1. Which of the following is the definition of epidemiology?

a) The study of diseases and their causes

b) The study of the distribution and determinants of health-related states or events in
populations
c) The study of treatment options for diseases
d) The study of individual health behaviors

Answer: b) The study of the distribution and determinants of health-related states or events in
populations

2. Which of the following is an example of a communicable disease?

a) Diabetes
b) Asthma
c) Tuberculosis
d) Hypertension

Answer: c) Tuberculosis

3. What is the primary goal of descriptive epidemiology?

a) To determine the causes of diseases
b) To investigate disease outbreaks
c) To describe the occurrence of diseases in populations
d) To develop interventions for disease prevention

Answer: c) To describe the occurrence of diseases in populations

4. Which of the following is a measure of disease frequency?

a) Odds ratio
b) Incidence rate
c) Relative risk
d) P-value

Answer: b) Incidence rate

5. Which of the following study designs is most appropriate for assessing the association between
an exposure and an outcome?
a) Case-control study
b) Cohort study
c) Randomized controlled trial
d) Cross-sectional study

Answer: b) Cohort study

6. Which of the following is a measure of association used in cohort studies?

a) P-value
 b) Odds ratio
c) Standard deviation
d) Confidence interval

Answer: b) Odds ratio

7. Which of the following is a potential limitation of cross-sectional studies?

a) They cannot establish temporal relationships
b) They are expensive to conduct
c) They are prone to recall bias
d) They require long-term follow-up

Answer: a) They cannot establish temporal relationships

8. Which of the following is a measure of the strength of association between an exposure and an
outcome?
a) Confidence interval
b) P-value
c) Odds ratio
d) Standard deviation

Answer: c) Odds ratio

9. Which of the following is an example of a modifiable risk factor for chronic diseases?
a) Age
b) Gender
c) Genetic predisposition
d) Smoking

Answer: d) Smoking

10. Which of the following is a key component of outbreak investigation?

a) Surveillance
b) Case-control study
c) Experimental study
d) Systematic review

Answer: a) Surveillance

1. Which of the following is an example of a non-communicable disease?

a) Influenza
b) Malaria
c) Diabetes
d) Measles
Answer: c) Diabetes

2. What is the purpose of randomization in a randomized controlled trial (RCT)?

a) To ensure blinding of participants
b) To minimize confounding factors between treatment groups
c) To increase the generalizability of the results
d) To establish a cause-and-effect relationship

Answer: b) To minimize confounding factors between treatment groups

3. Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy?

a) Screening for breast cancer
b) Administering antibiotics for a bacterial infection
c) Providing smoking cessation programs
d) Administering antiretroviral therapy for HIV

Answer: c) Providing smoking cessation programs

4. What is the purpose of a case-control study?

a) To determine the effectiveness of a treatment
b) To investigate the causes of a disease
c) To estimate disease prevalence in a population
d) To assess the burden of a disease in a population

Answer: b) To investigate the causes of a disease

5. Which of the following is a measure of association used in case-control studies?

a) Incidence rate
b) Odds ratio
c) Relative risk
d) P-value

Answer: b) Odds ratio

6. Which of the following is a characteristic of a good screening test?

a) High cost
b) Low sensitivity
c) Low specificity
d) High positive predictive value

Answer: d) High positive predictive value

7. What is the purpose of a systematic review in epidemiology?

a) To summarize the findings of multiple studies on a particular topic
b) To investigate the causes of a disease outbreak
 c) To assess the effectiveness of a specific intervention
d) To estimate disease prevalence in a population

Answer: a) To summarize the findings of multiple studies on a particular topic

8. Which of the following is an example of a public health surveillance system?

a) National Cancer Registry
b) Clinical trial database
c) Hospital billing system
d) Health insurance claims database

Answer: a) National Cancer Registry

9. Which of the following is an example of a vector-borne disease?

a) Tuberculosis
b) Influenza
c) Dengue fever
d) Osteoarthritis

Answer: c) Dengue fever

10. Which of the following is a measure of disease burden that takes into account both mortality
and morbidity?
a) Incidence rate
b) Case fatality rate
c) Disability-adjusted life years (DALYs)
d) Prevalence rate

Answer: c) Disability-adjusted life years (DALYs)

1. Which of the following is an example of a zoonotic disease?

a) Influenza
b) Diabetes
c) Hypertension
d) Asthma

Answer: a) Influenza

2. What is the purpose of a cohort study?

a) To determine the effectiveness of a treatment
b) To investigate the causes of a disease
c) To estimate disease prevalence in a population
d) To assess the burden of a disease in a population

