NEET Senior ÃÖãµÖÔ ÆüÖ ²Öã›üŸÖÖ®ÖÖ ×¤üÃÖŸÖÖê ¯ÖÞÖ ŸÖÖê Ûú¬Öß“Ö ²Öã›üŸÖ ®ÖÖÆüß,

ŸµÖÖ¯ÖÏ´ÖÖÞÖê ˆ´Öê¤ü, ×¾ÖÀ¾ÖÖÃÖ ¾Ö Ûú™ü Æêü •µÖÖ“µÖÖ•Ö¾Öôû

†ÖÆêü ŸÖÖê Ûú¬Öß“Ö †¯ÖµÖ¿Öß ÆüÖ‰ê ú ¿ÖÛúŸÖ ®ÖÖÆüß. ¬ÖÖ›üÃÖß
´ÖÖÞÖæÃÖ ³ÖßŸÖ ®ÖÖÆüß †Ö×ÞÖ ×³ÖÞÖÖ¸üÖ ´ÖÖÞÖæÃÖ ¬ÖÖ›üÃÖ
Ûú¸üŸÖ ®ÖÖÆüß. •ÖÝÖÖŸÖ ¬ÖÖ›üÃÖ Ûêú»µÖÖ׿־ÖÖµÖ ÛúÖêÞÖÖ»ÖÖ“Ö
µÖ¿Ö ×´ÖôûŸÖ ®ÖÖÆüß..... -þÖÖ´Öß ×¾Ö¾ÖêÛúÖ®ÖÓ¤ü

Mark Group TARGET NEET-2024 Date : 24/03/2024

720 PCB PCB Test : 05 Time : 03 Hrs. 20 Mins.

Physics - 50 Chemistry - 50 Biology - 100

Question Booklet Version Roll Number Question Booklet Sr. No.

11 (Write this number on

your Answer Sheet)

• Today’s Test Syllabus •

Physics : Ray Optics + Wave Optics + Semiconductors
Chemistry : Equilibrium + Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers
Biology : Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants + Human Reproduction + Reproduction Health
• Next Test Syllabus (Date : 27/03/2024) •
Physics : Mechanical Properties of Solids + Mechanical Properties of Fluids + Surface Tension + Heat Transfer +
RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**

Thermal Properties of Matter

Chemistry : Redox Reaction + Electrochemistry
Biology : Breathing and Exchange of Gases + Body Fluids and Circulation + Excretory Products and their Elimination+
Locomotion and Movement + Chemical Coordination and Integration + Neural Control and Coordination

PHYSICS 03. A convex lens L1 and a concave lens L2 have

Section : A refractive index 1.5. Match the following two
01. When the object is at distances u1 and u2 from columns. [ NCERT Page 234]
the optical centre of a convex lens, a real and
Column I Column II
a virtual image of the same magnification are
a L1 is immersed in a liquid p Lens will behave as
obtained. The focal length of the lens is
of refractive index 1.4 convex lens
[ NCERT Page 224] b L1 is immersed in a liquid q Lens will behave as
u1  u2 of refractive index 1.6 concave lens
1) 2) u1 + u2
2 c L2 is immersed in a liquid r Magnitude of power
u1  u2
3) u1u2 4) of refractive index 1.4 of lens will increases
2 d L2 is immersed in a liquid s Magnitude of power
02. A ray of light is incident on a transparent glass- of refractive index 1.6 of lens willdecreases
slab of refractive index 1.5. If the reflected and
refracted rays are mutually perpendicular, what 1) a-p,r; b-q,s; c-q,p; d-p,s
is the angle of incidence? [ NCERT Page 228] 2) a-p,q; b-q,r; c-q,s; d-p,s
1 2
1) 30° 2) sin 3) a-p,s; b-q,s; c-q,s; d-p,s
3
1 2 1 3 4) a-p,q; b-r,s; c-p,s; d-p,s
3) tan 4) tan
3 2

PCB TEST : 05 1 Date : 24/03/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
04. A spherical mirror forms an erect image three 08. Light from a solid lamp ( 0 = 589 nm) passes

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
times the size of the object. If the distance between through a tank of glycerin (refractive index
the object and the image is 80 cm, the nature and 1.47) 20m long in a time t1. If it takes a time t2
the focal length of mirror are [ NCERT Page 225] to traverse the same tank when filled with
1) concave, 30 cm 2) convex, 30 cm carbon disulphide(index 1.63), then the
difference t2 – t1 is [ NCERT Page 228]
3) concave, 15 cm 4) convex, 15 cm
1) 6.67 × 10–8 sec 2) 1.09 × 10–7 sec
05. All the following statements are correct except
3) 2.07 × 10–7 sec 4) 1.07 × 10–8 sec
(for real object) [ NCERT Page 224] 09. An object is moving towards a concave mirror
1) the magnification produced by a convex of focal length 24 cm. When it is at a distance
mirror is always less than one of 60 cm from the mirror its speed is 9 cm/s,
2) a virtual, erect and same sized image can be the speed of its image at that instant is
obtained using a plane mirror [ NCERT Page 223]
3) a virctual, erect, magnified image can be 1) 4 cm/s towards the mirror
2) 9 cm/s towards the mirror
formed using a concave mirror
3) 4 cm/s away from the mirror
4) a real, inverted same sized image can be 4) 9 cm/s away from the mirror
formed using a convex mirror 10. The maximum value of index of refraction of
06. A biconvex lens has a focal length 2/3 times a material of prism which allows the passage
the radius of curvature of either surface. The of light through it when the refracting angle
refractive index of the lens material is of prism is A is [ NCERT Page 239]
[ NCERT Page 232] A 2 A
1) 1  sin 2 2) 1  cos
1) 1.75 2) 1.33 2 2
3) 1.5 4) 1.0 2 A 2 A
3) 1  tan 4) 1  cot
07. Statement I: The mirrors used in search lights 2 2
are parabolic and not concave spherical. 11. Assertion : There is a glass slab between Ram
Statement II: In a concave spherical mirror the and Anoop. Then, Ram appears nearer to Anoop
image formed is always virtual. [ NCERT Page 223] as compared to the actual distance between them
Reason : Ray of light starting from Ram will
1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
undergo two times refraction before reaching
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Annop. [ NCERT Page 229]
Statement-1.
1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the
2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Reason is correct explanation of the Assertion
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for 2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
Statement-1. is not the correct explanation of Assertion
3) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True. 3) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false
4) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False. 4) If Assertion is false but the Reason is true

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 05 2 Date : 24/03/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
12. Young’s double slit experiment is made in a 17. A narrow slit of width 2 mm is illuminated

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
liquid. The tenth bright fringe in liquid lies by monochromatic light of wavelength
in screen where 6th dark fringe lies in 500 nm. The distance between the first minima
vaccum. The refractive index of the liquid is on either side on a screen at a distance of 1 m
approximately [ NCERT Page 265] is [ NCERT Page 267]
1) 1.8 2) 1.54 1) 5 mm 2) 0.5 mm
3) 1.67 4) 1.2 3) 1 mm 4) 10 mm
13. In Young’s double slit experiment, 60 fringes are 18. On introducing a thin film in the path of one
observed in the central view zone with light of of the two interfering beam, the central fringe
wavelength 4000 Å. Then number of fringes that will shift by one fringe width. If  = 1.5, the
will be observed in the same view zone with the thickness of the film is (wavelength of
light of wavelength 6000 Å, is [ NCERT Page 265] monochromatic light is ) [ NCERT Page 266]
1) 40 2) 90 1) 4 2) 3
3) 60 4) None of these 3) 2 4) 
14. Two convex lenses of focal lengths 10 cm and 19. A slit of width a is illuminated by white light.
20 cms are kept apart. If the resultant focal The first minimum for red light ( = 6500 Å) will
length of such combination is 8 cm, the distance fall at  = 30° when a will be [ NCERT Page 267]
between the lenses is [ NCERT Page 232] 1) 3200 Å 2) 6.5 × 10–4 mm
1) 10 cm 2) 5 cm 3) 1.3 micron 4) 2.6 × 10–4 cm
3) 20 cm 4) 15 cm 20. Two waves from coherent sources meet at a
15. Two slits in Young’s double slit experiment point in a phase difference of . Both the
have widths in the ratio 81 : 1. The ratio of the waves have same intensities. Match the
amplitudes of light waves is [ NCERT Page 265] following two columns. [ NCERT Page 266]
1) 3 : 1 2) 3 : 2
Column I Column II
3) 9 : 1 4) 6 : 1
a If f = 60° p Resultant intensity will
16. In Young’s double slit experiment, the 10 th
become four times
maximum of wavelength  1 is at a distance y1
from its central maximum and the 5 th b If f = 90° q Resultant intensity will
maximum of wavelength  2 is at a distance become two times
y2 from its central maximum. The ratio y 1 /y 2 c If f = 0° r Resultant intensity will
will be [ NCERT Page 265] remain unchanged
21 22 d If f = 120° s Resultant intensity will
1) 2) become three times
2 1
1 2 1) a-s, b-q, c-p, d-r 2) a-r, b-q, c-s, d-p
3) 4) 3) a-s, b-r, c-p, d-q 4) a-p, b-q, c-s, d-r
2 2 2 1

