a) collision of upper clouds with stratosphere

(b) presence of low pressure in troposphere

(c) building up of opposite charges in the clouds

(d) collision of two clouds with equal amounts of positive charges

Answer: (c)

Solution

➢ Lightning is a giant spark of electricity in the atmosphere between clouds, the air, or the ground. In the early
stages of development, air acts as an insulator between the positive and negative charges in the cloud and
between the cloud and the ground.
➢ When the opposite charges build up enough, this insulating capacity of the air brakes down and there is a rapid
discharge of electricity that is known as a lightning flash of lightning temporarily equalizes the charged regions
in the atmosphere until the opposite charges build up again.
➢ Lightning can occur between opposite charges within the thunderstorm cloud (intra-cloud lightning) or
between opposite charges in the cloud and on the ground (cloud-to-ground lightning).
➢ Lightning is one of the oldest observed natural phenomena on Earth.
➢ It can be seen in volcanic eruptions, extremely intense forest fires, surface nuclear detonations, heavy
snowstorms, in large hurricanes and obviously, thunderstorms.

Q27. Which one of the following best describes the phenomenon of 'Time dilation'?

(a) The reversal of events during the Big Bang event

(b) Precise measurement of time for scientific purposes

(c) Slower passage of time for a moving observer relative to another observer

(d) Constant nature of time across the universe

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

➢ Time dilation is the slowing of time as perceived by one observer compared with another, depending on their
relative motion or positions in a gravitational field. Time passage is slow for moving observers as compared to
others.
➢ It's a consequence of Einsteinian relativity, in which time is not as absolute as it might appear. The rate at which
it passes is different for observers in different frames of reference.
 ➢ Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q28. Consider the following animals:

1. Sea cow

2. Sea horse

3. Sea lion

How many of the above are mammals?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans- (b) Only two

➢ The sea cow (dugong) and sea lion are mammals. The sea horse, however, is not a mammal but a type of fish.

Q29. Consider the following statements about New Space India Limited:

1. It is a joint venture of ISRO and Private Sector Companies.

2. It has the mandate to manufacture Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) in collaboration with the Private Sector.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 and 2

Ans - (b) 2 only

Solution

➢ Statement 1 is not correct: New Space India Limited is a wholly owned Government of India undertaking/
Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE), under the administrative control of Department of Space (DOS) to
commercially exploit the research and development work of Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
Centres and constituent units of DOS.
Statement 2 is correct:

➢ NSIL has been incorporated to carry out the following roles and functions as part of its mandate viz.

o Small Satellite technology transfer to industry, wherein NSIL will obtain license from DOS/ISRO and
sub-license it to Industries;

o Manufacture of Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) in collaboration with the Private Sector;

o Product ionisation of Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) through Indian Industry;
 o Product ionisation and marketing of Space-based products and services, including launch and
application;

o Transfer of technology developed by ISRO Centres and constituent units of DOS;

o Marketing spin-off technologies and products/services, both in India and abroad.

Q30. Consider the following countries:

1. Australia

2. India

3. Luxembourg

4. United Arab Emirates

How many countries given above are founding members of the Artemis Accords?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Ans- (c) Only three

Solution

➢ Grounded in the Outer Space Treaty of 1967 (OST), the Artemis Accords are a nonbinding set of principles
designed to guide civil space exploration and use in the 21st century.

➢ It is an American-led effort to return humans to the moon by 2025, with the ultimate goal of expanding space
exploration to Mars and beyond.

➢ Artemis Accords ensures that space exploration is conducted in a safe, sustainable and transparent manner
and in full compliance with international law.

➢ The founding members of the Artemis Accords are Australia, Canada, Italy, Japan, Luxembourg, United Arab
Emirates, United Kingdom, and the US.

➢ As more countries establish a presence in outer space, via research stations, satellites, or even rocket
launchers, these accords provide a set of principles to create a safe and transparent environment that inspires
exploration, science, and commercial activities.

Q31. With reference to the International Astronomical Union (IAU), consider the following statements:

1. It is a body of individual astronomers across the world.

2. It is responsible for defining fundamental astronomical and physical constants.

3. It assigns designations to celestial bodies and surface features on them.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans - (c) All three

Solution

Statement 1 is correct:

➢ The International Astronomical Union (IAU) was founded in 1919.

➢ Its mission is to promote and safeguard the science of astronomy in all its aspects, including research,
communication, education and development, through international cooperation.
➢ The IAU has 13675 astronomers across the world.
Statement 2 is correct:
➢ The key activity of the IAU:
o IAU sponsors scientific meetings every year.
o Definition of fundamental astronomical and physical constants.
o Promotion of educational activities in astronomy and informal discussions on the possibilities for
future international large-scale facilities.
Statement 3 is correct:
➢ The IAU serves as the internationally recognized authority for assigning designations to celestial bodies and
surface features on them.
➢ Naming of Planet-process:
o The privilege of naming a planet is first given to discoverers, who have 10 years to propose a name.
o The discoverer or team is expected to write a short citation, explaining the reasons for assigning the
name, according to the IAU’s guidelines.
o All names proposed are judged by the 15-member Working Group for Small Body Nomenclature
(CSBN) of the IAU, comprising professional astronomers with research interests in minor planets
and/or comets from around the world.

Q32. With reference to the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV), consider the following statements:

1. It is a three-stage launch vehicle with alternating solid, liquid and cryogenic stages.

2. It has been used to launch the Chandrayaan 2.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Ans- (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution

Statement 1 is not correct:

➢ Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) is the third generation launch vehicle of India.
➢ It is a four staged launch vehicle with alternating solid and liquid stages.
➢ It doesn't use a cryogenic engine.
Statement 2 is not correct:
 ➢ PSLV has been used to launch Chandrayaan 1 and Mangalyan.
➢ Chandrayaan 2 was launched using GSLV Mark III.

Q33. Consider the following pairs

Objects in space: Description

1. Cepheids: Stars that brighten and dim periodically

2. Nebula: Giant clouds of dust and gas in space

3. Pulsars: Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) All three pairs

(d) None of the pairs

Ans- (c) All three pairs

Solution

1st pair is correctly Matched

➢ Cepheids, also called Cepheid Variables, are stars which brighten and dim periodically.

➢ This behavior allows them to be used as cosmic yardsticks out to distances of a few tens of millions of light-
years.
➢ They are reasonably abundant and very bright.
➢ Astronomers can identify them not only in our Galaxy, but in other nearby galaxies as well.
nd
2 Pair is correctly Matched

➢ A nebula is a giant cloud of dust and gas in space.

➢ Some nebulae (more than one nebula) come from the gas and dust thrown out by the explosion of a dying
star, such as a supernova.
➢ Other nebulae are regions where new stars are beginning to form.
➢ Nebulae are made of dust and gasses mostly hydrogen and helium.
➢ The dust and gases in a nebula are very spread out, but gravity can slowly begin to pull together clumps of dust
and gas.
➢ As these clumps get bigger and bigger, their gravity gets stronger and stronger.
3rd pair is correctly Matched

• Most neutron stars are observed as pulsars.

• Neutron stars are formed when a massive star runs out of fuel and collapses.
• The very central region of the star – the core – collapses, crushing together every proton and electron into a
neutron.
• Pulsars are rotating neutron stars observed to have pulses of radiation at very regular intervals that typically
range from milliseconds to seconds.
• Pulsars have very strong magnetic fields which funnel jets of particles out along the two magnetic poles.
• These accelerated particles produce very powerful beams of light.
Q34. Consider the following pairs

Nuclear Power Plant: State

1. Kakrapar: Gujarat

2. Narora: Uttar Pradesh

3. Jaitapur: Maharashtra

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) All three pairs

(d) None of the pairs

Ans- (c) All three pairs

Solution

➢ The first pair is correctly matched: Kakrapar Atomic Power Station is a nuclear power station in India, which
lies in the proximity of Surat and Tapi river in the state of Gujarat.
➢ The second pair is correctly matched: Narora Atomic Power Station (NAPS) is a nuclear power plant located
in Narora, Bulandshahar District in Uttar Pradesh, India.
➢ The third pair is correctly matched: Jaitapur nuclear power plant is a six-reactor nuclear power plant planned
to be built 400km south of Mumbai, in Ratnagiri, Maharashtra, India.

Q35. Consider the following pairs

Metal: Ore

1. Calcium: Dolomite

2. Aluminium: Bauxite

3. Gold: Calaverite

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans- (c) All three

Solution

➢ The first pair is correctly matched: Gypsum and Dolomite are the ores of Calcium.
➢ The second pair is correctly matched: Bauxite is the ore of Aluminium.
➢ The third pair is correctly matched: Calaverite is the ore of Gold.
Q36. What is Deepfake technology, recently seen in news?

(a) It is encrypted online content that is not indexed by conventional search engines.

(b) It is an artificial intelligence-based human image synthesis technique.

(c) It is a software designed to block access to a computer system until a sum of money is paid.

(d) None of the above

Ans – (b)

Solution

➢ Deep fake, a portmanteau of “deep learning” and “fake”, is an artificial intelligence-based human image
synthesis technique.
➢ It is used to combine and superimpose existing images and videos onto source images or videos.
➢ It has been dubbed as the 21st century's answer to Photoshopping.
➢ Deepfakes use a form of artificial intelligence called deep learning to make images of fake events, hence the
name.
➢ It is utilized for generating fake news and committing financial fraud, among other illicit activities.