Answer: b) To investigate the causes of a disease

 3. Which of the following is a measure of disease impact that takes into account the severity of the
condition?
a) Prevalence
b) Mortality rate
c) Years of potential life lost (YPLL)
d) Incidence rate

Answer: c) Years of potential life lost (YPLL)

4. Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention strategy?

a) Vaccination campaigns
b) Health education programs
c) Early detection and treatment of cancer
d) Environmental sanitation initiatives

Answer: c) Early detection and treatment of cancer

5. What is the purpose of blinding in a randomized controlled trial (RCT)?

a) To ensure random allocation of participants
b) To minimize confounding factors between treatment groups
c) To increase the generalizability of the results
d) To reduce bias in the assessment of outcomes

Answer: d) To reduce bias in the assessment of outcomes

6. Which of the following is a measure of association used in cross-sectional studies?

a) Odds ratio
b) Relative risk
c) P-value
d) Prevalence ratio

Answer: d) Prevalence ratio

7. What is the purpose of a sensitivity analysis in epidemiological studies?

a) To assess the statistical power of the study
b) To evaluate the validity of the study findings
c) To investigate potential sources of bias or uncertainty
d) To determine the sample size required for the study

Answer: c) To investigate potential sources of bias or uncertainty

8. Which of the following is an example of active surveillance in public health?

a) Monitoring disease trends using electronic health records
b) Conducting surveys to assess healthcare utilization
 c) Notifying public health authorities of reportable diseases
d) Screening asymptomatic individuals for a specific condition

Answer: d) Screening asymptomatic individuals for a specific condition

9. Which of the following is an example of a host factor in the epidemiological triad?

a) Air pollution
b) Infectious agent
c) Susceptibility to the disease
d) Mode of transmission

Answer: c) Susceptibility to the disease

10. Which of the following is a measure of disease frequency that represents the proportion of
individuals affected by a disease at a specific point in time?
a) Incidence rate
b) Prevalence rate
c) Mortality rate
d) Case fatality rate

Answer: b) Prevalence rate

1. The population of a city is 500,000. In 2023, there were 1,500 new cases of a specific disease.
What is the incidence rate per 1,000 population?
a) 0.3 per 1,000
b) 3 per 1,000
c) 15 per 1,000
d) 30 per 1,000

Answer: b) 3 per 1,000

2. In a cohort study, 200 participants were exposed to a risk factor, and 300 participants were not
exposed. Among the exposed group, 40 developed the disease, while among the non-exposed
group, 20 developed the disease. What is the risk ratio (RR)?
a) 0.5
b) 1.0
c) 1.5
d) 2.0

Answer: d) 2.0

3. A screening test for a specific disease has a sensitivity of 90% and a specificity of 85%. Among a
population of 10,000 individuals, 200 have the disease. How many true negatives would be
expected among the individuals without the disease?
a) 1,500
 b) 1,700
c) 8,500
d) 8,700

Answer: d) 8,700

4. A research study reports a 95% confidence interval for the relative risk of a specific exposure as
0.7 to 1.3. What does this confidence interval indicate?
a) The exposure is significantly associated with the outcome.
b) The exposure is not significantly associated with the outcome.
c) The true relative risk lies between 0.7 and 1.3 with 95% certainty.
d) The study has a statistical power of 95% to detect an association.

Answer: c) The true relative risk lies between 0.7 and 1.3 with 95% certainty.

5. The population of a region was 1,000,000 at the beginning of the year. During the year, there
were 10,000 births, 5,000 deaths, and 2,000 migrations in. What is the net migration rate per
1,000 population?
a) -3 per 1,000
b) -2 per 1,000
c) 2 per 1,000
d) 3 per 1,000

Answer: c) 2 per 1,000

6. In a case-control study, among the cases, 30% were exposed to a certain risk factor, while
among the controls, only 10% were exposed. What is the odds ratio (OR)?
a) 0.3
b) 0.5
c) 2.0
d) 3.0

Answer: c) 2.0

7. The prevalence of a disease in a population is 5%. If the sensitivity of a diagnostic test is 90% and
the specificity is 80%, what is the positive predictive value (PPV) of the test?
a) 2.5%
b) 5%
c) 10%
d) 20%

Answer: c) 10%

8. A study compares the incidence rates of a disease between two groups. Group A had 50 cases
among a population of 10,000, while Group B had 30 cases among a population of 5,000. What
 is the incidence rate ratio (IRR)?
a) 0.5
b) 1.0
c) 1.5
d) 2.0

