”û¡Öß ¯ÖÖ¾ÖÃÖÖ»ÖÖ £ÖÖÓ²Ö¾Öæ ¿ÖÛúŸÖ ®ÖÖÆüß ¯ÖÞÖ ¯ÖÖ¾ÖÃÖÖŸÖ

£ÖÖÓ ² ÖÞµÖÖ“Öê ¬ÖÖ›ü Ã Ö ®ÖŒÛúß ¤ê ü ‰ú ¿ÖÛúŸÖê , ŸÖÃÖê “ Ö

†ÖŸ´Ö×¾ÖÀ¾ÖÖÃÖ µÖ¿ÖþÖß ÆüÖêÞµÖÖ“Öß ÜÖÖ¡Öß ¤êü‰ú ¿ÖÛúŸÖ
®ÖÖÆüß ¯ÖÞÖ ÃÖÓ‘ÖÂÖÔ Ûú¸üÞµÖÖ“Öß ¯ÖÏê¸üÞÖÖ ®ÖŒÛúß ¤êü‰ú ¿ÖÛúŸÖÖê.
Mark Group Target NEET-2023-24 (Round-I) Date : 05/01/2024
720 PCB Vijaypath Test Series-Test : 14(52) Time : 03 Hrs. 20 Mins.

Physics - 50 Chemistry - 50 Biology - 100

Question Booklet Version Roll Number Question Booklet Sr. No.
(Write this number

11
P-11 on your Answer
Sheet)

• Today’s Test Syllabus •

Physics : Electromagnetic Induction + Alternating Current
Chemistry : Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers + Amines
Biology : Human Reproduction + Reproductive Health
• Next Test Syllabus • Date : 07/01/2024
Physics : Electrostatics and Capacitance + Current Electricity + Magnetic Effect of Electric Current
+ Magnetism + Electromagnetic Induction + Alternating Current
Chemistry : Thermodynamics + Equilibrium + H.D.A. + Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers + Amines
Biology : Locomotion and Movement + Neural Control and Coordination + Cell Cycle-Cell Division
+ Biological Classification + Human Health and Diseases + Microbes in Human Welfare +
Ecosystem + Human Reproduction + Reproductive Health

PHYSICS
RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**

3. A coil is placed in a magnetic field B as shown

Section : A below : [ NCERT Page-211]
1. In a coil of resistance 8 , the magnetic flux
due to an external magnetic field varies with
2 2
time as   (9  t ) . The value of total heat
3
produced in the coil, till the flux becomes zero,
will be ________ J. [ NCERT Page-209]
1) 1 J 2) 2 J 
A current is induced in the coil because B is
3) 20 J 4) 10 J
2. A resistance of 40  is connected to a source 1) Outward and decreasing with time
of alternating current rated 220V, 50Hz. Find 2) Parallel to the plane of coil and decreasing with
the time taken by the current to change from time
its maximum value to rms value
3) Outward and increasing with time
[ NCERT Page-235]
1) 2.5 ms 2) 1.25 ms 4) Parallel to the plane of coil and increasing with
3) 2.5 s 4) 0.25 s time

PCB TEST : 14(52) 1 Date : 05/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
4. In a fluorescent lamp choke (a small 7. For a series LCR circuit,

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
transformer) 100 V of reverse voltage is I vs  curve is shown
produced when the choke current changes a) To left of r , the circuit
uniformly from 0.25 A to 0 in a duration of 0. is mainly capacitive
025 ms. The self-inductance of the choke (in mH) b) To left of r , the circuit
is mainly inductive
is estimated to be_______. [ NCERT Page-222]
c) At r , impedance of the circuit is equal to the
1) 20 2) 10 resistance of the circuit
d) At r , impedance of the circuit is 0
3) 30 4) 40
Choose the most appropriate answer from
5. A metallic rod of length ‘l’ the options given below [ NCERT Page-248]
1) (a) and (d) only 2) (b) and (d) only
is tied to a string of length
3) (a) and (c) only 4) (b) and (c) only
2l and made to rotate with 8. Statement I : The reactance of an ac circuit is
angular speed  on a zero. It is possible that the circuit contains a
horizontal table with one capacitor and an inductor. [ NCERT Page-252]
end of the string fixed. If Statement II : In ac circuit, the average power
there is a vertical magnetic field ‘B’ in the delivered by the source never becomes zero.
region, the e.m.f. induced across the ends of 1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
the rod is [ NCERT Page-214]
3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
2 Bl 2 3 Bl 2 9. In a circuit consisting
1) 2)
2 2 of a capacitance and a
generator with alternating
4 Bl 2 5 Bl 2 emf Eg = Eg0 sin t VC and
3) 4) I C are the voltage and
2 2
current. Correct phasor diagram for such
6. An AC current is given by circuit is [ NCERT Page-241]
I = I1 sin t + I2 cost
A hot wire ammeter will give a reading
1) 2)
2
I I 2 I1  I2
1 2
1) 2)
2 2

I1  I2 I12  I22
3) 4) 3) 4)
2 2 2

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 14(52) 2 Date : 05/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
10. In an LCR circuit shown in the following 12. A conducting circular loop is placed in a

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
figure, what will be the readings of the uniform magnetic field B = 0.025 T with its
voltmeter across the resistor and ammeter if plane perpendicular to the loop. The radius
an a.c. source of 220 V and 100 Hz is connected of the loop is made to shrink at a constant rate
to i t as show n? [ NCERT Page-245] of 1 mm s–1. The induced emf, when the radius
is 2 cm, is [ NCERT Page-230]
1) 2 V 2) 2 V


3) V 4) V
2
13. The variation of induced
current in the coil with
1) 800 V, 8 A 2) 110 V, 1.1 A
time is shown in the graph
3) 300 V, 3 A 4) 220V, 2.2 A when magnetic flux
11. In column-I Nature of ac circuit is given and through a coil is changed.
in column-II phasor diagrammer is given.
Match the columns. [ NCERT Page-239] If resistance of coil is 10 , then the total
change in flux of coil will be [ NCERT Page-209]
Column I Column II 1) 4 2) 8
a) Only inductance i)
3) 2 4) 6
14. A vertical bar magnet is dropped from the
shown position on the axis of a fixed metallic
b) Only capacitance ii) coil, as shown in figure-I. In figure-II, the
magnet is fixed and horizontal coil is dropped.
If the accelerations of the magnet and coil are
a1 and a2 , respectively, then [ NCERT Page-211]
c) Only resistance iii)

d) Inductance and iv)

resistance in
series
v)

1) a-ii, b-i, c-v, d-iv 2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv 1) a1 > g , a2 > g 2) a1 > g , a2 < g
3) a-iii, b-i, c-v, d-iv 4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv 3) a1 < g , a2 < g 4) a1 < g, a2 > g