Q37. Which is the correct chronological sequence of the major events given below?

1. Satellite Launch Vehicle-3(SLV-3) Launch

2. Pokhran -II

3. Sikkim becomes twenty-second State of the Indian Union

4. Operation Smiling Buddha

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 4-3-1-2

(b) 3-1-2-4

(c) 2-1-4-3

(d) 3-4-2-1

Ans - (a) 4-3-1-2

Solution

➢ Operation Smiling Buddha: Also known as Pokhran I: India's first nuclear test at Pokhran, Rajasthan on 18 May
1974
➢ Sikkim: In May 1975, Sikkim became 22nd State of the Indian Union.
➢ Satellite Launch Vehicle-3 rocket (SLV-3): Launched on July, 1980
➢ Pokhran-II: India successfully conducted three nuclear bomb test explosions at the testing site in Pokhran
on May 11, 1998.

Q38. Consider the following:

1. Aadhaar Authentication

2. Aadhaar e-KYC

3. eSign
4. Digital Locker

5. Unified Payment Interface (UPI)

How many of the above are part of IndiaStack, as often heard in the news?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(c) Only four

(d) All five

Ans - (d) All five

Solution

➢ IndiaStack is a set of Application Programming Interface (APIs) that allows governments, businesses, startups
and developers to utilise an unique digital Infrastructure to solve India’s hard problems towards presence-less,
paperless, and cashless service delivery.

➢ The following APIs are considered to be a core part of the India Stack:

o Aadhaar Authentication
o Aadhaar e-KYC
o eSign
o Digital Locker
o Unified Payment Interface (UPI)
o Digital User Consent - still work in progress.

Q39. With reference to plant growth, Vernalisation refers to:

(a) Promotion of flowering by a period of low temperature

(b) Breaking of seed dormancy by promoting germination

(c) Response of a plant to periods of day and night

(d) Differentiation of cells to develop specific structures

Ans- (a) Promotion of flowering by a period of low temperature

Solution

• There are plants for which flowering is either quantitatively or qualitatively dependent on exposure to low
temperature.
o This phenomenon is termed vernalisation.
• Vernalisation refers especially to the promotion of flowering by a period of low temperature.
• It prevents precocious reproductive development late in the growing season and enables the plant to have
sufficient time to reach maturity.
• Some important food plants, wheat, barley, rye have two kinds of varieties: winter and spring varieties.
• The spring varieties are normally planted in the spring and come to flower and produce grain before the end
of the growing season.
• Winter varieties, however, if planted in spring would normally fail to flower or produce mature grain within the
span of a flowering season.
• Hence, they are planted in autumn.
 • They germinate, and over winter come out as small seedlings, resume growth in the spring, and are harvested
usually around mid-summer.

Q40. Which of the following correctly describes non-essential amino acid?

(a) An amino acid which is not essential for the growth and development of the human body.

(b) An amino acid which can be substituted by other amino acids.

(c) An amino acid that can be made by humans and so is not essential to the human diet.

(d) An amino acid which cannot be digested and absorbed by the human body.

Ans- (c)

Solution

➢ Amino acids are organic compounds that combine to form proteins.

➢ Amino acids and proteins are the building blocks of life.
➢ When proteins are digested or broken down, amino acids are left.
➢ They're needed for vital processes like the synthesis of hormones and neurotransmitters.
➢ There are two types of amino acids:
o Non-essential Amino acid: An amino acid that can be made by humans and so is not essential to the
human diet.
▪ There are 11 nonessential amino acids: alanine, arginine, asparagine, aspartic acid, cysteine,
glutamic acid, glutamine, glycine, proline, serine, and tyrosine.
o Essential amino acids cannot be made by the body.
▪ As a result, they must come from food.
▪ The 9 essential amino acids: histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine,
threonine, tryptophan, and valine.

Q41. With reference to the Nuclear Power plant, consider the following statements:

1. Light water reactor uses normal water as a moderator.

2. Graphite is used as a coolant in the pressurise heavy water reactor.

3. Fast breeder Reactors can operate without moderators.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans- (b) Only two

Statement 1 is correct:

➢ Light water is simply ordinary or normal water that does not contain large amounts of deuterium, making it
distinct from heavy water.
➢ Although this water does contain small numbers of heavy water molecules, it isn't enough to make any
significant changes in its properties.
 ➢ Light water plays an important role in the generation of electricity from nuclear energy in Light water reactors,
as it can serve both as a moderator and a coolant to carry away the energy generated by nuclear fission.
Statement 2 is not correct:
• A pressurized heavy water reactor is a type of nuclear reactor that makes use of heavy water as its coolant and
moderator.
• Heavy water contains an isotope of hydrogen called deuterium and Graphite is also used as a moderator
because they reflect fast-moving neutrons, but it is not used as a coolant in the Pressurized Heavy water
reactor.
Statement 3 is correct:

➢ Moderators are used to slow down the neutrons in the Nuclear reactor.
➢ Neutrons produced by fission have high energies and move rapidly.
➢ These so-called fast neutrons do not cause fission as efficiently as slower-moving ones, so they are slowed
down in most reactors by the moderator.
➢ A liquid or gas moderator, commonly water or helium, cools the neutrons to optimum energies for causing
fission.
➢ These slower neutrons are also called thermal neutrons because they are brought to the same temperature as
the surrounding coolant.
➢ In contrast to most normal nuclear reactors, however, a fast reactor uses a coolant that is not an efficient
moderator, such as liquid sodium, so its neutrons remain high-energy.
➢ Although these fast neutrons are not as good at causing fission, they are readily captured by an isotope of
uranium (U238), which then becomes plutonium (Pu239).
➢ This plutonium isotope can be reprocessed and used as more reactor fuel or in producing nuclear weapons.
➢ Thus, the Fast Breeder Reactor can operate without Moderators.

Q42. Consider the following statements about Satellite Based Internet Systems:

1. Satellite internet constellations provide lesser latency than fiber optic internet.

2. Internet services provided by satellite constellations are not affected by storms and precipitation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans- (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Statement 1 is not correct:

➢ Latency is an expression of how long a data packet travels from one designated point to another.

➢ Starlink is a satellite internet constellation operated by SpaceX, providing satellite Internet access coverage to
nearly 40 countries.

➢ Satellite internet provides higher latency compared to cable and fibre internet.

➢ Cable and fibre internet offers latency in the range of 20 to 50 milliseconds (ms), whereas satellite internet
ranges can be as high as 600 ms because Satellite internet data travels a long way as satellites are positioned
22,000 miles above the earth.

➢ So, it offers high latency.

Statement 2 is not correct:

➢ Internet Service provided by Satelite Constellations is affected by storms and precipitation.

➢ In heavy snowfall, communications can be restored by removing snow accumulations around the satellite dish.

Q43. The 'Danuri' lunar orbiter mission was launched by which one of the following countries?

(a) Russia

(b) Japan

(b) China

(d) South Korea

Ans- (d) South Korea

Solution

➢ Danuri is the Republic of Korea's (South Korea) first exploratory space mission to travel beyond Earth's orbit,
launched in collaboration with NASA.

➢ It is also called Korean Pathfinder Lunar Orbiter, launched to study Moon's Surface and identify potential
landing sites for future missions.

➢ The Korea Aerospace Research Institute (KARI) is the aeronautics and space agency of South Korea who is
managing the manufacturing and operation of the orbiter, and NASA supports the mission with the
development of one among the six scientific payloads as well as aiding spacecraft communications and
navigation.

Q44. Which of the following reasons best explains why metal utensils do not work in microwave ovens?

(a) They deflect microwaves away from the food.

(b) They are bad conductors of heat.

(c) They absorb all microwaves not allowing heat to reach the food.

(d) None of the above

Option (a) is correct:

➢ Microwaves are a form of electromagnetic radiation, like radio waves.

➢ They are generated by a device called a magnetron, and they pulse back and forth rapidly inside an oven at a
carefully calibrated frequency.

➢ Microwaves bounce off the oven‘s interior metal walls, pass through paper, glass, and plastic, but they get
absorbed by food — more specifically, by the food‘s water content.

➢ This absorption makes the molecules oscillate back and forth, creating heat and cooking the food from the
inside out, the outside in, or uniformly, depending on where the water lies.

➢ A metal object placed inside the oven deflects these waves away from the food.

➢ It sends them jumping around erratically, possibly damaging the interior of the oven.
Q45. With reference to Haemoglobin, consider the following statements:

1. It imparts red color to blood.

2. It carries oxygen in the blood.

3. It transports carbon dioxide from tissues to lungs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans- (c) All three

All statements are correct

➢ Hemoglobin is the iron-containing oxygen-transport metalloprotein in the red blood cells of all vertebrates
(with the exception of the fish family Channichthyidae) as well as the tissues of some invertebrates.

o Carbon dioxide is transported in the blood from the tissue to the lungs in three ways: dissolved in
blood, buffered with water as a carbonic acid, bound to proteins, particularly hemoglobin.
o Each hemoglobin protein is made up subunits called hemes, which are what give blood its red color.
More specifically, the hemes can bind iron molecules, and these iron molecules bind oxygen. The blood
cells are red because of the interaction between iron and oxygen.
o Hemoglobin in the blood carries oxygen from the respiratory organs (lungs or gills) to the rest of the
body (i.e. the tissues). There it releases the oxygen to permit aerobic respiration to provide energy to
power the functions of the organism in the process called metabolism.

