Rankers Test Series (2023)

Full Syllabus Test - 11

DURATION ::200
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes 23-04-2023 M. MARKS : 720

Topics Covered
Physics : Complete Syllabus (Class 11th and 12th)
Chemistry : Complete Syllabus (Class 11th and 12th)
Botany : Complete Syllabus (Class 11th and 12th)
Zoology : Complete Syllabus (Class 11th and 12th)

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hour 20 minute duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4. There are four Section in the Question Paper, Section I, II, III & IV consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Botany) & Section IV (Zoology) and having 50 Questions in each part.
5. There is only one correct response for each questions.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

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[1]
 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION - A 8. n1 and n2 are the moles of two ideal gases, whose
1. A car of 1000 kg moving with a velocity of 18  Cp 
km/hr is stopped by the brake force of 1000 N. The thermodynamics constants, [ratio of   ] are 1
distance covered by it before coming to rest is  Cv 
(1) 1 m (2) 162 m  Cp 
and 2 respectively, are mixed.   for the
(3) 12.5 m (4) 144 m  Cv 
mixture is-
2. A body is suspended by a string from the celling of
1 +  2
an elevator. It is observed that the tension in the (1)
string is doubled when the elevator is accelerated 2
upward, the acceleration will be n11 + n2  2
(2)
(1) 4.9 m/s2 n1 + n2
(2) 9.8 m/s2 n1 2 + n2 1
(3) 19.6 m/s2 (3)
n1 + n2
(4) 2.45 m/s2
n11 (  2 − 1) + n2  2 ( 1 − 1)
(4)
PV n1 (  2 − 1) + n2 ( 1 − 1)
3. The quantity represents:
KT
(1) Mass of the gas
9. A ball rolls off top of a stair-way with a horizontal
(2) Kinetic energy of the gas
velocity u m/s. If the steps are
(3) Number of the moles of the gas
h meters high and b meters wide, the ball will just
(4) Number of molecules in the gas
hit the edge of nth step if n equals to
4. Which one of the following is a conservative force? hu 2 u2 g
(1) (2)
(1) Friction gb 2 gb 2
(2) Coulomb’s force only
2hu 2 2u 2 g
(3) Gravitational force only (3) (4)
(4) Both (2) and (3) gb 2 hb 2

5. A block is kept on a horizontal table. The table is 10. In a uniform circular motion, which of the
undergoing simple harmonic motion of frequency following is not correct?
3 Hz in a horizontal plane. The coefficient of static (1) v = r  
friction between the block and the table surface is
0.72. Find the maximum amplitude of the table at (2) a =  (  r )
which the block does not slip on the surface (g = (3) v =  r
10ms–2) (4) a =  v
(1) 0.01 m (2) 0.02 m
(3) 0.03 m (4) 0.04 m 11. A source and a detector move away from each
other, each with a speed of 10m/s with respect to
6. Transmission of heat by molecular collisions is the ground with no wind. If the detector detects a
(1) Conduction frequency 1950Hz of the sound coming from the
(2) Convection source, what is the original frequency of the
(3) Radiation source? Speed of sound in air = 340m/s
(4) Scattering (1) 2700 Hz (2) 2007 Hz
(3) 2070 Hz (4) 2170 Hz
7. The coefficient of linear expansion of a crystal in
one direction is 1 and that in every direction 12. The potential energy of a body as a function of
perpendicular to it is 2. The coefficient of cubical distance is given as U(x) = (–6x2 + 2x) J. The
expansion is conservative force acting on body at x = 1 m will
(1) 1 + 2 (2) 21 + 2 be
(3) 1 + 22 (4) None of above (1) 6 N (2) 8 N
(3) 10 N (4) 12 N
[2]
13. The acceleration of a particle is given as a = 3x2. 21. If the series limit of wavelength of the Lyman series
At t = 0, v = 0, x = 0. The velocity at t = 2 sec will for H-atom is , then series limit of wavelength for
be: Paschen series of H-atom is
(1) 0.05 m/s (2) 0.5 m/s (1)  (2) /3
(3) 5 m/s (4) 50 m/s (3) 3 (4) 9

