1.

As a result of activation of the ion channels of the external membrane the rest potential of an excitable
cell has greatly increased. What channels were activated?
a. *Potassium channels
b. B. Sodium channels
c. C. Fast calcium channels
d. D. Slow calcium channels
e. E. Sodium and calcium channels
2. Cell membrane rest potential changed from minus 85 to minus-90 mV. It can be caused by activation
of the following cell membrane channels:
a. *Potassium
b. Sodium
c. Potassium and sodium
d. Calcium
e. Potassium and calcium
3. Microelectrode analysis of nerve fiber biolectrical activity revealed, that its membrane potential equals
90 mV. Its initial rest potential was 85 mV. What process occurs in this case?
a. *Hyperpolarization
b. Depolarization
c. Repolarization
d. Overshoot
e. Supernormality
4. In an experiment, an extracellular potassium concentration was increased until it became equal to the
intracellular potassium concentration, which resulted in the loss of cellular excitability. What
electrophysiological process occurred in this case?
a. *Potassium efflux from the cell stops and resting potential disappears
b. Potassium efflux from the cell decreases and hyperpolarization develops
c. Potassium influx to the cell increases and local response develops
d. Sodium efflux from the cell increases and depolarization develops
E. Potassium efflux from the cell increases and hyperpolarization develops
5. KCl concentration in a solution that surrounds an isolated cell was increased. How will resting
membrane potential (RMP) and cell excitability change in this case?
a. *RMP increases, excitability decreases
b. RMP and excitability remain unchanged
c. RMP decreases, excitability remains unchanged
d. RMP increases, excitability increases
e. RMP decreases, excitability increases
6. It is required to evaluate the level of tissue excitability. For this purpose one should determine:
a. *Depolarization threshold
b. Resting potential
c. Critical level of depolarization
d. Action potential amplitude
e. Action potential duration
7. When measuring total muscle action potential it was revealed that it was subject to the power-law
relationship. The reason for this is that individual muscle fibers differ in:
a. *Depolarization threshold
b. Diameter
c. Conduction velocity
d. Resting potential
e. Critical level of depolarization
8. Microelectrode technique allowed to register a potential following "all-or-none"law and being able of
undecremental spreading. Specify this potential:
a. *Action potential
b. Excitatory postsynaptic potential
c. Rest potential
d. Inhibitory postsynaptic potential
e. Receptor potential
9. An isolated muscle fiber is under examination. It was established that the threshold of stimulation force
became significantly lower. What is the cause of this phenomenon?
a. *Activation of sodium channels of membrane
b. Activation of potassium channels of membrane
c. Inactivation of sodium channels of membrane
d. Inactivation of potassium channels of membrane
b. E. Block of energy production in the cell
10. In course of an experiment there has been an increase in the nerve conduction velocity. This may be
caused by an increase in the concentration of the following ions that are present in the solution around the
cell:
a. *Sodium ions
b. Potassium ions and chlorine ions
c. Potassium ions and sodium ions
d. Calcium ions and chlorine ions
e. Calcium ions
11. In course of an experiment there has been an increase in the nerve conduction velocity. This may be
caused by an increase in the concentration of the following ions that are present in the solution around the
cell:
a. *Sodium ions
b. Potassium ions and chlorine ions
c. Potassium ions and sodium ions
d. Calcium ions and chlorine ions
e. Calcium ions
12. An experiment was aimed at testing flexor reflex in a spinal frog, which was initiated by simultaneous
stimulation with isolated prethreshold electrical impulses. The frequency of those impulses was such, that
the reflex occurred. What process in the nerve centers can be observed during this experiment?
a. *Temporal summation
b. Spatial summation
c. Presynaptic summation
d. Postsynaptic summation
e. Threshold summation
13. During experiment a skeletal muscle is being stimulated with a series of electrical impulses. What
type of muscular contracti- on will develop, if each following impulse occurs within the relaxation period
after the previous single contraction of the muscle?
a. *Incomplete tetanus
b. Smooth tetanus
c. Series of single contractions
d. Muscle contracture
e. Asynchronous tetanus
14. During an experiment a skeletal muscle is stimulated by a series of electric impulses. What type of
muscle contraction will be observed provided that each subsequent impulse comes in the period of
shortening of the previous single muscle contraction?
a. *Holotetanus
b. Partial tetanus
c. Asynchronous tetanus
d. A series of single contractures
e. Muscle contracture
15. A patient consulted a dentist about restricted mouth opening (trismus). He has a history of a stab
wound of the lower extremity. What infection can cause these symptoms?
a. *Tetanus
b. Brucellosis
c. Whooping cough
d. Wound anaerobic infection
e. Tularemia
16. Which muscle contraction will be observed in the upper extremity during holding (but not moving) a
load in a certain position?
a. *Isometric
b. Isotonic
c. Auxotonic
d. Concentric
e. Excentric
17. What kind of muscle contraction occurs in an upper limb during an attempt to lift a load beyond one’s
strength?
a. *Isometric
b. Isotonic
c. Auxotonic
d. Phasic
e. Single
18. A patient presented to a hospital with complaints about quick fatigability and significant muscle
weakness. Examination revealed an autoimmune disease that causes functional disorder of receptors in
the neuromuscular synapses. This will result in the disturbed activity of the following mediator:
a. *Acetylcholine
b. Noradrenaline
c. Dopamine
d. Serotonin
e. Glycine
19. Trauma of peripheral nerves leads to muscle atrophy, bones become porous and brittle, ulcers develop
on the skin and mucosa. What function of the nervous system is affected in such cases?
a. *Trophic
b. Sensory
c. Motor
d. Vegetative
e. Higher nervous activity
20. Curariform substances introduced into a human body cause the relaxation of all skeletal muscles.
What changes in the neuromuscular synapse cause this phenomenon?
a. *Blockade of N-cholinergic receptors of the synaptic membrane
b. Impaired acetylcholine release
c. Blockade of Ca channels of the presynaptic membrane
d. Impaired cholinesterase synthesis
e. Depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane
21. A sportsman was examined after an intensive physical activity. The examination revealed disorder of
movement coordination but the force of muscle contractions remained the same. It can be explained by
retarded speed of excitement conduction through:
a. *Central synapses
b. Neuromuscular synapses
c. Efferent nerves
d. Afferent nerves
e. Conduction tracts
22. After a long training session a sportsman has developed fatigue accompanied by abrupt performance
decrement. What link of the reflex arch was the fatigue initiated in?
a. *Nerve centres
b. Afferent conductor
c. Receptors
d. Efferent conductor
e. Muscles
23. One of the functions of central inhibition is the selection and reduction of the sensory information
influx to the cerebral cortex. What type of inhibition performs this function?
a. *Pessimal inhibition
b. Reciprocal inhibition
c. Lateral inhibition y
d. Inverse inhibition
e. Presynaptic inhibition
24. It has been experimentally proven that the excitation of the motor neurons of flexor muscles is
accompanied by the inhibition of the motor neurons of extensor muscles. What type of inhibition
underlies this phenomenon?
a. *Reciprocal
b. Inhibition after excitation
c. Pessimal
d. Feedback
e. Lateral
25. Poisoning caused by botulinum toxin that prevents calcium ions from entering axone nerve endings of
motoneurons is life- threatening because it can lead to:
a. *Respiratory arrest
b. Cardiac arrest
c. Vasotonic disorder
d. Vomiting
e. Diarrhea
26. Experimental stimulation of the sympathetic nerve branches that innervate the heart caused an
increase in the force of heart contractions because the membrane of typical cardiomyocytes permitted an
increase in:
a. *Calcium ion entry
b. Calcium ion exit
c. Potassium ion exit
d. Potassium ion entry
e. Calcium and potassium ion exit
27. Students who are taking examinations often have dry mouth. The mechanism that causes this state is
the realization of the following reflexes:
a. *Conditioned sympathetic
b. Unconditioned parasympathetic
c. Conditioned parasympathetic
d. Unconditioned sympathetic
e. Unconditioned peripheral
28. A man was intoxicated with mushrooms. They contain muscarine that stimulates muscarinic
cholinoreceptors. What symptoms signalize intoxication with inedible mushrooms?
a. *Myotic pupils
b. Mydriatic pupils
c. Bronchi dilatation
d. Increased heart rate
e. Rise of arterial pressure
29. A patient with obliterating atherosclerosis underwent sympathectomy of femoral artery in the region
of femoral trigone. What type of arterial hyperemia was induced by the operation?
a. *Neuroparalytic
b. Reactive
c. Metabolic
d. Neurotonic
e. Functional
30. An aged man had raise of arterial pressure under a stress. It was caused by activation of:
a. *Sympathoadrenal system
b. Parasympathetic nucleus of vagus
c. Functions of thyroid gland
d. Functions of adrenal cortex
e. Hypophysis function
31. During fighting a man had a cardiac arrest as a result of a hard blow to the upper region of anterior
abdominal wall. Which of the described mechanisms might have provoked the cardiac arrest?
a. *Parasympathetic unconditioned reflexes
b. Sympathetic unconditioned reflexes
c. Parasympathetic conditioned reflexes
d. Sympathetic conditioned reflexes
e. Peripheric reflexes
32. If a man has an attack of bronchiospasm it is necessary to reduce the effect of vagus on smooth
muscles of bronchi. What membrane cytoreceptors should be blocked for this purpose?
a. *M-cholinoreceptors
b. N-cholinoreceptors
c. alpha-adrenoreceptors
d. beta-adrenoreceptors
e. alpha- and beta-adrenoreceptors
33. In response to a change in body position from horizontal to vertical blood circulation system develops
reflectory pressor reaction. Which of the following is its compulsory component?
a. *Systemic constriction of the venous vessels
b. Systemic dilatation of the arterial resistive vessels
c. Decrease in the circulating blood volume
d. Increase in the heart rate
e. Weakening of the pumbing ability of heart
34. A 63 year old patient with collapse presentations was delivered to the emergency hospital. A
physician has chosen noradrenalin against hypotension. What is its mechanism of action?
a. *Activation of alpha1-adrenoreceptors
b. Activation of serotonin receptors
c. Activation of beta-adrenoreceptors
d. Activation of dopamine receptors
e. Block of M-cholinoreceptors
35. A man got poisoned with mushrooms. They contain muscarine that stimulates muscarinic
cholinoreceptors. What symptom is typical for poisoning with inedible mushrooms?
a. *Miosis
b. Mydriasis
c. Bronchi dilation
d. Heart rate rise
e. Arterial pressure rise
36. A man was intoxicated with mushrooms. They contain muscarine that stimulates muscarinic
cholinoreceptors. What symptoms signalize intoxication with inedible mushrooms?
a. *Myotic pupils
b. Mydriatic pupils
c. Bronchi dilatation
d. Increased heart rate
e. Rise of arterial pressure
37. A patient complains of pain in the heart area during acute attack of gastric ulcer. What vegetative
reflex can cause this painful feeling?
a. *Viscerovisceral reflex
b. Viscerodermal reflex
c. Visceromotor reflex
d. Dermatovisceral reflex
e. Motor-visceral reflex
38. Cardiac arrest occurred in a patient during a surgery of the small intestine. What regulatory
mechamisms resulted in the cardiac arrest in this case?
a. *Unconditioned parasympathetic reflexes
b. Unconditioned sympathetic reflexes
c. Conditioned parasympathetic reflexes
d. Conditioned sympathetic reflexes
e. Metasympathetic reflexes
39. Pupil dilation occurs when a person steps from a light room into a dark one. What re flex causes such a
reaction?
a. *Sympathetic unconditioned reflex
b. Sympathetic conditioned reflex
c. Metasympathetic reflex
d. Parasympathetic unconditioned reflex
e. Parasympathetic conditioned reflex
40. During the prestart period an athlete develops increased frequency and force of cardiac contractions.
These changes are caused by intensification of the following reflex responces:
a. *Sympathetic conditioned
b. Sympathetic unconditioned
c. Parasympathetic conditioned
d. Parasympathetic unconditioned
e. Peripheral
41. A 40-year-old person developed elevated blood pressure after an emotional excitement. What is the
likely cause of this effect?