Q46. The sky appears dark to passengers flying in an airplane at very high altitudes. Which of the following reason can
be attributed to this phenomenon?

(a) Presence of dense cumulonimbus clouds.

(b) Scattering of light is not prominent at such heights.

(c) Dispersion of sunlight by moisture in high altitude clouds.

(d) Higher concentration of pollutants at higher altitudes.

Option (b) is correct:

➢ The sky appears dark to passengers flying at very high altitudes, as scattering is not prominent at such
heights.
➢ The molecules of air and other fine particles in the atmosphere have a size smaller than the wavelength of
visible light.
➢ These are more effective in scattering light of shorter wavelengths at the blue end than the light of longer
wavelengths at the red end.
➢ When sunlight passes through the atmosphere, the fine particles in the air scatter the blue color (shorter
wavelengths) more strongly than red.
➢ The scattered blue light enters our eyes.
➢ If the earth had no atmosphere, there would not have been any scattering.
➢ Then, the sky would have looked dark.
Q47. Consider the following statements with reference to fuel cells:

1. In fuel cells, hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to generate electricity.

2. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of direct current (DC).

3. Hydrogen fuel cells are more energy efficient compared to diesel engines.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

All Statements are correct:

➢ Fuel cells are used primarily for backup power for commercial, industrial and residential buildings.
➢ A fuel cell uses the chemical energy of hydrogen or another fuel to cleanly efficiently produce electricity.
➢ If hydrogen is the fuel electricity, water and heat are the only products.
➢ Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of direct current (DC), not in the form of alternating current (AC).
➢ Fuel cells are unique in terms of their potential applications, they can provide power for systems as large as a
utility power station and as small as a laptop computer.
➢ Hydrogen has a high energy density as compared to other fuels, thus it produces more energy in lesser weight
due to which it can prove to be a viable option for heavy vehicles covering long routes in the future.

Q48. With reference to digital technologies, consider the following statements:

1. Encryption is the process of converting data to an unrecognizable form.

2. End-to-end encryption ensures that only the device to which the message is sent can decrypt it.

3. Encrypted messages cannot be stored by third parties.

How many of the above statements are NOT correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans- (a) Only one

Solution

Statement 1 is correct:
➢ Encryption is the process of converting data to an unrecognizable or "encrypted" form.
➢ It is commonly used to protect sensitive information so that only authorized parties can view it.
Statement 2 is correct:
➢ End-to-end encryption is the act of applying encryption to messages on one device such that only the device
to which it is sent can decrypt it.
➢ The message travels all the way from the sender to the recipient in encrypted form.
Statement 3 is not correct: Encrypted messages can be stored by third parties like the messaging platform, security
or regulatory agencies etc.

Q49. Capillary action is defined as the motion of liquids inside very narrow spaces without the assistance of, and most
of the time in opposition to, external forces such as gravity. In this context, Consider the following phenomena:

1. A sponge absorbing water.

2. Burning of a candle.

3. Roots of plants drawing water from the soil.

How many of the above involve capillary action?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans - (c) All three

Solution

➢ Capillary action is defined as the spontaneous flow of a liquid into a narrow tube or porous material.
➢ This movement does not require the force of gravity to occur. It often acts in opposition to gravity.
➢ Capillary action is sometimes called capillary motion, capillarity, or wicking. Capillary action is caused by the
combination of cohesive forces of the liquid and the adhesive forces between the liquid and tube material.
➢ Examples of capillary action include:
o The roots of plants draw water via capillary action from the soil, and thus, supply it to various parts
of the plant including the stems, branches, and leaves.
o A candle burns due to capillary action; when the wick of a candle is lit, the heat of the flame causes
the candle wax to melt. The molten wax is then pulled up through the wick by capillary action and
supplies the fuel needed to sustain the fire and keep the candle burning.
o Pores in the sponge act as minute capillaries, causing them to absorb a large number of liquids.

Q50. Consider the following statements:

1. Uranium-238 is the most commonly found natural isotope of Uranium.

2. Uranium enrichment refers to the process of enriching U-235 isotope concentration to more than 50%.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans - (a) Only 1

Solution

Statement 1 is correct:
 ➢ When uranium is mined, it consists of approximately 99.3% uranium-238, 0.7% uranium-235 and < 0.01%
uranium-234.
➢ Hence, Uranium-238 is the most commonly found natural isotope of Uranium.
➢ These are the different uranium isotopes, all isotopes contain 92 protons in the atomic nucleus.
➢ The uranium-238 atoms contain 146 neutrons, the uranium-235 atoms contain 143 neutrons, and the
uranium-234 atoms contain only 142 neutrons.
➢ The total number of protons plus neutrons gives the atomic mass of each isotope, which is 238, 235, or 234,
respectively.

Statement 2 is not correct:

➢ The nuclear fuel used in a nuclear reactor needs to have a higher concentration of the uranium-235 isotope
than that which exists in natural uranium ore.
➢ Uranium enrichment refers to the process of increasing the uranium-235 concentration from 0.7% to between
3% and 5%, which is the level used in most reactors.

Q51. Consider the following statements regarding T Cells:

1. They are a part of the immune system that focuses on specific foreign particles.

2. Long-term reserves of memory T cells are established and can be maintained through adulthood.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans - (c) Both 1 and 2

Solution

Statement 1 is correct:

• T cells are a part of the immune system that focuses on specific foreign particles.

• Rather than generically attack any antigens, T cells circulate until they encounter their specific antigen.

• As such, T cells play a critical part in immunity to foreign substances.

Statement 2 is correct:

• The role of T cells is slightly modified throughout the human lifetime.

• In infancy, naïve T cells are critical for developing immunity towards common pathogens or antigens.

• During this time, long-term reserves of memory T cells are established and can be maintained through
adulthood.

Q52. Consider the following statements regarding the Computed Tomography Scan (CT or CAT scan) and Magnetic
Resonance Imaging (MRI):

1. While CAT scan uses X-ray, MRI uses radio waves to create images of the body.
 2. Compared to a CAT scan, MRI has more risk of exposure to radiation during the procedure.

Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans- (b) Only 2

Solution

Statement 1 is correct:
• A Computed Tomography scan (CT or CAT scan) uses computers and rotating X-ray machines to create cross-
sectional images of the body.
o These images provide more detailed information than normal X-ray images.
o During a CT scan, you lie in a tunnel-like machine while the inside of the machine rotates and takes a
series of X-rays from different angles.
o These pictures are then sent to a computer, where they’re combined to create images of slices, or
cross-sections, of the body.
o They may also be combined to produce a 3-D image of a particular area of the body.
o They can show the soft tissues, blood vessels, and bones in various parts of the body.
• An MRI, or Magnetic Resonance Imaging, uses a powerful magnet to pass radio waves through the body.
o Protons in the body react to the energy and create highly detailed pictures of the body’s structures,
including soft tissues, nerves and blood vessels.
Statement 2 is not correct:
• A CT scan may be recommended if a patient can’t have an MRI.
• People with metal implants, pacemakers or other implanted devices shouldn’t have an MRI due to
the powerful magnet inside the machine.
• CT scans create images of bones and soft tissues.
o However, they aren’t as effective as MRIs at exposing subtle differences between types of tissue.
• Unlike X-rays and CT scans, MRIs don’t use any radiation.
• Because radiation is not used, there is no risk of exposure to radiation during an MRI procedure.

Q53. With reference to Outer Space Treaty 1967, consider the following statements:

1. The treaty aims to govern the activities of the States in exploration and use of outer space including the Moon
and all celestial bodies.

2. The Anti- Satellite weapon deployed by India is in violation of the provision of peaceful uses of outer space
under this treaty.

3. The United Nations Committee on the Peaceful Uses of Outer Space overseas the implementation of this treaty.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None
Ans- (b) Only two

Statement 1 is correct:

➢ The Outer Space Treaty provides the basic framework on international space law, including the following
principles:

o
the exploration and use of outer space shall be carried out for the benefit and in the interests of all
countries and shall be the province of all mankind;
o outer space shall be free for exploration and use by all States;
o outer space is not subject to national appropriation by claim of sovereignty, by means of use or
occupation, or by any other means;
o States shall not place nuclear weapons or other weapons of mass destruction in orbit or on celestial
bodies or station them in outer space in any other manner.
o the Moon and other celestial bodies shall be used exclusively for peaceful purposes.
o astronauts shall be regarded as the envoys of mankind;
o States shall be responsible for national space activities whether carried out by governmental or non-
governmental entities;
o States shall be liable for damage caused by their space objects; and
o States shall avoid harmful contamination of space and celestial bodies.
Statement 2 is not correct:
➢ India’s Anti-Satellite missile (ASAT) mission is not in violation of the Outer Space treaty.
➢ India’s ASAT mission aims at destroying satellites which aims to harm the space assets of our country.
➢ ASAT missiles do not possess nuclear weapons or weapons of mass destruction.
➢ The mission is purely intended with the purpose to strengthen deterrence against enemies.

Statement 3 is correct:
➢ The Committee on the Peaceful Uses of Outer Space (COPUOS) was set up by the General Assembly in 1959
to govern the exploration and use of space for the benefit of all humanity: for peace, security and development.
➢ It was established to monitor the implementation of the Outer space treaty by world countries.
➢ It was formed by passing executive resolutions in the General Assembly and is an ad-hoc committee.