14. When a current of (2.5 ± 0.5) ampere flows through 22. Correct match of Coolum I with column II is:
a wire, it develops a potential difference of (20 ± C-I (waves) C-II (Production)
1) volt. Find the resistance of the wire A. Infra-red P. Rapid vibration of
(1) (6 + 3)  (2) (7 + 2)  electrons in aerials
(3) (8 + 2)  (4) (18 + 3)  B. Radio Q. Electrons in atoms
when they move from
15. The distance between two particles on a string is higher to lower
10 cm. If the frequency of wave propagating in it energy level.
is 400 Hz and its speed is 100 m/s then the phase C. Light R. Klystron tube
difference between the particles will be D. Microwave S. Vibration of atoms
(1) 0.8  Radian (2) 0.4  Radian and molecules
(3) 0.2  Radian (4)  Radian (1) A-P, B-R, C-S, D-Q
(2) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
16. If A = 3iˆ + 4 ˆj and B = 7iˆ + 24 ˆj, Then the vector (3) A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R
(4) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q
having the same magnitude as B and parallel to A
is -
23. Assertion: In uniform circular motion speed of the
(1) 15i +20 ˆj (2) −15i +20 ˆj particle is constant.
(3) 15i –20 ˆj (4) 15i + 30 ˆj Reason: In uniform circular motion linear
momentum of the particle is constant.
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
17. A body floats with one third of its volume outside
reason is the correct explanation of the
water and ¾ of its volume outside in another liquid.
assertion
The density of the other liquid is
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason
(1) 9/4 gm/c.c (2) 4/3 gm/c.c
is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) 8/3 gm/c.c (4) 3/8 gm/c.c
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) It the assertion and reason both are false
18. The viscous force acting on a solid ball moving in
air with terminal velocity v is directly proportional
24. In Which of the following situation, doppler effect
to
will appear:
(1) v (2) v
(1) Listener and source of sound are rest
(3) 1 / v (4) v2 (2) Both are moving with same velocity along the
same straight line, in same directions
19. The ratio of excess pressure inside drops of water (3) In both case
of diameters 2.0 mm and 20 m is- (4) In None of the above case
1 1
(1) (2)
10 100 25. A rectangular coil of size 10 cm × 20 cm has 60
1 1 turns. It is rotating in magnetic field of
(3) (4) 0.5 Wb/m2 with a rate of 1800 revolutions per
1000 10000
minutes. The maximum induced e.m.f. across the
20. In a nuclear reaction which of the following ends of the coil is
remains conserved? (1) 90 V
(1) Mass (2) 80 V
(2) energy (3) 70 V
(3) relativistic energy (4) 36 V
(4) None of these
[3]
26. An uniform elastic rope of length L (area A), mass (1) 25.0 cm (2) 16.7 cm
m is sliding on a horizontal smooth table by force (3) 50.3 cm (4) 33.3 cm
F as shown in figure. If Young's modulus of
material is Y then extension in rope is 32. A convex lens of power 4D is kept in contact with
a concave lens of power 3D, the effective power of
combination will be
FL 2FL (1) 7D (2) 4D/3
(1) (2)
AY AY (3) 1D (4) 3D/4
FL FL
(3) (4)
2 AY 3 AY 33. A conducting wire of length l is turned in the form
of a circular coil and a current i is passed through
27. Consider the arrangement shown in figure in which it. For torque due to magnetic field produced at its
the north pole of a magnet is moved away from a centre, to be maximum, the number of turns in the
thick conducting loop containing capacitor. Then coil will be
excess positive charge will arrive on (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) Any value (4) More then 1

34. An electron is revolving in a circular path of radius

2×10–10 m with a speed of 3×106 m/s. The magnetic
field at the centre of circular path will be-
(1) 1.2 Tesla
(2) 2.4 Tesla
(3) Zero
(1) Plate a (4) 3.6 Tesla
(2) Plate b
(3) On both plates a and b 35. The refractive indices of material of a prism for
(4) On neither a nor b plates. blue and red colours are 1.532 and 1.514
respectively. Calculate angular dispersion
28. Photograph formed by A pinhole camera is:
produced by the prism if angle of prism is 18°.
(1) Real image (2) Virtual image
(1) 0.144° (2) 0.104°
(3) Shadow (4) None of these
(3) 0.044° (4) 0.4°
29. At any place on earth, the horizontal component of
SECTION - B
earth’s magnetic field is 3 times the vertical
component. The angle of dip at that place will be 36. A long solenoid with 15 turns per cm has a small
(1) 60° (2) 45° loop of area 2 cm2 placed inside the solenoid
(3) 90° (4) 30° normal to its axis. If the current carried by the
solenoid changes steadily from 2A to 4A in 0.1 sec
30. A magnet of moment M is lying in a magnetic field then find induced emf in loop.
of induction B. W1 is the work done in turning it (1) 6 0
from 0º to 60º and W2 is the work done in turning (2) 0.6 0
it from 30º to 90º. Then (3) 0.06 0
W
(1) W2 = W1 (2) W2 = 1 (4) 60 0
2
(3) W2 = 2W1 (4) W2 = 3W1 37. A geyser heats water flowing at the rate of 3.0 litres
per sec from 27°C to 77°C. If the geyser operates
31. A convex lens when placed in the first position on a gas burner, what is the rate of consumption of
forms a real image of an object on a fixed screen. the fuel if its heat of combustion is 4.0 × 104 J/g?
The distance between the object and the screen is (1) 157 gm
75 cm. On displacing the lens from first position by (2) 0.157 gm
25 cm to the second position, again a real image is (3) 1.57 gm
formed on the screen. Then the focal length of the (4) 15.7 gm
lens is :
[4]
38. An element  = xiˆ is place at the origin and (1) 2% (2) 4%
carries a large current I = 10 A. What is the (3) 8% (4) 1%
magnitude of magnetic field on the y-axis at a
distance of 0.5 m. x = 1 cm: 43. If  is the surface charge density of the conductor
then, mechanical force per unit area of a charged
conductor is proportional to:
(1) (1/)2 (2) 2
(3)  (4) 

44. A thin semi-circular ring of radius r has a positive

charge q distributed uniformly over it. The net field
E at the centre O is:
(1) 2×10–8 T (2) 4×10–8T
(3) 6×10–8 T (4) 8×10–8T

39. Assertion: Bohr’s atomic model can be applied for

every atom.
Reason: The energy state of election in atom is
continuous. q ˆj
(1)
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the 4 0 r
2 2

reason is the correct explanation of the q

(2) − ˆj
assertion 4  0 r 2
2
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason
q ˆj
is not the correct explanation of the assertion (3) −
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false 2  0 r 2
2