a. *Increased sympathetic nervous system ton
b. Decreased cardiac contraction frequency
c. Bo Arteriolar dilation
d. Hyperpolarization of cardiomyocytes
e. Increased parasympathetic nervous system tone
42. As a result of a trauma a patient has damaged anterior roots of spinal cord. What structures have been
affected?
a. *Axons of motoneurons and axons of neurons of lateral horns
b. Central processes of sensitive neurons of spinal ganglions
c. Peripheral processes of sensitive spinal ganglions
d. Axons of neurons
e. Dendrites of neurons of spinal ganglions
43. As a result of an injury, the integrity of the anterior spinal cord root was broken. Specify the neurons
and their processes that had been damaged:
a. *Axons of motor neurons
b. Motor neuron dendrites
c. Axons of sensory neurons
d. Dendrites of sensory neurons
e. Dendrites of association neurons
44. During an experiment the myotatic reflex has been studied in frogs. After extension in a skeletal
muscle its reflectory contraction was absent. The reason for it might be a dysfunction of the following
receptors:
a. *Muscle spindles
b. Nociceptors
c. Articular
d. Golgi tendon organs
e. Tactile
45. After a traffic accident a 36-year-old patient has developed muscle paralysis of the extremitis on the
right, lost pain and thermal sensitivity on the left, and partially lost tactile sensitivity on both sides. What
part of the brain is the most likely to be damaged?
a. *Right-hand side of the spinal cord
b. Motor cortex on the left
c. Left-hand side of the spinal cord
d. Anterior horn of the spinal cord
e. Posterior horn of the spinal cord
46. After a trauma the patient has developed right-sided paralyses and disturbed pain sensitivity. On the
left side no paralyses are observed, but pain and thermal sensitivity is disturbed. What is the cause of this
condition?
a. *Unilateral right-side spinal cord injuiry
b. Cerebellar injury
c. Midbrain injury
d. Motor cortex injury
e. Brainstem injury
47. A 49-year old female patient has limitation of left limbs arbitrary movements. Muscular tonus of left
hand and leg is overstrained and spasmodic, local tendon reflexes are strong, pathological reflexes are
presented. What is the most likely development mechanism of hypertension and hyperreflexia?
a. *Reduction of descending inhibitory influence
b. Motoneuron activation induced by stroke
c. Activation of excitatory influence from the focus of stroke
d. Activation of synaptic transmission
e. Ihibition of cerebral cortex motoneurons
48. In a cat with decerebrate rigidity the muscle tone is to be decreased. This can be achieved by:
a. *Destruction of the vestibular nuclei of Deiters
b. Stimulation of theotolithic vestibular receptors
c. Stimulation of the vestibular nuclei of Deiters
d. Stimulation of the vestibulocochlear nerve
e. Stimulation of the ampullar vestibular receptors
49. Surface with an intact toad on it was inclined to the right. Tone of extensor muscles became reflectory
higher due to the activation of the following receptors:
a. *Vestibuloreceptors of utricle and saccule
b. Vestibuloreceptors of semicircular ducts
c. Mechanoreceptors of foot skin
d. Photoreceptors of retina
e. Proprioreceptors
50. Vestibular receptors of semicircular canals of an animal have been destroyed. What reflexes will
disappear as a result?
a. *Statokinetic reflex during movements with angular acceleration
b. Statokinetic reflex during movements with linear acceleration
c. Head-righting reflex
d. Body-righting reflex
e. Primary orienting reflex
51. In a cat with decerebrate rigidity the muscle tone is to be decreased. This can be achieved by:
a. *Destruction of the vestibular nuclei of Deiters
b. Stimulation of theotolithic vestibular receptors
c. Stimulation of the vestibular nuclei of Deiters
d. Stimulation of the vestibulocochlear nerve
e. Stimulation of the ampullar vestibular receptors
52. An animal has an increased tonus of extensor muscles. This is the result of enhanced information
transmission to the motoneurons of the spinal cord through the following descending pathways:
a. *Vestibulospinal
b. Medial corticospinal
c. Reticulospinal
d. Rubrospinal
e. Lateral corticospinal
53. After destruction of CNS structures an animal lost orientative reflexes. What structure was destroyed?
a. *Quadrigeminal plate
b. Red nucleus
c. Lateral vestibular nuclei
d. Black substance
e. Medial reticular nuclei
54. As a result of damage to certain structures of brainstem an animal lost orientation reflexes. What
structures were damaged?
a. *Quadritubercular bodies
b. Medial nuclei of reticular formation
c. Red nuclei
d. Vestibular nuclei
e. Black substance
55. After a certain CNS structure had been destroyed in a test animal, this animal lost its orienting
reflexes. What structure had been destroyed?
a. *Corpora quadrigemina
b. Medial reticular nuclei
c. Red nuclei
d. Lateral vestibular nuclei
e. Substantia nigra
56. During experiment a dog has developed conditioned digestive reflex in response to a sound stimulus.
This conditioned reflex will not be exhibited anymore after the extirpation of the following areas of the
cerebral hemispheres:
a. *Temporal lobe on both sides
b. Occipital lobe on one side
c. Parietal lobe on both sides
d. Temporal lobe on one side
e. Occipital lobe on both sides
57. Due to destruction of certain structures of the brainstem an animal has lost its orientation reflexes in
response to strong light stimuli. What structures were destroyed?
a. *Anterior quadrigeminal bodies
b. Posterior quadrigeminalbodies
c. Red nuclei
d. Vestibular nuclei
e. Substantia nigra
58. A laboratory experiment on a dog was used to study central parts of auditory system. One of the
mesencephalon structures was destroyed. The dog has lost the orienting response to auditory signals.
What structure was destroyed?
a. *Inferior colliculi of corpora quadrigemina
b. Superior colliculi of corpora quadrigemina
c. Substantia nigra
d. Reticular formation nuclei
e. Red nucleus
59. During experiment a part of the brain was extracted, which resulted in asynergy and dysmetria
development in the test animal. What part of the brain was extracted in the animal?
a. *Cerebellum
b. Frontal lobe
c. Parietal lobe
d. Mesencephalon
e. Reticulum
60. A patient staggers and walks astraddle. He has hypomyotonia of arm and leg muscles, staccato
speech. In what brain section is this affection localized?
a. *Cerebellum
b. Putamen
c. Caudate nucleus
d. Motor cortex
e. Red nucleus
61. A patient presents with the following motor activity disturbances: tremor, ataxia and asynergia
movements, dysarthria. The disturbances are most likely to be localized in:
a. *Cerebellum
b. Basal ganglions
c. Limbic system
d. Brainstem
e. Medulla oblongata
62. A patient with injury sustained to a part of the central nervous system demonstrates disrupted
coordination and movement amplitude, muscle tremor during volitional movements, poor muscle tone.
What part of the central nervous system was injured?
a. *Cerebellum
b. Medulla oblongata
c. Oliencephalon
d. Mesencephalon
e. Prosencephalon
63. A patient underwent an extraction of a part of a CNS structures by medical indications. As a result of
the extraction the patient developed atony, astasia, intention tremor, ataxy and adiadochokinesis. Which
part of CNS structure had been extracted?
a. *Cerebellum
b. Amygdaloid corpus
c. Hippocamp
d. Basal ganglions
e. Limbic system
64. Parkinson’s disease is caused by di- sruption of dopamine synthesis. What brain structure synthesizes
this neurotransmitter?
a. *Substantia nigra
b. Globus pallidus
c. Corpora quadrigemina
d. Red nucleus
e. Hypothalamus
65. A 64-year-old woman presents with di- sturbed fine motor function of her fingers, marked muscle
rigidity, and tremor. The neurologist diagnosed her with Parkinson’s disease. What brain structures are
damaged resulting in this disease?
a. *Substantia nigra
b. Thalamus
c. Red nuclei
d. Cerebellum
e. Reticular formation
66. A patient got a trauma that caused dysfunction of motor centres regulating activity of head muscles.
In what parts of cerebral cortex is the respective centre normally localized?
a. *Inferior part of precentral gyrus
b. Superior part of precentral gyrus
c. Supramarginal gyrus
d. Superior parietal lobule
e. Angular gyrus
67. After a craniocerebral trauma a patient lost the ability to execute learned purposeful movements
(apraxia). The injury is most likely localized in the following region of the cerebral cortex:
a. *Gyrus supramarginalis
b. Gyrus angularis
c. Gyrus paracentralis
d. Gyrus lingualis
e. Gyrus parahippocampalis
68. After a prolonged attack of severe headache the patient lost mobility in his left arm and leg. Muscle
tone is decreased in the affected limbs, the muscles are spasmed, spinal tendon reflexes are acutely
intensified, reflex zones are increased. What nervous system disorder can be observed in this patient?
a. *Central paralysis
b. Peripheral paralysis
c. Flaccid paralysis
d. Extrapyramidal paralysis
e. Reflex paralysis
69. Corticosteroid hormones regulate the adaptation processes of the body as a whole to environmental
changes and ensure the maintenance of internal homeostasis. What hormone activates the hypothalamo-
pituitary-adrenal axis?
a. *Corticoliberin
b. Somatoliberin
c. Somatostatin
d. Corticostatin
e. Thyroliberin
70. On examination the patient is found to have low production of adrenocorticotropic hormone. How
would this affect production of the other hormones?
a. *Decrease adrenocorticotropic hormones synthesis
b. Decrease hormone synthesis in the adrenal medulla
c. Decrease insulin synthesis
d. Increase sex hormones synthesis
e. Increase thyroid hormones synthesis
71. The secretion of whixhhypophysial hormones will be inhibited after taking the oral contraceptives
containing sex hormones?
a. *Gonadotropic hormone
b. Vasopressin
c. Thyrotrophic hormone
d. Somatotropic hormone
e. Ocytocin
72. A 32-year-old patient consulted a doctor about the absence of lactation after parturition. Such disorder
might be explained by the deficit of the following hormone:
a. *Prolactin
b. Somatotropin
c. Vasopressin
d. Thyrocalcitonin
e. Glucagon
73. After a case of sepsis a 27-year-old woman developed ”bronzed” skin discoloration characteristic of
Addison’s disease. Hyperpigmentation mechanism in this case is based on increased secretion of:
a. *Melanocyte-stimulating hormone
b. Somatotropin
c. Gonadotropin
d. β-lipotropin
e. Thyroid-stimulating hormone
74. A 45-year-old woman comes to her physician with complaints of excessive fatigue and weakness. She
says that these symptoms have been present for the past month. On further questioning, she admits having
lost 3 kilograms in the last 2 weeks. On physical examination, she is a tired-appearing thin woman.