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 14(52) 3 Date : 05/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
15. A conducting rod AB of 18. The reading of ammeter in the circuit is

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
length l = 1 m is moving
at a velocity v = 4 m/s,
making an angle 30°
with its length. If a uniform magnetic field [ NCERT Page-251]
B = 2T exists in a direction perpendicular to
the plane of motion, then [ NCERT Page-213]
1) 2 A 2) 2.4 A
1) VA – VB = 8 V 2) VA – VB = 4 V
3) zero 4) 1.7 A
3) VB – VA = 8 V 4) VB – VA = 4 V
19. In an ac circuit the current is given by
16. A metallic rod completes its circuit, as shown
i = 5 sin (100t –/2) and the ac potential is
in the figure. The circuit is normal to a magnetic
V = 200 sin (100)t, the power consumption is
field of B = 0.15 T. If the resistance of the rod is
3 , the force required to move the rod with a [ NCERT Page-252]
constant velocity of 2 m/s is [ NCERT Page-212] 1) 20 W 2) 40 W
3) 100 W 4) 0 W
20. In series LR circuit XL = 3R. Now , a capacitor
with XC = R is added in series, the ratio of new
to old power factor is [ NCERT Page-252]

1
1) 2 2)
1) 3.75 × 10–3 N 2) 3.75 × 10–2 N 2
3) 3.75 × 10–5 N 4) 3.75 × 10–4 N 3) 2 4) 1
17. The given graphs below depict the dependence 21. In a series LR circuit, the voltage drop across
of two reactive impedances X1 and X2 on the inductor is 8 V and across resistor is 6 V. The
frequency of the alternating emf applied voltage applied and power factor of circuit
individually to them. We can then say that respectively are [ NCERT Page-252]
1) 14 V, 0.8 2) 10 V, 0.8
3) 10 V, 0.6 4) 14 V, 0.6

[ NCERT Page-241] 22. In a step-up transformer, the ratio of turns of

the primary and the secondary is 1 : 25 . If the
input voltage is 230 V and the current through
the load is 2 A, then the current in the primary
1) X1 is an inductor and X2 is a capacitor
coil is [ NCERT Page-261]
2) X1 is a resistor and X2 is a capacitor
1) 50 A 2) 25 A
3) X1 is a capacitor and X2 is an inductor
4) X1 is an inductor and X2 is a resistor 3) 12.5 A 4) 6.25 A

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 14(52) 4 Date : 05/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
23. Find the supply voltage in each case. 25. The self inductance of a coil which produces

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
[ NCERT Page-251] 5 V when the current changes from 3 A to
2 A in one millisecond is
Column I Column II
1) 5 milli henry 2) 50 milli henry
3) 5 henry 4) 10 henry
a) i) 10 V
26. A flexible wire, bend in
the form of a circle, is
placed in a uniform
magnetic field, perpendi-
b) ii) 8 2 V
cular to the plane of the
coil. The radius of the coil changes with time
as shown in the figure. The magnitude of
induced emf in the coil is [ NCERT Page-209]
c) iii) 4 V

1) 2)

d) iv) 52 V

1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i 2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv 3) 4)

3) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-iv 4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
24. Two bulbs B1 and B2,
27. A conducting rod
each having
resistance 50 , are rotates with a
connected according constant angular
to the figure. Which velocity  about
bulb will glow with the axis, which passes through point O and
more brightness? perpendicular to its length. A uniform
[ NCERT Page-244] magnetic field B exists parallel to the axis of
the rotation. The potential difference between
1) B1
the two ends of the rod is [ NCERT Page-214]
2) B2
3) Both will have equal brightness 1) 6Bl2 2) Bl2
4) Data is not complete 3) 10Bl2 4) zero

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 14(52) 5 Date : 05/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
28. A wire cd of length l and 31. A choke coil has

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
mass m is sliding 1) high inductance and high resistance
without friction on
conducting rails ax and 2) low inductance and low resistance
by , as shown. The 3) high inductance and low resistance
vertical rails are connected to each other with
4) low inductance and high resistance
a resistance R between a and b. A uniform
magnetic field B is applied perpendicular to 32. The value of quality factor is [ NCERT Page-250]
the plane abcd such that cd moves with a
constant velocity of [ NCERT Page-214] L
1) 2) L / R
R
mgR mgR
1) 2)
Bl B2 l 2 3) LC 4) None of these
mgR mgR 33. The r.m.s. value of potential difference V
3) 4)
B3 l3 B2 l shown in the figure is [ NCERT Page-235]
29. Eddy currents are produced when
[ NCERT Page-218]
1) a metal is kept in varying magnetic field
2) a metal is kept in steady magnetic field
3) a circular coil is placed in a magnetic field
4) current is passed through a circular coil
Vo
30. Figure shows two bulbs B1 and B2, resistor R 1) 2) Vo
and an inductor L. When the switch S is 3
turned off [ NCERT Page-219]
Vo Vo
3) 4)
2 2

34. A square of side L metre lies in the xy-plane

in a region, where the magnetic field is given

by B  B0 (2iˆ  3 jˆ  4kˆ )T , where B0 is a constant.

1) both B1 and B2 die out promptly The magnitude of the flux passing through
the square is
2) both B1 and B2 die out with some delay
1) 2 B0L2 Wb 2) 3 B0L2 Wb
3) B1 dies out promptly but B2 with some delay
4) B2 dies out promptly but B1 with some delay 3) 4 B0L2 Wb 4) 29 B0L2 Wb

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 14(52) 6 Date : 05/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
35. A series LCR circuit, containing 5.0 H 39. For a solenoid, keeping the turn density

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
inductor, 80 F capacitor and 40 resistor, is constant, its length is halved and its cross
connected to 230V variable frequency AC section radius is doubled, the inductance of
source. The angular frequencies of the source the solenoid is increased by [ NCERT Page-223]
at which power transferred to the circuit is
1) 200% 2) 100%
half the power at the resonant angular
frequency are likely to be [ NCERT Page-250] 3) 800% 4) 700%
1) 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s 40. If the vertical component of
2) 50 rad/s and 25 rad/s earth’s magnetic field is
3) 46 rad/s and 54 rad/s 6 × 10–5 Wb/m2, then what
4) 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s will be the induced
potential difference
Section : B
produced between the rails of a meter-gauge
36. Two conducting circular loops of radii R1 and
when a train is running on them with a speed
R2 are placed in the same plane with their
centres coinciding. If R 1 >> R 2, the mutual of 36 km/h? [ NCERT Page-213]
inductance M between them will be directly 1) 2 × 10–4 V 2) 6 × 10–4 V
proportional to [ NCERT Page-220] 3) 3 × 10–4 V 4) 9 × 10–4 V
R1 R2 41. At resonance, the voltage drop across the
1) 2)
R2 R1 resistor R is [ NCERT Page-248]