(4) If the assertion and reason both are false q

(4) ˆj
2 0 r 2
2
40. Why the blood pressure in humans is greater at the
feet than at the brain: 45. The work done in bringing a unit positive charge
(1) Liquid pressure increases downward
from infinite distance to a point at a distance x from
(2) Density of blood is more in feet than brain
positive charge Q is W. Then, the potential at the
(3) Both (1) and (2)
point is:
(4) None of (1) and (2)
WQ
(1) (2) W
41. Shown in the figure given below is a meter- bridge
X
set up with null deflection in the galvanometer. The (3) W/X (4) WQ
value of the unknown resistor R is:
46. Assertion: In a metre bridge experiment, null point
for an unknown resistance is measured. Now, the
unknown resistance is put inside an enclosure
maintained at a temperature. The null point can be
obtained at the same point as before by decreasing
the value of the standard resistance.
Reason: Resistance of a metal remains constant
with increase in temperature.
(1) If both assertion & Reason are Ture & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the
(1) 13.75  (2) 220  Assertion.
(3) 110  (4) 55  (2) If both Assertion & Reason are Ture but
Reason
42. A conducting wire is stretched to increase its length (3) If Assertion is Ture but the Reason is false
by 2%. What is the percentage change in its (4) If both Assertion & Reason are false.
resistance
[5]
47. Assertion: A material having greater Young’s 49. Assertion: Coolant coils are fitted at the top of a
modulus also possesses greater bulk modulus. refrigerator, for formation of convection current.
Reason: The elastic moduli are due to Reason: Air becomes denser on cooling.
intermolecular forces existing in the material. (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true & the
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are Ture & the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
Reason is a correct explanation of the
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but
Assertion.
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but
Assertion.
Reason is not a correct explanation of the (3) If Assertion is True but the Reason if False.
Assertion (4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.
(3) If Assertion is Ture but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False. 50. Assertion: An emf E is induced in a closed loop
where magnetic flux is varied. The induced E is not
48. Assertion: Copper is a paramagnetic substance. a conservation filed.
Reason: Paramagnetic substance when placed in a Reason: The line integral of E.d around the
magnetic field are feebly magnetised in a direction closed loop is non-zero.
opposite to that of the magnetising filed. (1) If both Assertion & Reason are Ture & the
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are Ture & the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
Assertion. (2) If both Assertion & Reason are Ture but
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are Ture but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
Assertion (3) If Assertion is Ture but the Reason is False.
(3) If Assertion is Ture but the Reason is False. (4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION - A 54. Which of the following is the correct expression for
51. Which is the correct order of atomic radii? the 1st law of thermodynamics under adiabatic
(1) Mn > Fe > Co conditions?
(2) Mn = Fe = Co (1) U = q + 2W (2) U = q – W
(3) Sc < Ti > V (3) q = –W (4) U = W
(4) Zn > Cu > Ni
55. The function of enzymes in the living system is to:
52. Equal masses of methane and oxygen are mixed in (1) Catalyse biochemical reactions
an empty container at 25o C. The fraction of the (2) Provide energy
total pressure exerted by oxygen is (3) Transport oxygen
1 (4) Provide immunity
(1)
2
2 56. Which of the following is not a hazardous pollutant
(2) present in automobile exhaust gases?
3
1 273 (1) N2 (2) CO
(3)  (3) CH4 (4) Oxide of Nitrogen
3 298
1
(4) 57. A compound is treated with Tollen's reagent.
3
Formation of a silver mirror indicates the presence
53. In DNA, the linkages between different of the following group.
O
nitrogenous bases are: ||
(1) Phosphate linkages (1) –CHO (2) — C—
(2) H-bonding (3) –NO2 (4) –NH2
(3) Glycosidic linkages
(4) Peptide linkages
[6]
58. The correct order of bond dissociation energy (1) PA + A(PB – PA)
among N2, O2, O2– is shown in which of the (2) PA + A(PA – PB)
following arrangements? (3) PB + A(PB – PA)
(1) N2  O2−  O2 (4) PB + A(PA – PB)
(2) O−2  O2  N2
64. The rate of a chemical reaction tells us about
(3) N2  O2  O−2 (1) The reactants taking part in the reaction
(4) O2  O2−  N2 (2) The products formed in the reaction
(3) How slow or fast the reaction is taking place
(4) None of the above
59. CsCl crystallises in body centered cubic lattice. If
‘a’ is its edge length then which of the following
65. Which one of the following statements is correct?
expression is correct?
(1) All amino acids except lysine are optically
(1) r + + r − = 3a
Cs Cl active
3a (2) All amino acids are optically active
(2) rCs+ + rCl− =
2 (3) All amino acids except glycine are optical
3 active
(3) rCs + + rCl− = a
(4) All amino acids except glutamic acids are
2
optically active
(4) rCs + + rCl− = 3a

66. Electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in weakly

acidic medium gives:
60. (1) Aniline
(2) Nitrosobenzene
(3) N-Phenylhydroxylamine
(4) p-Hydroxyaniline
(1)
67. A mixture of ethyl alcohol and propyl alcohol has
a vapour pressure of 290 mm at 300 K. The vapour
(2) pressure of propyl alcohol is 200 mm. If the mole
fraction of ethyl alcohol is 0.6, its vapour pressure
(in mm) at the same temperature will be
(1) 360 (2) 350
(3) (3) 300 (4) 700

(4) 68. Salts of A(atomic mass: 15), B(atomic mass: 27),

and C(atomic mass: 48) were electrolysed using
the same amount of charge. It was found that when
61. Which of the following pairs have approximately 4.5g of A was deposited, the mass of B and C
the same atomic radii? deposited was 2.7g and 9.6g. The valency of A, B,
(1) Zr and Hf (2) Al and Mg and C, respectively;
(3) Al and Ga (4) Na and Ne (1) 1, 3 and 2 (2) 3, 1 and 3
(3) 2, 6 and 3 (4) 3, 1 and 2
62. The metal that gives hydrogen gas upon treatment
with both acids as well as bases is: 69. Be2C + H2O → Be(OH)2 + [X] ; "X" is:
1) Zinc (2) Mercury (1) C2H2 (2) CH4
(3) Iron (4) Magnesium (3) C2H4 (4) None of these