Hyperpigmentation is present over many areas of her body, most prominently over the face, neck and
back of hands (areas exposed to light). Increased production of which of the following hormones is the
most likely cause of hyperpigmentation in this patient?
a. *Melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH)
b. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
c. Growth hormone (GH) ‘
d. beta-Lipotropin
e. Gonadotropins
75. A patient complains of hydruria (7 liters per day) and polydipsia. Examination reveals no disorders of
carbohydrate metabolism. These abnormalities might be caused by the dysfunction of the following
endocrine gland:
a. *Neurohypophysis
b. Adenohypophysis
c. Islets of Langerhans (pancreatic islets)
d. Adrenal cortex
e. Adrenal medulla
76. A man has a considerable decrease in diuresis as a result of 1,5 l blood loss. The primary cause of
such diuresis disorder is the hypersecretion of the following hormone:
a. *Vasopressin
b. Corticotropin
c. Natriuretic
d. Cortisol
e. Parathormone
77. A 20 year old patient complains of morbid thirst and huperdiuresis (up to 10 l daily). Glucose
concentration in blood is normal but it is absent in urine. The patient has been diagnosed with diabetes
insipidus. What hormonal drug is the most appropriate for management of this disorder?
a. *Vasopressin
b. Cortisol
c. Thyroxin
d. Oxytocin
e. Insulin
78. Prolonged vomiting resulted in dehydration of the patient’s body. Under these conditons, water
retention in the body is ensured primarily due to increased secretion of the following hormone:
a. *Vasopressin
b. Natriuretic hormone
c. Aldosterone
d. Calcitonin
e. Adrenaline
79. A 26-year-old woman at 40 weeks pregnant has been delivered to the maternity ward. Objectively: the
uterine cervix is opened, but the contractions are absent. The doctor has administered her a hormonal drug
to stimulate the labor. Name this drug:
a. *Oxytocin
b. Hydrocortisone
c. Estrone
d. Testosterone
e. ACTH
80. To stimulate the labor activity a parturient woman was prescribed a drug – a posterior pituitary
hormone that does not affect the blood pressure. As the pregnancy progresses, the sensitivity to this
hormone increases. Name the prescribed drug:
a. *Oxytocin
b. Dinoprostone
c. Dinoprost
d. Pituitrin
e. Ergotal
81. A 40-year-old woman on examination presents with intensified basal metabolic rate. What hormone
present in excess leads to such condition?
a. *Triiodothyronine
b. Thyrocalcitonin
c. Glucagon
d. Aldosterone
e. Somatostatin
82. A 4 year old child with hereditary renal lesion has signs of rickets, vitamin D concentration in blood
is normal. What is the most probable cause of rickets development?
a. *Impaired synthesis of calcitriol
b. Increased excretion of calcium
c. Hyperfunction of parathyroid glands
d. Hypofunction of parathyroid glands
e. Lack of calcium in food
83. During regular checkup a child is detected with interrupted mineralization of the bones. What vitamin
deficiency can be the cause?
a. *Calciferol
b. Riboflavin
c. Tocopherol
d. Folic acid
e. Cobalamin
84. After surgical removal of the thyroid gland, a patient developed numbness in the extremities.
Laboratory analysis shows hypocalcemia. What hormonal agent should be prescribed in this case?
a. *Parathyrin
b. Triiodothyronine
c. Thyroxine
d. Thyroidin
e. Calcitonin
85. During removal of the hyperplastic thyroid gland of a 47-year-old woman, the parathyroid gland was
damaged. One month after the surgery the patient developed signs of hypoparathyroidism: frequent
convulsions, hyperreflexia, laryngospasm. What is the most likely cause of the patient’s condition?
a. *Hypocalcemia
b. Hyponatremia
c. Hyperchlorhydria
d. Hypophosphatemia
e. Hyperkalemia
86. A child has abnormal formation of tooth enamel and dentin as a result of low concentration of
calcium ions in blood. Such abnormalities might be caused by deficiency of the following hormone:
a. *Parathormone
b. Thyrocalcitonin
c. Thyroxin
d. Somatotropic hormone
e. Triiodothyronine
87. Parodontitis is treated with calcium preparations and a hormone that stimulates tooth mineralization
and inhibits tissue resorption. What hormone is it?
a. *Calcitonin
b. Parathormone
c. Adrenalin
d. Aldosterone
e. Thyroxine
88. A 6-year-old child suffers from delayed growth, disrupted ossification processes, decalcification of the
teeth. What can be the cause?
a. *Vitamin D deficiency
b. Decreased glucagon production
c. Insulin deficiency
d. Hyperthyroidism
e. Vitamin deficiency
89. A 4 year old child with hereditary renal lesion has signs of rickets, vitamin D concentration in blood
is normal. What is the most probable cause of rickets development?
a. *Impaired synthesis of calcitriol
b. Increased excretion of calcium
c. Hyperfunction of parathyroid glands
d. Hypofunction of parathyroid glands
e. Lack of calcium in food
90. A patient with edemas has plasma sodium levels of 160 mmol/L. This condition is caused by a change
in the levels of a certain hormone. Name this hormone:
a. *Increased aldosterone
b. Decreased aldosterone
c. Increased glucocorticoids
d. Increased natriuretic hormone
e. Increased thyroid hormones
91. A concentrated solution of sodium chloride was intravenously injected to an animal. This caused
decreased reabsorption of sodium ions in the renal tubules. It is the result of the following changes of
hormonal secretion:
a. *Aldosterone reduction
b. Aldosterone increase
c. Vasopressin reduction
d. Vasopressin increase
e. Reduction of atrial natriuretic factor
92. A 19-year-old male was found to have an elevated level of potassium in the secondary urine. These
changes might have been caused by the increase in the following hormone level:
a. *Aldosterone
b. Oxytocin
c. Adrenaline
d. Glucagon
e. Testosterone
93. For people adapted to high external temperatures profuse sweating is not accompanied by loss of
large volumes of sodium chloride. This is caused by the effect the following hormone has on the
perspiratory glands:
a. *Aldosterone
b. Vasopressin
c. Cortisol
d. Tgyroxin
e. Natriuretic
94. A patient presents with high blood aldosterone. What physiologically active substance is the likely
cause of this development?
a. *Angiotensin II
b. Cyclic adenosine monophosphate
c. Prostaglandin E2
d. Natriuretic factor
e. Cyclic guanosine monophosphate
95. As a result of a home injury, a patient suffered a significant blood loss, which led to a fall in blood
pressure. Rapid blood pressure recovery after the blood loss is provided by the following hormones:
a. *Adrenaline, vasopressin
b. Cortisol
c. Sex hormones
d. Oxytocin
e. Aldosterone
96. On your physiology class, the professor asks you to report about the effects of various body hormones
and neurotransmitters on the metabolism of glucose. You begin your report with the statement that the
use of glucose by the cell is preceded by absorption through the plasma membrane from the extracellular
matrix into the cell. Which of the following hormones is most likely responsible for the glucose uptake by
the cell?
a. *Insulin
b. Thyroxine
c. Aldosterone
d. Glucagon
e. Epinephrine
97. Before the cells can utilize the glucoze, it is first transported from the extracellular space through the
plasmatic membrane inside theml. This process is stimulated by the following hormone:
a. *Insulin
b. Glucagon
c. Thyroxin
d. Aldosterone
e. Adrenalin
98. Prior to glucose utilization in cells it is transported inside cells from extracellular space through
plasmatic membrane. This process is stimulated by the following hormone:
a. *Insulin
b. Glucagon
c. Thyroxin
d. Aldosterone
e. Adrenalin
99. Atria of an experimental animal were superdistended by blood that resulted in decreased reabsorption
of Na+ and water in renal tubules. This can be explained by the influence of the following factor upon
kidneys:
a. *Natriuretic hormone
b. Aldosterone
c. Renin
d. Angiotensin
e. Vasopressin
100. A patient with constant headaches, pain in the occipital region, tinnitus, dizziness has been admitted
to the cardiology department. Objectively: AP- 180/110 mm Hg, heart rate - 95/min. Radiographically,
there is a stenosis of one of the renal arteries. Hypertensive condition in this patient has been caused by
the activation of the following system:
a. *Renin-angiotensin
b. Hemostatic
c. Sympathoadrenal
d. Kinin
e. Immune
101. A patient with hypertensic crisis has increased content of angiotensin II in blood. Angiotensin
pressor effect is based on:
a. *Contraction of arteriole muscles
b. Activation of biogenic amine synthesis
c. Prostaglandin hyperproduction
d. Vasopressin production stimulation
e. Activation of kinin–kallikrein system
102. A patient has insufficient blood supply to the kidneys, which caused the development of pressor
effect due to the constriction of arterial resistance vessels. This is the result of the vessels being greately
affected by the following substance:
a. *Angiotensin II
b. Angiotensinogen
c. Renin
d. Catecholamines
e. Norepinephrine
103. In an experiment it is necessary to assess neuromotor and muscle excitability. What value shoud be
measured to make the assessment?
a. *Sensory threshold
b. Action potential amplitude
c. Resting potential
d. Threshold potential
E. Action potential duration
104. The dorsal root of the spinal nerve of a test animal was severed. What changes will occur in the
innervation area?
a. *Loss of sensitivity
b. B. Loss of motor function
c. C. Decreased muscle tone
d. D. Increased muscle tone
e. E. Loss of sensitivity and motor function
105. After a craniocerebral injury a patient has lost the ability to recognize shapes of objects by touch
(stereognosis). What area of cerebral cortex normally contains the relevant center?
a. *Superior parietal lobule
b. Inferior parietal lobule
c. Supramarginal gyrus
d. Postcentral gyrus
e. Angular gyrus
106. After a craniocerebral injury a patient is unable to recognize objects by touch. What part of brain has
been damaged?
a. *Postcentral gyrus
b. Occipital lobe
c. Temporal lobe
d. Precentral gyrus
e. Cerebellum
107. As a result of a craniocerebral injury a patient has a decreased skin sensitivity. What area of the
cerebral cortex may be damaged?
a. *Posterior central gyrus
b. Occipital region
c. Cingulate gyrus
d. Frontal cortex
E. Anterior central gyrus
108. Examination of the patient with traumatic brain injury revealed that he has lost the ability to discern
the movement of an object on the skin. What part of the cerebral cortex is damaged?
a. *Posterior central gyrus
b. Occipital lobe
c. Parietal lobe
d. Frontal lobe
e. Anterior central gyrus
109. An experiment was conducted to measure the skin sensitivity threshold. What patches of skin have
the highest sensitivity threshold?
a. *Face
b. Shoulder
c. Back
d. Shin
e. Dorsal surface of the hand
110. After the traumatic tooth extraction a patient is complaining of acute, dull, poorly-localized pain in
gingiva, body temperature rise up to 37, 5oC. The patient has been diagnosed with alveolitis. Specify the
kind of pain in this patient:
a. *Protopathic
b. Epicritic
c. Visceral
d. Heterotopic
e. Phantom
111. Human brain produces endogenous peptides that are similar to morphine and can reduce pain
perception. Name these peptides:
a. *Endorphins
b. Vasopressin
c. Liberins
d. Oxytocin
e. Statins
112. A patient complaining of pain in the left shoulder-blade region has been diagnosed with miocardial
infarction. What kind of pain does the patient have?
a. *Radiating
b. Visceral
c. Phantom
d. Protopathic
e. Epicritic
113. An electron micrograph shows a cell of neural origin. The terminal portion of the cell dendrite has
cylindrical shape and consists of 1000 closed membrane disks. What cell is represented by the
micrograph?
a. *Rod receptor cell
b. Cone receptor cell
c. Spinal node neuron
d. Neuron of the cerebral cortex
E. Neuron of the anterior horns of the spinal cord
114. A patient complains of photoreception disorder and frequent acute viral diseases. He has been
prescribed a vitamin that affects photoreception processes by producing rhodopsin, the photosensitive
pigment. What vitamin is it?
a. *Retinol acetate
b. Tocopherol acetate
c. Pyridoxine hydrochloride
d. Cyanocobalamin
e. Thiamine
115. A 64 year old woman has impairment of twilight vision (hemeralopy). What vitamin should be
recommended in the first place?
a. *Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B2
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin C
e. Vitamin B6
116. A person with vitamin A deficiency develops twilight vision disturbance. Name the cells that fulfill
this photoreceptor function:
a. *Rod cells
b. Horizontal cells of retina
c. Bipolar neurons
d. Cone cells
e. Ganglionic nerve cells
117. A man got poisoned with mushrooms. They contain muscarine that stimulates muscarinic
cholinoreceptors. What symptom is typical for poisoning with inedible mushrooms?
a. *Miosis
b. Mydriasis
c. Bronchi dilation
d. Heart rate rise
e. Arterial pressure rise
118. An infectious disease caused contractive activity of muscles that contract and dilate eye pupil
(paralytic state). What functional eye system was damaged?
a. *Accomodative
b. Dioptric
c. Ancillary
d. Photosensory
e. Lacrimal apparatus
119. A 25-year-old woman complains of visual impairment. Examination revealed disturbed eye
accommodation, the pupil is dilated and unresponsive to light. What muscles are functionally disturbed in
this case?
a. *Iris sphincter muscle, ciliary muscle
b. Iris dilator muscle, ciliary muscle
c. Superior oblique muscle, ciliary muscle
d. Lateral rectus muscle, iris sphincter muscle
e. Iris sphincter and iris dilator muscles
120. A 75-year-old-female patient with complaints of visual impairment has been delivered to the
ophthalmologic department. Objective examination revealed a brain tumor in area of the left optic tract.