Q54. In the context of different transportation technologies, consider the following statements:

1. Maglev is a system of train transportation that works on the magnetic repulsion technique which makes surface
contact friction almost zero.

2. Hyperloop transportation technology can be multiple times faster than bullet trains as the air and surface resistance
is almost negligible.

3. Head on Generation technology in railways aims at supplying power to railways through overhead electric supply.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans- (c) All three

All statements are correct:

 • Some of the transportation technologies which can change the face of transportation by reducing journey time,
green transportation etc:
o Maglev Technology
o Hyperloop Technology
o Head on Generation Technology.
o Bullet Train technology
• Government of India is working hard on adopting all these technologies
• Maglev technology works on application of magnetic fields.
o Magnetic field creates repulsion which eliminates the contact with the surface and hence the surface
contact friction is almost zero.
o Though the air resistance is not zero.
• Hyperloop technology uses transportation in the vacuum medium.
o It eliminates both the contact friction and air resistance.
o It can be three to four times faster than bullet train technology.
• Head on Generation Technology is regarding supply of electrical energy through overhead electric supply.
o The Government of India is employing this technology in railways as we are focused in direction of
making railway diesel free.

Q55. With reference to the Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO), consider the following statements:

1. It is a national regulatory body under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

2. It is responsible for controlling the prices of pharmaceutical drugs in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d)Neither 1 nor 2

Ans- (a) 1 only

Solution

Statement 1 is correct:

➢ The Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) is the national regulatory body for Indian
pharmaceuticals and medical device.
➢ CDSCO comes under Directorate General of Health Services, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare.
Statement 2 is not correct:

➢ The National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority (NPPA) is a government regulatory agency that controls the
prices of pharmaceutical drugs in India.
➢ CDSCO is not responsible for controlling drug prices.

Q56. With reference to Near Field Communication (NFC) Technology, consider the following statements:

1. It is a contactless communication technology based on radiofrequency.

2. NFC can be used to transfer power wirelessly.

3. It is capable of transmitting data up to 1 meter.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans- (b) Only two

Solution

Statement 1 is correct: Near Field Communication (NFC) is a contactless communication technology based on a
radio frequency (RF) field using a base frequency of 13.56 MHz.
Statement 2 is correct:

➢ Near Field Communication is performed to manage the power transfer.

➢ The NFC Wireless Charging mode allows the contactless transfer of up to 1 W power.
Statement 3 is not correct: While NFC has a range of around 10 cm, just a few inches, Bluetooth connections can
transmit data up to 10 meters or more from the source.

Q57. With reference to the Ballistic and Cruise Missiles, consider the following statements:
1. Both are self-propelled till the end of their flight.

2. The payload carrying capacity of Cruise missiles is much more than that of Ballistic Missiles.

3. While Ballistic missiles can have a very long-range, the range of Cruise missiles is shorter.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans - (a) Only one

Solution
Statement 1 is not correct:
➢ A Ballistic Missile is propelled only for a brief duration after the launch.
➢ Agni and Prithvi are both Ballistic missiles.
➢ Cruise Missiles are self-propelled till the end of their flight.
➢ Brahmos and Nirbhay are examples of Cruise Missiles.
Statement 2 is not correct: While the Ballistic Missiles have heavy payload carrying capacity, the Payload capacity
of Cruise Missiles is limited.
Statement 3 is correct:
➢ Ballistic Missiles can have a very long-range (300 km to 12,000 km) as there is no fuel requirement after its
initial trajectory.
 ➢ The range of Cruise Missiles is small (below 500 km) as it needs to be constantly propelled to hit the target
with high precision.

Q58 Consider the following applications:

1. Nuclear non-proliferation.

2. Enhancing telecom and internet services.

3. Detecting mineral and oil deposits in the earth.

How many of the above are possible application of Indian Neutrino Observatory (INO)?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans - (c) All three

Option (d) is correct:

➢ The research on neutrino elementary particles through Indian Neutrino Observatory has enormous
applications.
➢ The neutrino particle can be used for:
o First, neutrinos may have a role to play in nuclear non-proliferation through the remote monitoring
of nuclear reactors.
o Neutrino research can be our answer to ensure that no terror group ever acquires nuclear weapons.
o Second, understanding neutrinos can help us detect mineral and oil deposits deep in the earth.
o Neutrinos tend to change their “flavour” depending on how far they have travelled and how much
matter they have passed through in the way.
o Third, as we now know, neutrinos can pass right through the earth.
o They may open up a faster way to send data than the current ‘around the earth’ model, using towers,
cables or satellites.
o Such a communication system using neutrinos will be free of transmission losses as neutrinos rarely
react with the atoms in their path.
o This can open up new vistas for telecom and internet services.
Q59 Consider the following statements:

1. It is a life-threatening disease caused by parasites that are transmitted to people through the bites of infected female
Anopheles mosquitoes.

2. It is preventable and curable.

3. Recently R21 vaccine for this disease has been approved for use in children aged 5-36 months for the first time.

Which one of the following diseases is best described in the statements given above?

(a) Dengue

(b) Malaria

(c) Small Pox

(d) Chikanguniya

Ans -(b) Malaria

Solution

➢ Malaria is a life-threatening disease caused by parasites that are transmitted to people through the bites of
infected female Anopheles mosquitoes.
➢ It is preventable and curable.
➢ Malaria is caused by Plasmodium parasites.
o The parasites are spread to people through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes, called
"malaria vectors."
o There are 5 parasite species that cause malaria in humans, and 2 of these species – P. falciparum and
P. vivax – pose the greatest threat.
➢ A much-anticipated malaria vaccine developed by Oxford University (R21) has received its first approval in
Ghana as the African country intensifies its fight against the disease that claims a child’s life every minute.
o The vaccine has been approved for use in children aged 5-36 months, the age group at highest risk of
death from malaria.

Q60. Ball bearings are used in bicycles, cars, etc., because

(a) the actual area of contact between the wheel and axle is increased

(b) the effective area of contact between the wheel and axle is increased

(c) the effective area of contact between the wheel and axle is reduced

(d) None of the above statements is correct

Ans - (c) the effective area of contact between the wheel and axle is reduced

Solution

➢ Ball bearings are used to reduce friction and friction is directly proportional to effective surface area.
➢ Ball bearings are used in bicycles, cars, etc. because the effective area of contact between the wheel and axle
is reduced.
➢ The ball bearing reduces the rotational friction more than a plain bearing, resulting in a decrease in the amount
of energy consumption during rotation.
Q61. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN), consider the following statements:
1. All landholding farmers' families are eligible to get benefits under the scheme.

2. At present, the tenant farmers are not eligible to get the benefit under the scheme.

3. The responsibility of identifying the eligible farmers' families for benefit under the scheme is entirely of the Gram
Sabhas in the villages.

How many statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(b) All three

(d) None

Ans - (b) Only two

Statement 1 is correct:

➢ Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) is a new Central Sector Scheme to provide income support
to all landholding farmers' families in the country to supplement their financial needs for procuring various
inputs related to agriculture and allied activities as well as the domestic needs.
➢ Under the scheme, the entire financial liability towards the transfer of benefit to targeted beneficiaries will be
borne by the Government of India.
o Under the scheme, all landholding farmers' families shall be provided the financial benefit of
Rs.6000 per annum per family payable in three equal installments of Rs.2000 each, every four months.
Statement 2 is correct:

➢ Landholding is the sole criteria to avail the benefit under the Scheme.
➢ Any person/farmer who is cultivating a land but is not having the landholding in his/her own name is not
eligible under the scheme.
➢ As tenant farmer does not own the land he/she cultivates, he/she is not eligible for benefit under the scheme.
Statement 3 is not correct:

➢ The prevailing land-ownership system/record of land in different States/Union Territories will be used to
identify the intended beneficiaries for the transfer of scheme benefits.
➢ Responsibility of identifying the landholder farmer family eligible for benefit under the scheme shall be of
the State/UT Government.

Q62. Consider the following statements with reference to the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana:

1. The Scheme covers all food, oilseeds, commercial and horticultural crops for which past yield data is available.

2. The scheme is being administered by Ministry of Finance.

3. Sharecroppers and tenant farmers are also eligible under this scheme.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None
Ans- (b) Only two

Solution

Statement 1 is correct:

➢ Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana was launched on 18th February 2016 by Prime Minister.
➢ The Scheme covers all Food & Oilseeds crops and Annual Commercial/Horticultural Crops for which past yield
data is available and for which requisite number of Crop Cutting Experiments (CCEs) are conducted being under
General Crop Estimation Survey (GCES).
Statement 2 is not correct:

➢ Selection of Implementing Agency (IA) is done by the concerned State Government through bidding.
➢ The scheme is being administered by Ministry of Agriculture.
Statement 3 is correct:
➢ The PMFBY provides a comprehensive insurance cover against failure of the crop thus helping in stabilizing the
income of the farmers.
➢ Farmers including sharecroppers and tenant farmers growing notified crops in the notified areas are eligible
for coverage.

Q63. With reference to Aadhaar-enabled Payment Services (AePS), consider the following statements:

1. It is a bank-led model which allows online financial transactions at Micro ATMs through the business
correspondent of any bank using Aadhaar authentication.