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 05 3 Date : 24/03/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
21. A parallel beam of light of wavelength 600 nm 25. In the given figure, which of the diodes are

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
is incident normally on a slit of width d. If forward biased?
the distance between the slits and the screen
is 0.8 m and the distance of 2nd order maximum
from the centre of the screen is 15 mm. The a) b)
width of the slit is [ NCERT Page 267]

1) 40 m 2) 80 m
3) 160 m 4) 200 m c) d)
22. If the angle between the pass axis of the
polarizer and the analyzer is 45°, the ratio of
1) a, b, c 2) b, d, a
the intensities of original light and the
transmitted light after passing through the 3) a, c, d 4) b, c, d
analyzer is [ NCERT Page 271] 26. In the circuit shown, A and
1) I/2 2) I/3 B represent two inputs and
C represents the output.
3) I 4) I/4 The circuit represents
23. When the angle of incidence is 60° on the 1) NAND gate 2) OR gate
surface of a glass slab, it is found that the 3) NOR gate 4) AND gate
reflected ray is completely polarized. The
27. Statement-I : Doping of indium in Si crystal
velocity of light in glass is [ NCERT Page 269] leads to p-type semiconductor
1) 2 × 108 m s–2 2) 3 × 108 m s–2 Statement-II : Indium is a pentavalent atom.
3) 2 × 108 m s–2 4) 3 × 108 m s–2 1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

24. The logic circuit 2) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.

3) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
below has the
input waveforms 4) Both statement I and statements II are incorrect
A and B as shown. 28. Identify the gate in the figure.
Pick out the correct
output waveform. A
Y
1) 2)
B

3) 4) 1) AND 2) XOR
3) NOR 4) NAND

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 05 4 Date : 24/03/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
29. In the following circuit, the equivalent 32. For the given logic gate, the truth table is

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
resistance between A and B is

1) A 0 0 1 1 2) A 0 0 1 1
B 1 0 1 0 B 1 0 1 0
C 0 0 1 1 C 1 0 1 0
20
1)  2) 10 
3
3) A 0 0 1 1 4) A 0 0 1 1
3) 16  4) 20 
B 1 0 1 0 B 1 0 1 0
30. The I - V characteristic of an LED is C 1 0 0 1 C 0 1 0 0

33. In the following circuit the current flowing

through 1 k resistor is
1) 2)

3) 4) 1) 0 mA 2) 5 mA
3) 10 mA 4) 15 mA
34. Pure Si at 500 K has equal number of electron
31. Assertion : An N-type semiconductor has a large (ne) & hole (nh) concentrations of 1.5 × 1016m–3.
number of electrons but still it is electrically neutral. Doping by indium increases nh to 4.5 × 1022m–3.
The doped semiconductor is of
Reason : An N-type semiconductor is obtained
by doping an intrinsic semiconductor with a 1) p-type having electron co ncentration
pentavalent impurity. ne = 5 × 109 m–3
1) If both assertion and reason are true and the 2) n-type with el ectron concentration
reason is the correct explanation of the assertion. ne = 5 × 1022 m–3
2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason 3) p-type with el ectron concentration
is not the correct explanation of the assertion ne = 2.5 × 1010 m–3
3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
4) n-type with el ectron concentration
4) If assertion is false but reason is true. ne = 2.5 × 1023 m–3

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 05 5 Date : 24/03/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
35. Match the following: 39. A lens is placed between a source of light and

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
List-I List-II a wall. It forms images of area A1 and A2 on
the wall for its two different position. The area
a. Antimony e. P-type impurity
of the source of light is [ NCERT Page 232]
b. Indium f. N-type impurity
1
c. Carbon g. Not semiconductor A  A2  1 1 
1) 1 2)   
d. Silicon h. Semiconductor 2  A1 A2 
1) a-f, b-e, c-g, d-h 2) a-e, b-g, c-h, d-f 2
 A  A 
3) a-g, b-h, c-f, d-e 4) a-h, b-f, c-e, d-g
4) 
1 2 
3) A1 A2
Section : B  2 
36. Two plane mirrors are inclined at an angle . 40. The critical angle of a medium ‘B’ with respect
A ray of light is incident on one mirror at an another medium A is 45° and the critical
angle of incidence i. The ray is reflected from angle of a medium ‘C’ with respect the
this mirror, falls on the second mirror from medium B is 30°. The critical angle of medium
where it is reflected parallel to the first mirror. C with respect to A is [ NCERT Page 229]
What is the value of i, the angle of incidence
1) less than 30° 2) Greaterthan 45°
in terms ? [ NCERT Page 222]
1) 2 – 90° 2) 4 – 90° 3) 37.5° 4) 75°
3)  – 90° 4) 3 – 90° 41. With two slits spaced 0.2 mm apart and a screen
37. Two plane mirrors A and B at a distance of 1m, the third brigtht fringe is
are aligned parallel to each found to be at 7.5 mm from central fringe. The
other as shown in the figure. wavelength of light used is [ NCERT Page 265]
A light ray is incident at an 1) 400 nm 2) 500 nm
angle of 30° at a point just inside one end of
3) 550 nm 4) 600 nm
A. The number of times the ray undergoes
reflections (including the first one) before it 42. Consider the following statements in case of
emerges out is [ NCERT Page 222] Young’s double slit experiment [ NCERT Page 265]
1) 29 2) 30 a) A slit S is necessary if we use an ordinary
3) 31 4) 32 extended source of light
38. A ray of light travelling in the direction b) A slit S is not needed if we use on ordinary
1 ˆ
( i  3 jˆ) is incident on a plane mirror. After but well collimated beam of light
2
reflection, it travels along the direction c) A slit S is not needed if we use a spatially
1 ˆ coherent source of light
( i  3 ˆj ) . The angle of incidence is
2 Which of the above statements are correct?
[ NCERT Page 222]
1) (a), (b), and (c) 2) (a) and (b) only
1) 30° 2) 45°
3) 60° 4) 75° 3) (b) and (c) only 4) (a) and (c) only

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 05 6 Date : 24/03/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
43. Unpolarised light of intensity 32 W m–2 passes 47. For the logic circuit given below, to produce