The patient has a visual field defect in the following area:
a. *Left half of both eyes retina
b. Right half of both eyes retina
c. Left and right halves of the left eye retina
d. Left and right halves of the right eye retina
e. Left and right halves of both eyes retina
121. A patient demonstrates functional loss of nasal halves of the retinas. What area of visual pathways is
affected?
a. *Optic chiasm
b. Left optic tract
c. Right optic tract
d. Left optic nerve
e. Right optic nerve
122. A 20-year-old female comes to the clinic after missing her last 2 periods. Her cycles are usually
regular, occurring at 28-30 day interval with moderate bleeding and some abdominal discomfort. She also
complains of progressively diminishing peripheral vision. Her doctor reveals loss of vision in the lateral
halves of both eyes. Involvement of which of the following structures would you most likely expect to be
the reason of bitemporalhemianopsia?
a. *Optic chiasm
b. Right optic tract
c. Left optic nerve
d. Right optic nerve
e. Left optic tract
123. A soldier with explosion-caused trauma was delivered to a hospital. Examination revealed his
tympanic membrane to be intact. What defense reflex prevented the tympanic membrane from rupturing?
a. *Contraction of m. tensor tympani
b. Relaxation of m. tensor tympani
c. Contraction of m. auricularisarterior
d. Relaxation of m. auricularisarterior
e. Relaxation of m. stapedins
124. Pupil dilation occurs when a person steps from a light room into a dark one. What reflex causes such
a reaction?
a. *Sympathetic unconditioned reflex
b. Sympathetic conditioned reflex
c. Metasympathetic reflex
d. Parasympathetic unconditioned reflex
e. Parasympathetic conditioned reflex
125. A 60 year old patient has impaired perception of high-frequency sounds. These changes were caused
by damage of the following auditory analyzer structures:
a. *Main cochlea membrane near the oval window
b. Main cochlea membrane near the helicotrema
c. Eustachian tube
d. Middle ear muscles
e. Tympanic membrane
126. A male working as a blacksmith has been tested for auditory acuity. The tests revealed 50% hearing
loss in the lowfrequency range and a near-normal auditory acuity in the high-frequency range. This
condition has been caused by the damage to the following structures of the auditory system:
a. *Corti’s organ - closer to helicotrema
b. Corti’s organ - closer to the oval foramen
c. Median part of the Corti’s organ
d. Muscles of the middle ear
e. Eardrum
127. A man having a hearing loss after a head trauma was delivered to the neurosurgery department. The
cause of the hearing loss might be the damage of the following lobe of cerebral cortex:
a. *Temporal
b. Postcentral gyrus
c. Parietal
d. Occipital
e. Frontal
128. During experiment a dog has developed conditioned digestive reflex in response to a sound stimulus.
This conditioned reflex will not be exhibited anymore after the extirpation of the following areas of the
cerebral hemispheres:
a. *Temporal lobe on both sides
b. Occipital lobe on one side
c. Parietal lobe on both sides
d. Temporal lobe on one side
e. Occipital lobe on both sides
129. A man who is riding the carousel presents with increased heart rate, sweating, nausea. This condition
is caused primarily by the stimulation of the following receptors:
a. *Vestibular ampullar
b. Proprioceptors
c. Vestibular otolithic
d. Auditory
e. Visual
130.Surface with an intact toad on it was inclined to the right. Tone of extensor muscles became
reflectory higher due to the activation of the following receptors:
a. *Vestibuloreceptors of utricle and saccule
b. Vestibuloreceptors of semicircular ducts
c. Mechanoreceptors of foot skin
d. Photoreceptors of retina
e. Proprioreceptors
131. Vestibular receptors of semicircular canals of an animal have been destroyed. What reflexes will
disappear as a result?
a. *Statokinetic reflex during movements with angular acceleration
b. Statokinetic reflex during movements with linear acceleration
c. Head-righting reflex
d. Body-righting reflex
e. Primary orienting reflex
132. In course of an experiment thalamocortical tracts of an animal were cut. What type of sensory
perception remained intact?
a. *Olfactory
b. Auditory
c. Exteroreceptive
d. Visual
e. Nociceptive
133. The receptors under study provide transfer of information to the cortex without thalamic
involvement. Specify these receptors:
a. *Olfactory
b. Tactile
c. Gustatory
d. Visual
e. Auditory
134. A patient consulted a doctor about loss of taste sensitivity on the tongue root. The doctor revealed
that it is caused by nerve affection. Which nerve is it?
a. *Glossopharyngeal
b. Vagus nerve
c. Facial nerve
d. Superlaryngeal nerve
e. Trigeminal nerve
135. Power inputs of a man were measured. In what state was this man if
his power inputs were lower than basal metabolism?
a. *Sleep
b. Relaxation
c. Simple work
d. Nervous tension
e. Rest
136. A man sitting with his eyes closed, undergoes electroencephalography. What rhythm will be
recorded on the EEG if there is an audible signal?
a. *Beta rhythm
b. Theta rhythm
c. Delta rhythm
d. Alpha rhythm
e. Gamma rhythm
137. A patient complains that at the bare mention of the tragic events that once occurred in his life he
experiences
tachycardia, dyspnea and an abrupt rise in blood pressure. What structures of the CNS are responsible for
these cardiorespiratory reactions in this patient?
a. *Cerebral cortex
b. Cerebellum
c. Lateral hypothalamic nuclei
d. Specific thalamic nuclei
e. Quadrigemina of mesencephalon
138. During an animal experiment, surgical damage of certain brain structures has caused deep prolonged
sleep. What structure is most likely to cause such condition, if damaged?
a. *Reticular formation
b. Basal ganglion
c. Red nuclei
d. Hippocampus
e. Cerebral cortex
139. On examination the patient was determined to have strong, balanced, inert type of higher nervous
activity according to Pavlov’s classification. What temperament according to Hippocrates is it?
a. *Phlegmatic
b. Sanguine
c. Choleric
d. Melancholic
140. A student, whose educational achievements throughout the semester were poor, feels emotionally
tense during the final test. What is the primary cause that induced leading mechanism of emotional
tension in this case?
a. *Lack of information
b. Tight time
c. Ttight time and lack of energy
d. Lack of energy
e. Lack of energy and information
141. A student, whose educational achievements throughout the semester were poor, feels emotionally
tense during the final test. What is the primary cause that induced the leading mechanism of emotional
tension in this case?
a. *Lack of information
b. Lack of time
c. Lack of energy and information
d. Lack of time and energy
e. Lack of energy
142. I.M. Siechenov has proven that a tired limb restores its working capacity faster if during its period of
rest another limb works. It became a basis for the concept of:
a. *Active rest
b. Optimum
c. Parabiosis
d. Pessimum
e. Fatigue
143. A patient was admitted to the infectious department. His symptoms: dry skin, decreased skin turgor,
rice-water stool. The patient was diagnosed with cholera. What disorder of water-electrolytic balance is
most often observed in this disease?
a. *Isoosmotichypohydration
b. Hyperosmotic hyperhydration
c. Hypoosmotichypohydration
d. Hyperosmotic hypohydration
e. Hypoosmotichyperhydration
144. A woman with hypophyseal diabetes insipidus developed a water-mineral imbalance. What type of
water-mineral imbalance develops in such cases?
a. *Hyperosmolar dehydration
b. Hypoosmolar dehydration
c. Isoosmolar dehydration
d. Hypoosmolarhyperhydration
e. Hyperosmolar hyperhydration
145. A woman with enteritis accompanied by severe diarrhea presents with loss of water in the
extracellular space, increased water content in the cells, and decreasing blood osmolarity. Name this type
of water- electrolyte imbalance:
a. *Hypoosmolarhypohydration
b. Isoosmolarhypohydration
c. Hyperosmolar hyperhydration
d. Hyperosmolar hypohydration
e. Hypoosmolarhyperhydration
146. A patient has severe blood loss caused by an injury. What kind of dehydration will be observed in
this particular case?
a. *Isoosmolar
b. Hyposmolar
c. Hyperosmolar
d. Normosmolar
147. To lose some weight a woman has been limiting the amount of products in her diet. 3 months later
she developed edemas and her diuresis increased. What dietary component deficiency is the cause of this?
a. *Proteins
b. Fats
c. Carbohydrates
d. Vitamins
e. Minerals
148. A blood drop has been put into a test tube with 0,3% solution of NaCl. What will happen to
erythrocytes?
a. *Osmotic haemolysis
b. Shrinkage
c. Mechanical haemolysis
d. Any changes will be observed
e. Biological haemolysis
149. Examination of a man who had been working hard under higher temperature of the environment
revealed abnormal quantity of blood plasma proteins. What phenomenon is the case?
a. *Relative hyperproteinemia
b. Absolute hyperproteinemia
c. Absolute hypoproteinemia
d. Dysproteinemia
e. Paraproteinemia
150. Toxic affection of liver results in dysfunction of protein synthesis. It is usually accompanied by the
following kind of dysproteinemia:
a. *Absolute hypoproteinemia
b. Relative hypoproteinemia
c. Absolute hyperproteinemia
d. Relative hyperproteinemia
e. Paraproteinemia
151. A woman has been limiting the amount of products in her diet to lose some weight. 3 months later
she developed edemas and her diuresis increased. What dietary component deficiency is the cause of this?
a. *Proteins
b. Fats
c. Carbohydrates
d. Vitamins
e. Minerals
152. Toxic damage to hepatic cells resulted in disruption of the patient’s liver function and the patient
developed edemas. What changes of blood plasma are the main cause of edema development?
a. *Decrease of albumin content
b. Increase of albumin content
c. Decrease of globulin content
d. Increase of globulin content
e. Decrease of fibrinogen content
153. A man weighs 80 kg, after long physical activity his circulating blood volume is reduced down to
5,4 l, hematocrit makes up 50%, whole blood protein is 80 g/l. These blood characteristics are determined
first of all by:
a. *Water loss with sweat
b. Increased number of erythrocytes
c. Increased protein concentration in plasm
d. Increased circulating blood volume
e. Increased diuresis
154. As a result of continuous starvation the glomerular filtration rate has increased by 20%. The most
probable cause of the glomerular filtration alteration under the mentioned conditions is:
a. *Decrease in the oncotic pressure of blood plasma
b. Increase in the systemic arterial pressure
c. Increase in the permeability of the renal filter
d. Increase of the filtartion quotient
e. Increase of the renal blood flow
155. Hepatitis has led to the development of hepatic failure. Mechanism of edemata formation is activated
by the impairment of the following liver function:
a. *Protein-synthetic
b. Barrier
c. Chologenetic
d. Antitoxic
e. Glycogen-synthetic
156. During acute hemorrhage the body loses not only fluid but also electrolytes. What substance solution
can be used as a simple blood substitute?
a. *Sodium chloride
b. Sodium bromide
c. Albumin
d. Sodium nucleotide
e. Calcium chloride
157. Examination of a pregnant woman revealed twice as much concentration of fibrinogen in blood
plasm. What ESR can this woman have?
a. *40-50 mm/h
b. 10-15 mm/h
c. 2-12 mm/h
d. 5-10 mm/h
e. 0-5 mm/h
158. Blood count of an athlete is as follows: erythrocytes - 5, 5 1012/l, Hb-180 g/l, leukocytes - 7 · 109/l,
neutrophils - 64%, basophils - 0,5%, eosinophils - 0,5%, monocytes - 8%, lymphocytes - 27%. First of
all, such results indicate the stimulation of:
a. *Erythropoiesis
b. Leukopoiesis
c. Lymphopoiesis
d. Granulocytopoiesis
e. Immunogenesis
159. 10 minutes after the beginning of heavy physical work a person demonstrates increase of erythrocyte
number in blood from 4, 0 1012 /l to 4, 5 1012 /l. What is the cause of this phenomenon?
a. *Erythrocytes exit from depot
b. Suppression of erythrocyte destruction
c. Erythropoiesis activation
d. Increase of cardiac output
e. Water loss
160. In a car accident a man got injured and lost a lot of blood. What changes in peripheral blood are most
likely to occur on the 2nd day after the injury?