63. PA and PB are the vapour pressures of pure liquid 70. 10–6M HCl is diluted to 100 times. Its pH is:
components, A and B, respectively of an ideal (1) 6 (2) 8
binary solution. If A represents the mole fraction (3) 6.98 (4) 7.02
of component A, the total pressure of the solution
will be:
[7]
71. The chemical formula of Plaster of Paris is/are: (1) Both the assertion and the reason are correct, and
(1) CaSO4.2H2O the reason is the correct explanation of the
(2) 2CaSO4.H2O assertion.
1 (2) Both the assertion and the reason are correct, and
(3) CaSO4 . H 2O
2 the reason is not correct explanation of the
(4) CaSO4.H2O assertion.
(3) The assertion is correct, but the reason is
72. How many number of atoms are effectively present incorrect.
in a cubic unit formed by an arrangement of eight (4) Both the assertion and the reason are incorrect
BCC unit cells?
(1) 12 (2) 14 78. Which of the following salts has the same value as
(3) 16 (4) 18 of van’t Hoff factor (i) as that of K3[Fe(CN)6]?
(1) Na2SO4
73. Which is the best description for the behaviour of
(2) Al(NO3)3
Bromine in the reaction given below?
(3) Al2(SO4)3
H2O + Br2 → HOBr + HBr
(4) NaCl
(1) Proton acceptor only
(2) Both oxidised and reduced
(3) Oxidised only 79. Assertion: In strongly acidic solutions, aniline
(4) Reduced only becomes more reactive towards electrophilic
reagents.
74. The IUPAC name of the compound is: Reason: The amino group being completely
protonated in strongly acidic solution, the lone pair
of electrons on the nitrogen is no longer available
for resonance.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(1) 1 - Ethoxy - 2 - nitrocyclohexane
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
(2) 1- Nitro-2-ethoxyhexane
is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) 2- Ethoxy - 1 - nitrocyclohexane
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) 1 - Ethoxy - 2 - nitrobenzene
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
75. Standard reduction electrode potentials of three
metals A, B & C are respectively +0.5 V, –3.0V & 80. Which of the following are incorrect orders of
–1.2V. The reducing powers of these metals are property indicated against it?
(1) A > B > C (1) SO4–2 < SO3–2 < S– 2 (Order of Polarizability)
(2) C > B > A
(2) ClO4–1  ClO–1  ClO2–1  Cl –1 (order of
(3) A > C > B
(4) B > C > A Polarizability)
(3) Sc+2  Ti +3  V +3  Cr +3 (order of polarizing
76. The carboxyl functional group (–COOH) is present Power)
in
(4) Cd+2  Zn +2  Hg+2 (order of polarizing
(1) Picric acid
(2) Barbituric acid power)
(3) Ascorbic acid
(4) Aspirin 81. For a certain redox reaction, E° is positive. This
means that
77. Assertion: The enthalpy of reaction remains (1) ΔG° is positive, K is greater than 1
constant in the presence of a catalyst. (2) ΔG° is positive, K is less than 1
Reason: A catalyst participating in the reaction (3) ΔG° is negative, K is greater than 1
forms different activated complex and lowers down (4) ΔG° is negative, K is less than 1
the activation energy but the difference in energy of
reactant and product remains the same.

[8]
82. The tests performed on compound X and their (2) A, C, E, F
inferences are: (3) B, C, E, F
Test Inference (4) B, C, D, E
(a) 2, 4-DNP test Coloured
(b) Iodoform test yellow precipitate 85. The correct stability order for the following species
(c) Azo-dye test No dye formation is
Compound ‘X’ is:

(1) (II) > (IV) > (I) > (III)

(1) (2) (I) > (II) > (III) > (IV)
(3) (II) > (I) > (IV) > (III)
(4) (I) > (III) > (II) > (IV)

(2) SECTION - B
86. Vapour density of two gases are in the ratio of
2 : 9. What will be the ratio of their molar masses?
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 2 : 9
(3) 1 : 9 (4) 1 : 1
(3)
87. In the following sequence of reactions,
P+I Mg HCHO
CH 3CH 2OH ⎯⎯⎯
2
→ A ⎯⎯⎯
Ether
→ B ⎯⎯⎯⎯
→
H O
C ⎯⎯⎯
2
→D
(4) The compound D is
(1) propanal
(2) butanal
(3) n-butyl alcohol
83. Match the column:
(4) n-propyl alcohol
(A) A process carried (p) Adiabatic
out 88. Which of the following is a condensation polymer?
infinitesimally (1) Nylon 6,6
slowly (2) Neoprene
(3) Teflon
(B) A process in (q) E = 0, H = 0 (4) Buna-S
which no heat
enters or leaves
89. The correct match between Item I and Item II is
the system
Item I Item II
(C) A process carried (r) Reversible
out at constant (a) Natural (I) 1, 3-butadiene +
temperature rubber styrene

(D) Cyclic process (s) Isothermal (b) Neoprene (II) 1, 3-butadiene +

acrylonitrile
(1) A-p, B-r, C-s, D-q
(c) Buna N (III) Chloroprene
(2) A-r, B-p, C-s, D-q
(3) A-r, B-q, C-s, D-p (d) Buna S (IV) Isoprene
(4) A-p, B-s, C-q, D-r

84. Among the following complexes (A–F), (1) (A) – (III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
K3[Fe(CN)6] (A), [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 (B), (2) (A) – (III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
Na3[Co(oxalate)3] (C), [Ni(H2O)6]Cl2 (D), (3) (A) – (IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
K2[Pt(CN)4] (E) and [Zn(H2O)6](NO3)2 (F) (4) (A) – (IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
The diamagnetic complexes are:
(1) A, B, C, D
[9]
90. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(1) 94.

(A) P is benzene diazonium chloride.

(2) (B) Q cannot give bromine water test.
(C) R and S are position isomers.
(D) During the formation of R and S from Q.
(3) Formation of a new C–C bond will take place.
Which of the following statement is/are correct?
(1) A, C and D are correct statements.
(2) A, B, C and D are correct statements.
(4)
(3) A and B are correct statements.
(4) A, B and C are correct statements.