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
through three polarisers such that transmission a high output (1) at R, we must have
axis of first is crossed with third. If intenstiy of
emerging light is 2 W m–2, what is the angle of
transmission axis between the first two
polarisers? [ NCERT Page 271]
1) 30° 2) 45° 1) X = 0, Y = 1 2) X = 1, Y = 1
3) 22.5° 4) 60° 3) X = 1, Y = 0 4) X = 0, Y = 0
48. Statement-1 : If forward current changes by
44. The critical angle of certain medium is sin–1(3/5).
1.5 mA when forward voltage in semiconductor
The polarizing angle of the medium is
diode is changed from 0.5 V to 2 V, then forward
[ NCERT Page 270] resistance of diode will be 1 .
1  4  1  5  V f
1) sin   2) tan   Statement-2 : R f 
5 3 I f
1  3  1  4  1) Statement-1 is true ; Statement-2 is true ; Statement-
3) tan   4) tan   2 is a correct explanation of Statement-1
4 3
45. Match the quantities of column I with the 2) Statement-1 is true ; Statement-2 is true ; Statement-
2 is not a correct explanation of Statement-1
column II when A = 1 and B = 0
3) Statement-1 is false ; Statement-2 is true.
Column-I Column-II 4) Statement-1 is false ; Statement-2 is true.
a. ( A.B)  A p. A 49. In the following circuit of PN junction diodes
D1, D2 and D3 are ideal, then i is
b. ( A.B)  A q. B

c. ( A  B).A r. A+B

d. ( A  B).B s. A.B

1) a-q,s; b-p,r; c-p,r; d-q,r

2) a-p,s; b-p,s; c-q,r; d-r,q
3) a-q,r; b-p,s; c-q,r; d-s,p 1) E / R 2) E / 2R 3) 2E / 3R 4) Zero
50. Assertion : Light emitting diode (LED) emits
4) a-r,s; b-p,r; c-q,s; d-p,s
spontaneous radiation.
46. An optically active compound [ NCERT Page 270]
Reason : LED are forward biased p-n junctions.
1) rotates the plane of polarised light 1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
2) changes the direction of polarised light reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
3) does not allow plane polarised light to pass 2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason
through is not the correct explanation of the assertion
4) none of these 3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
4) If assertion is false but reason is true.
Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 05 7 Date : 24/03/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
CHEMISTRY: Equilibrium + Alcohol Phenol Ether
SECTION : A
55. If equilibrium pressures of N2 H2 & NH3 are
51. 100 ml of 0.1 M CH3COOH and 400 ml of 0.2 2 atm. each. Then Kc for the equilibrium is.....
M CH3 COONa are mixed. Then how the pH
3H2 + N2  2NH3 [ NCERT Page-202]
varies if diluted to 10 lt. [ NCERT Page-227]
1) less than 0.25 2) More than 0.25
1) pH of mixture increases
2) pH of mixture decreases 3) equal to 0.24 4) cannot be predicted
3) pH do not change 56. Statement about equilibrium
4) pH became –Ve H2(g) + I2(g)  2HI(g) [ NCERT Page-205]
52. If 10 ml vessel contains 4 moles of A, 5 mole of a) Fixed violet colour
B & 2 mole of C. then select correct statement.
b) conc of react and products may or may
A + 2 B  4C, Kc = 102 not be equal.
[ NCERT Page-205]
c) equal rate of forward & backward
1) equilbirium shift forward.
reaction.
2) equilibrium shift back ward.
3) No-shift of equilibrium d) pressure of gaseous reaction keep on
4) [A]eq increases. changes with time.
53. Statement-I : The pH of 0.1 M-CH3COOH in the e) Kb = KcKf
presence of 0.2 M HCl is more than 3
rf
Statement-II : The pH of 0.1 M CH3COOH in f) KC =
the presence of 0.2 M CH3COONa is more than rb
3. (Consider Ka of CH3COOH = 10–5) select the correct statement
[ NCERT Page-219]
1) d, e, f 2) a, b,c
Statement-I Statement-II
3) a, d, f 4) b, a, d
1) T F
2) F T 57. Assertion : Ostwald’s dilution law is applicable
3) T T to strong as well as weak electrolytes.
4) F F Reason : Strong electrolytes do not dissociate
54. The solubility of AgCl in 0.1 M NH3 , 0.1 M compeletly in concentrated solution.
HCl 0.1 M CaCl2, 0.1 M AgNO3, 0.1 M K2SO4
[ NCERT Page-216]
& H2O are S1 , S2 S3, S4 , S5 & S6 respectively
1) If both Assertion and Reason are true, and the
then [ NCERT Page-228]
1) S1 > S2 > S3 > S4 > S5 Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
2) S1 > S6 = S5 > S3 > S2 = S4 2) If bothAssertion and Reason are true, but the Reason
3) S1 > S6 = S5 > S2 = S4 > S3 is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
4) S1 = S2 > S3 > S4 > S5 > S6 3) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false
4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 05 8 Date : 24/03/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
58. Assertion : Both H 3 PO 4 and H 2 SO 4 are 61. Assertion : pH of aqueous solution of Na2CO3

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
polyprotic acids. is 7.
Reason : They have two or more than two Reason : Salt on hydrolysis gives strong acid and
ionisable H+ ions per molecule in aqueous strong base. [ NCERT Page-226]
medium. [ NCERT Page-223] 1) If both Assertion and Reason are true, and the
1) If both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion. 2) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the
2) If bothAssertion and Reason are true, but the Reason Reason is not the correct explanation of the
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion. Assertion.
3) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false
3) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false
4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
62. Match the column-I with column-II
59. Assertion : A solution of NH4Cl in water is acidic
[ NCERT Page-228]
in nature.
Column-I Column-II
Reason : Ammonium ions undergo hydrolysis
(Salt) (Solubility product
to form NH4OH. [ NCERT Page-226]
from solubility s)
1) If both Assertion and Reason are true, and 3
a Silver chromate i 4s
the Reason is the correct explanation of the 5
b Potassium iodate ii 108 s
Assertion.
4
2) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the c Bismuth sulphide (Bi2S 3) iii 27 s
2
Reason is not the correct explanation of the d Aluminium hydroxide iv s
Assertion. 1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv 2) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
3) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false 3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i 4) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
4) If both Assertion and Reason are false. 63. A mixture contains 100 mL of 0.1 M
60. Match Column - I with Column - II CH3COOH and 200 mL 0.2 M CH3COO–. Final
[ NCERT Page-216] the pH of mixture. [Ka=10–5 ]
[ NCERT Page-227]
Column-I Column-II 1) 5.6 2) 5.3
a HClO 4 i Strong Base 3) 9.4 4) 8.4
b HClO 2 ii Strong acid 64. For a reaction N2 + 3H2  2NH3, the value of
– Kc does not depends upon.
c NH 2 iii Weak base
d HSO 4– iv Weak acid a. Initial concentration of the reactants
b. Pressure
1) a - iv, b - ii, c - i, d - iii c. Temperature
2) a - ii, b - iv, c - i, d - iii d. Catalyst [ NCERT Page-210]
3) a - iii, b - i, c - ii, d - iv 1) Only c 2) a, b, c
4) a - iv, b - ii, c - i, d - iii 3) a, b, d 4) a, b, c, d

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 05 9 Date : 24/03/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
70. Starch is converted to ethanol by fermentation.

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
Kp
65. For which reaction at 298 K, the value of The sequence of enzyme used are:
Kc
1) amylase, maltase, zymase [ NCERT Page-214]
is maximum and minimum respectively. 2) diastase, maltase, zymase
a. N2 O4  2NO 2 b. 2SO2 + O2  2SO3 3) amylase, invertase, zymase
c. X + Y  4Z 4) amylase, zymase, maltase
d. A + 3B  7C [ NCERT Page-202] 71. Mark the correct increasing order of reactivity
1) d, c 2) d, b of the following compounds with HBr/HCl.
3) c, b 4) d, a CH2OH CH2OH
66. For the reactions : A  B; KC = 2, B  C; KC = CH2OH

4, C  D; KC=6 Kc for the reaction A  D. I. II. III.