a. *Erythropenia
b. Hypochromia
c. Anisocytosis
d. Microplania
e. Significant reticulocytosis
161. Due to prolonged stay in the mountains at the altitude of 3000 m above the sea level, a person
developed increased oxygen capacity of blood, which was directly caused by intensified production of:
a. *Erythropoietins
b. Leukopoietins
c. Carbaminohemoglobin
d. Catecholamines
e. 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate
162. Along with normal hemoglobin types there can be pathological ones in the organism of an adult.
Name one of them:
a. *HbS
b. HbF
c. HbA1
d. HbA2
e. HbO2
163. 24 hours after an appendectomy the patient’s blood test shows neutrophilic leukocytosis with a
regenerative shift. What is the most likely mechanism of absolute leukocytosis development in the
patient’s
peripheral blood?
a. *Intensification of leukopoiesis
b. Leukocyte redistribution
c. Decreased leukocyte disintegration
d. Deceleration of leukocyte migration tothe tissues
e. Immunity activation
164. 24 hours after an appendectomy the patient’s blood test shows neutrophilic leukocytosis with a
regenerative shift. What is the most likely mechanism of absolute leukocytosis development in the
patient’s peripheral blood?
a. *Leukocyte redistribution
b. Decreased leukocyte disintegration
c. Immunity activation
d. Intensification of leukopoiesis
e. Deceleration of leukocyte migration to the tissues
165. During periodic medical examination, a person with no health complaints presents with leukocytosis.
This sign can be detected if blood sample for the analysis was obtained after:
a. *Physical exertion
b. Mental exertion
c. Rest at a resort
d. Alcohol drinking
e. Drinking large amounts of water
166. After an attack of bronchial asthma a patient had his peripheral blood tested. What changes can be
expected?
a. *Eosinophilia
b. Leukopenia
c. Lymphocytosis
d. Thrombocytopenia
e. Erythrocytosis
167. A 5 year old child is ill with measles. Blood analysis revealed increase of total number of leukocytes
up to 13 109/l. Leukogram: basophils - 0, eosinophils - 1, myelocytes - 0, juvenile neutrophils - 0, band
neutrophils - 2, segmented neutrophils - 41, lymphocytes - 28, monocytes - 28. Name this phenomenon:
a. Monocytosis
b. Agranulocytosis
c. Lymphocytosis
d. Eosinopenia
e. Neutropenia
168. A patient with pneumonia has body temperature of 39,2oC. What cells are the main producers of
endogenous pyrogen that had caused such temperature rise?
a. *Monocytes
b. Eosinophils
c. Neutrophils
d. Endotheliocytes
e. Fibroblasts
169. A patient with skin mycosis has disorder of cellular immunity. The most typical characteristic of it is
reduction of the following index:
a. *T-lymphocytes
b. Immunoglobulin G
c. Immunoglobulin E
d. B-lymphocytes
e. Plasmocytes
170. After transfusion of 200 ml of blood a patient presented with body temperature rise up to 37,9
degrees Celsius. Which of the following substances is the most likely cause of temperature rise?
a. *Interleukin-1
b. Interleukin-2
c. Tumour necrosis factor
d. Interleukin-3
e. Interleukin-4
171. Lymphocytes and other cells of our body synthesize universal antiviral agents as a response to viral
invasion. Name these protein factors:
a. *Interferon
b. Interleukin - 2
c. Cytokines
d. Interleukin - 4
e. Tumor necrosis factor
172. Two hours after an exam a student had a blood count done and it was revealed that he had
leukocytosis without significant leukogram modifications. What is the most probable mechanism of
leukocytosis development?
a. *Redistribution of leukocytes in the organism
b. Leukopoiesis intensification
c. Deceleration of leukocyte lysis
d. Deceleration of leukocyte migration to the tissues
e. Leukopoiesis intensification and deceleration of leukocyte lysis
173. A 26-year-old man is in the torpid shock phase as a result of a car accident. In blood: 3,2 109/l.
What is the leading mechanism of leukopenia development?
a. *Redistribution of leukocytes in bloodstream
b. Leikopoiesis inhibition
c. Disturbed going out of mature leukocytes from the marrow into the blood
d. Lysis of leukocytes in the blood-forming organs
e. Intensifie
174. Blood group of a 30 year old man was specified before an operation. His blood is Rh-positive.
Reaction of erythrocyte agglutination was absent with standard sera of 0αβ (I), Аβ (II), Вα (III) groups.
The blood under examination is of the following group:
a. *0 alpha beta (I)
b. А beta (II)
c. В alpha (III)
d. АВ (IV)
175. During determining the blood group according to the AB0 system with salt soluti- ons of
monoclonal antibodies agglutination did not occur with any of the solutions. What blood group is it?
a. *0 (I) B
b. А (II)
c. В (III)
d. АВ (IV)
176. A pregnant woman underwent ABO blood typing. Red blood cells were agglutinated with standard
sera of the I and II blood groups, and were not agglutinated with the III group serum. What is the patient’s
blood group?
a. *B(III)
b. 0(I)
c. A(II)
d. AB(IV)
177. A woman has lost a lot of blood during the childbirth. Her blood group needs to be determined.
Erythrocyte agglutination occurred with standard serums 0 (I) and А (II) and did not occur with standard
serum B (III). What blood group does this woman have?
a. *B (III)
b. 0 (I)
c. А (II)
d. АВ (IV)
178. A woman with the III (В), Rh- blood group gave birth to a child with the II (А) blood group. The
child is diagnosed with hemolytic disease of newborn caused by rhesus incompatibility. What blood
group and Rh can the father have?
a. *II (А), Rh (+)
b. I (0), Rh (+)
c. III (B), Rh (+)
d. I (0), Rh (−)
e. II (A), Rh (−)
179. Determining a patient’s blood group with monoclonal test-reagents revealed positive agglutination
reaction to anti-A and anti- B reagents, and negative reaction to anti-D. What blood group does this
patient have?
a. *IV (АВ) Rh (−)
b. II (А) Rh(+)
c. III (В) Rh(−)
d. IV (АВ) Rh(+)
e. I (0) Rh(+)
180. A 25-year-old woman at her third pregnancy with impending miscarriage was brought to the
hospital. What combination of Rh-factor of the mother and the fetus can
be the cause of this condition?
a. *Mother Rh (-), fetus Rh (+)
b. Mother Rh (-), fetus Rh (-)
c. Mother Rh (+), fetus Rh (-)
d. Mother Rh (+), fetus Rh (+)
181. After a tourniquet application a patient was found to have petechial haemorrhages. The reason for it
is the dysfunction of the following cells:
a. *Platelets
b. Eosinophils
c. Monocytes
d. Lymphocytes
e. Neutrophils
182. A patient developed punctate hemorrhages after a tourniquet had been applied. It occurred due to
functional disturbance of the following blood corpuscles:
a. *Platelets
b. Lymphocytes
c. Eosinophils
d. Monocytes
e. Neutrophils
183. Patients with bile duct obstruction typically present with inhibited blood clotting and develop
hemorrhages due to insufficient assimilation of the following substance:
a. *vitamin K
b. vitamin A
c. vitamin D
d. vitamin E
e. vitamin C
184. A disaster fighter at a nuclear power plant developed hemorrhagic syndrome on the background of
acute radiation disease. What is the most important factor of syndrome pathogenesis?
a. *Thrombocytopenia
b. Vascular wall damage
c. Increased activity of fibrinolysis factors
d. Increased activity of anticoagulativesystem factors
e. Decreased activity of coagulative factors
185. A tooth extraction in a patient with chronic persistent hepatitis was complicated with prolonged
hemorrhage. What is the reason for the haemorrhagic syndrome?
a. *Decrease in thrombin production
b. Increase in thromboplastin production
c. Decrease in fibrin production
d. Increase in fibrinogen synthesis
e. Fibrinolysis intensification
186. After implantation of a cardiac valve a young man constantly takes indirect anticoagulants. His state
was complicated by hemorrhage. What substance content has decreased in blood?
a. *Prothrombin
b. Haptoglobin
c. Heparin
d. Creatin
e. Ceruloplasmin
187. A 3-year-old boy with pronounced hemorrhagic syndrome doesn’t have antihemophilic globulin A
(factor VIII) in the blood plasma. Hemostasis has been impaired at the following stage:
a. *Internal mechanism of prothrombinase activation
b. External mechanism of prothrombinase activation
c. Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
d. Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
e. Blood clot retraction
188. A patient is diagnosed with hereditary coagulopathy that is characterised by factor VIII deficiency.
Specify the phase of blood clotting during which coagulation will be disrupted in the given case:
a. *Thromboplastin formation
b. Thrombin formation
c. Fibrin formation
d. Clot retraction
189. A patient visited a dentist to extract a tooth. After the tooth had been extracted, bleeding from the
tooth socket continued for 15 minutes. Anamnesis states that the patient suffers from active chronic
hepatitis. What phenomenon can extend the time of hemorrhage?
a. *Decrease of fibrinogen content in blood
b. Thrombocytopenia
c. Hypocalcemia
d. Increased activity of anticoagulation system
e. Decrease of albumine content in blood
190. A 60-year-old man suffering from chronic hepatitis frequently observes nasal and gingival
hemorrhages, spontaneous hemorrhagic rashes on the skin and mucosa. Such presentations result from:
a. *Decreased synthesis of prothrombin and fibrinogen
b. Increased blood content of aminotransferases
c. Decreased synthesis of serum albumins
d. Increased blood content of macroglobulins and cryoglobulins
e. Decreased blood content of cholinesterase
191. After pancreatic surgery the patient developed hemorrhagic syndrome with disturbed 3rd stage of
blood clotting. What will be the most likely mechanism of the hemostatic disorder?
a. *Fibrinolysis activation
b. Decrease of prothrombin synthesis
c. Decrease of fibrinogen synthesis
d. Qualitativeabnormalitiesoffibrinogenesis
e. Fibrin-stabilizing factor deficiency
192. A 34-year-old man visits his dentist complaining of toothache. After a dental procedure that
involved extraction of several teeth, he develops severe bleeding lasting more than 15 minutes. He has a
history of chronic hepatitis C. Which of the following is the most likely cause of prolonged bleeding in
this patient?
a. *Hypofibrinogenemia
b. Hypocalcemia
c. Thrombocytopenia
d. Hypoalbuminemia
193. A patient with clinical signs of a primary immunodeficiency has functionally disturbed mechanism
of antigen-presentation to the immunocompetent cells. What cells are likely to have structural defects?
a. *Macrophages, monocytes
b. Fibroblasts
c. Blymphocytes
d. Olymphocytes
e. Tlymphocytes
194. A group of researchers aimed to study cardiac physiology found that overstretching of atria in the
heart leads to decreased sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule and increase in glomerular
filtration rate. Which of the following is the most likely cause of physiologic effects discovered by
researchers?
a. *Natriuretic peptide
b. Angiotensin
c. Renin
d. Aldosterone
e. Antidiuretic hormone
195. Investigation of an isolated cardiac myocyte determined that it does not generate excitation impulses
automatically, which means this cardiac myocyte was obtained from the following cardiac structure:
a. *Ventricles
b. Sinoatrial node
c. Atrioventricular node
d. His’ bundle
e. Purkinje’s fibers
196. ECG of a patient shows prolongation of T-wave. This is caused by deceleration in ventricles of:
a. *Repolarization
b. Depolarization and repolarization
c. Depolarization
d. Contraction
e. Relaxation
197. During ventricular systole, the cardiac muscle does not respond to additional stimulation because it
is in the phase of:
a. *Absolute refractoriness
b. Relational refractoriness
c. Hyperexcitability
d. Subnormal excitability
e. There is no correct answer
198. Electrocardiogram analysis demonstrates that cardiac cycle of a human equals 1 second. It means
that heart rate per minute equals:
a. *60
b. 50
c. 70
d. 80
e. 100
199. ECG of the patient shows increased duration of the QRS complex. What is the most likely cause?
a. *Increased period of ventricular excitation
b. Disturbed conduction in the atrioventricular node
c. Increased atrial excitability
d. Increased atrial and ventricular excitability
e. Increased period of atrial excitation
200. The patient’s ECG shows that in the second standard lead from the extremities the P waves are
positive, their amplitude is 0,1 mV (norm is 0,05-0,25 mV), duration is 0,1 seconds (norm is 0,07-0,10
seconds). It can be concluded that the following process occurs normally in the cardiac atria:
a. *Depolarization
b. Repolarization
c. Activation
d. Contraction
e. Relaxation
201. ECG of the patient shows increased duration of the QRS complex. What is the most likely cause?
a. *Increased period of ventricular excitation
b. Increased period of atrial excitation
c. Disturbed conduction in the atrioventricular node
d. Increased atrial and ventricular excitability
E. Increased atrial excitability
202. ECG analysis of the patient shows that the T waves are positive in the second standard limb lead and
their amplitude and duration is normal. The conclusion can be made that the following process occurs
normally in the patient’s ventricles:
a. *Repolarization
b. Depolarization
c. Excitation
d. Contraction
e. Relaxation
203. A patient has delayed conduction of excitement through the atrioventricular node. What changes of
ECG will be observed?