91. Assertion: Extraction of iron metal from iron oxide 95. In the following reaction,
ore is carried out by heating with coke −
Reason: The reaction, Fe2O3(s) → 2Fe (s) + 3/2 O2 B ( OH )3 + H2O → B ( OH )4  + H+
(g) is a spontaneous process (1) B(OH)3 is a tribasic acid.
(1) Both the assertion and the reason are correct, (2) B(OH)3 is a monoacidic Lewis basic
and the reason is the correct explanation of the
(3) B(OH)3 is a monobasic Lewis acid
assertion.
(4) B(OH)3 is amphoteric
(2) Both the assertion and the reason are correct,
and the reason is not correct explanation of the
assertion. 96. The pKa of a weak acid (HA) is 4.5. The pOH of
(3) The assertion is correct, but the reason is an aqueous buffer solution of HA in which 50% of
incorrect. the acid is ionized is
(4) Both the assertion and the reason are incorrect. (1) 7.0
(2) 4.5
92. The value of van der Waals constant 'a' for gases (3) 2.5
O2, N2, NH3 and CH4 are x, y, z and c respectively, (4) 9.5
where z > c > y > x. The gas which can most easily
be liquefied is: 97. The ore that contains both iron and copper is:
(1) O2 (1) Malachite
(2) N2 (2) Azurite
(3) NH3 (3) Dolomite
(4) CH4 (4) Copper pyrites

93. Tyndall effect is observed when:

98. Find the number of chiral carbon in –D–(+)–
(1) The diameter of the dispersed particle is much
Glucose:
larger than the wavelength of light used
(1) 2
(2) The diameter of the dispersed particle is much
(2) 3
smaller than the wavelength of light used
(3) 4
(3) The refractive index of the dispersed phase is
greater than that of the dispersion medium (4) 5
(4) The diameter of the dispersed phase particle is
similar to the wavelength of light used
[10]
99. In a set of reactions, p-nitrotoluene yielded a
product E. The product E is:

(3) (4)

100. Which of the following will react with water:

(1) CHCl3 (2) Cl3CCHO
(2) (3) CCl4 (4) ClCH2CH2Cl
(1)

SECTION-III (BOTANY)
SECTION - A
101. In Basidiomycetes 105. Taxonomic category, which is the assemblage of
(1) Mycelium is septate and branched. families exhibiting a few similar character is
(2) They are found as parasites on plants like (1) Class (2) Sub-class
wheat. (3) Division (4) Order
(3) Sex organs are present.
(4) Asexual spores are generally not found, but 106. Assertion (A): In Liliaceae, perianth, stamens and
fragmentation occurs. carpels are present but still it is incomplete.
Reason (R): Calyx, corolla, androecium, and
102. Match the different organisms with their respective gynoecium are present in a complete flower.
features & select the correct option (1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is correct
(A) Diatoms (i) Heterocysts explanation of (A)
(B) Protozoa (ii) Nucleoid (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct
(C) Bacteria (iii) Phytoplankton explanation of (A)
(D) Gonyaulax (iv) Holozoic nutrition (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(E) Anabena (v) Red tide (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
A B C D E
(1) ii iii i iv v 107. Underground stem of which of the plants is
(2) iii iv ii v i modified to store food in them?
(3) v iv iii ii i (1) Euphorbia
(4) i iii ii iv v (2) Citrus
(3) Pistia
103. Which of the following statement is wrong about (4) Colocasia
gymnosperms?
(1) The leaves in gymnosperms are well adapted
to withstand extremes of temperature,
humidity and wind
108.
(2) Gymnosperms are heterosporous
(3) Male and female gametophytes have
independent free-living existence
(4) In Cycas, male cones and megasporophylls The given diagram showing types of aestivation in
are borne on different trees corolla. Identify aestivation found in Gulmohar,
lady finger and calotropis respectively
104. Oogamous type of sexual reproduction is found in (1) C, B, A (2) B, C, A
(1) Volvox (2) Ulothrix (3) A, B, C (4) C, A, B
(3) Eudorina (4) Spirogyra
[11]
109. The correct floral formula of Sesbania is– 114. Which of the following statement is wrong?
(1) Microtubules and microfilaments are found
(1)  k2+2 C4 A2+4 G(2)
only in eukaryotes.
(2) % k5 C1+2+(2) A 9+1 G1 (2) Centriole has 9 + 2 microtubular arrangement
while cilium has 9 + 0
(3) % k(5) C1+2+(2) A(9) + 1 G1 (3) Cell within the cell is stated for mitochondria
and chloroplasts
(4)  k5 C5 A5 G1
(4) In prokaryotic cells, respiratory enzymes are
located on plasma membrane
110. Statement I: Phellogen is primary cambium.
It is made up of thick walled rectangular cells. 115. Mitochondria are sites of
(1) Glycolysis (2) Hill reaction
Statement II: Phellogen develops in cortex region (3) Calvin cycle (4) Krebs cycle
cells of secondary cortex are parenchymatous.
(1) Both statements are correct 116. Synapsis of homologous chromosomes to form
(2) Both statements are incorrect bivalents occur in
(1) Zygotene
(3) Only statement I is correct
(2) Pachytene
(4) Only statement II is correct (3) Diplotene
(4) Leptotene
111. Ring arrangement of vascular bundles is a
117. How many mitotic divisions are needed for a single
characteristic of
cell to make 1024 cells?
(1) Dicot stem (2) Monocot root (1) 8 (2) 9
(3) Dicot root (4) Monocot stem (3) 7 (4) 10