[ NCERT Page-202]
NO2 Cl
1) 12 2) 4/3
[ NCERT Page-217]
3) 24 4) 48
1) I < II < III 2) II < I < III
67. The equilibrium concentration of B for the
3) II < III < I 4) III < II < I
reversible reaction A  B can be evaluated 72. Match the column. [ NCERT Page-197]
by the expression. [ NCERT Page-199] Column-I Column-II
kf CH3
1) Kc[A]e– 2) [A]e1
kb
a. i. 3-Methylphenol
3) k fk b–1 [A] e 4) k 1 k b[A] e–1
68. A solution is prepared by mixing 100 ml of OH
0.1M NH4OH and 200 ml of 0.2M NH4Cl. Pkb OH
of NH4OH is 4.8. Then the POH of the solution OH
b. ii. 4-Methylphenol
is [ NCERT Page-227]
1) 7 2) 8.0 CH3
3) 8.5979 4) 5.4021
69. Select the correct order of Dehydration of c. iii. Benzene-1-2-diol
alcohol. OH
I. Formation of protonated alcohol OH

II. Formation of cation

III. Formation of ethene by elimination of a d. iv. Benzene-1, 4-diol
proton. [ NCERT Page-199] OH
1) I, II, III 2) II, I, III 1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv 2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
3) I, III, II 4) III, I, II 3) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i 4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 05 10 Date : 24/03/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
73. Match the column: [ NCERT Page-209] 74. Match the column: [ NCERT Page-215]

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
Column-I Column-II
Column-I Column-II
OH
a. Methanol i. Ethyl alcohol
a. + CH3 Cl
CHCl3 i. Decarboxylation b. Fermentation ii. Heated copper at
AlCl3

573 K
OH OH
CH3
c. Conversion of 2° iii. Reaction of alkyl
+ alcohol to ketone halide with
CH3
sodium alkoxide
d. Williamson's iv. Wood spirit
OH
synthesis
b. CHCl3 ii. Friedel-Crafts 1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv 2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
aq. NaOH
reaction
3) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii 4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
OH
75. Match the column: [ NCERT Page-215]
CHO
Column-I Column-II
a. Williamson's i. C 6H5OH +
OH
synthesis CH3COCl in
c. NaOH iii. Reimer-Tiemann presence of
CO 2, H +
Reaction
pyridine
OH
b. ROR' ii. C 2H5ONa +
COOH
C 2H5Br
c. p-Nitrophenol iii. Unsymmetrical
OH ether
COOH d. Acetylation iv. Intermolecular
d. + NaOH iv.Kolbe’s Reaction
hydrogen
OH bonding
1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
CaO 2) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv

3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv 2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i 4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii 4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 05 11 Date : 24/03/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
76. Mark the correct order of decreasing acid 79. Identify the secondary alcohols from the
strength of the following compounds: following set.

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
i. CH 3 CH 2 CH(OH)CH 3 ii. (C 2 H 5 ) 3 COH
OH OH OH

i. ii. iii. iii. iv.

OCH3
NO2
[ NCERT Page-195]
1) (i) and (iv 2) (i) and (iii)
OH OH
3) (i) and (ii) 4) (i), (iii) and (iv)
80. Phenol does not undergo nucleophilic
iv. v. [ NCERT Page-206]
substitution reaction easily due to.
NO2
OCH 3 [ NCERT Page-211]
1) acidic nature of phenol
1) v > iv > ii > i > iii 2) ii > iv > iii > i > v 2) partial double bond character of C–OH bond
3) iv > v > iii > ii > i 4) v > iv > iii > ii > i 3) partial double bond character of C–C bond
4) instability of phenoxide ion
77. Assertion : When alkyl aryl ethers react with
OH
excess of hydrogen halides, phenol and alkyl |
halide are produced. 81. CH3CH2  C  CH3 cannot be prepared by..
|
Reason : Alkyl aryl ethers are cleaved at the alkyl PH
–oxygen due to more stable aryl-oxygen bond. [ NCERT Page-201]
[ NCERT Page-217] 1) CH3CH2COCH3 + PhMgX
2) PhCOCH2CH3 + CH3MgX
1) If both Assertion and reason are true, and the
3) PhCOCH3 + CH3CH2MgX
reason is the correct explanation of the
4) HCHO + PhCH(CH3)CH2MgX
Assertion.
82. An industrial method of preparation of
2) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the methanol is [ NCERT Page-214]
Reason is not the correct explanation of the 1) catalytic reduction of carbon monoxide in
Assertion. presence of ZnO–Cr2O3
3) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false. 2) by reacting methane with steam at 900 °C
4) If both Assertion and Reason are false. with a nickel catalyst
3) by reducing formaldehyde with lithium
78. Assertion : The order of boiling points of alcohols
aluminium hydride
is : isobutyl alcohol > n-butyl alcohol > n-pentyl
4) by reacting formaldehyde with aqueous
alcohol.
sodium hydroxide solution
Reason : Branched alcohols have high boiling
83. Denaturation of alcohol is the
point due to more +I effect. [ NCERT Page-204]
[ NCERT Page-214]
1) If both Assertion and reason are true, and the
1) mixing of CuSO4 (a foul smelling solid) and
reason is the correct explanation of the
pyridine (to give the colour) to make the
Assertion.
commercial alcohol unfit for drinking.
2) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but the
2) mixing of CuSO4 (to give the colour) and
Reason is not the correct explanation of the
pyridine (a foul smelling solid) to make the
Assertion.
commercial alcohol unfit for drinking
3) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false. 3) mixing of Cu(OAc)2 and ammonia to make
4) If both Assertion and Reason are false. the commercial alcohol unfit for drinking.
4) mixing of Cu(OAc)2 and pyridine to make
the commercial alcohol unfit for drinking.
PCB TEST : 05 12 Date : 24/03/2024
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
88. The pH of 0.1 M CH3COONa is 9. then Kb of
84.  HO – (CH2 )6 –OH, this conversion CH3 COO– is. [ NCERT Page-222]

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
1) 10 –5 2) 10 –9
can be achieved by 3) 10 –7 4) 10 –6
A. O3, Zn, then LiAlH4 B. O3/H2O2, then LiAlH4
89. A + 3B  4C Initial concentration of A, B, C
C. cold dil. KMnO4, HlO4, then LiAlH4
are 0.2 M, 0.4 M and 0.6 M respectives in 4 lit
1) A and B 2) B Only
vessel. if equilibrium moles of B is 2 mole. then
3) A and C 4) A, B and C
equilibrium concentration of A would be.
85. Match the column: [ NCERT Page-214]
[ NCERT Page-204]
Column-I Column-II 1) 0.2 M 2) > 0.2 M
a Antifreeze used i Methanol
3) < 0.2 M 4) 0.1 M
in car engine 90. pH of a saturated solution of Ba(OH)2 is 12.
b Solvent used in ii Phenol The value of solubiity product (K sp ) of
perfumes Ba(OH)2 is [ NCERT Page-228]
–7
c Starting material iii Ethlene glycol 1) 3.3 × 10 2) 5.0 × 10–7
–6
for picric acid 3) 4.0 × 10 4) 5.0 × 10–6
d Wood spirit iv Ethanol 91. If equilibrium started with equal
concentration of N2 and H2 then which of the
1) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii 2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i following represent equilibrium. (t = time)
3) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i 4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
N 2 + H2  2NH3 [ NCERT Page-198]
SECTION : B
86. 100 ml of strong acid of pH = 4 is diluted to NH3 NH3
pH = 4.6. then calculate vol. of H2O added. N2
1) conc N2 2) conc
[ NCERT Page-218] H2 H2
1) 400 mL 2) 500 mL
t t
3) 300 mL 4) 200 mL
87. Column-I Column-II
a) For the equilibrium i) Forward shift H2
rate
>r f

NH4I(s)  NH3(g)+HI(g) conc N2

3) 4) rb

>
if pressure is increased NH3
at equlibrium t
b) For the reaction at ii) No change t
equilibirum 92. Consider the following figure which shows
N2 + 3H2  2NH3, dependence of extent of reaction on Kc.
when volume
increased at equilibrium
c) For the reaction: iii) Backward shift
H2O (g)+CO(g)  H 2(g)+CO2(g)
when inert gas is added
at constant pressure
at equilibrium
d) For the equilibrium : iv) Final pressure is
PCl5  PCl3 + Cl2, Cl2 more than initial Point out the correct statements(s) for the above
is removed at equ. pressure diagram. [ NCERT Page-206]
3
[ NCERT Page-210] 1) If Kc > 10 , products predominate over reactants.
1) a-ii,iv ; b-ii ; c-iii,iv ; d-ii,iii 2) If Kc < 10–3 reactants predominate over products.
2) a-iii,iv ; b-iii ; c-ii, ; d-i 3) If Kc is in the range of 10–3 to 103, appreciable
concentration of both reactants and products
3) a-i,ii ; b-i ; c-ii,iv ; d-ii,iv
are present.
4) a-iii,iv ; b-iii ; c-iii ; d-i,ii
4) All of the above
PCB TEST : 05 13 Date : 24/03/2024
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
93. Correct acidic order of acidity is: 95. Which of the following statements is not
[ NCERT Page-206] correctly showing the trend of the properties