2. It removes the need for OTPs and bank account details.

3. It is an initiative led by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans- (c) All three

Solution

Statement 1 is correct:
➢ Aadhaar-enabled Payment Services (AePS) is a bank led model which allows online interoperable financial
inclusion transactions at PoS (MicroATM) through the Business correspondent of any bank using the Aadhaar
authentication.
➢ AePS allows you to do six types of transactions.
Statement 2 is correct:
➢ The Aadhaar-enabled Payment Services model removes the need for OTPs, bank account details, and other
financial details.
➢ The only inputs required for a customer to do a transaction under this scenario are:-
o Bank Name
o Aadhaar Number
o Fingerprint captured during enrollment.
Statement 3 is correct: Aadhaar-enabled Payment Services initiative has been taken up by the National Payments
Corporation of India (NPCI), which is an umbrella organization for all retail payments systems in India and was started
by joint efforts of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA).

Q64. The National Initiative for Promotion of Upskilling of Nirman workers (NIPUN), recently seen in the news, is an
initiative of

(a) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

(b) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs

(c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry

(d) Ministry of Heavy Industries

Ans - (b) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs

Solution

➢ The National Initiative for Promotion of Upskilling of Nirman workers (NIPUN) is an initiative of the Ministry
of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) under its flagship scheme of the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National
Urban Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NULM) to train over 1 lakh construction workers, through fresh skilling and
upskilling programmes and provides them with work opportunities in foreign countries also.
➢ Every year, India needs to build an average of 700 to 900 square meters of urban space, which is one of the
largest construction activities anywhere in the world.
➢ Construction significantly contributes to GDP and generates employment, so skilling construction workers can
yield even better results.
➢ The National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) will be the Implementation Partner for the NIPUN.
o It is the nodal agency under the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE),
Government of India.
➢ The project implementation is divided into three parts - training through Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) at
construction sites, training through Fresh Skilling by Plumbing and Infrastructure SSC and International
Placement through industries, builders and contractors.

Q65. Consider the following:

1. Working capital for maintenance of farm assets

2. Purchase of combine harvesters, tractors and mini trucks

3. Consumption requirements of farm households

4. Post-harvest expenses

5. Construction of family house and setting up of village cold storage facility

Under the Kisan Credit Card scheme, short-term credit support is given to farmers for how many of the above
purposes?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(c) Only four

(d) All five

Ans- (b) Only three

 • The Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme was introduced in 1998 for issue of Kisan Credit Cards to farmers on the
basis of their holdings for uniform adoption by the banks so that farmers may use them to readily purchase
agriculture inputs such as seeds, fertilizers, pesticides etc. and draw cash for their production needs.

• The Kisan Credit Card Scheme is to be implemented by Commercial Banks, RRBs, Small Finance Banks and
Cooperatives.

• The Kisan Credit Card scheme aims at providing adequate and timely credit support from the banking system
under a single window with a flexible and simplified procedure to the farmers for their cultivation and other
needs as indicated below:

o To meet the short-term credit requirements for the cultivation of crops;

o Post-harvest expenses;

o Produce marketing loan;

o Consumption requirements of farmer household;

o Working capital for maintenance of farm assets and activities allied to agriculture;

o Investment credit requirement for agriculture and allied activities.

• Thus the scheme doesn't provide loans for the purchase of combine harvesters, tractors and mini trucks
and for the construction of family houses and setting up of a village cold storage facility.

Q66. ‘PM PRANAM’, sometimes seen in the news, is proposed to be launched to

(a) Attract foreign investments in India

(b) Promote eco-tourism in India

(c) Promote balanced use of chemical fertilizers

(d) Popularise the ideals of India’s freedom

Ans- (c) Promote balanced use of chemical fertilizers

Solution
➢ “PM Programme for Restoration, Awareness, Nourishment and Amelioration of Mother Earth (PM
PRANAM)” will be launched to incentivize States and Union Territories to promote alternative fertilizers and
balanced use of chemical fertilizers.
➢ India is the second largest consumer of fertilisers globally after China, servicing over 190 million hectares of
gross cropped area and reaching 140 million farmlands.
o In the past ten years, India consumed 500 LMT of fertiliser annually.
o Due to the greater expense of non-urea (MoP, DAP, complex) cultivars, many farmers choose to use
more urea than is actually required.
➢ To lower urea usage, the government has taken a number of actions.
o To stop urea from being illegally diverted for non-agricultural applications, neem-coated urea was
introduced.
o It increased the promotion of organic and low-cost farming.

Q67. Consider the following:

1. Institutional landholders

2. Famers with landholdings more than 2 Hectares

2. Farmers from urban areas

How many of the above are eligible for benefit under the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi Yojana (PM-Kisan
Yojana)?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans- (b) Only two

Solution
➢ Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) is a Central Sector Scheme to provide income support to all
landholding farmers' families in the country to supplement their financial needs for procuring various inputs
related to agriculture and allied activities as well as domestic needs.
➢ Under the Scheme, the entire financial liability towards the transfer of benefits to targeted beneficiaries will
be borne by the Government of India.
➢ The people of higher economic status like institutional landholders are not eligible for benefits under the
Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi Yojana (PM-Kisan Yojana).
➢ The Government has extended the PM-Kisan Yojana to all eligible farmer families, irrespective of the size of
their landholding.
o Under the original scheme, households with agricultural landholdings smaller than two
hectares (small and marginal farmers) were eligible.
o Now the scheme includes the small and marginal farmers as well as all other farmers.
➢ All the farmers from rural and urban areas are eligible for benefit under the PM-Kisan Yojana.
o There is no distinction between urban and rural cultivable land under the scheme.
o Both are covered under the scheme, provided that land situated in urban areas is under actual
cultivation.

Q68. With reference to National Open Access Registry (NOAR), consider the following statements:
1. It is a centralized online platform through which short-term open access to the inter-state transmission system is
being managed in India.

2. It will facilitate faster electricity markets and enable the integration of Renewable Energy (RE) resources into the
grid.

3. The Bureau of Energy Efficiency is the nodal agency for the implementation and operation of NOAR.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans - (b) Only two

Statement 1 is correct:

➢ National Open Access Registry (NOAR) is a centralized online platform through which short-term open access
to the inter-state transmission system is being managed in India.
 ➢ It is an integrated platform accessible to all stakeholders in the power sector, including open access customers
(both sellers and buyers), power traders, power exchanges, National/Regional/State LDCs and others.
Statement 2 is correct:

➢ NOAR would be the key to facilitating faster electricity markets and enabling the integration of Renewable
Energy (RE) resources into the grid.
➢ NOAR will enable seamless market participation by the open-access consumer with easier and faster access to
the short-term electricity market, comprising about 10% of all of India's demand.
Statement 3 is not correct: The National Load Despatch Centre (NLDC) operated by Power System Operation
Corporation Limited (POSOCO) has been designated as the nodal agency for the implementation and operation of
NOAR.

Q69. The term ‘Custom Hiring Centres (CHCs)’ is often seen in the news in the context of

(a) Employment Consultancies under Skill India

(b) A repository of Skilled labour

(c) Export facilities under Sagarmala

(d) Farm Mechanization

Ans- (d) Farm Mechanization

Option (d) is correct:

• The term ‘Custom Hiring Centres (CHCs)’ is related to Farm Mechanization.

• A Custom Hiring Centre (CHC) is basically a unit comprising a set of farm machinery, implements and equipment
meant for custom hiring by farmers.
• The main objective of CHC is to supply farm implements to small, marginal and poor farmers at subsidized
rates on hire.
• The ‘Sub-Mission on Agricultural Mechanization (SMAM), a Centrally sponsored scheme, provides financial
assistance to the Panchayats for the establishment of Custom Hiring Centres (CHCs).

Q70. Consider the following statements regarding the project on Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC):

1. It has been initiated by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.

2. It aims to curb the monopolistic tendencies of e-commerce platforms.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans -(b) 2 only

Solution
Statement 1 is not correct:
➢ The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and
Industry has initiated a project on Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC).

➢ The task has been assigned to the Quality Council of India (QCI).
Statement 2 is correct:

➢ ONDC aims to curb the monopolistic tendencies of e-commerce platforms, among others.

➢ ONDC is expected to digitize the entire value chain, standardize operations, promote inclusion of suppliers,
derive efficiencies in logistics, and enhance value for consumers.

Q71. With reference to the Logistics Ease Across Different States (LEADS) index, often seen in the news, consider the
following statements:

1. It is a composite indicator to assess both domestic and international trade logistics across states and Union
territories.

2. It is developed and released by NITI Aayog, in collaboration with Deloitte.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans- (a) 1 only

Statement 1 is correct

➢ The Logistics Ease Across Different States (LEADS) index, a composite indicator to assess international trade
logistics across states and Union territories.
➢ The LEADS survey assesses viewpoints of various users and stakeholders across value chain
(Shippers, Terminal Infrastructure Service Providers, Logistics Service Providers, Transporters and
Government agencies) to understand the ‘enabler’ and ‘impediments’ to logistics ecosystem in the
country.
➢ The annual survey, processes the data received from stakeholders (perception data) and States/ UTs
(objective data) and ranks logistics ecosystem of each State/ UT using a statistical model.

Statement 2 is not correct:

➢ It is based on a stakeholders’ survey conducted by Deloitte for the Ministry of commerce and industry.

➢ The LEADS Index is an effort by the Commerce and Industry Ministry to establish the baseline of performance
in the logistics sector based on the perception of users and stakeholders at the State level.