118. One bacterial cell divides into two after every 20

112. The given diagram showing root apical meristem
minutes. How many bacteria will be produced after
label the parts A, B, C, D in the given diagram.
3 hours, if one started with 10 bacterial cells?
(1) 29 × 10 (2) 28 × 10
10
(3) 2 × 10 (4) 29 × 109

119. Histone proteins synthesised in a eukaryotic cell in

which stage of cell cycle
(1) G2 phase (2) Metaphase
(3) G1 phase (4) S-phase

A B C D 120. In the given figure, there are two chambers A & B

(1) Cortex Protoderm Root apical Initials of containing solutions are separated by a semi-
meristem root cap permeable membrane. Choose the correct
(2) Protoderm Cortex Initials of Root statement from the following:
root cap apical
meristem

(3) Cortex Root apical Protoderm Initials of

meristem root cap

(4) Protoderm Cortex Root apical Initials of

meristem root cap

113. Statement I: Small bodied organisms are

(1) Solution of chamber B has a lower water
metabolically more active, as they have more
potential
surface area/volume ratio.
(2) Solution of chamber A has a lower water
Statement II: A cell keeps its chemical
composition steady within its boundary. potential
(1) Both statements are correct (3) Solution of chamber B has higher solute
(2) Both statements are incorrect potential
(3) Only statements I is correct (4) Osmosis will occur from B → A chamber
(4) Only statements II is correct

[12]
121. In lac operon, the genes y, a, z, i gene codes for 126. The enzyme ATP synthase is located in
respectively (1) Head of F1 particles
(1) Permease, -galactosidase, transacetylase, (2) Head of F0 particles
repressor (3) F0 – F1 junction
(2) Transacetylase, permease, -galactosidase, (4) Inner mitochondria membrane
repressor
(3) Transacetylase, -galactosidase, permease, 127. Assertion (A): In plants, during water stress
repressor condition, ABA play an important role.
Reason (R): ABA stimulates the closure of
(4) Permease, transacetylase, -galactosidase, stomata, it is called as stress hormone.
repressor (1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is correct
explanation of (A)
122. Which of the following is not a purpose of (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct
transpiration? explanation of (A)
(1) Supplies water for photosynthesis (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
(2) Maintain shape and structure of plants by
keeping cells turgid 128. To elongate fruits like apple and to improve their
(3) Transports minerals from soil to all parts of shape which plant hormone is used?
plants (1) Auxins (2) Ethylene
(4) Root pressure is involved in transpirational (3) Cytokinin (4) Gibberellins
pull
129. Which element is main constituent of coenzyme A?
(1) Sulphur (2) Magnesium
123. What would happen to rate of photosynthesis in C3 (3) Iron (4) Potassium
plants if CO2 concentration level almost doubles
from its present level in the atmosphere? 130. Denitrification is carried out by which bacteria
(1) Rate of photosynthesis in C3 plants increases (1) Nitrobacter (2) Nitrococcus
with increase in CO2 concentration. (3) Thiobacillus (4) Nitrosomonas
(2) Rate of photosynthesis in C3 plants decreases 131. Which of the following statements is incorrect for
with increase in CO2 concentration. female gametophyte?
(3) No food synthesis occur, as plants would be (1) Three cells are at chalazal end and are called
damaged. as Antipodals
(4) Rate of photosynthesis would remain constant. (2) A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity
contains 7 cells, each cell is uninucleate
(3) Only one megaspore is functional and other three
124. Who demonstrated that photosynthesis is a light degenerate in majority of flowering plants.
dependent reaction based on his studies of purple (4) Mitotic divisions are strictly free-nuclear in
and green bacteria? female gametophyte formation.
(1) Cornelius van niel (2) Englemann
(3) Juluis von sachs (4) Arnon 132. Pollination in eichhornia occurs by
(1) Water (2) Insects
125. Identify the correct statements from the following (3) Wind (4) Both (2) and (3)
about population interactions
(a) Predation is helpful in maintaining species 133. Which of the plant is not monoecious?
diversity in a community (1) Castor (2) Maize
(b) When both the organisms are benefitted it said (3) Date palm (4) All of these
to be commensalism
(c) Resource portioning is related to mutualism 134. T.H. Morgan experimentally verified chromosomal
(d) Pencilluim resisting the growth of bacteria by theory of inheritance. He worked with fruit flies for
killing them is an example of ammensalism his studies because:
(e) Many parasites have evolved to be host (1) They could be grown on suitable synthetic
specific. medium in labs
(1) Only a, b, d are correct (2) They show sexual dimorphism
(2) Only b, d, e are correct (3) They show hereditary variations that can
(3) Only a, d, e are correct easily be seen with low power microscopes.
(4) Only a, d are correct (4) All of the above