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
OH OH OH OH
mentioned? [ NCERT Page-204]
CH3 1) CH 3CH 2 OH > CH 3CH 2 CH2 OH >
1) > > >
CH3 CH 3CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 OH (Solubility)
CH 3 2) CH 3CH 2 OH < CH 3CH 2 CH2 OH <
OH OH OH OH
CH3 CH 3CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 OH (Boiling Point)
2) < < <
CH3 3) CH 3CH 2 CH2 OH > CH 3CH  CH2 OH >
|
CH 3 CH 3
OH OH OH OH
CH 3
CH3 |
3) < < < CH 3 C  OH (Boiling Point)
CH3 |
CH 3 CH 3
OH OH OH OH CH 3
CH3 |
4) < < < 4) CH 3C  OH > CH 3 CH > CH 2 OH >
| |
CH3
CH 3 CH 3
CH 3
94. Choose the correct X and Y in the given CH 3CH 2 CH2 OH (Boiling Point)
reactions. [ NCERT Page-203] 96. p-Nitrophenol is a stronger acid than phenol
O while p-cresol is a weaker acid. This can be
CH 2–C–OCH3 explained as: [ NCERT Page-207]
NaBH4
I. O  (X) 1) –CH3 group decreases the electron density on
oxygen of O–H group making p-cresol a weaker acid.
NaBH4
II. CH3CH2 CH  CHO  (Y) 2) –NO2 group decrease electron density on oxygen of
| O–H group making p-nitrophenol a stronger acid.
CH3
3) –CH3 group increases the electron density on
O
oxygen of O–H group making release of H+ easier.
CH 2 –CH–OCH3
4) –NO2 group increases the electron density on
1) (X)- OH (Y)- CH3CH2CH  CH2OH
| oxygen of O–H group making release of H+ easier.
CH3 97. In the following reaction.
OH
CH2 –CH–OCH3
2) (X)-
OH H


 A and B
+ O2  H 2O
(Y)- CH 3 CH 2  CH  CH 2 OH
|
CH 2 OH The compounds A and B respectively are:
OH
[ NCERT Page-202]
CH2 –C–OCH3
CH3 OH
3) (X)- O

(Y)- CH3 CH 2  CH  CH 2 OH 1) , CH3COOH 2) , CH3COOH

| OH
CH 3
O OH OH
CH2 –C–OCH2OH OH
4) (X)- O 3) , CH3COCH3 4) , CH3COCH3
(Y)- CH3 CH2CH2CH2CH2 OH
PCB TEST : 05 14 Date : 24/03/2024
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
Biology - Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants +
Human Reproduction + Reproductive Health

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
 B D
CH3MgBr H
98. CrO 3
   

 2 6
H2O 2 /OH
 [P] Section-C : Biology
H O 3

Section-A
[ NCERT Page-201] 101. Choose incorrect statement: [Old NCERT , Pg. 25]
1) Inside the ovary is the ovarian cavity, also
CH3 CH3
known as lodicule
D H
1) 2) 2) Megasporangia are commonly called ovules
OH OH
3) The placenta is located outside ovarian cavity
H D
4) 1 & 3 both
CH3 CH3 102. A plant with the genotype Tt is cross-
pollinated by a plant with the genotype TT.
OH OH
3) 4) What will be the genotype of endosperm and
D H embryo respectively? [Old NCERT , Page- 35]
H D
1) TTT, TT 2) TTt, Tt
99. Which of the following statements are correct? 3) Either (1) or (2) 4) ttt, Tt
i. Alcohols react as nucleophiles in the 103. Assertion: Nuclear endosperm is formed by
reactions involving cleavage of O–H bond. subsequent nuclear divisions without wall
ii. Alcohols react as electrophiles in the formation initially.
reactions involving cleavage of O–H bond. Reason: Coconut is an example of such
endosperm, where the endosperm remains
iii. Alcohols react as nucleophile in the
nuclear throughout the development of the
reaction involving cleavage of C–O bond. fruit. [Old NCERT , Page- 35]
iv. Alcohols react as electrophiles in the 1) Both assertion and reason are true but the
reactions involving C–O bond. reason is not the correct explanation of the
[ NCERT Page-214] assertion.
2) Both assertion and reason are true and the
1) (i) only
reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2) (i) and (iv)
3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
3) (ii) and (iii) 4) Both assertion and reason are false.
4) (ii) only 104. The endosperm is completely consumed by the
100. The hydroboration of an alkene is carried out, developing embryo in the seeds of:
followed by oxidation with hydrogen [Old NCERT , Page- 35]
peroxide, the alcohol so obtained is achiral. 1) Maize and rice 2) Rice and castor
Possible structure of alkene is (are) 3) Castor and maize 4) Pea and beans
i. 2, 3-dimethylbut-2-ene. 105. A hexaploid (6n) wheat plant pollinates an
ii. 3-methylpent-2-ene octaploid (8n) wheat plant. As a result of
double fertilization, what will be the ploidy
iii. 2-methyl-but-2-ene of embryo and endosperm respectively ?
iv. 2-methylpropene [ NCERT Page-200] [Old NCERT , Page- 35 Concept based]
1) (i) and (iv) 2) (ii) and (iii) 1) 7n, 7n 2) 7n, 11n
3) (iii) and (iv) 4) (i) and (iii) 3) 11n, 7n 4) 7n, 10n
106. How many gametes are involved in triple
fusion? [Old NCERT , Page- 34]
1) One 2) Two
3) Three 4) Four
PCB TEST : 05 15 Date : 24/03/2024
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
107. Refer to the given diagram and select the 110. From the statements given below choose the
correct option regarding processes P, Q and option that are true for a typical female

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
R. [Old NCERT , Page- 28 Concept based] gametophyte of a flowering plant.
[Old NCERT , Page- 27]
i) It is 8-nucleate and 7-celled at maturity
ii) It is free-nuclear during the development
iii) It is situated inside the integument but
outside nucellus
iv) It has an egg apparatus situated at the
chalazal end
1) (i) and (iv) 2) (ii) and (iii)
3) (i) and (ii) 4) (ii) and (iv)
111. Which one of the following statements are
wrong? [Old NCERT , Page- 23, 24]
1) Processes P, Q and R introduce genetic
variability in the offspring of sexually i) When pollen is shed at two-celled stage,
reproducing plants X and Y. double fertilization does not take place
2) Wind serves as agent for process Q if plants X ii) Vegetative cell is larger than generative cell
and Y belong to Genus Salvia. iii) Pollen grains in some plants remain viable for
3) Flowers of plants X and Y need to produce months
odour and nectar for completion of processes iv) Intine is made up of cellulose and pectin.
P and Q if they are entomophilous. v) Sporopollenin in exine of pollen is degraded
4) If plants X and Y belong to Genus Cannabis, by the enzyme sporopollinase secreted by
then their flowers need to produce sticky and stigma to induce pollen tube formation.
heavy pollens in very small amount for Which of the above statements is/are NOT
accomplishment of process Q. incorrect?
108. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. artificial 1) ii only 2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
hybridisation. [Old NCERT , Page- 33] 3) (i), (ii) and (v) 4) (i) and (v)
1) If female parent bears bisexual flowers, 112. The body of the ovule is fused within the
removal of anther from bud before anther funicle at: [Old NCERT , Page- 25]
dehisces is necessary 1) Micropyle 2) Nucellus
2) Emasculated flowers are covered with a bag 3) Chalaza 4) Hilum
3) If female parent bears unisexual flowers, 113. Read the following statements:
emasculation should be done immediately [Old NCERT , Page- 21, 22]
4) Anthropophily (Man made pollination) is i. Microspore tetrads possess tetraploid
performed nucleus
109. A dicotyledonous plant bears flowers but ii. Sporogenous tissue occupies the centre of
never produces fruits and seeds. The most each microsporangium
probable cause for the above situation is: iii. Cells of sporogenous tissue undergo
[Old NCERT , Page- 31, 38 Concept based] meiosis
1) Plant is dioecious and bears only pistillate iv. Each cell of the sporogenous tissue is a
flowers potential microspore mother cell or pollen
2) Plant is dioecious and bears both pistillate and mother cell
staminate flowers v. The process of formation of male gamete in
3) Plant is monoecious angiosperms is called microsporogenesis
4) Plant is dioecious and bears only staminate Which of the above statements are correct?
flower. 1) (i), (ii) and (iii) 2) (iv) and (v)
3) (1) and (v) 4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
PCB TEST : 05 16 Date : 24/03/2024
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
114. The dithecous anther consist of _____ 118. Which plant prevent autogamy and
microsporangia located at the corners, ____ geitonogamy? [Old NCERT , Page- 31]