Answer: d) 2.0

9. The mortality rate due to a specific disease in a population is 10 deaths per 1,000 person-years.
If the population size is 500,000, how many deaths would be expected in one year?
a) 50
b) 500
c) 5,000
d) 50,000

Answer: b) 500

10. In a randomized controlled trial, 200 participants were assigned to the intervention group and
200 participants to the control group. Among the intervention group, 20 participants developed
the outcome, while among the control group, 30 participants developed the outcome. What is
the absolute risk reduction (ARR)?
a) 0.05
b) 0.10
c) 0.15
d) 0.20

Answer: b) 0.10

1. In a cross-sectional study, the prevalence of a specific disease is estimated to be 15%. If the

desired margin of error is 3% and the confidence level is 95%, what is the required sample size?
a) 100
b) 400
c) 667
d) 2,222

Answer: c) 667

2. A researcher wants to conduct a case-control study with a case-to-control ratio of 1:4. If there
are 100 cases, how many controls should be included in the study?
a) 20
b) 25
c) 75
d) 400

Answer: d) 400
 3. A researcher is planning a cohort study to investigate the incidence of a specific disease. The
expected incidence rate in the exposed group is 10 per 1,000 person-years, while the expected
incidence rate in the non-exposed group is 5 per 1,000 person-years. If the desired power is 80%
and the significance level is 5%, what is the required sample size per group?
a) 100
b) 200
c) 400
d) 800

Answer: c) 400

4. A randomized controlled trial aims to detect a 20% reduction in the incidence of a specific
disease in the intervention group compared to the control group. The expected incidence rate in
the control group is 10 per 1,000 person-years. If the desired power is 90% and the significance
level is 5%, what is the required sample size per group?
a) 100
b) 200
c) 500
d) 1,000

Answer: d) 1,000

5. A researcher wants to estimate the mean age of a population. The population standard
deviation is known to be 5 years. If the desired margin of error is 1 year and the confidence level
is 95%, what is the required sample size?
a) 20
b) 25
c) 100
d) 400

Answer: d) 400

6. A survey aims to estimate the proportion of individuals who engage in regular physical exercise.
The desired margin of error is 3% and the confidence level is 99%. If the estimated proportion is
0.60, what is the required sample size?
a) 267
b) 752
c) 1,067
d) 2,222

Answer: b) 752

7. A researcher wants to compare the means of two independent groups. The expected difference
in means is 5 units, and the common standard deviation is 10 units. If the desired power is 80%
 and the significance level is 5%, what is the required sample size per group?
a) 16
b) 32
c) 64
d) 128

Answer: d) 128

8. A study aims to estimate the prevalence of a specific exposure in the population. The expected
prevalence is 30%. If the desired margin of error is 5% and the confidence level is 95%, what is
the required sample size?
a) 100
b) 200
c) 400
d) 800

Answer: a) 100

9. A researcher wants to investigate the association between a risk factor and a disease using a
case-control study design. The expected odds ratio is 2.5. If the desired power is 90% and the
significance level is 5%, what is the required sample size?
a) 100
b) 200
c) 400
d) 800

Answer: c) 400

10. A researcher wants to estimate the population proportion of individuals with a certain
characteristic. The desired margin of error is 2% and the confidence level is 99%. If the
estimated proportion is 0.40, what is the required sample size?
a) 752
b) 1,067
c) 2,222
d) 3,841

Answer: d) 3,841

1. A researcher wants to investigate the relationship between smoking and lung cancer. Which
study design would be most appropriate?
a) Cross-sectional study
b) Case-control study
c) Cohort study
d) Experimental study
Answer: c) Cohort study

2. A study aims to assess the effectiveness of a new drug in treating a specific condition. Which
study design would be most appropriate?
a) Cross-sectional study
b) Case-control study
c) Cohort study
d) Randomized controlled trial

Answer: d) Randomized controlled trial

3. A researcher wants to study the prevalence of hypertension in a specific population. Which

study design would be most appropriate?
a) Cross-sectional study
b) Case-control study
c) Cohort study
d) Experimental study

Answer: a) Cross-sectional study

4. A study aims to investigate the risk factors for heart disease. Researchers recruit individuals with
and without heart disease and collect information on their risk factor exposures. Which study
design would be most appropriate?
a) Cross-sectional study
b) Case-control study
c) Cohort study
d) Experimental study