a. *Prolongation of PQ interval
b. Prolongation of QS interval
c. Negative T wave
d. ST-segment displacement
e. Prolongation of QT interval
204. A patient in the infectious diseases unit presents with elevated temperature up to 39 °C.ECG shows
shortened RR interval, P wave precedes each QRS complex. Heart rate is 120/min. What characteristic of
the cardiac muscle is disturbed, causing the development of this pathological rhythm?
a. *Automatism
b. Rhythm assimilation
c. Conductivity
d. Conductivity and rhythm assimilation
e. Automatism and conductivity
205. ECG of a patient displays an abnormally long R wave (up to 0,18 s). This is caused by a decrease in
the conduction velocity of the following heart structures:
a. *Ventricles
b. Atria
c. Atrio-ventricular node
d. Right ventricle
e. Left ventricle
206. An animal experiment is aimed at studying the cardiac cycle. All the heart valves are closed. What
phase of the cycle is characterized by this status?
a. *Isometric contraction
b. Asynchronous contraction
c. Protodiastolic period
d. Rapid filling
e. Reduced filling
207. An isolated cell of human heart automatically generates excitement impulses with frequency of 60
times per minute. This cell was taken from the following heart tructure:
a. *Sinoatrial node
b. Atrium
c. Ventricle
d. Atrioventricular node
e. His’ bundle
208. An isolated heart was used to study excitation conduction velocity in different areas of the heart.
What area had the lowest velocity of excitation conduction?
a. *Atrioventricular node
b. Ventricular myocardium
c. Purkinje fibers
d. Atrial myocardium
e. His bundle
209. During preparation of a patient to a heart surgery it was necessary to measure pressure in heart
chambers. In one of them pressure varied from 0 mm Hg up to 120 mm Hg within one cardiac cycle.
What heart chamber is it?
a. *Left ventricle
b. Right ventricle
c. Right atrium
d. Left atrium
210. Systemic blood pressure of a person equals 120/65 mm Hg. Blood ejection into aorta occurs when
left ventricular pressure exceeds:
a. *65 mm Hg
b. 90 mm Hg
c. 120 mm Hg
d. 10 mm Hg
e. 100 mm Hg
211. Blood minute volume of a 30 year old woman at rest is 5 l/m. What blood volume is pumped
through the pulmonary vessels per minute?
a. *5 l
b. 3,75 l
c. 2,5 l
d. 2,0 l
e. 1,5 l
212. A patient under test was subjected to a moderate physical stress. His minute blood volume amounted
10 l/min. What blood volume was pumped through his lung vessels every minute?
a. *10 l/min
b. 5 l/min
c. 4 l/min
d. 6 l/min
e. 7 l/min
213. In a poorly ventilated and overcrowded room an elderly man has developed increased blood
pressure. What is the mechanism of this reaction?
a. *Pressor reflex from chemoreceptors
b. Pressor reflex from osmoreceptors
c. Depressor reflex from osmoreceptors
d. Depressor reflex from chemoreceptors
e. Pressor reflex from volume receptors
214. An attack of tachycardia that occurred in a patient was stopped by pressing on his eyeballs. Which of
the following reflexes underlies this phenomenon?
a. *Aschner
b. Goltz
c. Bainbridge
d. Hering
e. Bernard’s
215. A fixed-run taxi passenger has a sudden and expressed attack of tachycardia. A doctor travelling by
the same taxi has managed to slow down his heart rate by pressing upon the eyeballs and thus causing the
following reflex:
a. *Dagnini-Aschner reflex
b. Bainbridge reflex
c. Holtz’s reflex
d. Hering-Breuer reflex
e. Frank-Starling mechanism
216. During the sports competition a boxer received a strong blow to the abdomen, which caused a
knockout due to a brief drop in blood pressure. What physiological mechanisms are the cause of this
condition?
a. *Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves
b. Alteration of transcapillary exchange
c. Ischemia of the central nervous system
d. Abrupt change in body fluid volume
217. During the prestart period an athlete develops increased frequency and force of cardiac contractions.
These changes are caused by intensification of the following reflex responces:
a. *Sympathetic conditioned
b. Sympathetic unconditioned
c. Parasympathetic conditioned
d. Parasympathetic unconditioned
e. Peripheral
218. Cardiac arrest occurred in a patient during a surgery of the small intestine. What regulatory
mechamisms resulted in the cardiac arrest in this case?
a. *Unconditioned parasympathetic reflexes
b. Unconditioned sympathetic reflexes
c. Conditioned parasympathetic reflexes
d. Conditioned sympathetic reflexes
e. Metasympathetic reflexes
219. In an experiment after a prolonged electrical stimulation of the peripheral n.vagus a brief cardiac
arrest occurred in the subject. What ion mechanisms in the cardiac cells cause this effect?
a. *Increased K efflux
b. Decreased Na influx
c. Decreased K efflux
d. Increased Na influx
e. Increased Ca2 influx
220. During the fight a man has received a strong blow to the upper anterior abdominal wall, which
resulted in the cardiac arrest. What mechanism has led to the cardiac arrest in this case?
a. *Parasympathetic unconditioned
b. Sympathetic unconditioned
c. Parasympathetic conditioned
d. Sympathetic conditioned
e. Peripheral
221. The minute blood volume in a patient with transplanted heart has increased as a result of physical
activity. What regulative mechanism is responsible for these changes?
a. *Catecholamines
b. Sympathetic unconditioned reflexes
c. Parasympathetic unconditioned reflexes
d. Sympathetic conditioned reflexes
e. Parasympathetic conditioned reflexes
222. Vagus branches that innervate heart are being stimulated during an experiment. This caused
reduction of heart rate due to the intensification of the following process (through the cell membrane of
cardiac pacemaker):
a. *Potassium ion yield
b. Potassium ion entry
c. Calcium ion entry
d. Calcium ion yield
e. Calcium and potassium ion yield
223. Experimental stimulation of the sympathetic nerve branches that innervate the heart caused an
increase in the force of heart contractions because the membrane of typical cardiomyocytes permitted an
increase in:
a. *Calcium ion entry
b. Calcium ion exit
c. Potassium ion exit
d. Potassium ion entry
e. Calcium and potassium ion exit
224. What changes can be expected to occur in the isolated heart of a toad, if excessive amount of
calcium chloride is introduced into its perfusate?
a. *Increased cardiac contraction force and frequency
b. Increased cardiac contraction force
c. Increased cardiac contraction frequency
d. Decreased cardiac contraction force
e. Diastolic cardiac arrest
225. A patient who had been continuously taking drugs blocking the production of angiotensin II
developed bradycardia and arrhythmia. A likely cause of these disorders is:
a. *Hyperkalemia
b. Hypokalemia
c. Hypernatremia
d. Hypocalcemia
e. Hypercalcemia
226. Experimental stimulation of the sympathetic nerve branches that innervate the heart caused an
increase in the force of heart contractions because the membrane of typical cardiomyocytes permitted an
increase in:
a. *Calcium ion entry
b. Calcium ion exit
c. Potassium ion exit
d. Potassium ion entry
e. Calcium and potassium ion exit
227. In stress conditions an elderly person developed elevated blood pressure. It is caused by activation
of:
a. *Sympathoadrenal system
b. Thyroid functions
c. Parasympathetic nucleus of the vagus nerve
d. Pituitary functions
e. Adrenocortical functions
228. An aged man had raise of arterial pressure under a stress. It was caused by activation of:
a. *Sympathoadrenal system
b. Parasympathetic nucleus of vagus
c. Functions of thyroid gland
d. Functions of adrenal cortex
e. Hypophysis function
229. During fighting a man had a cardiac arrest as a result of a hard blow to the upper region of anterior
abdominal wall. Which of the described mechanisms might have provoked the cardiac arrest?
a. *Parasympathetic unconditioned reflexes
b. Sympathetic unconditioned reflexes
c. Parasympathetic conditioned reflexes
d. Sympathetic conditioned reflexes
e. Peripheric reflexes
230. An adult man presents with systemic arterial pressure drop from 120/70 to 90/50 mm Hg. This
resulted in reflex vasoconstriction. Vasoconstriction will be minimal in the following organ:
a. *Heart
b. Skin
c. Bowels
d. Skeletal muscles
e. Liver
231. A patient complains of palpitations after stress. Pulse is 104/min., PQ is 0,12 seconds, there are no
changes in QRS complex. What type of arrhythmia does the patient have?
a. *Sinus tachycardia
b. Sinus bradycardia
c. Sinus arrhythmia
d. Ciliary arrhythmia
e. Extrasystole
232. In response to a change in body position from horizontal to vertical blood circulation system
develops reflectory pressor reaction. Which of the following is its compulsory component?
a. *Systemic constriction of the venous vessels
b. Systemic dilatation of the arterial resistive vessels
c. Decrease in the circulating blood volume
d. Increase in the heart rate
E. Weakening of the pumbing ability of heart
233. A month after surgical constriction of rabbit’s renal artery the considerable increase of systematic
arterial pressure was observed. What of the following regulation mechanisms caused the animal’s
pressure change?
a. *Angiotensin-II
b. Vasopressin
c. Adrenaline
d. Noradrenaline
e. Serotonin
234. A patient with hypertensic crisis has increased content of angiotensin II in blood. Angiotensin
pressor effect is based on:
a. *Contraction of arteriole muscles
b. Activation of biogenic amine synthesis
c. Prostaglandin hyperproduction
d. Vasopressin production stimulation
e. Activation of kinin–kallikrein system
235. In the process of an experiment, vascular resistance to the blood flow was
measured in the different areas of circulatory system. The highest resistance was detected in the:
a. *Arterioles
b. Arteries
c. Capillaries
d. Venules
e. Veins
236. A test animal receives electrical impulses that irritate the sympathetic nerve that innervates blood
vessels of the skin. What reaction will it cause in the blood vessels?
a. *Arterial and venous constriction
b. No reaction
c. Arterial dilation
d. Arterial and venous dilation
E. Venous dilation
237. A short-term physical load resulted in reflex increase of heart rate and systemic arterial pressure in a
person. What receptor activation was the most contributory to inducing the pressor reflex?
a. *Proprioceptors of the working muscles
b. Vascular chemoreceptors
c. Vascular volume receptors
d. Vascular baroreceptors
e. Hypothalamic thermoreceptors
238. 49 year old woman spent a lot of time standing. As a result of it she got leg edema. What is the most
likely cause of the edema?
a. *Increase in hydrostatic pressure of blood in veins
b. Decrease in hydrostatic pressure of blood in veins
c. Decrease in hydrostatic pressure of blood in arteries
d. Increase in oncotic pressure of blood plasma
e. Increase in systemic arterial pressure
239. Due to blood loss the circulating blood volume of a patient decreased. How will it affect the blood
pressure in this patient?
a. *Systolic and diastolic pressure will decrease
b. Only systolic pressure will decrease
c. Only diastolic pressure will decrease
d. Systolic pressure will decrease, while diastolic will increase
e. Diastolic pressure will decrease, while systolic will increase
240. Patient’s systolic blood pressure is 90 mm Hg, diastolic - 70 mm Hg. Such blood pressure is caused
by decrease of the following factor:
a. *Pumping ability of the left heart
b. Pumping ability of the right heart
c. Aortic compliance
d. Total peripheral resistance
e. Vascular tone
241. A 16-year-old female patient has fainted after quickly changing her body position from horizontal to
vertical one. Which process from the ones listed below has caused the loss of consciousness in the first
place?