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
in each lobe. 1) castor 2) papaya
1) Two, one 2) Two, two 3) maize 4) oxalis
3) Four, two 4) Both 1 & 3 119. Which of the following is not a water
115. Match the following column with referenc to pollinated plant? [Old NCERT , Page- 29]
below diagram [Old NCERT , Page- 37] 1) Zostera 2) Hydrilla
3) Vallisneria 4) Cannabis
120. Refer to the given characteristics of some
flowers. [Old NCERT , Page- 28]
i. Light and non-sticky pollen grains
ii. Exserted stigmas and anthers
iii. Large, often feathery stigmas
iv. Colourless, odourless and nectarless
Column I Column II v) Common in grasses
a A i Thalamus
Above features are the characteristics of
b B ii Seed
1) anemophilous flower
c C iii Endocarp
2) hydrophilous flower
d D iv Mesocarp
v Epicarp 3) entomophilous flower
4) zoophilous flower.
1) a-v, b-iv, c-i, d-iii 2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
121. Which of the following is related to
3) a-iv, b-iii, c-v, d-ii 4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-v
outbreeding devices? [Old NCERT , Page- 31]
116. How many male gametes can be produced by
1) Pollen release and stigma receptivity are not
pollen mother cells?
synchronised
[Old NCERT , Page- 33 Concept based]
2) Self-incompatibility
1) 8 2) 16
3) Production of unisexual flowers
3) 32 4) 64
4) More than one option is correct
117. Read the following statements:
122. The function of fimbriae is. [Old NCERT , Page- 45]
[Old NCERT , Page- 30, 31]
1) to collect ovum after ovulation
i. The Yucca plant and the moth Pronuba
2) to maintain the shape of ovary
yuccasella cannot complete their life cycles
without each other 3) to provide the path to sperm during fertilization
ii. In some insect species, the floral reward 4) None of the above
for pollination is the safe place to lay eggs 123. Which of the hormones is essential for
in the flower maintenance of the endometrium ?
iii. Insect robbers consume pollens or nectar [Old NCERT , Page- 51]
without bringing about pollination 1) FSH 2) LH
iv. Majority of the flowering plants produce 3) Progesterone 4) Testosterone
monoecious unisexual flowers 124. Which of the following is an indicator of
v. Continued cross-pollination results in normal reproductive phase and extends
inbreeding depression between menarche and menopause ?
Which of the above statements are correct ? [Old NCERT , Page- 51]
1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) 1) Cyclic menstruation
2) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) 2) Gestation
3) (i), (ii) and (iii) 3) Ovulation
4) (ii), (iii) and (v) 4) Implantation
PCB TEST : 05 17 Date : 24/03/2024
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
125. During Implantation, the blastocyst gets 133. Which of the following is correct for
embedded in which layer of the uterus? colostrum ? [Old NCERT , Page- 54]

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
[Old NCERT , Page- 51] 1) It contains antibodies.
1) Trophoblast 2) Endometrium 2) It is produced during the last few days of
3) Myometrium 4) Perimetrium lactation.
126. The mitotic division called cleavage starts as 3) It is a steroid hormone.
the zygote moves through the ____ of the 4) It is white in colour
oviduct towards the uterus.
134. Which hormone acts on uterine myometrium
[Old NCERT , Page- 52] during parturition ? [Old NCERT , Page- 54]
1) ampulla 2) isthmus 1) Oxytocin 2) LH
3) fimbriae 4) infundibulum 3) Estrogen 4) Relaxin
127. During fertilization, a sperm comes in contact 135. What does happen if vasa deferentia are cut
with which layer of the ovum ? in a man ? [Old NCERT , Page- 61]
[Old NCERT , Page- 51]
1) Sperms become non nucleated.
1) Jelly coat 2) Zona pellucida
2) Spermatogenesis does not occur.
3) Vitelline membrane 4) Perivitelline space
3) Semen is ejaculated without sperms.
128. Function of placenta is to :[Old NCERT , Page- 53]
4) Sperms have no motility.
1) supply O2 to embryo
Section ‘B’
2) remove CO2 produced by the embryo
136. Arrange microsporangial wall in sequence of
3) produce several hormones
A, B, C, D, E given in figure [Old NCERT , Page- 22]
4) More than one option is correct
129. The first sign of growing foetus may be
noticed by :- [Old NCERT , Page- 54]
1) listening to the heart sound carefully with the
help of stethoscope
2) appearance of hair
3) appearance of head
4) appearance of eye lids
130. The average duration of human pregnancy 1) Epidermis, middle layer, endothecium, tapetum
is about nine months which is known as :-
2) Epidermis, endothecium, middle layer, tapetum
[Old NCERT , Page- 54]
3) Epidermis, middle layer, tapetum, endothecium
1) gestation period 2) parturition
4) Endothecium, epidermis, tapetum, microspore
3) lactation 4) implantation mother cell, middle layer.
131. Signals for parturition originate from :- 137. Choose incorrect statement among following:
[Old NCERT , Page- 54] [Old NCERT , Page- 23]
1) Placenta only 1) In over 60% of angiosperm, pollen grains are
2) Fully developed foetus only shed at 3 – cell stage
3) Both placenta as well as fully developed foetus 2) In over 60% of angiosperm, pollen grains are
4) Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary shed at 2 – cell stage
132. Which gland of female human undergoes 3) In 40% species, the generative cell divides
differentiation during pregnancy ? mitotically to give rise to the two male
[Old NCERT , Page- 54] gametes before pollen grains are shed (3-
1) Adrenal gland 2) Mammary gland celled stage).
3) Pituitary gland 4) Thymus gland 4) 2 and 3

PCB TEST : 05 18 Date : 24/03/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
138. Choose correct about pollen grain wall 143. Read the following statements:
[Old NCERT , Page- 23] [Old NCERT , Page- 29, 30]

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
i) It has two layered prominent wall i. Majority of the plants use abiotic agents
ii) Hard outer exine for pollination, only a small number of
plants use biotic agents
iii) Exine is composed of sporopollenin
ii. The number of ovules produced by a plant
iv) Sporopollenin form continuous exine
in general is more than the number of
1) i, ii, iii, iv 2) i, ii, iii pollens.
3) i, iii 4) i & iv iii. Among biotic agents, flies and beetles are
139. Geitonogamy involves:[Old NCERT , Page- 28] the most dominant pollinating agents
1) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a flower iv. Animal such as some primates (lemur) or
of another plant belonging to a distant population even reptiles (Garden lizard) have also
2) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from been reported as pollinators in some
another flower of the same plant species.
3) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from v. Pollen grains coming in contact with the
the same flower stigma is a chance factor in both wind and
4) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a water pollination
flower of another plant in the same population Which of the above statements are correct?
140. Assertion: : Apomixis is the formation of seed 1) (ii), (iii) and (v) 2) (iv) and (v)
without involving meiosis and fertilization. 3) (iii) and (iv) 4) (i), (iii) and (v)
Reason: It is common in Poaceae and 144. Read the following statements :
Asteraceae family [Old NCERT , Page- 38]
[Old NCERT , Page- 24, 25]
1) both assertion and reason are true but the reason
i) Stigma serves as a landing flatform for pollen
is not the correct explanation of the assertion. grains
2) Both assertion and reason are true and the ii) Placenta is located inside the ovarian cavity
reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
iii) Megasporangium is represented by the ovary
3) assertion is true but reason is false. in angiosperms
4) both assertion and reason are false. iv) Embryo sac is located in the nucellus
141. The plant parts which consist of gametophytic v) Cells of nucellus possess scanty food matter
generation within the sporophytic
Which of the above statements are NOT correct?
generation: [Old NCERT , Page- 23, 25 Concept
based] 1) (i), (ii) and (iii) 2) (iii), (v)
i) Pollen grains inside the anther 3) (i), (ii) and (v) 4) only (iii)
ii) Germinated pollen grain with two male gametes 145. Which of the following statements is wrong ?
iii) Seed inside the fruit [Old NCERT , Page- 46]
iv) Embryo sac inside the ovule 1) Mammary lobes contain clusters called as alveoli.
1) (i), (ii) and (iii) 2) (iii) and (iv) 2) Uterus is also called as womb.
3) (i) and (iv) 4) (i) only 3) The last part of the oviduct is called as ampulla.
142. The embryo sac in an ovule: 4) Stroma of ovary is divided into two zones.
[Old NCERT , Page- 25] 146. When do both LH & FSH attain a peak level
in a menstrual cycle ? [Old NCERT , Page- 51]
1) Is diploid from the beginning
1) In last week of the cycle
2) Degenerates just after double fertilization
2) In mid of the cycle
3) Is a meiocyte
3) During Initial days of cycle
4) Is formed from a megaspore
4) On 4th day of cycle