Answer: b) Case-control study

5. A researcher wants to study the long-term effects of a specific exposure on health outcomes.
Which study design would be most appropriate?
a) Cross-sectional study
b) Case-control study
c) Cohort study
d) Experimental study

Answer: c) Cohort study

6. A study aims to investigate the association between a specific exposure and an outcome of
interest. The researcher collects data from participants at a single point in time. Which study
design would be most appropriate?
a) Cross-sectional study
b) Case-control study
 c) Cohort study
d) Experimental study

Answer: a) Cross-sectional study

7. A researcher wants to assess the impact of a public health intervention on disease outcomes.
Participants are randomly assigned to either the intervention group or the control group. Which
study design would be most appropriate?
a) Cross-sectional study
b) Case-control study
c) Cohort study
d) Randomized controlled trial

Answer: d) Randomized controlled trial

8. A study aims to investigate the incidence of a specific disease in relation to a particular

exposure. Researchers follow a group of individuals over time and collect data on exposure and
disease occurrence. Which study design would be most appropriate?
a) Cross-sectional study
b) Case-control study
c) Cohort study
d) Experimental study

Answer: c) Cohort study

9. A researcher wants to study the association between a risk factor and an outcome of interest.
The researcher collects data from participants and then follows them over time to observe the
outcome. Which study design would be most appropriate?
a) Cross-sectional study
b) Case-control study
c) Cohort study
d) Experimental study

Answer: c) Cohort study

10. A study aims to investigate the effectiveness of a new educational program in improving health
behaviors. Participants are randomly assigned to either the intervention group or the control
group. Which study design would be most appropriate?
a) Cross-sectional study
b) Case-control study
c) Cohort study
d) Randomized controlled trial

Answer: d) Randomized controlled trial

 1. Which measure of association is most appropriate for quantifying the strength of association
between a risk factor and a binary outcome in a case-control study?
a) Odds ratio
b) Relative risk
c) Hazard ratio
d) Prevalence ratio

Answer: a) Odds ratio

2. Which measure of association is most appropriate for quantifying the strength of association
between a risk factor and an outcome in a cohort study?
a) Odds ratio
b) Relative risk
c) Hazard ratio
d) Prevalence ratio

Answer: b) Relative risk

3. Which measure of association is most appropriate for quantifying the strength of association
between a risk factor and an outcome in a cross-sectional study?
a) Odds ratio
b) Relative risk
c) Hazard ratio
d) Prevalence ratio

Answer: d) Prevalence ratio

4. Which measure of association is most appropriate for quantifying the strength of association
between a risk factor and an outcome in a randomized controlled trial?
a) Odds ratio
b) Relative risk
c) Hazard ratio
d) Prevalence ratio

Answer: b) Relative risk

5. A study compared the risk of developing lung cancer among smokers and non-smokers. The
calculated measure of association was 2.5. Which statement is correct?
a) Smokers have a 2.5 times higher risk of developing lung cancer compared to non-smokers.
b) Smokers have a 2.5% higher risk of developing lung cancer compared to non-smokers.
c) Non-smokers have a 2.5 times higher risk of developing lung cancer compared to smokers.
d) Non-smokers have a 2.5% higher risk of developing lung cancer compared to smokers.

Answer: a) Smokers have a 2.5 times higher risk of developing lung cancer compared to non-smokers.
 6. A study calculated an odds ratio of 0.75 for the association between a risk factor and an
outcome. Which statement is correct?
a) The risk of the outcome is 0.75 times lower in those exposed to the risk factor compared to
those not exposed.
b) The risk of the outcome is 0.75 times higher in those exposed to the risk factor compared to
those not exposed.
c) The odds of the outcome are 0.75 times lower in those exposed to the risk factor compared to
those not exposed.
d) The odds of the outcome are 0.75 times higher in those exposed to the risk factor compared
to those not exposed.

Answer: c) The odds of the outcome are 0.75 times lower in those exposed to the risk factor compared
to those not exposed.

7. A study calculated a hazard ratio of 1.2 for the association between a risk factor and an
outcome. Which statement is correct?
a) The risk of the outcome is 1.2 times higher in those exposed to the risk factor compared to
those not exposed.
b) The risk of the outcome is 1.2 times lower in those exposed to the risk factor compared to
those not exposed.
c) The odds of the outcome are 1.2 times higher in those exposed to the risk factor compared to
those not exposed.
d) The odds of the outcome are 1.2 times lower in those exposed to the risk factor compared to
those not exposed.

Answer: a) The risk of the outcome is 1.2 times higher in those exposed to the risk factor compared to
those not exposed.