a. *Decreasing venous return
b. Increasing venous return
c. Increasing central venous pressure
d. Decreasing oncotic pressure of blood plasma
e. Increasing arterial pressure
242. In an elderly person the change in heart force and vessels physical properties were detected; they can
be clearly observed on graphic recording of carotid pulse waves. What method was applied?
a. *Sphygmography
b. Plethysmography
c. Rheography
d. Myography
e. Phlebography
243. A patient has elevated blood pressure due to increased vascular tone. To lower the blood pressure in
this case it is necessary to prescribe the blockers of:
a. *alpha-adrenoceptors
b. beta-adrenoceptors
c. alpha- and beta-adrenoceptors
d. Histamine receptors
e. Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
244. A patient demonstrates sharp decrease of pulmonary surfactant activity. This condition can result in:
a. *Alveolar tendency to recede
b. Decreased airways resistance
c. Decresed work of expiratory muscles
d. Increased pulmonary ventilation
e. Hyperoxemia
245. Alveolar space of the acinus was invaded by some bacteria which interacted with the surfactant. This
led to the activation of the cells that are localized in the alveolar walls and on the surface. What cells are
these?
a. *Alveolar macrophages
b. Alveolocytes type I
c. Endothelial cells
d. Clara cells
e. Alveolocytes type II
246. Work in a mine is known to cause inhalation of large amounts of coal dust. Inhaled coal dust can be
detected in the following pulmonary cells:
a. *Alveolar macrophages
b. Respiratory epithelial cells
c. Secretory epithelial cells
d. Capillary endothelial cells
e. Pericapillary cells
247. A doctor asked a patient to breath out fully after taking a normal breath. What muscles contract
during such exhalation?
a. *Abdominal muscles
b. External intercostal muscles
c. Diaphragm
d. Trapezius muscles
e. Pectoral muscles
248. A patient has a trauma of sternocleidomastoid muscle. This caused a decrease in value of the
following indicator of external respiration:
a. *Inspiratory reserve volume
b. Expiratory reserve volume
c. Respiratory capacity
d. Residual volume
e. Functional residual lung capacity
249. Lung ventilation in a person is increased as a result of physical activity. Which of the following
indices of the external respiration is much higher than in a state of rest?
a. *Respiratory volume
b. Vital capacity of lungs
c. Inspiratory reserve volume
d. Expiratory reserve volume
e. Total lung capacity
250. A person has increased pulmonary ventilation due to physical exertion. What indicator of external
respiration will be significantly increased compared to the resting state?
a. *Respiratory volume
b. Vital lung capacity
c. Inspiratory reserve volume
d. Expiratory reserve volume
e. Total lung capacity
251. During training session in the laboratory the students were performing spirography on themselves.
What indicator CANNOT be measured with this method?
a. *Functional residual capacity
b. Vital capacity
c. Respiratory minute volume
d. Respiration rate
e. Maximal breathing capacity
252. During recording of a spirogram a patient calmly exhaled. How do we call the volume of air
remaining in the lungs?
a. *Functional residual capacity
b. Pulmonary residual volume
c. Expiratory reserve volume
d. Tidal volume
e. Vital capacity of lungs
253. To assess the effectiveness of breathing in patients, the indicator of functional residual capacity is
used. It includes the following volumes:
a. *Expiratory reserve volume and residual volume
b. Inspiratory reserve volume and residual volume
c. Inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume, residual volume
d. Expiratory reserve volume and tidal volume
e. Inspiratory reserve volume and tidal volume
254. Spirogram analysis shows decreased depth and frequency of respirations in the person, which in turn
leads to decrease in the:
a. *Respiratory minute volume
b. Expiratory reserve volume
c. Vital capacity of lungs
d. Residual volume
e. Inspiratory reserve volume
255. Anatomical dead space is the portion of the air that is left in the airways after expiration. The
reduction of the anatomical dead space is typical for the following situation:
a. *Tracheostomy
b. Forward flexion of head
c. Turning the lying patient on his left side
d. Turning the lying patient on his right side
e. Breathing through the mouth
256. Analysis of the experimental spirogram of a 55-year-old person revealed a decrease in tidal volume
and respiratory amplitude compared to the situation of ten years ago. The change in these indicators is
caused by:
a. *Decreased force of respiratory muscle contraction
b. Gas composition of the air
c. Physical build of a person
d. Height of a person
e. Body mass of a person
257. When studying the signs of pulmonary ventilation, reduction of forced expiratory volume has been
detected. What is the likely cause of this phenomenon?
a. *Obstructive pulmonary disease
b. Increase of respiratory volume
c. Increase of inspiratory reserve volume
d. Increase of pulmonary residual volume
e. Increase of functional residual lung capacity
258. Voluntary breath-holding caused increase of respiration depth and frequency. The main factor
stimulating these changes of external respiration is:
a. *Increased tension of CO2 in blood
b. Increased tension of O2 in blood
c. Decreased tension of O2 in blood
d. Decreased tension of CO2 in blood
e. Decreased concentration of H+ in blood
259. There is a severe time restriction for people’s staying at a height of over 800 m above the sea level
without oxygen bombs. What is the life limiting factor in this case?
a. *Partial oxygen pressure
b. Ultraviolet intensity
c. Moisture level
d. Temperature
e. Earth gravity
260. During ascent into mountains a person develops increased respiration rate and rapid heart rate. What
is the cause of these changes?
a. *Decrease of O2 partial pressure
b. Increase of CO2 partial pressure
c. Increase of blood pH
d. Increase of nitrogen content in air
e. Increase of air humidity
261. Lungs of a preterm infant have areas of atelectasis (pulmonary collapse). The main cause is:
a. *Surfactant deficiency
b. Increased viscous resistance
c. Underdeveloped inspiration muscles
d. Diminished force of surface tension of lungs
e. Surfactant excess
262. Electronic microphotography of pulmonary alveole’s wall presents a big cell. Its cytoplasm has a lot
of mitochondria, developed Golgi apparatus, osmiophillamellated corpuscles. What is the main function
of this cell?
a. *It produces surfactant
b. It is a component of blood-air barrier
c. It warms the air
d. It purifies the air
e. It absorbs microorganisms
263. When studying the signs of pulmonary ventilation, reduction of forced expiratory volume has been
detected. What is the likely cause of this phenomenon?
a. *Increase of respiratory volume
b. Obstructive pulmonary disease
c. Increase of inspiratory reserve volume
d. Increase of pulmonary residual volume
e. Increase of functional residual lung capacity
264. A patient has the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve shifted to the left. What blood changes induce
this condi- tion?
a. *Alkalosis, hypocapnia, temperature drop
b. Acidosis, hypercapnia, temperature rise
c. Acidosis, hypercapnia, temperature drop
d. Acidosis, hypocapnia, temperature rise
265. The carotid bodies on both sides were removed in a test animal. Which of the listed factors WILL
NOT be able to cause hyperventilation in the test animal?
a. *Hypoxemia
b. Physical exertion
c. Hypercapnia
d. Acidosis
e. Increase of core body temperature
266. After hyperventilation an athlete developed a brief respiratory arrest. It occurred due to the following
changes in the blood:
a. *Decrease of CO2pressure
b. Increase of CO2 and 02 pressure
c. Decrease of pH
d. Decrease of O2 pressure
e. IncreaseofCO2pressure
267. Electrical activity of neurons is being measured. They fire prior to and at the beginning of inhalation.
Where are these neurons situated?
a. *Medulla oblongata
b. Diencephalon
c. Mesencephalon
d. Spinal cord
e. Cerebral cortex
268. A female patient, having visited the factory premises with lots of dust in the air for the first time, has
got cough and burning pain in the throat. What respiratory receptors, when irritated, cause this kind of
reaction?
a. *Irritant receptors
b. Juxtacapillary (J) receptors
c. Stretch receptors of lungs
d. Proprioceptors of respiratory muscles
e. Thermoreceptors
269. A young woman who entered a production department where it strongly smelt of paints and
varnishes had a bronchospasm. This reflex was caused by irritation of the following receptors:
a. *Irritant
b. Juxtaglomerular
c. Pleura receptors
d. Central chemoreceptors
e. Peripheral chemoreceptors
270. When water affects mucous membrane of the inferior nasal meatuses, this causes "diver reflex"that
provokes:
a. *Reflectory apnea
b. Reflectrory dyspnea
c. Reflectoryhyperpnea
d. Cough
e. Bronchospasm
271. If a man has an attack of bronchiospasm it is necessary to reduce the effect of vagus on smooth
muscles of bronchi. What membrane cytoreceptors should be blocked for this purpose?
a. *M-cholinoreceptors
b. N-cholinoreceptors
c. alpha-adrenoreceptors
d. beta-adrenoreceptors
e. alpha- and beta-adrenoreceptors
272. A 12-year-old child has a viral infection complicated by obstructive bronchitis. Bronchospasm can
be eliminated by inhalations of a drug from the following pharmacological group:
a. *beta2-agonists
b. M-anticholinergics
c. N-cholinomimetics
d. beta2-adrenergic blockers
e. Analeptics
273. A sportsman spontaneously held breath for 40 seconds, which resulted in an increase in heart rate
and systemic arterial pressure. Changes of these indicators are due to activation of the following
regulatory mechanisms:
a. *Unconditioned sympathetic reflexes
b. Unconditioned parasympathetic reflexes
c. Conditioned sympathetic reflexes
d. Conditioned parasympathetic reflexes
274. A patient, who has been suffering from bronchial asthma for a long time, developed acute
respiratory failure. What is the main mechanism of pathology development in this case?
a. *Obstructive disorders of pulmonary ventilation
b. Restrictive disorders of pulmonary venti- lation
c. Pulmonary blood supply disturbance
d. Pulmonary enzyme system disturbance
e. Decreased elasticity of the pulmonary tissue
275. When studying the pulmonary ventilation values, the reduction of forced expiratory volume has been
detected. What is the likely cause of this phenomenon?
a. *Obstructive pulmonary disease
b. Increase of respiratory volume
c. Increase of inspiratory reserve volume
d. Increase of pulmonary residual volume
e. Increase of functional residual lung capacity
275. Protective function of saliva is based on several mechanisms, including the presence of enzyme that
has bactericidal action and causes lysis of complex capsular polysaccharides of staphylococci and
streptococci. Name this enzyme:
a. *Lysozyme
b. Alpha-amylase
c. Oligo-1,6-glucosidase
d. Collagenase
e. Beta-glucuronidase
276. A 60 year old patient was found to have a dysfunction of main digestive enzyme of saliva. This
causes the disturbance of primary hydrolysis of:
a. *Carbohydrates
b. Fats
c. Proteins
d. Cellulose
e. Lactose
277. When investigating human saliva it is necessary to assess its hydrolytic properties. What substance
should be used as a substrate in the process?
a. *Starch
b. Proteins
c. Fats
d. Fiber
e. Amino acids
278. The laboratory has received a sample of digestive juice for analysis. Its pH is 2.2. Name this
digestive juice:
a. *Gastric juice
b. Saliva
c. Intestinal juice
d. Pancreatic juice
e. Bile
279. A newborn child suffers from milk curdling in stomach, this means that soluble milk proteins
(caseins) transform to insoluble proteins (paracaseins) by means of calcium ions and a certain enzyme.