R12 R22
3) 4)
R2 R1
37. The core of a transformer is laminated because
[ NCERT Page-261]
1) ratio of voltage in primary and secondary may
be increased 1) 20 V 2) 220 V
2) energy losses due to eddy currents may be 3) 200 V 4) 10 V
minimised
42. The self inductance of a choke coil is 10 mH.
3) the weight of the transformer may be reduced When it is connected with a 10 V dc source,
4) rusting of the core may be prevented then the loss of power is 20 W. When it is
38. An induction coil gives [ NCERT Page-214] connected with 10 V ac source, then loss of
1) high voltage and high current power is 10 W. The frequency of ac source
will be (Take 2 = 10) [ NCERT Page-265]
2) high voltage and low current
3) low voltage and high current 1) 50 Hz 2) 60 Hz
4) low voltage and low current 3) 80 Hz 4) 100 Hz

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 14(52) 7 Date : 05/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
43. The vector diagram of 47. In a series LR circuit XL = R and power factor

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
current and voltage of the circuit is P 1 . When capacitor with
for a circuit is given. capacitance C such that X L = X C is put in
The components of the series, the power factor becomes P2 Then ratio
circuit will be [ NCERT Page-245]
P1
1) LCR 2) LR is [ NCERT Page-253]
3) LCR or LR 4) None of these P2
44. In the following circuit 1
1
the values of L, C, R, 1) 2)
and E0 are 0.01 H, 10 –5 2 2
F, 25  and 220 V,
3
respectively. The value 3) 4) 2 : 1
of current following in 2
the circuit at f = 0 and f =  will, respectively, 48. When you walk through a metal detector
be [ NCERT Page-245] carrying a metal object in your pocket, it raises
1) 8 A and 0 A 2) 0 A and 0 A an alarm. This phenomenon works on
3) 8 A and 8 A 4) 0 A and 8 A [ NCERT Page-248]
45. A coil of area A = 0.5 m2 is 1) Electromagnetic induction
situated in a uniform
2) Resonance in ac circuits
magnetic field B =
4.0 Wb/m 2 , and area 3) Mutual induction in ac circuits
vector makes an angle of 4) interference of electromagnetic waves
60° with respect to magnetic field, as shown in 49. A uniform magnetic field B exists in a
the figure. The value of the magnetic flux through direction perpendicular to the plane of a
area A would be equal to [ NCERT Page-207] square loop made of a metal wire. The wire
1) 2 Wb 2) 1 Wb has a diameter of 4 mm and a total length of
30 cm. The magnetic field changes with time at
3 a steady rate dB/dt = 0.032 Ts–1. The induced
3) 3 Wb Wb 4)
2 current in the loop is close to (Resistivity of the
46. At very high frequencies, the effective metal wire is 1.23 × 10–8m) [ NCERT Page-209]
impedance of the given circuit will be 1) 0.43 A 2) 0.61 A
______ . [ NCERT Page-239]
3) 0.34 A 4) 0.53 A
50. Magnetic flux (in weber) in a closed circuit
of resistance 20  varies with time t(s) as
 = 8t2 – 9t + 5. The magnitude of the induced
current at t = 0.25 s will be _______mA.
[ NCERT Page-209]
1) 250 2) 200
1) 1  2) 2  3) 4  4) 1.5  3) 25 4) 500

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 14(52) 8 Date : 05/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
Chemistry: Alcohols, Phenols & Ethers + Amines
SECTION : A H
55. Salicylic acid react with (CH3CO)2O  P..
51. Match the following. [Old NCERT Page-327]
1) Acetylsalicylic acid
Common Name Position of -OH group 2) Acetaldehyde
a Catechol i 1, 2
3) o-Cresal
b Resorchinol ii 1, 4
4) Formaldehyde
c quinol iii 1, 3
1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii 2) a-i, b-iii, c-ii
3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii 4) a-iii, b-i, c-iii
56. Where P and Q is?
52. Match the following. [Old NCERT Page-328]
Compound C-O bond length (in PM)
a Methanol i 142 1) Both are alkene [Old NCERT Page-345]
b Phenol ii 136 2) Alkene and ether
c Methoxy methane iii 141
3) Ether and alkene
1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii 2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii
3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i 4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i 4) Both are ether
53. Match the column [Old NCERT Page-337] 57. Consider the following reaction :
Compound pKa value
a m-Cresol i 10.1
b p-Cresol ii 10.2
c Ethanol iii 15.9
Here, product ‘X’ is [Old NCERT Page-338]
1) a-i, b-iii, c-i 2) a-iii, b-i, c-ii
3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii 4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii
54. Arrange the following sets of compounds in
order of their increasing boiling points.
Pentan-1-ol, butan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, ethanol, 1) 2)
propan-1-ol, methanol. [Old NCERT Page-334]
1) Methanol, ethanol, propan-1-ol, butan-2-ol,
butan-1-ol, pentan-1-ol.
2) Methanol, ethanol, propan-1-ol, butan-2-ol,
pentan-1-ol, butan-1-ol.
3) 4)
3) propan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, pentan-1-ol, butan-
1-ol, Methanol, ethanol.
4) propan-1-ol, pentan-1-ol, butan-1-ol,
Methanol, ethanol, butan-2-ol.
Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 14(52) 9 Date : 05/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
58. To prepare 3-ethyl-3-pentanol, which of the 62. Assertion : t–Butyl methyl ether is not prepared

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
following pairs of reactants should be used ? by the reaction of t-butyl bromide with sodium
1) CH3CH2COCH3 and CH3CH2CH2MgBr methoxide.
2) CH3CH2COCH2CH3 and CH3CH2MgBr Reason : Sodium methoxide is a strong
3) CH3CH2CH2COCH2CH3 and CH3MgBr nucleophile. [Old NCERT Page-345]
4) CH3CH2CH2COCH3 and CH3CH2MgBr 1) If both Assertion & Reason are correct & the
59. Assertion (A) : Alcohols have higher boiling Reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
points than ethers of comparable molecular mass. 2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
Reason(R): Alcohols & ethers are isomeric in nature. Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the 3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is
correct explanation of (A)
incorrect.
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A) 4) If the Assertion is incorrect and Reason is
correct.
3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct 63. Which of the following reactions will yield
60. Statement I : propan-2-ol? [Old NCERT Page-329]