[13]
135. Phenylketonuria is an example of 142. Select the wrong statement regarding salient
(1) Polygenic inheritance feature of human genome
(2) Pleiotropy (1) Less than 2% of genome codes for proteins
(3) Epistasis (2) Chromosome Y has most genes
(4) Aneuploidy (3) The functions are unknown for over 50% of
discovered genes
SECTION - B (4) Human genome contains 3164.7 million bp
136. If a female carrier of haemophilic gene marries a
haemophilic male. Then what could be the 143. Match the varieties of different crops with their
probability of their daughter to be haemophilic associated examples
(1) 100% (2) 25% (A) Pusa shubhra (i) Cauliflower
(3) 50% (4) 0% (B) Pusa komal (ii) Bhindi
(C) Prabhani kranti (iii) Cowpea
137. Identify the wrongly matched pair
(D) Pusa Gaurav (iv) Brassica
(1) Klinefelter syndrome – Sterility in males
A B C D
(2) Turner syndrome – XXY condition
(1) i iii ii iv
(3) Haemophilia – Sex linked recessive
(2) i iii iv ii
(4) Thalassemia – Anaemia
(3) ii i iii iv
138. In a RNA molecule (4) iv iii i ii
(1) Every nucleotide residue has on additional –
144. Which enzymes are used in detergents
OH group present at 3'-position in ribose
(2) 5-methyl uracil is found at place of thymine formulations helps to remove oily stains from the
(3) A single strand is present which is self- laundry?
replicating (1) Pectinases (2) Lipases
(4) RNA has a backbone made up of phosphate (3) Proteases (4) Hydrolases
and ribose sugar
145. Flocks are
139. Experimental proof that DNA replicates semi- (1) Masses of anaerobic bacteria associated with
conservatively is given by fungal filaments
(1) Meselson and Stahl (2) Masses of aerobic bacteria associated with
(2) Hershey and Chase fungal filaments
(3) Watson and Crick (3) Masses of green algae associated with bacteria
(4) Avery and Macleod (4) Algal and fungal association to form mesh like
structure
140. If following is the sequence of nucleotides in
mRNA, what will be the sequence of amino acids 146. In aquatic animals body concentrations of body
coded by it? fluids change with that of ambient air, water
5'AUG UUC UCU GGG UGC GUU3' osmotic concentration. These animals are
(1) met – phe – cys – ser – gly – val (1) Regulators
(2) met – cys – phe – gly – val – ser (2) Partial regulators
(3) met – phe – ser – gly – cys – val (3) Inhibitors
(4) phe – met – cys – gly – ser – val (4) Conformers

141. Assertion (A): Endodermis is impervious to water 147. Assertion (A): ATP is utilised at two steps in
because of a band of suberized matrix called glycolysis.
casparian strips. Reason (R): Two molecules of ATP are
Reason (A): Movement of water through root synthesized during glycolysis.
layers is apoplastic in the endodermis. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is correct
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is correct explanation of (A)
explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
explanation of (A) (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

[14]
148. Rate of formation of new organic matter by 150. A scrubber is used to remove pollutants in exhaust
consumers is called of a chemical industrial plant. It removes gases like
(1) Secondary productivity (1) SO2
(2) GPP (2) CO2
(3) Primary productivity (3) Ozone and CH4
(4) NPP (4) Nitrous oxides

149. Identify the wrong matched extincted species and

the respective country
(1) Dodo – Mauritius
(2) Thylacine – Russia
(3) Quagga – Africa
(4) Tiger – Bali

SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)

SECTION - A (1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

151. Adamsia is known as (2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(1) Sea-pen (2) Sea-fan (3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Sea-anemone (4) Sea-fur (4) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

152. Which of the following phylum shows polymorphism? 157. Which of the following muscle fibres donot show
(1) Porifera striation and taper at both ends
(2) Coelentrata (1) Cardiac muscle fibre
(3) Ctenophora (2) Smooth muscle fibre
(4) Platyhelminthes (3) Skeletal muscle fibre
(4) Voluntary muscle fibre
153. Ecdysis is
(1) Process of shedding of exoskeleton at regular 158. Choose the correct statement about cellulose.
interval
(1) Cellulose contain complex helices and hence
(2) Occurrence of the same species in more than
hold I2
one type of individual
(2) Cellulose is branched hetero polysaccharide
(3) Alternation of generation
(3) It is the most abundant organic compound in
(4) All of these
the biosphere
(4) Cotton fibre contain no cellulose
154. Which of the following statement is without
exception for sponges?
159. Alcoholic amino acid is
(1) They all have calcareous spicules
(2) They have high regenerative power (1) Cysteine
(3) They are found only in marine (2) Methionine
(4) They are all radially symmetrical (3) Serine
(4) Histidine
155. Choose the correct statements:
(1) All chordate have a dorsal heart 160. Assertion (A): Protein is a heteropolymer.
(2) Notochord in all vertebrate is replaced by a Reason (R): Proteins are large-sized macromolecule
cartilaginous or bony vertebral column having one or more polypeptides.
(3) Cyclostome have a circular and suctorial mouth Choose the appropriate option:
(4) All reptiles possess a three-chambered heart (1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
156. Read the given statements and select the correct (3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
option for Periplanata. correct explanation of (A)
Statement I: Foregut is lined by chitinous cuticle. (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
Statement II: This region does permit any correct explanation of (A)
digestive, secretory or absorptive activity.

[15]
161. Which of the following is nucleoside? 170. The total duration of cardiac cycle is
(1) Adenine (2) Adenosine (1) 0.8 second (2) 0.7 second
(3) Adenylic acid (4) All of these (3) 0.1 second (4) 0.5 second

162. 10 base pairs per turn is present in 171. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. nodal tissue of
(1) A-form of DNA the heart.
(2) B-form of DNA (1) The entire nodal tissue from sino-atrial node
(3) C-form of DNA to purkinje fibre has the ability to generate
(4) D-form of DNA action potentials
(2) All parts of nodal tissue can generate same
163. Sugars such as glycogen are characterized by number of action potential per minute
presence of which set of functional groups?
(3) Both sino-atrial and atrio-ventricular nodes
(1) Hydroxyl and amino
are present in right atrium
(2) Sulfhydryl and phosphate
(4) Sino-atrial node normally acts as the
(3) Carbonyl and hydroxyl
pacemaker.
(4) Carbonyl and amino

172. Uricotelism is found in

164. Phosphodiester bond is characteristically found in
(1) Deoxyribonucleic acid (1) Mammals and birds
(2) Chitin (2) Fishes and fresh water protozoans
(3) Protein (3) Birds, reptiles and insects
(4) Cellulose (4) Frogs and toads