➢ It provides the basis for stakeholder engagement, discussions and evolving action plan by various agencies.

➢ It is not an index of the performance of the State Government but may be used to assess the status of logistics
efficiency in each State.

Q72. 'Mission Purvodaya' is related to which one of the following sectors?

(a) Fertilizer
(b) Coal
(c) Steel
(d) Cement
Ans – (c)

Solution

• Mission Purvodaya in steel sector envisions to create an integrated steel hub in Eastern India.
• With abundance of raw materials, strategic geographical location and strong and developing connectivity,
Odisha is well poised to be the heart of this eastern steel hub.
• The Mission is rolled out by Union Petroleum and Natural Gas & Steel Ministry.
• More than 75% of India’s envisioned incremental steel capacity will come from eastern India.
• In Odisha, Kalinganagar will be developed as the epicenter of Mission Purvodaya.
• There is immense scope for growth in high grade steel, downstream sector, ancillaries, capital goods and cluster
development.
• Government of India is keen to have Japan to be partner country in Mission Purvodaya.
• Japanese technological expertise, investments will further strengthen the steel sector in Odisha and drive
socio-economic growth.

Q73. Consider the following statement with respect to PM Adarsh Gram Yojana:

1. The principal objective of the scheme is the integrated development of all villages with more than 50% SC population.

2. It includes taking up identified activities at the village level, which do not get covered under the existing Central and
State Government Schemes.

3. It is implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans- (c) All three

All statements are correct

➢ With a view to enabling an area based development approach, a new scheme Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram
➢ Yojana (PMAGY) was launched during 2009-10.
➢ To ensure integrated development of all villages having a total population more than 500 and with more than
50% persons belonging to the Scheduled Castes into “model villages” (by 2024- 25).
➢ The principal objective of the Scheme is the integrated development of SC-majority Villages:
o Primarily through the convergent implementation of the relevant Central and State/UT Government
Schemes; and
o By taking up identified activities, which do not get covered under the existing Central and State
Government Schemes, through ‘Gap-filling’ funds provided as Central Assistance to the extent of
Rs.20.00 lakh per village.
o It is implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.

Q74. Consider the following statements regarding the Swadhar Greh scheme:

1. It is launched by The Ministry of Women and Child Development

2. It aims to cater to the primary need of shelter, food, clothing, medical treatment, and care for the women in distress.
2. It provides financial assistance to NGOs for carrying out activities related to preventing and combating domestic
violence.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans - (b) Only two

Statement 1 is correct

➢ The Ministry of Women and Child Development is implementing the Swadhar Greh scheme to provide
temporary support and rehabilitation to women who are in difficult circumstances, such as destitute women,
widows, women prisoners released from jail, women victims of natural calamities, trafficked women/girls
rescued, and women affected by domestic violence.
➢ Under the scheme, Swadhar Greh will be set up in every district, with a capacity of 30 women.

Statement 2 is correct

➢ The scheme aims to provide basic needs such as food, shelter, clothing, and medical aid to women in
distress. It also aims to provide emotional support to these women, enabling them to regain their
confidence and emotional strength.
➢ The scheme provides temporary shelter to women for a maximum period of three years.
➢ During this period, the women are provided with various opportunities for rehabilitation and reintegration
into mainstream society.
➢ The scheme also provides vocational training and employment opportunities to these women to help them
become financially independent.

Statement 3 is not correct

➢ In addition, the Swadhar Greh scheme also provides financial assistance to State Governments and NGOs for
the establishment of such institutions. However, it does not provide financial assistance to NGOs for carrying
out activities related to preventing and combating domestic violence.

Q75. Consider the following statements with reference to SWAYATT:

1. It is an initiative launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.

2. It aims to promote Start-ups, Women and Youth Advantage Through e-transactions on Government e-Marketplace
(GeM).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans - (b) 2 only

Solution
 ➢ Statement 1 is not correct:
o SWAYATT (Startups, Women And Youth Advantage Through e-Transactions) is an initiative launched by
the Ministry of Commerce and Industries.
➢ Statement 2 is correct:
o It aims to promote Startups, Women, and Youth Advantage Through e-transactions on Government e-
Marketplace (GeM).
o This will bring together the key stakeholders within the Indian entrepreneurial ecosystem to GeM.

Q76. Consider the following statements with respect to Swachhta Udyami Yojana:

1. It includes extending financial assistance for the construction, operation & maintenance of pay and use community
toilets in PPP Mode.

2. It is implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development.

3. Women beneficiaries will get interest- free loans under this scheme.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans- (a) Only one

Statement 1 is correct:

➢ This Scheme has twin objectives of cleanliness, providing livelihood to Safai Karamcharis and liberating Manual
Scavengers to achieve the overall goal of “Swachh Bharat Abhiyan” initiated by the Hon’ble Prime Minister.
➢ Statement 1 is correct: The “Swachhta Udyami Yojana” is for extending financial assistance for the
Construction, Operation & Maintenance of Pay and Use Community Toilets in Public Private Partnership (PPP)
Mode and Procurement & Operation of Sanitation related Vehicles.
➢ Statement 2 is not correct: The Scheme has been launched on the 2nd October 2014, the birth anniversary of
Mahatma Gandhi by the Hon’ble Minister of State for Social Justice & Empowerment.
➢ Entrepreneurs among safari karmacharis and identified manual scavengers can avail of loans up to the defined
ceiling at a concessional rate of interest @ 4% per annum.
➢ Statement 3 is not correct: In the case of women beneficiaries, there is a rebate of 1% in the rate of interest
charged.

Q77. Shakti Scheme for Harnessing and Allocating Koyala Transparently in India (SHAKTI) was introduced by the
Ministry of Coal

(a) to ensure availability of coal to the thermal plants.

(b) to mine and export anthracite-grade coal.

(c) to ensure the supply of coking coal to iron and steel plants.

(d) to promote coal gasification to minimise Green House Gases

Ans-(a) to ensure availability of coal to the thermal plants.

Solution

➢ The Shakti Scheme for Harnessing and Allocating Koyala Transparently in India (SHAKTI) was introduced by the
Coal Ministry, Government of India to ensure the availability of coal to the thermal plants through objective
and transparent processes.

Features of the SHAKTI Scheme

New and more transparent auction-based coal linkage policy.

➢ Thermal Power Plants (TPP) having a Letter of Assurances shall be eligible to sign a Fuel Supply Agreement
after ensuring that the plants are commissioned, respective milestones (like achieving financial closure,
obtaining clearances, etc. met, all specified conditions of the Letter of Assurances fulfilled within the specified
timeframe and where nothing adverse is detected against the Letter of Assurances holders.
➢ Coal drawl will be permitted against valid Long Term Power Purchase Agreements and to be concluded Medium
Term Power Purchase Agreements.
➢ The approved framework ensures that all projects with linkages are supplied coal as per their entitlement. This
will ensure the rights of coal supplies for Fuel Supply Agreement holders and the signing of Fuel Supply
Agreement with Letter of Assurance holders.
➢ SHAKTI has been envisaged to make optimal allocation of the natural resource across power units.

Q78. Consider the following statements regarding Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana:

1. It aims to light up 1 crore households by providing up to 300 units of free electricity every month.

2. It will provide subsidies will be given directly to people’s bank accounts.

3. Eight central public sector undertakings will be responsible for installation of rooftop solar in one crore households.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans- (c) All three

Solution

➢ The scheme Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana, with an investment of over Rs. 75,000 crores, aims to light up 1
crore households by providing up to 300 units of free electricity every month.
➢ The scheme aims to incentivise the adoption of solar energy among residential consumers, promoting
sustainability and reducing reliance on conventional energy sources.
➢ It is a grid connected rooftop solar PV system, where the DC power generated from a solar panel converted
to AC power using a power conditioning unit/Inverter and is fed to the grid.
➢ All stakeholders will be integrated into a National Online Portal.
➢ In order to popularize this scheme at the grassroots, Urban Local Bodies and Panchayats shall be incentivised
to promote rooftop solar systems in their jurisdictions.
➢ The scheme will lead to more income, lesser power bills and employment generation for people.
➢ Under the scheme, subsidies will be given directly to people’s bank accounts.
➢ The government has appointed eight central public sector undertakings (CPSUs) to implement the scheme
across all states and union territories of the country.
 ➢ These include NTPC, NHPC, EESL, PowerGrid, Grid-India, THDC, SJVN and NEEPCO.
➢ These CPSUs will be responsible for installation of rooftop solar in one crore households.
➢ Under rooftop installation, solar photovoltaic (PV) panels are fixed atop a building, home, or a residential
property

Q79. With reference to SAATHI Initiative, consider the following statements:

1. It is an initiative by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship.

2. Under this, energy-efficient powerlooms would be provided to the small and medium powerloom units at no
upfront cost.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(b) Both 1 and 2

(c) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans- (a) 1 only

Solution

➢ Statement 1 is not correct: SAATHI (Sustainable and Accelerated Adoption of efficient Textile technologies to
Help small Industries) is a joint initiative by the Ministry of Textiles and the Ministry of Power.
Statement 2 is correct:
➢ Under this, a public sector entity Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL), would procure energy efficient
powerlooms and other kits in bulk and provide them to the small and medium powerloom units at no upfront
cost.
➢ The initiative jointly implemented by EESL and the office of the Textile Commissioner.