H
CH3 CH3 1. CH2 = CH – CH3 + H2O  
| |
CH3  C  ONa + CH3Br  CH3  C  O  CH3 2. CH3 – CHO  3 (i)CH MgI

(ii)H 2O
| |
CH3 CH3 (i)C H MgI
3. CH2O 
2 5
(ii)H2O
Statement II : Above Example are SN2.
NeutralKMnO 4
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct 4. CH2 = CH – CH3 
2) Both Statement I & Statement II are incorrect
1) 1 and 2 2) 2 and 3
3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect 3) 3 and 1 4) 2 and 4
4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is 64. Under different conditions, nitration of
correct phenol yields [Old NCERT Page-337]
61 . Which of the following reactions does not 1. o-Nitrophenol 2. p-nitrophenol
involve reduction :
3. 2, 4, 6-trinitrophenol
1) R–COOH  RCH2OH
The correct sequence of decreasing order of
2) RCHO  RCH2OH
acidic nature of these phenols is :
3) R–CO–R’  R–CH2–R’
1) 3, 2, 1 2) 1, 2, 3
4) R–CH–R'  R–C–R'
3) 2, 1, 3 4) 3, 1, 2
OH O
Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 14(52) 10 Date : 05/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
65. Consider the following reaction. 68. Assertion : Pyridine is more basic than aniline

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
OCH3 Reason : In aniline lone pair electron of N is
delocalised in ring [Old NCERT Page-396]
i)CHCl  aq.NaOH
HX A 
3 H
 B  C
 ii)NaOH 1) Assertion and reason both are correct, and
reason is correct explanation of assertion.
Select the correct [Old NCERT Page-343] 2) Assertion and reason both are correct, and
1) The product obtained in ‘c’ called as kolbes reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
reaction. 3) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong.
4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
OH
CHCl 3 69. Statement-I : Aniline undergoes electrophilic
substitution reaction with Br2 in H2O.
2) In B it is
Statement-II : NH2 group increases electron
density of benzene at meta position.
OH [Old NCERT Page-402]
CHO 1) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is
3) The product in ‘c’ is and it incorrect
2) Statement-I is incorrect & statement-II is correct
3) Both statement-I and statement-II is incorrect
undergoes intramolecular H-bonding
4) Both statement-I and statement-II is correct.
4) ‘A’ is more acidic than ‘c’ and less acidic than 70. Select the correct statement among the
anisole following is
66. F–CH 2 –CH 2 –OH is stronger acid than a) Aniline does not undergoes Friedel-craft
CH 3 –CH 2 –OH reaction
1) –I effect of –F increases negative charge on b) Hinsberg’s reagent NOT reacted with
‘O’ atom of alcohol tertiary amine
c) Primary amine gives carbylamine reaction
2) –I effect disperse –ve charge on ‘O’ atom of
1) (a) only 2) (b) only
alcohol
3) (c) only 4) (a), (b) and (c)
3) –I effect disperse –ve charge on ‘O’ atom and
71. Which statement regarding ether is NOT
stabalise cation
correct.
4) –I effect disperse –ve charge an ‘O’ atom and 1) Anisole on reacting with HBr gives Aryl
stabalises anion bromide and methanol
67. Which of the following state is INCORRECT 2) Ethoxy ethane posses low boiling point than
1) Methylamine is strong base than aniline butan-1-ol
3) Williamson method useful for preparation of
2) Ethylamine is strong base than methylamine
symmetrical and unsymmetrical ether
3) Aniline is strong base than ethylamine 4) Alcohol forms intermolecular H-bond with
4) Cyclohexylamine strong base than aniline water.
Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 14(52) 11 Date : 05/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
72. Consider the following sequence of reactions 75. The correct increasing order of acidic strength

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
the product Y and Z are of [Old NCERT Page-336]
H PO OH OH
C 6H 6 + CH 3 –CH=CH 2 
3
heat
4
X
(i)O ,heat
 2
Y+Z [Old NCERT Page-332]
(ii )H O , heat
3
i. ii. iii. iv.
1) Benzaldehyde and acetaldehyde
NO 2 F
2) Benzoic acid and acetic acid
1) i < ii < iii < iv 2) i < iii < ii < iv
3) Phenol and acetaldehyde 3) i < iii < iv < ii 4) ii < iv < i < iii
4) Phenol and acetone 76. Which of the following statement is correct
73. Statement-I : The acidic strength of mono a) The nitration of phenol is faster than benzene
substituted nitrophenol is higher than phenol due b) Tertiary alcohol more reactive than
to electron withdrawing nitro group secondary alcohol towards lucas reagent
Statement-II : O-nitrophenol have less acidic than c) Diphenyl ether not break by conc. HI
p-nitrophenol and high acidic than
[Old NCERT Page-341]
m-nitrophenol.
1) (a) only 2) (b) only
In the light of above statement
3) (c) only 4) (a), (b) and (c)
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
77. Increasing order of basic strength
option given below. [Old NCERT Page-337]
I. Aniline II. p-Nitroaniline
1) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is
III. p-Methyl aniline
incorrect
1) I < II < III 2) III < II < I
2) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is
3) II < I < III 4) I < III < II
correct
3) Both statement-I and statement-II is incorrect CuCN
78. 
DmF
 A ‘A’ is
4) Both statement-I and statement-II is correct
alco.KOH
74. CH3  CH  CH3   A HBr
B [Old NCERT Page-405]
 R  O O R
|
Br N2 Cl CN
1) 2)
 C ‘C’ is [Old NCERT Page-309]
CH3ONa

1) Diethyl ether 2) Methyl propyl ether N2 Cl
3) Ethyl methyl ether 4) propyl ethyl ether 3) 4)
NC

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 14(52) 12 Date : 05/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
79. In the following reaction, identify ‘A’ :

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
A 
NaNO2  HCl
 Alcohol HNO / H SO
3
2 4
83. 298K P Identify major product
[Old NCERT Page-401]
1) CH3–CH2–CH2–NH2 2) CH3–NH–CH2–CH3 [P] in above reaction [Old NCERT Page-403]

NH 2
CH3 NH2
| NO2
3) CH 3  N  H 4) CH 3  N  CH3 1) 2)
|
CH3 NO2
80. Identify the compounds A, B and C in the
fallowing reaction NH2
[Old NCERT Page-376]

CH3Br 
Mg /Ether (1)CO2 CH3OH/ H
B  C

3) 4) None of these
 A 
water 
NO2
1) CH3COOH, CH3MgBr and CH3COOCH3
2) CH3MgBr, CH3COOH and CH3COOCH3 P2 O5
84. Acetamide   (A) 