What enzyme takes part in thisprocess?
a. *Renin
b. Pepsin
c. Gastrin
d. Secretin
e. Lipase
280. A 35-year-old man with peptic ulcer disease has undergone antrectomy. After the surgery secretion
of the following gastro- intestinal hormone will be disrupted the most:
a. *Gastrin
b. Histamine
c. Secretin
d. Cholecystokinin
e. Neurotensin
281. A patient has undergone surgical removal of the pylorus. Decreased secretion of the following
hormone can be expected:
a. *Gastrin
b. Histamine
c. Secretin
d. Cholecystokinin
e. Gastric inhibitory polypeptide
282. A 45-year-old woman presents with insufficient secretion of enterokinase enzyme. Enterokinase
deficiency can cause disturbance of the following digestive function:
a. *Protein hydrolysis
b. Lipid absorption
c. Vitamin absorption
d. Carbohydrate hydrolysis
e. Lipid hydrolysis
283.Disturbed activity of trypsin and chymotrypsin leads to disturbed protein breakup in the small
intestine. Activity of these enzymes depends on the presence of the following factor:
a. *Enterokinase
b. Pepsin
c. Hydrochloric acid
d. Na salts
e. Bile acids
284. A patient consumed a lot of reach in proteins food that caused increase of rate of proteolytic
enzymes of pancreatic juice. It is also accompanied by increase of rate of the following enzyme:
a. *Tripsin
b. Pepsin
c. Enterokinase
d. Gastricsin
e. Renin
285. A 30-year-old male patient with acute pancreatitis has been found to have a disorder of cavitary
protein digestion. The reason for such condition can be the hyposynthesis and hyposecretion of the
following enzyme:
a. *Tripsin
b. Pepsin
c. Lipase
d. Dipeptidase
e. Amylase
286. A 30 year old woman has subnormal concentration of enzymes in the pancreatic juice. This might be
caused by the hyposecretion of the following gastrointestinal hormone:
a. *Cholecystokinin-pancreozymin
b. Somatostatin
c. Secretin
d. Gastro-inhibiting peptide
e. Vaso-intestinal peptide
287. A patient has a critical impairment of protein, fat and hydrocarbon digestion. Most likely it has been
caused by low secretion of the following digestive juice:
a. *Pancreatic juice
b. Saliva
c. Gastric juice
d. Bile
e. Intestinal juice
288. Stool test detects in the patients feces a large amount of undigested fats. This patient is the most
likely to have disturbed secretion of the following enzymes:
a. *Pancreatic lipases
b. Pancreatic amylase
c. Pancreatic proteases
d. Bile lipase
e. Gastric protease
289. After partial pancreatic resection the patient developed steatorrhea, which indicates disturbed
digestion of fats in the ‘ intestine. It is caused by deficiency of the following enzyme:
a. *Lipase
b. Trypsin
c. Amylase
d. Pepsin
e. Gastricsin
290. A coprological survey revealed lightcolored feces containing drops of neutral fat. The most likely
reason for this condition is the disorder of:
a. *Bile inflow into the bowel
b. Gastric juice acidity
c. Pancreatic juice secretion
d. Intestinal juice secretion
e. Intestinal absorption
291. A patient presents with steatorrhea. This disorder can be linked to disturbed supply of the intestine
with the following substances:
a. *Bile acids
b. Carbohydrates
c. Tripsin
d. Chymotrypsin
e. Amylase
292. A patient has normally coloured stool including a large amount of free fatty acids. The reason for
this is a disturbance of the following process:
a. *Fat absorption
b. Fat hydrolysis
c. Biliary excretion
d. Choleresis
e. Lipase secretion
293. Due to the blockage of the common bile duct (which was radiographically confirmed), the biliary
flow to the duodenum was stopped. We should expect the impairment of:
a. *Fat emulsification
b. Protein absorption
c. Carbohydrate hydrolysis
d. Secretion of hydrochloric acid
e. Salivation inhibition
294. Feces of a patient contain high amount of undissociated fats and have grayish-white color. Specify
the cause of this phenomenon:
a. *Obturation of bile duct
b. Hypoactivation of pepsin by hydrochloric acid
c. Hypovitaminosis
d. Enteritis
e. Irritation of intestinal epithelium
295. A patient complaining of nausea and heartburn after meals, and steatorrhea came to the
gastroenterologist. What is the likely cause of the patient’s condition?
a. *Bile acid deficiency
b. Disturbed pepsin synthesis
c. Disturbed phospholipase synthesis
d. Amylase deficiency
e. Increased lipase production
296. A patient, who has been suffering for a long time from intestine disbacteriosis, has increased
hemorrhaging caused by disruption of posttranslational modification of blood-coagulation factors II, VII,
IХ, and Х in the liver. What vitamin deficiency is the cause of this condition?
a. *vitamin К
b. vitamin B12
c. vitamin B 9
d. vitamin С
e. vitamin Р
298. The processes of heat transfer in a naked person at room temperature have been studied. It was
revealed that under these conditions the greatest amount of heat is transferred by:
a. Heat radiation
b. Heat conduction
c. Convection
d. Evaporation
299. Thermometry revealed that the temperature of the exposed skin is by 1- 1,5o lower than the
temperature of the adjacent areas covered with clothing from natural fabrics. The reason for this is that
the clothes reduce the heat loss through:
a. *Convection
b. Radiation
c. Conduction
d. Evaporation
300. In hot weather ventilators are often used to normalize the microclimate in the heated rooms. It leads
to intensified heat transfer from the human body by means of:
a. *Convection
b. Conduction and convection
c. Conduction
d. Radiation
e. Evaporation
301. Which way of heat emission by the bodies of greenhouse workers is the most effective at the
temperature of 36oC degrees and relative humidity of 70%?
a. *Liquid evaporation
b. Thermal conduction
c. Heat radiation
d. Convection
302. The temperature of the ambient environment is 38oC and relative air humidity is 50%. What ways of
heat emission provide maintaining a constant temperature of the human body?
a. *Evaporation
b. Radiation
c. Heat conduction
d. Convection
e. Convection and conduction
303. A person is in a room with air temperature of 38oC and relative air humidity of 50%. What type of
heat transfer ensures maintenance of constant body core temperature under these conditions?
a. *Evaporation
b. Radiation
c. Conduction and convection
d. Convection
304. The temperature in a production room is 36oC. Relative air humidity is 80%. Under these conditions
the human body transfers heat mainly through:
a. *Sweat evaporation
b. Heat conduction
c. Radiation
d. Convection
305. A man is being measured power inputs on an empty stomach, in the lying position, under conditions
of physical and psychic rest at a comfortable temperature. Power inputs will reach the maximum at:
a. *5-6 p.m.
b. 7-8 a.m.
c. 10-12 a.m.
d. 2-3 p.m.
e. 3-4 a.m.
306. When measuring power inputs of a man by the method of indirect calorimetry the following results
were obtained: 1000 ml oxygen consumption and 800 ml carbon dioxide liberation per minute. The man
under examination has the following respiratory coefficient:
a. *0,8
b. 1,25
c. 0,9
d. 0,84
e. 1,0
307. When measuring power inputs of a person by the method of indirect calorimetry the following
results were obtained: oxygen consumption is 1000 ml and carbon dioxide production is 800 ml per
minute. The person under examination has the following respiratory coefficient:
a. *0,8
b. 1,25
c. 0,9
d. 0,84
e. 1,0
308. In a young man during exercise, the minute oxygen uptake and carbon di oxide emission equalled to
1000 ml. What substrates are oxidized in the cells of his body?
a. *Carbohydrates
b. Proteins
c. Fats
d. Carbohydrates and fats
e. Carbohydrates and proteins
309. A person presents with base metabolism that exceeds normal by 8%. It means that the processes of
energy metabolism in this person are:
a. *Within normal range
b. Significantly inhibited
c. Significantly increased
d. Moderately inhibited
e. Moderately increased
310. During intensive physical exertion, one of the energy sources for the working muscles is glucose
produced as the result of gluconeogenesis. This process is the most intensive in the following organ:
a. *Liver
b. Brain
c. Lungs
d. Stomach
e. Muscles
311. Urine analysis has shown high levels of protein and erythrocytes in urine. This can be caused by the
following:
a. *Renal filter permeability
b. Effective filter pressure
c. Hydrostatic blood pressure in glomerular capillaries
d. Hydrostatic primary urine pressure in capsule
e. Oncotic pressure of blood plasma
312. An 11-year-old girl is brought to the doctor’s office by her mother who states her daughter has been
weak with swollen face for 3 days. The mother states her daughter had always been healthy and active
until the initiation of symptoms. Upon inquiry, the girl describes a foamy appearance of her urine but
denies blood in urine, urinary frequency at night, or pain during urination. Physical examination reveals
generalized swelling of the face and pitting edema on the lower limbs. Laboratory study shows
proteinuria and microscopic hematuria. Which of the following is the most likely cause of findings in the
laboratory study of urine?
a. *Increased permeability across the glomerular capillary wall
b. Increased plasma oncotic pressure
c. Increased glomerular hydrostatic pressure
d. Increased hydrostatic pressure in Bowman’s capsule
313. Atria of an experimental animal were superdistended by blood that resulted in decreased
reabsorption of Na+ and water in renal tubules. This can be explained by the influence of the following
factor upon kidneys:
a. *Natriuretic hormone
b. Aldosterone
c. Renin
d. Angiotensin
e. Vasopressin
314. A patient has a decreased vasopressin synthesis that causes polyuria and as a result of it evident
organism dehydratation. What is the mechanism of polyuria development?
a. *Reduced tubular reabsorption of water
b. Reduced tubular reabsorption of Na ions
c. Reduced tubular reabsorption of protein
d. Reduced glucose reabsorption
e. Acceleration of glomerular filtration
315. After a case of severe infectious disease the patient developed signs of diabetes insipidus, which was
indicated by daily urine output increased up to 10 liters. What mechanism of dehydration development is
leading in this case?
a. *Decreased renal reabsorption of water
b. Increased osmolarity of ultrafiltrate
c. Inhibited intestinal absorption of water
d. Decreased renal reabsorption of sodium
e. Decreased plasma oncotic pressure
316. A patient is 44 years old. Laboratory examination of his blood revealed that content of proteins in
plasma was 40 g/l. What influence will be exerted on the transcapillary water exchange?
a. *Filtration will be increased, reabsorption - decreased
b. Both filtration and reabsorption will be increased
c. Both filtration and reabsorption will be decreased
d. Filtration will be decreased, reabsorption - increased
e. Exchange will stay unchanged
317. A man presents with glomerular filtration rate of 180 ml/min., while norm is 125 25 ml/min. The
likely cause of it is the decreased:
a. *Plasma oncotic pressure
b. Effective filtration pressure
c. Hydrostatic blood pressure in the glomerular capillaries
d. Renal blood flow
e. Permeability of the renal filter
318. Glomerular filtration of a person, who has been starving for a long time, has increased by 20%. The
most likely cause of filtration changes in the given conditions is:
a. *Decrease of blood plasma oncotic pressure
b. Increase of systemic blood pressure
c. Increase of renal filter permeability
d. Increase of filtration factor
e. Increase of renal plasma flow
319. Glomerular filtration of a person, who has been starving for a long time, has increased by 20%. The
most likely cause of filtration changes in the given conditions is:
a. *Decrease of blood plasma oncotic pressure
b. Increase of systemic blood pressure
c. Increase of renal filter permeability
d. Increase of filtration factor
e. Increase of renal plasma flow
320. A 40-year-old man with impaired venous patency in the lower limbs developed edemas. What
mechanism plays the main role in the development of this disturbance?
a. *Elevated filtration pressure
b. Positive fluid balance
c. Disturbed humoral regulation of water- mineral balance
d. Hypoproteinemia
e. Decreased gradient of osmotic pressure between blood and tissue
321. A month after surgical constriction of rabbit’s renal artery the considerable increase of systematic
arterial pressure was observed. What of the following regulation mechanisms caused the animal’s
pressure change?
a. *Angiotensin-II
b. Vasopressin
c. Adrenaline
d. Noradrenaline
e. Serotonin
322. A patient has insufficient blood supply to the kidneys, which has caused the development of pressor
effect due to the constriction of arterial resistance vessels. This is the result of the vessels being greately
affected by the following substance:
a. *Angiotensin II
b. Angiotensinogen
c. Renin
d. Catecholamines
e. Norepinephrine
323. During influenza epidemic 40% of pupils who didn’t go in for sports were affected by the disease,
and among the pupils who regularly did physical exercises this index was only 20%. What adaptative
mechanisms determined such a low sickness rate of pupils participating in the sports?
a. *Cross adaptation
b. Specific adaptation
c. Physiological adaptation
d. Biochemical adaptation
e. Genetic adaptation
324. During inflienza epidemic, morbidity in the schoolchildren, who did not participate in sports, was
40%, while in the schoolchildren, who engaged in regular physical acivities, morbidity did not exceed
20%. Whatadaptation mechanism ensured low morbidity in the physically active schoolchildren?
a. *Cross-adaptation
b. Specific adaptation
c. Physiological adaptation
d. Biochemical adaptation
e. Genetic adaptation