8. A study calculated a prevalence ratio of 1.5 for the association between a risk factor and a
disease. Which statement is correct?
a) The prevalence of the disease is 1.5 times higher in those exposed to the risk factor compared
to those not exposed.
b) The prevalence of the disease is 1.5 times lower in those exposed to the risk factor compared
to those not exposed.
c) The odds of the disease are 1.5 times higher in those exposed to the risk factor compared to
those not exposed.
d) The odds of the disease are 1.5 times lower in those exposed to the risk factor compared to
those not exposed.

Answer: a) The prevalence of the disease is 1.5 times higher in those exposed to the risk factor
compared to those not exposed.

9. A study calculated a relative risk of 0.8 for the association between a risk factor and an outcome.
Which statement is correct?
 a) The risk of the outcome is 0.8 times lower in those exposed to the risk factor compared to
those not exposed.
b) The risk of the outcome is 0.8 times higher in those exposed to the risk factor compared to
those not exposed.
c) The odds of the outcomeare 0.8 times lower in those exposed to the risk factor compared to
those not exposed.
d) The odds of the outcome are 0.8 times higher in those exposed to the risk factor compared to
those not exposed.

Answer: a) The risk of the outcome is 0.8 times lower in those exposed to the risk factor compared to
those not exposed.

10. A study calculated an odds ratio of 1.2 for the association between a risk factor and an outcome.
Which statement is correct?
a) The risk of the outcome is 1.2 times higher in those exposed to the risk factor compared to
those not exposed.
b) The risk of the outcome is 1.2 times lower in those exposed to the risk factor compared to
those not exposed.
c) The odds of the outcome are 1.2 times higher in those exposed to the risk factor compared to
those not exposed.
d) The odds of the outcome are 1.2 times lower in those exposed to the risk factor compared to
those not exposed.

Answer: c) The odds of the outcome are 1.2 times higher in those exposed to the risk factor compared
to those not exposed.

1. Screening tests are primarily used for:

a) Diagnosis of diseases
b) Treatment of diseases
c) Prevention of diseases
d) Rehabilitation of diseases

Answer: c) Prevention of diseases

2. Which of the following is an example of a screening test?

a) Blood pressure measurement
b) Chest X-ray
c) Electrocardiogram (ECG)
d) Biopsy

Answer: a) Blood pressure measurement

3. Screening tests are typically performed on:

a) Healthy individuals
 b) Individuals with symptoms of a disease
c) Individuals already diagnosed with a disease
d) Individuals undergoing treatment for a disease

Answer: a) Healthy individuals

4. The purpose of screening is to:

a) Identify all cases of a disease in a population
b) Identify individuals at high risk for a disease
c) Diagnose diseases at an early stage
d) Provide treatment for a disease

Answer: c) Diagnose diseases at an early stage

5. Sensitivity of a screening test refers to:

a) The ability of the test to correctly identify individuals without the disease
b) The ability of the test to correctly identify individuals with the disease
c) The ability of the test to differentiate between different diseases
d) The ability of the test to measure disease severity

Answer: b) The ability of the test to correctly identify individuals with the disease

6. Specificity of a screening test refers to:

a) The ability of the test to correctly identify individuals without the disease
b) The ability of the test to correctly identify individuals with the disease
c) The ability of the test to differentiate between different diseases
d) The ability of the test to measure disease severity

Answer: a) The ability of the test to correctly identify individuals without the disease

7. The positive predictive value (PPV) of a screening test is influenced by:

a) Sensitivity of the test
b) Specificity of the test
c) Prevalence of the disease in the population
d) Accuracy of the test

Answer: c) Prevalence of the disease in the population

8. The negative predictive value (NPV) of a screening test is influenced by:

a) Sensitivity of the test
b) Specificity of the test
c) Prevalence of the disease in the population
d) Accuracy of the test

Answer: c) Prevalence of the disease in the population

 9. Which of the following is an example of a population-based screening program?
a) Mammography for breast cancer in women aged 40 and above
b) Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test for prostate cancer in men
c) Colonoscopy for colorectal cancer in individuals with a family history of the disease
d) Newborn screening for metabolic disorders

Answer: d) Newborn screening for metabolic disorders

10. The goal of a screening program is to:

a) Completely eliminate the disease from the population
b) Reduce the incidence and mortality of the disease
c) Provide treatment for all individuals with the disease
d) Increase awareness about the disease

Answer: b) Reduce the incidence and mortality of the disease