4(H)
 (B), ‘B’ is
3) CH3MgBr, CH3COOH and CH 3  C  CH 3 [Old NCERT Page-393]
||
O 1) NH2 2) CH3CN
3) CH3COOH 4) CH3NH2
4) CH4, CH3COOH and CH3MgBr
85. The correct decreasing order of basic strength
81. In which reaction soda lime is used?’ of the following species is
[Old NCERT Page-383] H2O, NH3, OH , NH2–
1) Carboxylation 2) Hydration
1) NH 2 > OH– > NH3 > H2O
3) Decarboxylation 4) Hydroxilation
2) OH > NH2– > H2O > NH3
82. Which of the following on hydrolysis forms
acetic acid
3) NH3 > H2O > NH 2 > OH
1) CH3CH2OH 2) CH3CH2NH2
4) H2O > NH3 > OH > NH 2
3) CH3CN 4) CH3OH

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 14(52) 13 Date : 05/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
SECTION : B 89. Match List-I with List-II

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
86. Match the column. [Old NCERT Page-334] [Old NCERT Page-343]
Column-I Column-II Column-I Column-II

Column-I Column-II (1)NaOH

a) + CO
2 (2)H
  i.-elimination reaction
(Boiling
a Ethanol i 248point)
b Methoxymethane ii 351
(1)NaOH
c Propane iii 231 b) + CHCl
3 (2)H
 ii. Kolbe’s reaction

1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii 2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii c) (CH3)3C–I+CH3–ONa iii. Reimer-Tiemann

3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i 4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i 
  reaction

87. Identify ‘Z’ in reaciton [Old NCERT Page-405] d) (CH3 )3  CH  CH 3 iv. Williamson
|
C6H5NH2 
NaNO  HCl
 X  H / H2 O  OH
 Y   Z
2 CuCN
273K Boil
etherification
1) C 6 H5 –OH 2) C 6 H5 CH2–NH2
1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
3) C 6 H5 CH2 COOH 4) C 6 H5 COOH 2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
88. Select the statements : 3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, ,d-iv
i. Oxidation of phenol gives benzoquinone 4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
ii. Phenol is most acidic than p-chlorophenol 90. Match List-I with List-II
iii. Anisole undergoes electrophilic [Old NCERT Page-405]
substitution reaction gives meta product List-I List-II
iv. Tertiary alcohol more reactive towards Br2
a) RCONH 2   i.Gattermann reaction
KOH
dehydration than phenol
HX
Choose the correct option given below. b) ArN 2 Cl 
Cu 2Cl 2
 ii. Hinsberg’s reaction
1) Only i & ii are correct
HBr
c) ArN2Cl 
Cu
 iii.Hoffmann broamine
2) Only iii, ii & iv are correct
reaction
3) Only i and iv are correct
d) R–NH2 
PhSO2 Cl
 iv. Sondmeyer’s
4) i, ii, iii & iv are correct
reaction
1) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv 2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i 4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 14(52) 14 Date : 05/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
91. Phenol on treatment with CO2 in the presence

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
CH3
of NaOH followed by acidification produces
NBS /CCl 4 CH 3ONa
compound X as the major product. X on 94.  
 A   B
treatment with (CH3CO)2O in the presence of
catalytic amount of H2SO4 produces : The final product (B) formed in the above
[Old NCERT Page-338] reaction is [Old NCERT Page-345]
O
O 1) CO 2CH3 2) OCH 3
O CH 3
O CH3
1) 2)
3) CH3O OCH 3 4) CH 2OCH3
CO 2H
CO 2H
95. Match the Column
O O CH3 CO 2H
C Column I Column II
O
3) OH 4)
CO2H CHO
O CH3

O a) Vanillin i) OCH3
OH
PCC I  NaOH
92. 
CH2Cl 2
 A 
2
 B + CHI3
O
Choose the correct option for above reaction ||
1) A is benzaldehyde b) Cinnamaldehyde ii) C 6 H 5  C  CH 3
2) B is benzoic acid & C is methyl iodite c) Propiophenone iii)C6H5–CH=CH–CHO
3) A is acetophenone & b is sod. Benzoate
4) A is benzaldehyde & B is sod benzoate O
||
93. Anisole 
3 3 (CH ) CCl

2 3 HBr
  X
Cl / FeCl d) Acetophenone iv) C 6 H 5  C  C 2 H 5
AlCl 3 Heat

The product X in the above series of reactions 1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
is [N.B. 347]
2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
OCH3 Br Br OH
3) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
Br Cl Br Cl
4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
1) 2) 3) 4)
C(CH 3)3 C(CH 3)3 C(CH 3)3 C(CH 3)3

Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 14(52) 15 Date : 05/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
96. Arrange the following compounds in

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
increasing order of their acid strength.
Propan-1-ol, 2,4,6-trinitrophenol,
99. Assertion : posses high boiling point
3-nitrophenol. 3,5-dinitrophenol, phenol,
4-methylphenol. [Old NCERT Page-337]
1) 3,5-dinitrophenol, Propan-1-ol,
4-methylphenol, phenol, 3-nitrophenol, than
2,4,6-trinitrophenol.
2) 2,4,6-trinitrophenol., Propan-1-ol, Reason : p-nitrophenol has intramolecular H-
4-methylphenol, phenol, 3-nitrophenol, bonding.
3,5-dinitrophenol, 1) Assertion and reason both are correct, and
3) Propan-1-ol, 4-methylphenol, phenol, reason is correct explanation of assertion.
3-nitrophenol, 3,5-dinitrophenol, 2) Assertion and reason both are correct, and
reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
2,4,6-trinitrophenol.
3) Assertion is correct and reason is wrong.
4) 4-methylphenol, 2,4,6-trinitrophenol.,
4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
Propan-1-ol, phenol, 3-nitrophenol,
100. The end product in the following series of
3,5-dinitrophenol,
reaciton is
97. Match the following [Old NCERT Page-327]
Common Name IUPAC Name
a Glyceral i Propan-1,2,3 triol
Br
2 NaNO / HCl
b Anisole ii Methoxy benzene 
CCl 4
 A 
Sn/ HCl
B  2
O  5 C
C
c Penyl isopentyl ether iii 3-Methyl butoxy benzene
d O-cresol iv 2-Methyl phenol
H PO KMnO
1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv 2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, 3
 2
D  4
 E
H2O OH
3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv 4) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
COOH CH3
Br Br
98.
(1)conc.H2SO4
 IUPAC name of 1) 2)
(2)H2 O

product (major) [Old NCERT Page-329]

CH 3 COOH
1) 3, 3-dimethyl butan-2-ol
2) 3, 3-dimethyl butan-1-ol
3) 4)
3) 2, 3-dimethyl butan-2-ol
NH2 NO2
4) 2, 3-dimethyl butan-1-ol
Space For Rough Work

PCB TEST : 14(52) 16 Date : 05/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
Biology : Human Reproduction + Reproductive Health