Q80. Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana :

1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.

2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.

3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.

4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age.

How many of the statements given above are correct? (PYQ 2023 )

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Ans- (b)

Solution

▪ The Yojana, launched on 12th April 2005, is being implemented in all states and UTs with special focus on low
performing states.
 ▪ Statement 1 is not correct: It is a safe motherhood intervention under the National Rural Health Mission
(NRHM).

▪ Statements 2 and 3 are correct: It was implemented with the objective of reducing maternal and neo-natal
mortality by promoting institutional delivery among the poor pregnant women.

▪ Statement 4 is not correct: Providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age is not
an objective of the scheme.

Q81. Which of the following statements about the 'Blue Line' is correct?

1. It is a learning ecosystem created by the UN System Staff College.

2. It is a line of withdrawal, set by the UN for the purpose of confirming the withdrawal of Israeli forces from the south
of Lebanon.

Select the answer using the code given below (UPSC Geo Scientist - 2024)

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans- (a)

Solution

The Blue Line is a learning ecosystem created by the UN System Staff College with a precise ambition: to be a unique
and global learning hub open to all UN personnel for personalized and self-directed learning.

The Blue Line platform enables you to:

➢ Select from a growing number of curated online modules and learning paths and earn specialized badges and
certificates.
➢ Access a set of free online courses and tools on key topics developed in collaboration with other UN agencies.
➢ Create a personal learning plan tailored to your own needs, interests and ambitions, and track your progress
each step of the way.
➢ Achieve your learning and development goals at your own pace while engaging with a community of fellow UN
colleagues from across the system.
The content and activities on the Blue Line are specifically tailored to the work of UN colleagues. New learning
offerings are added to the platform regularly based on emerging trends and initiatives within the UN system.

Q82. Which of the following statements about GPAI (Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence) is/are correct?

1. It is a multi-stakeholder initiative, which aims to bridge the gap between theory and practice on AI by supporting
cutting edge research.

2. The Annual GPAI Summit was held at New Delhi in December 2023.

Select the answer using the code given below: (UPSC Geo Scientist - 2024)

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans- (c)

Solution

Both Statements are correct

➢ The Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI) is a multi-stakeholder initiative which aims to bridge the
gap between theory and practice on AI by supporting cutting-edge research and applied activities on AI-related
priorities.
➢ It was launched in June 2020 with 15 members, today GPAI’s membership has expanded to 28 member
countries and the European Union.
➢ The Annual GPAI Summit was held at New Delhi in December 2023.

Q83. Which of the following statements about 'Rehydrating the Earth' is/are correct?

1. It is a global campaign for raising consciousness about the water crisis.

2. It is a campaign undertaken by a philanthropic organization Football for Peace'.

Select the answer using the code given below

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans - (c) Both 1 and 2

Solution

Both Statements are correct

➢ "Rehydrate the Earth" is a global campaign that uses football to raise awareness about water and address the
world's water crisis.
➢ The campaign aims to educate people and provide practical solutions to water issues, and to strengthen water
and food security, and promote biodiversity.
➢ The campaign has the potential to be a solution to the world's climate and water crises.
➢ The campaign uses the popularity of American football and football to help nations and communities achieve
a more water-secure future. The campaign aims to help people realize that they are all connected through
water and need to work together as a global team to steward this vital resource
➢ Rehydrating the Earth is led by Football for Peace
o Football for Peace (FfP) is a non-governmental organization that uses the power of football to promote
peace, prosperity, and hope in areas of social justice, inequality, and environmental degradation.
o FfP was founded in 2013 by English-born Pakistani footballer Kashif Siddiqi and Chilean FIFA legend
Elias Figueroa, and is headquartered in London.

Q84. Which of the following was the official song for the FIFA Women's World Cup 2023?

(a) Let’s Get Together Now

(b) The Time of Our Lives

(c) Live It Up

(d) Do It Again

Ans – (d) Do It Again

➢ The 2023 FIFA Women's World Cup was the ninth edition of the quadrennial international women's football
championship, and the first to be held in the Southern Hemisphere.
➢ The tournament took place from July 20 to August 20, 2023 in Australia and New Zealand, and was jointly
hosted for the first time.
➢ The number of participants increased from 24 to 32, and Spain won their first-ever title, defeating England 1-
0 in the final at Stadium Australia in Sydney.
➢ Spain became the second nation to win both the Men's and Women's World Cup, after Germany.
➢ The official song for the 2023 FIFA Women's World Cup is "Do It Again”

Q85. Recently seen in news, ‘Mandua’ and ‘Jhangora’ are

(a) Traditional Indian Dance Forms

(b) Endangered Species of Birds
(c) Famous Rivers in India
(d) Varieties of Millet species

Ans- (d) Varieties of Millet species

➢ The Uttarakhand mandua, a finger millet grown in Garhwal and Kumaon that is part of the staple diet in many
parts of the State, was among the products granted GI tags.
➢ Similarly, jhangora, a home-grown millet commonly cultivated in the rain-fed areas of the Himalayas in
Uttarakhand, got a tag.

Q86. Consider the following statements with reference to Sahitya Akademi Award:

1. Sahitya Akademi award established during reign of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi

2. It is the highest literary honour by the Government of India.

3. The author must be an Indian national to be eligible for the awards.

4. The literary work must be an original work in one of the 22 languages listed in the 8 th Schedule of the Constitution
are only eligible for the awards.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Ans – (a) Only one

Solution

Only 3rd Statement is correct:

 o Sahitya Akademi award established in 1954, is a literary honour that is conferred annually by Sahitya
Akademi, India’s National Academy of letters.
o Akademi gives 24 awards annually to literary works in the languages it has recognized and an equal
number of awards to literary translations from and into the languages of India.
• Besides the 22 languages enumerated in the Constitution of India, the Sahitya Akademi has
recognised English and Rajasthani as languages in which its programme may be implemented.
o The Sahitya Akademi award is the second-highest literary honour by the Government of India, after
the Jnanpith award.
▪ Criteria for Choosing Awardee:

o The author must be of Indian Nationality.

o Book/work eligible for the award must be an outstanding contribution to the language and literature
to which it belongs.
o When equal merit for books of two or more are found, certain criteria like total literary
contribution and standing of authors shall be taken into consideration for declaring the award.

Q87. Consider the following statements with reference to Global Cooling Pledge:

1. It was launched by the UAE and the Cool Coalition at the COP-28 of UNFCCC.

2. One of its aims is to reduce global cooling related emissions by 68% by 2050.

3. India is one of the countries who have signed the pledge.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans - (b) Only two

Solution

➢ Global Cooling Pledge launched at the First Global Conference on Synergies between the 2030 Agenda and
Paris Agreement, the Cool Coalition was assembled by UNEP with the belief that a unified effort of
governments, cities, businesses, and civil society that share the objective of advancing, sustainable cooling will
be more effective in bringing about change than acting alone.
➢ Statement 1 is correct: The Cool Coalition and COP28 UAE Presidency launched the Global Cooling Pledge at
COP28, with nearly 70 government signatories and more than 50 supporters from international organizations,
international finance institutions and industry.
➢ The Global Cooling Pledge marks the world’s first collective effort to improve energy efficiency and reduce
emissions from the sector.
➢ Statement 2 is correct: The Pledge aims to reduce global cooling-related emissions by 68 per cent by 2050,
improve energy efficiency of cooling technologies by 50 per cent by 2030 and to increase access to sustainable
cooling for the most vulnerable – all of which is needed to keep the 1.5°C goal in reach.
➢ Statement 3 is NOT correct: India is yet to sign the Pledge.

Q88. Consider the following statements with reference to Achanakmar-Amarkantak Biosphere Reserve:
1. It is spread from Mahadeo hill ranges to the junction of Vindhyan and Satpura hill ranges in a triangular shape.

2. It is located at the trijunction of Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra.

3. It is a holy place from where the Narmada, Johilla and Sone rivers emerge.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans- (a)

Solution

Solution – refer our YouTube Envt Mapping Series (Marketing )

➢ Statement 3 is correct: Achanakmar-Amarkantak Biosphere Reserve is named after Achanakmar forest village
and Amarkantak, a holy place from where the Narmada, Johilla and Sone rivers emerge.
➢ Achanakmar-Amarkantak Biosphere Reserve was declared as Biosphere Reserve (BR) by Government of India,
2005.
➢ Statement 1 is NOT correct: It is spread from Maikal hill ranges to the junction of Vindhyan and Satpura hill
ranges in a triangular shape. Bilaspur and Marwahi forest divisions of the Chhattisgarh state, Dindori and
Anuppur forest divisions of Madhya Pradesh state surround the core zone of BR.
➢ Statement 2 is NOT correct: The total geographical area of BR is 3835.51 sq. km. The core area of the BR, falls
in Chhattisgarh state. It is surrounded by buffer and transition zone area falls in Bilaspur and Marwahi forest
divisions of Chhattisgarh and in Dindori and Anuppur forest divisions of Madhya Pradesh.