PCB TEST : 05 19 Date : 24/03/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
147. Secretion of which of the following hormones 153. The part of Fallopian tube closest to the ovary
induces spermatogenesis ? [Old NCERT , Page- 47] is :- [Old NCERT , Page- 45]

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
1) GnRH 2) Progesterone 1) Ampulla 2) Isthmus
3) Oxytocin 4) Relaxin 3) Infundibulum 4) Cervix
148. For normal fertility, how much percentage of 154. Correct order of spermatogenesis is :-
total sperms must have normal shape and [Old NCERT , Page- 49]
size? [Old NCERT , Page- 48]
1) Spermatocytes, Spermatogonium, Spermatids,
1) 50 % 2) 25 % Sperms
3) 40 % 4) 60 % 2) Spermatogonium, Spermatids, Spermatocytes,
149. In which phase of menstrual cycle Graafian Sperms
follicle is transformed into corpus luteum ? 3) Spermatids, Spermatogonium, Spermatocytes,
[Old NCERT , Page- 51] Sperms
1) Luteal phase 4) Spermatogonium, Primary Spermatocytes,
2) Proliferative phase Secondary Spermatocytes, Spermatids, Sperms
3) Follicular phase 155. How many secondary spermatocytes form 400
spermatozoa ? [Old NCERT , Page- 49]
4) Growth phase
1) 100 2) 400
150. Which of the following statements is not
correct ? [Old NCERT , Page- 51] 3) 40 4) 200
1) In the absence of fertilization, the corpus 156. Given below is a diagrammatic sketch of a
luteum is degenerated. portion of human male reproductive system.
Select the correct set of the names of the parts
2) During pregnancy, all events of menstrual
labelled A, B, C, D :- [Old NCERT , Page- 43]
cycle are stopped.
3) The secretion of LH and FSH decreases
gradually during the follicular phase.
4) The menstrual flow results due to breakdown
of endometrial lining.
Section-D : Biology
Section-A
A B C D
151. Which of the following is not correct about
sertoli cells ? [Old NCERT , Page- 47] 1) Ureter Seminal Prostate Bulbourethral
vesicle gland gland
1) These are present in between the germinal 2) Ureter Prostate Seminal Bulbourethral
epithelial cells. vesicle gland
2) These are related with the nutrition of sperm. 3) Vas Seminal Prostate glandBulbourethral
deferens vesicle gland
3) These secrete an androgen binding protein 4) Vas Seminal Bulbourethral Prostate
4) These secrete some factors which help in the deferens vesicle gland
process of spermiogenesis 157. Oocyte is liberated from ovary under the
152. In the human female, menstruation can be influence of LH, after completing :
deferred by the administration of :- [Old NCERT , Page- 48]
[Old NCERT , Page- 34] 1) meiosis and before liberating polar bodies
1) FSH only 2) meiosis I and before liberating second polar
2) LH only body
3) Combination of FSH and LH 3) meiosis
4) Combination of estrogen and progesterone 4) meiosis II and after release of first polar body

PCB TEST : 05 20 Date : 24/03/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
158. Extrusion of second polar body from egg 165. Which of the following cells undergoes
nucleus occurs :- [Old NCERT , Page- 51] spermiogenesis ? [Old NCERT , Page- 47]

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
1) after entry of sperm but before completion 1) Spematids
of fertilization 2) Spermatogonia
2) after completion of fertilization 3) Primary spermatocytes
3) before entry of sperm 4) Secondary spermatocytes
4) without any relation to sperm entry. 166. During second meiotic division of oogenesis,
159. If both ovaries are removed from human then the small structure separated from egg is
level of which hormone is decreased in blood? known as :- [Old NCERT , Page- 52]
[Old NCERT , Page- 44] 1) second polar body 2) secondary oocyte
1) Oxytocin 3) first polar body 4) primary oocyte
2) Prolactin 167. In humans, at the end of the first meiotic
3) Estrogen divison, the male germ cells differentiate into
the :- [Old NCERT , Page- 49]
4) Gonadotrophic releasing factor
1) Spermatids
160. In a 30 years old lady, eggs are released in the
2) Spermatozonia
form of :- [Old NCERT , Page- 48]
3) Primary spermatocytes
1) oogonia 2) primary oocyte
4) Secondary spermatocytes
3) secondary oocyte 4) atretic follicle
168. Attachment of the blastocyst in the wall of the
161. Phases in a menstrual cycle are :-
uterus is known as :- [Old NCERT , Page- 53]
[Old NCERT , Page- 49]
1) fertilization 2) implantation
1) Reco very phase, ovulatory phase and
3) impreganation 4) placentation
proliferative phase
169. Assertion : Surgical method is terminal
2) Proliferative phase, secretory phase and
method to prevent any more pregnancy.
ovulatory phase
Reason : Surgical methods blocks lumen of
3) Proliferative phase, ovulatory phase, secretory
uterus thereby prevent implantation.
phase and menstrual phase
[Old NCERT , Page- 61]
4) Reco very phase, secretory phase and
1) If both assertion and reason is true and reason
menstrual phase
is the correct explanation of assertion
162. After ovulation, follicles are converted into:-
2) If both assertion and reason is true but reason
[Old NCERT , Page- 50]
is not the correct explanation of assertion
1) corpus luteum 3) If assertion is true but reason is false
2) corpus albicans 4) If both assertion and reason is false
3) corpus cavernosa 170. Which one of the following is the most widely
4) corpus spongiosum accepted method of contraception in India, as
163. In a menstrual cycle, ovulation normally at present ? [Old NCERT , Page- 61]
takes place :- [Old NCERT , Page- 50, 51] 1) Cervical caps
1) at the end of proliferative phase 2) Tubectomy
2) at the mid of secretory phase 3) Diaphragms
3) just before the end of secretory phase 4) IUDs’ (Intra uterine devices)
4) at the beginning of the proliferative phase 171. Which of the following contraceptive method
164. The lytic enzyme present in semen is :- make uterus unsuitable for implantation ?
[Old NCERT , Page- 32] [Old NCERT , Page- 60]
1) ligase 2) estrogenase 1) Diaphragm 2) IUD
3) androgenase 4) hyaluronidase 3) Condom 4) Natural method

PCB TEST : 05 21 Date : 24/03/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
172. The function of copper ions in copper 178. After in vitro fertilization :
releasing IUD’s is [Old NCERT , Page- 60] [Old NCERT , Page- 64]