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
Section-C : Biology 108. In the given diagram, human foetus within
uterus is shown. Select the option with
Section-A incorrect identification.
101. Read the given statements -
A. Uterus is inverted pear shaped.
B. Each testes possess 250 testicular tubules.
C. Mammary tubules open in mammary ducts.
How many of the given statements are
incorrect?
1) None 2) One
3) Two 4) Three 1) B - Placental villi 2) D - Amniotic sac
102. Which of the following is not found in 3) A - Umbilical cord 4) C - Yolk sac.
seminiferous tubules? 109. Plasma levels of two hormones in menstrual
1) Spermatogonia 2) Sertoli cells cycle are shown in the graph. Correctly
3) Interstitial cells 4) None of above. identify their source.
103. Select the incorrect statement about male
reproductive system :
1) Epididymis is located on the posterior surface
of testis
2) 1-3 seminiferons tubules are found in each testis P Q
3) foreskin covers the gland penis 1) Pituitary Adrenal
4) Urethral meatus is located in the glans penis. 2) Hypothalamus Ovary
104. Seminal plasma is having contribution from : 3) Ovary Pituitary
1) Prostate gland + seminal vesicles 4) Ovary Ovary
2) Seminal vesicles only 110. Which of the following transformation
3) Seminal vesicles + prostate glands + indicates spermiogenesis?
bulbourethral glands 1) Secondary spermatocyte  Spermatid
4) Seminal vesicles + prostate glands +
2) Spermatid  Spermatozoa
bulbourethral glands + testis.
3) Spermatogonia  Primary spermatocyte
105. Spot the odd one out from the following
structures with reference to the male 4) Primary spermatocyte  Secondary spermatocyte
reproductive system: [ NCERT EXEMPLAR] 111. The first milk colostrum is related with -
1) Rete testis 2) Epididymis 1) Nutrition
3) Vasa efferentia 4) Isthmus 2) Immunity
106. Number of sperms per ejaculation during coitus- 3) Nutrition and bone development
1) 1 - 2 lakh 2) 1 - 2 million 4) Nutrition and immunity.
3) 10 - 30 million 4) 200 - 300 million 112. How many of the following are not the female
107. How many of the following is/are not male accessory ducts in female reproductive system?
accessory glands : A. Oviducts B. Urethra
A. Seminal vesicles B. Prostate C. Uterus D. Vagina
C. Penis D. Oviducts
E. Ovaries
E. Bulbourethral glands
1) 1 2) 2
1) 1 2) 2
3) 3 4) 4
3) 3 4) 4
PCB TEST : 14(52) 17 Date : 05/01/2024
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
113. Seminal secretion or plasma is rich in - 120. Chromosome number insecondary
1) Fructose but no calcium spermatocytes and spermatogonia are

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
2) Fructose and calcium but no enzymes respectively -
3) Calcium and enzymes but not in fructose 1) 23, 23 2) 23, 46
4) Fructose, calcium and certain enzymes. 3) 46, 23 4) 46, 46
114. Out of the following, how many cells are 121. Which phase of menstrual cycle is having
involved in lining of seminiferous tubules? typical duration of 3-5 days?
A. Spermatogonia B. Sertoli cells 1) Menstrual phase 2) Follicular phase
C. Leydig cells D. Trophoblast cells 3) Ovulatory phase 4) Luteal phase.
1) 1 2) 2 122. Menstrual cycle is found in all of the following
except one-
3) 3 4) 4
1) Apes 2) Human
115. Select the set of correct statements -
3) Cattle 4) Monkeys
A. 15-20 mammary lobes are found in each breast
123. Secondary Oocyte develops a new membrane
B. Hymen is the reliable indicator of virginity
around it, which is termed as-
C. Length of fallopian tubes in human is about
1) Corona radiata
10-12 cm.
2) Discus proligerous
1) A, B 2) A, C
3) Membrana granulosa
3) A only 4) A, B, C
4) Zona pellucida
116. All of the following statements are correct
regarding clitoris except one - 124. In a sperm, Acrosome is located -
1) Usually torn during first intercourse 1) Anterior to mitochondria, behind the nucleus
2) Membranous covering over vagina 2) Anterior to nucleus
3) Reliable indicator of virginity 3) Behind the mitochondria
4) Can be broken due to cycling. 4) In the tail.
117. Perimetrium of uterus is - 125. At least _______ of sperms should have normal
shape for normal fertility.
1) Thin membranous layer
1) 10% 2) 30%
2) Thick fibrous layer
3) 60% 4) 80%
3) Thin muscular layer
126. Primary spermatocytes undergo meioses - I to
4) Thick glandular layer
form -
118. Tertiary follicle is characterized by all of
1) Secondary spermatocyte
following expect -
2) Spermatid
1) Undifferentiated theca
3) Spermatogonia
2) Theca interna
4) Germ cell.
3) Antrum
127. Number of mammary lobes in a normal female
4) 1st polar body
are -
119. Select the incorrect statement -
1) 2 - 4 2) 5 - 10
1) Female produces two types of ovum that vary
3) 15 - 20 4) 30 - 40
in type of sex chromosome
128. Which of the following is the result of meioses-
2) Cortisol hormone is increased in
II in spermatogenesis?
concentration many times in maternal blood
during pregnancy. 1) Primary spermatocyte
3) Chorionic villi help the trophoblast in 2) Spermatid
attachment with uterus 3) Secondary spermatocyte
4) Both (1) and (2) 4) Spermatogonia
PCB TEST : 14(52) 18 Date : 05/01/2024
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
129. Read the following statements- 135. Saheli is -
P. Each female foetus possess a couple of million 1) Once a day pill