165. Which of the following are not polymeric? 173. All of the following organisms excrete
(1) Nucleic acid (2) Proteins nitrogenous waste as uric acid in the form of pellet
(3) Polysaccharide (4) Lipids or paste except.
(1) Kiwi (2) land snails
166. The opening of oesophagus into the stomach is (3) Lizard (4) Cartilaginous fish
regulated by
(1) Pancreatic duct 174. Locomotory structures in macrophages found in
(2) Sphincter of oddi tissues are
(3) Duct of santorini (1) Flagella (2) Cilia
(4) Gastro-oesophageal sphincter (3) Stereocilia (4) Pseudopodia

167. Assertion (A): In mammals, complex respiratory

175. The number of lumbar vertebrae in human
system has developed.
skeleton is
Reason (R): Mammalian skin is impermeable to
(1) 12 (2) 7
gases.
Choose the correct option: (3) 5 (4) 2
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A) 176. Activities of cerebellum are
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the (1) All involuntary but may involve learning in
correct explanation of (A) their early stage
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (2) All voluntary and may involve learning in
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false their early stage
(3) All voluntary and do not involve learning in
168. CO2 transported as HbCO2 is their early stage
(1) 7% (2) 23% (4) All involuntary and do not involve learning in
(3) 70% (4) All of these their early stage

169. The total volume of air present in the lungs after

177. Depolarisation of neural membranes is caused due to
maximum inspiration is.
(1) Rapid influx of Na+ ions
(1) ERV + TV + IRV
(2) Rapid influx of K+ ions
(2) RV + ERV + TV + IRV
(3) IC – FRC (3) Rapid efflux of Na+ ions
(4) IC + ERV (4) Rapid influx of Cl– ions

[16]
178. Nervous system differs from endocrine system SECTION - B
because in the former
186. Which of the following experiments suggests that
(1) Transmission of information is comparatively
simplest living organisms could not have
slower
originated spontaneously from non-living matter?
(2) Response is comparatively slower
(1) Larvae could appear in decaying organic matter
(3) Response is of longer duration
(2) Microbes did not appear in stored meat
(4) Response is limited to only those cells which
(3) Microbes appeared from unsterilized organic
are innervated by neurons
matter
179. Hyposecretion of which hormone since pregnancy (4) Meat was not spoiled when heated and kept in
causes stunted growth in human? a sealed vessel
(1) PRH (2) FSH
(3) Thyroxine (4) Insulin 187. Reason of fast speciation in present day crop plant is
(1) Drift
180. Trophoblast is not involved in the formation of (2) Isolation
(1) Protective and trophic membrane (3) Polyploidy
(2) Foetal portion of placenta (4) Sexual reproduction
(3) Body of developing embryo
(4) Chorionic villi 188. What was the most significant trend in the
evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his
181. Seminal plasma in human males is rich in ancestors?
(1) Ribose and potassium (1) Increasing cranial capacity
(2) Fructose and calcium (2) Upright posture
(3) Glucose and calcium (3) Shortening of Jaw
(4) DNA and testosterone (4) Binocular vision

182. Secretions from which one of the following are 189. Which of the following pair of diseases is caused
rich in fructose, calcium and some enzymes? by virus?
(1) Male accessory gland (1) Rabies, mumps
(2) Liver (2) Cholera, tuberculosis
(3) Pancreas (3) Typhoid, tetanus
(4) Salivary gland (4) AIDS, syphilis

183. Statement I: Surgical methods, also called 190. The term active immunity means
sterilisation, are generally adviced for the (1) Increasing rate of heart beat
male/female partner a terminal method to prevent (2) Increasing quantity of blood
any more pregnancies. (3) Resistance developed after disease
Statement II: Surgical intervention blocks gamete (4) Resistance developed before disease
transport and thereby prevent conception.
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
191. Saline solution is given to patient of cholera
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
because
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(1) Na+ prevent water loss from body
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(2) NaCl function as regulatory material
(3) NaCl produces energy
184. Evolutionary biology is the study of
(4) NaCl is antibacterial
(1) Civilisation
(2) History of life forms on earth
(3) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium 192. Which of the following organisation is mainly
(4) Reproductive success related with AIDS?
(1) NACO
185. All of the following are the mammals wholly (2) DOTS
living in water except. (3) RCH
(1) Penguins (2) Dolphins (4) WHO
(3) Seals (4) Sea-cows

[17]
193. Assertion (A): Fish is a rich source of protein for 197. PCR proceeds in three distinct steps governed by
cattle and poultry temperature, they are in order of
Reason (R): Fish meal is prepared from the non- (1) Denaturation, Annealing, synthesis extension
edible parts of fishes such as tails, fins and bones. (2) Synthesis, Annealing, Denaturation
Choose the appropriate option: (3) Annealing, Synthesis, Denaturation
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the (4) Denaturation, synthesis, Annealing
correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but the (R) is not the 198. Which of the following is considered as molecular
correct explanation of (A) glue?
(3) (A) is true statement but (R) is false (1) Alkaline phosphatase
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false statements (2) Restriction endonuclease
(3) DNA ligase
194. PCR technique is best for (4) DNA polymerase
(1) RNA synthesis
(2) Protein amplification 199. DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive
(3) DNA amplification molecule is called
(4) DNA ligation (1) Plasmid (2) Vector
(3) Probe (4) Clone
195. Addition of antibiotic in chemical engineering
process helps in 200. Find the correct match
(1) Mixing and aeration of media (1) Cry I Ac → Corn borer
(2) Maintaining anti-foaming condition (2) Cry II Ab → Cotton bollworm
(3) Maintaining aseptic condition (3) Cry I Ab → Cotton bollworm
(4) Maintenance of constant temperature & pH (4) Cry II Ac → Corn borer

196. Extraction of bonds of DNA of interest from the

agrose gel is termed as
(1) Downstream processing
(2) Upstream processing
(3) Elution
(4) Insertional inactivation

PW Web/App - https://smart.link/7wwosivoicgd4

Library- https://smart.link/sdfez8ejd80if

[18]