Q89. UNSC resolution 1267, sometimes seen in news, is associated with

(a) Sanctions against Russia due to Russia-Ukraine war

(b) Creation of a sanctions list targeting individuals and entities associated with Al-Qaeda and the Taliban

(c) Formation of peacekeeping operations in the Gaza strip

(d) Authorization for military intervention in Libya

Ans - (b) Creation of a sanctions list targeting individuals and entities associated with Al-Qaeda and the Taliban

Solution

➢ UNSC 1267 committee was first set up in 1999 (updated in 2011 and 2015) and strengthened after the
September 2001 attacks.
➢ It is now known as the Da’esh and Al Qaeda Sanctions Committee.
➢ It comprises all permanent and non-permanent members of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC).
➢ The 1267 list of terrorists is a global list, with a UNSC stamp.
➢ It is one of the most important and active UN subsidiary bodies working on efforts to combat terrorism,
particularly in relation to Al Qaeda and the Islamic State group.
 ➢ It discusses UN efforts to limit the movement of terrorists, especially those related to travel bans, the freezing
of assets and arms embargoes for terrorism.

Q90. The iGOT Karamyogi Platform is launched for the purpose of

(a) Guiding government officials in their capacity building journey

(b) Intergrading Apprentices with Indian industries

(c) To help street vendors by providing working capital loans at affordable prices

(d) Providing healthcare services to rural communities

Ans- (a)

Solution

➢ Driving the Mission’s core objectives, Karmayogi Bharat, a government owned, not-for-profit special purpose
vehicle, has been established by DoPT, Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances, and Pensions, and is entrusted
with the responsibility for owning, managing, maintaining and improving the iGOT (Integrated Government
Online Training) Karmayogi Platform.
➢ The curated collection of courses is available on the iGOT Karmayogi Platform for consumption by Young
Professionals, and Consultants engaged in various Ministries, Government Departments, and Organizations to
enhance their knowledge, skills, and abilities
➢ The iGOT Karmayogi Platform is a comprehensive online portal to guide government officials in their capacity
building journey.

Q91. This dance involves male musicians and captivating female dancers dressed in bright clothes, and they play
traditional instruments like the dhol, pungi, and khanjari. This is also known as 'Sapera Dance' or 'Snake Charmer
Dance,' and it is a special tradition of a tribe in Rajasthan. It's recognized by UNESCO as part of the Intangible Cultural
Heritage of Humanity.

The above description is about which of the following traditional dances of western India?

(a) Chhau

(b) Kalbeliya

(c) Bhavai

(d) Yakshgana

Ans- (b) Kalbeliya

Q92. Which of the following statements with respect to milk production in India is/are not correct?

1. From 2013-14 to 2021-22, the milk production in India has registered an increase of more than 50 percent.

2. Although the milk production over the above period has increased, per capita availability of milk has decreased.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans- (a) 1 only

Solution

Statement 1 is Correct

➢ Milk production in India has actually increased significantly from 2013-14 to 2021-22. In fact, it went from
137.7 million tonnes to 221.1 million tonnes, which is an increase of over 61%

Statement 2 is Correct

➢ Per capita availability of milk has also increased along with overall production. It went from 303 grams/day in
2013-14 to 444 grams/day in 2021-22

Sources - https://pib.gov.in/PressReleseDetailm.aspx?PRID=1980174.

https://www.nddb.coop/information/stats/milkprodindia

Q93. The Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) for 2024 is published by

(a) Greenpeace

(b) Conservation International

(c) Yale University

(d) None of the above

Ans- (d) None of the above

Solution

▪ CCPI, published annually since 2005, is an independent monitoring tool for tracking countries’ climate
protection performance. It increases transparency in national and international climate policy and enables
comparison of individual countries’ climate protection efforts and progress.

o It is published by Germanwatch, the NewClimate Institute, and Climate Action Network

International.

o It indicates the climate mitigation efforts of 63 countries and the EU, which collectively account for
over 90% of global greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions.

▪ Performance Metrics: The CCPI evaluates countries across four key categories: Greenhouse Gas (GHG)
Emissions (40%), Renewable Energy (20%), Energy Use (20%), and Climate Policy (20%).

▪ CCPI 2024: No country performed well enough in all index categories to achieve an overall very high rating.
The first three overall positions therefore remain empty.

o Denmark claimed the 4th spot, Estonia followed in 5th place, and the Philippines secured the
6th position among the top ranks.
Q94. Electronic Origin Data Exchange System (EODES), has been recently inaugurated between India and which other
nation/organisation?

(a) South Korea

(b) European Union

(c) Unites Arab Emirates (UAE)

(d) Israel

Ans- (a) South Korea

Solution

➢ The India-Korea Electronic Origin Data Exchange System (EODES) was inaugurated in New Delhi in December
2023
➢ The system was launched to facilitate the implementation of the India-Korea Comprehensive Economic
Partnership Agreement (CEPA) by allowing the two customs administrations to electronically exchange origin
information.
➢ EODES enables the real-time exchange of origin data between the two countries' customs authorities.
➢ The system ensures that data fields in a Certificate of Origin (CoO) are promptly shared electronically by the
exporting customs administration with the importing customs as soon as the certificate is issued.
➢ This streamlined process is expected to expedite the clearance of imported goods.

Q95. The ‘Kampala Declaration’ aims to tackle which of the following issues?

(a) It aims to address the intricate relationship between human migration and climate change across the African
continent.

(b) It aims to scale up science-based and innovative actions and address the ocean emergency of habitat loss and ocean
acidification near the African coasts.

(c) It aims to promote better management of peatlands in the Congo basin.

(d) It aims at preventing future pandemics and enhancement of multilateral health architecture in the East African
nations.

Ans – (a)

Solution

Kampala Declaration on Climate Change:

➢ 48 African countries have taken a significant stride by adopting the Kampala Ministerial Declaration on
Migration, Environment, and Climate Change (KDMECC)
➢ This declaration aims to tackle the intricate relationship between human migration and climate change across
the African continent.
➢ This decision was deliberated during a conference hosted jointly by Kenya and Uganda, with strong support
from the International Organization for Migration (IOM) and the United Nations Framework Convention on
Climate Change (UNFCCC)

Q96. Consider the following pairs:

Places in news: Countries/Region

1. Addis Ababa : Ethiopia

2. Maui: Huwaii
3. Tripoli: Libya

How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Ans- (c)

Solution

➢ Pair 1 is correctly matched: Addis Ababa, Ethiopia - Environment ministers from across the African continent
have reached a consensus to establish national and regional strategies aimed at minimizing the environmental
impacts associated with the extraction and processing of critical mineral resources.
➢ Pair 2 is correctly matched: Maui, Hawaii - Hawaii has been grappling with a series of extensive wildfires that
have caused significant devastation across the state
➢ Pair 3 is correctly matched: Tripoli, Libya - Clashes between the two primary armed groups in Tripoli have
resulted in the closure of the capital's sole civilian airport.

Q97. With reference to ‘UNESCO's Creative Cities Network’, consider the following pairs:

Indian city: Creative fields

1. Mumbai - Gastronomy

2. Kozhikode - Literature

3. Gwalior - Music

How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Ans -(b) Only two

Solution

Pair 1 is not correctly matched: Mumbai is known as “city of dreams” because of film industry. In 2019 UNESCO
included in creative list for film category

Pair 2 is correctly matched: Kozhikode: Renowned for its literary heritage, Kozhikode embarked on its UNESCO journey
in 2022, spearheaded by the Kerala Institute of Local Administration. The Kozhikode Corporation's collaboration with
the University of Prague, the inaugural 'City of Literature' in 2014, underscored the city's global aspirations in the realm
of literature

Pair 3 is correctly matched: Gwalior: Gwalior, famed as the 'City of Music,' boasts a profound musical legacy
intertwined with eminent personalities like Tansen and Baliti Bawra. It stands as the birthplace of the esteemed Gwalior
Gharana, counted among the oldest Hindustani musical Gharanas.

Indian Cities in UCCN:

➢ Crafts and Folk Arts: Jaipur (2015), Srinagar (2021)

 ➢ Design: No Indian city listed
➢ Film: Mumbai (2019)
➢ Gastronomy: Hyderabad (2019)
➢ Literature: Kozhikode (2023) - The first Indian city awarded the 'City of Literature' title.
➢ Media Arts: No Indian city listed
➢ Music: Chennai (2017), Varanasi (2015), Gwalior (2023)

Q98. Beat Pollution, UN75, Wild for Life and Global Environment Outlook are initiatives of which of the following
international environmental ogranisation?

(a) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)

(b) Global Environment Facility (GEF)

(c) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)

(d) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)

Ans- (a) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)

Q99. The Ben Gurion Canal, often seen in news recently connects which of the following bodies of water?

(a) Pacific ocean and Atlantic Ocean

(b) Gulf of Thailand and Andaman Sea

(c) North Sea and Baltic Sea

(d) Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea

Ans – (d) Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea

Q100. Sea Buckthorn and Onattukara sesame recently gained GI Tags, they belong to which of the following regions?

(a) Ladakh and Kerala

(b) Arunachal Pradesh and Karnataka

(c) Himachal Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh
(d) Sikkim and Tamil Nadu

Ans- (a) Ladakh and Kerala

Solution

➢ The Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Government of India, via the Geographical Indication (GI) Registry,
recently bestowed the GI tag upon 'Ladakh Sea Buckthorn,' managed by the Department of Industries &
Commerce, Ladakh. Meanwhile, in a separate area, the Onattukara Vikasana Agency (OVA) in Kerala, the
proprietors of the GI-tagged Onattukara sesame, are actively engaged in expanding the cultivation of this
distinctive sesame variety.