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
gamete mother cells. 2) Once a week pill
Q. Spermatogenesis starts at puberty. 3) Once month pill
R. In semen, at least 40% sperms should have 4) Subcutaneous implant
normal shape for fertility.
Section-B
How many of the given statements are not true?
136. Select the set of correct statements -
1) None 2) One
A. World population reached 6 billion in 2000.
3) Two 4) Three
B. Lippes loop is a non-medicated IUD.
130. Select the option with correct identification of
C. Nirodh is a popular brand of condom for
the given contraceptive measure and the
the female
hormone essentially present in it.
1) A only 2) A and B
3) A and C 4) A, B and C
137. Identify the correct statement:
1) In addition to placental hormones, thyroxine
and Cortisol also increase in maternal blood
during pregnancy.
2) Presence of progesterone in urine indicates
pregnancy.
1) Copper T Progesterone
3) During embryonic development, mesoderm
2) Copper T Oestrogen
is the first germ layer to appear.
3) Implant Progesterone
4) Milk produced during initial days of lactation
4) Implant Oestrogen is devoid of antibodies.
131. Spermicidal creams and jellies are usually 138. Match between the following representing
applied with ______________ to enhance the parts of the sperm and their functions and
contraceptive efficiency. choose the correct option. [ NCERT EXEMPLAR]
1) Physical barriers 2) IUDs
Column-I Column-II
3) Oral pills 4) Vasectomy.
a Head i Enzymes
132. Lactational amenorrhea can extend usually b Middle piece ii Sperm motility
upto a period of :-
c Acrosome iii Energy
1) 2 months
d Tail iv Genetic material
2) 3 months
1) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii 2) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
3) 6 months
3) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii 4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
4) 9 months
139. A, B and C are representing various events of
133. Select the incorrect statement - menstrual cycle. Peak concentration of LH is
1) AIDS and hepatitis - B can also be transmitted expected -
by infected mother to foetus
2) Chlamydiasis is incurable STD.
3) Legalisation of MTP in India is done in 1971.
4) LNG-20 is a hormone releasing IUD.
134. Which contraceptive drug is developed by
NDRI, Lucknow? 1) in B 2) in C
1) Progestasert 2) Saheli 3) in A 4) Between B and C
3) LNG - 20 4) Mirena
PCB TEST : 14(52) 19 Date : 05/01/2024
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
140. Select the set of incorrect statements - 145. How many of following hormones are secreted
A. Most of the secondary follicles degenerate from placenta?

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
from birth upto puberty. 1. Progestogens 2. Relaxin
B. Mammary ducts join to form mammary 3. hCG 4. hPL
tubules in mammary glands. 1) 1 2) 2
C. Nucleus is diploid and elongated in sperms. 3) 3 4) 4
1) A and C 2) B and C 146. Select the set of correct statements -
3) A and C 4) A, B and C A. At the end of 2nd month of pregnancy,
141. Choose the incorrect statement from the limbs and digits are formed.
following: [ NCERT EXEMPLAR] B. Placenta is expelled out of uterus before
1) In birds and mammals internal fertilisation foetus during implantation.
takes place C. Semen with 60% sperms showing vigorous
2) Colostrum contains antibodies and nutrients motility indicates normal fertility.
3) Polyspermy in mammals is prevented by the How many of the given statements are incorrect?
chemical changes in the egg surface 1) None 2) One
4) In the human female implantation occurs 3) Two 4) Three
almost seven days after fertilization
147. Read the following statements -
142. Following are given reproductive events in
A. All coitus result in implantation
human :
B. hCG and relaxin, both hormones are
A. Fertilization B. Parturition
secreted during pregnancy only.
C. Gestation D. Gametogenesis
C. During pregnancy all events of menstrual
E. Implantation F. Insemination cycle including menstruation stop.
If we arrange the above events in sequence of How many of the given statements are correct?
occurrence, then the 3rd and 5th events will be
1) None 2) One
1) F and C 2) D and E
3) Two 4) All
3) A and C 4) F and D
148. Spermatogenesis is shown. Select the option
143. Select the set of incorrect statements - with correct identification -
P - Government of India has legalised MTP in
1951.
Q - Chlamydiasis and genital warts, both are
STD.
R - IUDs can be used as emergency
contraceptives
1) P and Q 2) Q and R
3) P only 4) None
144. Milk passes through following duct system
in Breast.
Alveoli  Mammary tubules  A  B 
Lactiferous ducts.
A and B are respectively -
1) Mammary duct, mammary ampulla 1) B - Secondary spermatocytes
2) Mammary lobes, mammary ampulla 2) A - Spermatogonia
3) Mammary lobes, mammary ducts 3) C - Spermatid
4) Mammary ampulla, mammary ducts 4) D - Primary spermatocytes

PCB TEST : 14(52) 20 Date : 05/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
149. Match the following. [ NCERT EXEMPLAR] 154. Indian population has crossed the figure of 1
billion in :

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
Column-I Column-II
1) April 1987 2) May 2000
a Trophoblast i Embedding of
3) April 2002 4) September 2005.
blastocyst in the
endometrium 155. Estimated world population by 2000 AD :
b Cleavage ii Group of cells that 1) 3 billion 2) 5 billion
would differentiate as 3) 6 billion 4) 7 billion
embryo 156. Government of India has legalised MTP
c Inner cell mass iii Outer layer of (Medical Termination of Pregnancy) in :
blastocyst attached to 1) 1951 2) 1971
the endometrium
3) 1976 4) 1987
d Implantation iv Mitotic division of
zygote
157. From the sexually transmitted diseases
mentioned below, identify the one which does
1) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv 2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i not specifically affect the sex organs:
3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv 4) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i [ NCERT EXEMPLAR]
150. P, Q, R and S are representing the hormone titres 1) Syphilis 2) AIDS
in menstrual cycle. Identify the hormones. 3) Gonorrhea 4) Genital warts
158. In those infertile Couples if usual corrections
are not possible, than they go for special
techniques known as :
1) Genetic engineering
2) DNA fingerprinting
3) MTP
4) Assisted reproductive techniques.
1) P - Progesterone, Q - Estrogen, R - LH, S - FSH
159. Which of the following is devoid of side effects
2) P - FSH, Q - LH, R - Estrogen, S - Progesterone
of steroidal hormones?
3) P - LH, Q - FSH, R - Estrogen, S - Progesterone
1) Vaults, Progestasert, Combined pills
4) P - FSH, Q - LH, R - Progesterone, S - Estrogen 2) LNG-20, Lippe's loop, Saheli
Section-D : Biology 3) Lippe's loop, Saheli, Cu 7
Section-A 4) Cu 7, LNG-20, Nirodh.
151. Select a veneral disease - 160. Select the incorrect statement :
1) Chlamydiasis 2) Chicken pox 1) Saheli is once a week pill.

3) Polio 4) All of the above 2) IUDs are ideal contraceptives for the females
who want to delay pregnancy and/or space
152. The correct surgical procedure as a contraceptive children.
method is: [ NCERT EXEMPLAR]
3) Diaphragms are very popular methods of
1) Ovarieetomy 2) Hysterectomy contraception in India.
3) Vasectomy 4) Castration 4) Multiload 375 is Cu releasing IUD.
153. A non - steroidal oral contraceptive drug - Saheli 161. According to 2001 census, 4ndian population
was developed by CDRI located in : was around :
1) Lucknow 2) New Delhi 1) 0.5 billion 2) 0.8 billion
3) Kolkata 4) Shimla. 3) 1 billion 4) 1.5 billion

PCB TEST : 14(52) 21 Date : 05/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
162. Condoms are one of the most popular 170. The method of directly injecting a sperm into
contraceptives becuase of the following ovum in assisted by reproductive technology