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
1) They inhibit gametogenesis 1) Embryo with more than 8 cells are implanted
2) They make uterus unsuitable for implantation in uterus
3) They inhibt ovulation 2) Embryo with more than 16 cells are not
4) They suppress sperm motility and fertilising implanted in uterus
capacity of sperms 3) Embryo with 8 cells are implanted in uterus
173. Which of the following is hormone releasing 4) Embryo with cells more than 2 is implanted
IUD? [Old NCERT , Page- 60] in uterus
1) Lippes loop 2) Cu7 179. Spermicidal creams and jellies are usually
3) LNG-20 4) Multiload 375 applied with ___ to enhance the contraceptive
efficiency [Old NCERT , Page- 60]
174. Which of the following is incorrect regarding
vasectomy ? [Old NCERT , Page- 61] 1) Physical barriers 2) IUDs
1) Vasa deferentia is cut and tied 3) Oral pills 4) Vasectomy
2) Irreversible sterility 180. How many of the following features are related
to Nirodh, a popular brand of condoms?
3) No sperm occurs in seminal fluid
[Old NCERT , Page- 60]
4) No sperm occurs in epididymis
A. Prevention of STDs
175. The diaphragm is a dome shaped structure,
made up of rubber ard stops the sperms from B. Physiological changes in cervical mucus
entering into [Old NCERT , Page- 60] C. Phagocytosis of sperms
1) Vestibule 2) Vulva D. Male contraceptive device
3) Cervix 4) Both 1) & 2) E. Act as chemical barrier
176. The 'test-tube baby' method : 1) 1 2) 2
[Old NCERT , Page- 64] 3) 3 4) 4
1) Involves in-vivo fertilisation 181. Which contraceptive method is based on the
2) Involves in-vitro fertilisation fact that ovulation and menstrual cycle do not
occur after parturition during the period of
3) Donor of sperm is always husband and no
intense lactation [Old NCERT , Page- 60]
other male
1) Periodic abstinence
4) Donor of ova is always wife and no other
female 2) Coitus interruptus
177. Given below are four methods (A-D) and their 3) IUDs
modes of action (a -d) in achieving 4) Lactation amenorrhoea
contraception. Select their correct matching 182. Following statements are given regarding
from the four options that follow: MTP. Choose the correct options given below:
[Old NCERT , Page- 60] [Old NCERT , Page- 62]
Method Mode of Action i. MTPs are generally advised during first
a) The pill i Prevents sperms reaching cervix trimester
b) Condom ii Prevents implantation ii. MTPs are used as a contraceptive method
c) Vasectomy iii Prevents ovulation iii. MTPs are always surgical
d) Copper T iv Semen contains no sperms iv. MTPs require the assistance of qualified
medical personnel
1) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii 2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
1) ii and iii 2) ii and iii
3) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii 4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
3) i and iv 4) i and ii
PCB TEST : 05 22 Date : 24/03/2024
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
183. Choose the correct statement regarding the 187. At which stage of spermatogenesis, sperms
ZIFT procedure: [Old NCERT , Page- 64] acquire their whole structural maturity and

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
1) Ova collected from a female donor are now these contain a haploid nucleus & other
transferred to the fallopian tube to facilitate organelles ? [Old NCERT , Page- 47]
zygote formation. 1) Spermiogenesis 2) Growth phase
2) Zygote transferred to the fallopian tube 3) Multiplication phase 4)Maturation phase
3) Zygote is collected from a female donor and 188. If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the
transferred to the uterus human reproductive system get blocked, the
4) Ova collected from a female donor and gametes will not be transported from :-
transferrerd to the uterus [Old NCERT , Page- 43]
184. In what way awareness can be created among 1) Testes to epididymis
people about reproduction related aspects? 2) Epididymis to vas deferens
[Old NCERT , Page- 58] 3) Ovary to uterus
a. Through audio-visual and print media 4) Vagina to uterus
advertisements.
189. At the time of ovulation, the human egg is
b. Creating fear among adolescents about covered by a non-cellular membrane called
sexual practices. as :- [Old NCERT , Page- 49]
c. Introduction of sex education at school. 1) chorion 2) zona pellucida
Select the most appropriate option
3) corona radiata 4) Both (2) & (3)
1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
190. The blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged
2) (b) and (c) are correct into an outer layer called ____A_____, and
3) (a) and (b) are correct group of cells attached to trophoblast called
4) (a) and (c) are correct the ____B___. [Old NCERT , Page- 53]
185. Consider the following statements: What are ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively?
[Old NCERT , Page- 57, 58] 1) trophoblast, inner cell mass
a. In India, family planning program was 2) inner cell mass, trophoblast
initiated in 1982. 3) chorion, amnion
b. Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) 4) amnion, chorion
program is an improved version of family
191. Which one of the following statements about
planning programs.
human sperm is correct? [Old NCERT , Page- 51]
Select the correct option
1) Acrosome serves no particular function
1) (a) is true, (b) is false
2) Acrosome has a conical pointed structure
2) Both (a) and (b) are false
used for piercing and penetrating the egg,
3) (a) is false, (b) is true resulting in fertilisation
4) Both (a) and (b) are true 3) The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve the
Section ‘B’ egg envelope facilitating fertilisation
186. Match the column-A with column-B. 4) Acrosome serves as a sensory structure leading
[Old NCERT , Page- 46] the sperm towards the ovum
Column A Column B 192. Among the following methods which one has
A Mons pubis i Fleshy folds of tissue the highest failure rate? [Old NCERT , Page- 60]
B Labia majora ii Paired folds of tissue 1) Diaphragm with spermicide
C Labia minora iii Finger-like structre 2) Condom
D Clitoris iv Cushion of fatty tissue 3) Intrauterine device
1) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii 2) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii 4) Rhythm method
3) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii 4) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
PCB TEST : 05 23 Date : 24/03/2024
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
193. Correct sequence of embryonic development 197. The cellular layer that disintegrates and
is :- [Old NCERT , Page- 52,53] regenerates again and again in human is :-

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
1) Fertilization  Zygote  Cleavage  Morula [Old NCERT , Page- 29]
 Blastula  Gastrula
2) Fertilization  Zygote  Blastula  Morula 1) endometrium of uterus
 Cleavage  Gastrula 2) cornea of eye
3) Fertilization  Cleavage  Morula  Zygote
3) dermis of skin
 Blastula  Gastrula
4) Cleavage  Zygote  Fertilization  Morula 4) endothelium of blood vessels
 Blastula  Gastrula 198. Read the given statements and select the
194. Artificial insemination means correct option. [Old NCERT , Page- 62]
[Old NCERT , Page- 64]
Statement I : MTP is considered relatively safe
1) Transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube during the first trimester of pregnancy.
containing ova
Statement II : Fetus becomes intimately
2) Artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy
associated with the maternal tissues after the first
donor into the vagina
trimester.
3) Introduction of sperms of healthy donor
directly into the ovary 1) Both statements I and II are correct.
4) Transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test 2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
tube containing ova correct.
195. Medical termination of pregnancy is :
3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
[Old NCERT , Page- 62] incorrect.
1) Essential in certain cases where continuation
4) Both statements I and II are incorrect.
of the pregnancy could be harmful or even
fatal either to the mother or to the foetus or 199. Supporting cells found in the germinal
both epithelium of testis are called as :-
2) Unsafe during the first trimester, i. e. , upto [Old NCERT , Page- 43]
12 weeks of pregnancy
3) Quite safe even if performed by quacks as it 1) Interstitial cells of Leydig
involves no expertise 2) Sertoli cells
4) Illegally practiced in India to discard the male
3) granular cells
foetus
196. Match the columns [Old NCERT , Page- 64] 4) phagocytes

Column I Column II 200. A childless couple can be assisted to have a

child through a technique called GIFT, The
a ICSI i Embryos upto 8 blastomeres
trnasferred to fallopian tube
full form of this technique is
b ZIFT ii Transfer of an ovum from donor into [Old NCERT , Page- 64]
the fallopian tube
c IUT iii Sperm directly injected into ovum 1) Germ cell internal fallopian transfer
d GIFT iv Embryos with more than 8 2) Gamete inseminated fallopian transfer
blastomeres trnasferred to uterus
3) Gamete intra fallopian transfer
1) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii 4) Gamete internal fertilization and transfer
3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

PCB TEST : 05 24 Date : 24/03/2024