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
reasons: [ NCERT EXEMPLAR] is called : [ NCERT EXEMPLAR]
1) These are effective barriers for insemination 1) GIFT 2) ZIFT
2) They do not interfere with coital act 3) ICSI 4) ET
3) These help in reducing the risk of STDs 171. Select the correct statement -
4) All of the above 1) Assisted reproductive techniques are highly
163. Which of the following is not a barrier method expensive.
of contraception? 2) Genital herpes is curable
1) Condoms 2) Cervical caps 3) Pelvic inflammatory diseases doesn't occur in
3) Diaphragm 4) Progestasert. STDs.
164. Select the correct statement 4) MTP was legalised in India is 1951.
1) Saheli is a steroidal, once a week pill. 172. Select the set of STDs -
2) Many couples are nowadays adopting one- 1) AIDs and chickenpox
child norm. 2) Chikungunya and Dengue
3) Progestasert is a copper releasing IUD. 3) Malaria and Smallpox
4) World's population has crossed 1 billion in 4) Genital warts and hepatitis-B.
May 2000. 173. MTP is considered to be safe if it is done in -
165. All of the following are deterrants in adoption 1) First trimester 2) Second trimester
of ART (Assisted Reproductive Technologies) 3) Third trimester 4) Both (1) and (2)
except one - 174. Emergency contraception should be typically
1) Highly expensive applied within __________ hours of coitus.
2) Religious factors 1) 6 Hrs. 2) 72 Hrs.
3) Social factors 3) 10 days 4) 30 days
4) High education 175. In which technique, sperms are directly
166. STD caused by protozoan - injected into the ovum to form zygote -
1) Trichomoniasis 1) ICSD 2) IUI
2) Chlamydiasis 3) ZIFT 4) AI
3) Herpes 176. Nirodh is the popular brand of
4) Both (1) and (3) 1) Male condoms 2) Female condoms
167. Transfer of zygote in Fallopian tubes is - 3) Vaults 4) Diaphragms
1) ZIFT 2) GIFT 177. Marriageable age for females in India is -
1) 12 years 2) 18 years
3) IUI 4) AI
3) 21 years 4) 24 years
168. Fertile couples should be made aware of all of
following except : 178. Select the incorrect set -
1) Birth control measures 1) Non-medicated IUDs - Lippes loop
2) Sex determination by tests like amniocentesis 2) Barrier method - Cervical caps
3) Prevention of STDs 3) Oral contraceptive pills - LNG-20
4) Importance of breast feeding and care of 4) Surgical methods - Vasectomy
pregnant mother. 179. Which set of contraceptives provide physical
169. Which technique is termed as Test-tube baby barrier?
programme? 1) Cervical caps and Cu-T
1) ZIFT 2) IUI 2) Multiload 375 and spermicidal jellies
3) IVF-ET 4) GIFT 3) LNG-20 and condoms
4) Vaults and cervical caps

PCB TEST : 14(52) 22 Date : 05/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
180. Acquiring of STDs can be prevented by all of 187. How many of the following features are not
the following methods except one - related to Lippe's loop?

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
1) Using condoms during coitus. A. IUD
2) Doing sex with multiple partners. B. Non-medicated
C. Induces phagocytosis of sperms
3) Avoiding coitus with unknown partners.
D. Cu ion releasing
4) Consultation of doubtful condition with a E. Physically prevent meeting of ovum and sperms
doctor for early detection and treatment.
1) 2 2) 3
181. Diaphragm and cervical caps are usually 3) 4 4) 5
made up of - 188. When a female should take oestrogen-progesterone
1) Rubber 2) Polyethylene combined pills, during menstrual cycle?
3) Stainless steel 4) Decron 1) All 28 days
182. In India, it is one of the most widely accepted 2) For 21 days, starting from the 1st day of menstruation
methods of contraception by females - 3) For 21 days, starting from the end of menstrual
cycle
1) IUDs 2) Condoms
4) for 7 days, during menstruation
3) Diaphragms 4) Saheli 189. A contraceptive measure is shown in the
183. Which of the following is the set of hormone diagram. Select the correct option regarding it.
releasing IUDs?
1) Multiload 375, Lippes loop
2) Progestasert, LNG - 20.
3) Progestasert, Lippes loop.
4) LNG - 20, Multiload 375.
184. Conception is prevented if coitus is avoided
during fertile period between _________of
Contraceptive Type Example
menstrual cycle of 28 days.
Measure
1) Day 3 to 9 2) Day 10 to 17 1) Copper T IUD Multiload 375
3) Day 18 to 22 4) Day 23 to 28 2) Copper T Barrier LNG-20
185. Bilateral cutting and ligation of oviducts is 3) Cervical Cap Barrier Lippe's lOOp
termed as - 4) Implant IUD Norplant
1) Tubectomy 190. Select the incorrect statement -
2) Vasectomy 1) MTP in second trimester is much riskier than
first trimester.
3) Hysterectomy
2) Genital herpes is curable STD
4) Lactational amenorrhea 3) In Intracytoplamic sperm injection (ICSI),
Section-B sperm is directly injected in ovum
186. Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by 4) Pelvic inflammatory diseases, still birth and
the females. Choose the correct option from the infertility are some of the complications of STDs.
statements given below: [ NCERT EXEMPLAR] 191. Select the set of incorrect statements -
i. They are introduced into the uterus A. Oral contraceptive pills are very effective
ii. They are placed to cover the cervical region with least side effects.
B. Progesterone is most important component
iii. They act as physical barriers for sperm entry
of oral contraceptive pills.
iv. They act as spermicidal agents C. Nirodh is the popular brand of condom.
1) i and ii 2) i and iii 1) A and B 2) B and C
3) ii and iii 4) iii and iv 3) A only 4) B only

PCB TEST : 14(52) 23 Date : 05/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
192. Select the set of incorrect statements 197. Select the set of incorrect statements?
P - Second trimester MTPs are usually risky. A. Both male and female condoms can be self

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
Q - Hepatitis is incurable STD. inserted and give privacy.
R - Gamete Inter-fallopian Transfer (GIFT) is a type B. The duration of lactational amenorrhoea
of ART (Assisted Reproductive Technologies). can extend maximum upto 6 days.
1) P only 2) Q and R C. Diaphragm and cervical caps are made up
of rubber.
3) Q only 4) None
1) A only 2) A and B
193. Choose the correct statement regarding the
ZIFT procedure: [ NCERT EXEMPLAR] 3) B only 4) B and C
1) Ova collected from a female donour are 198. Sterilisation techniques are generally fool proof
transferred to the fallopian tube to facilitate methods of contraception with least side effects.
zygote formation. Yet, this is the last option for the couples because:
i. It is almost irreversible
2) Zygote is collected from a female donour and
transferred to the fallopian tube ii. Of the misconception that it will reduce
sexual urge/drive
3) Zygote is collected from a female donour and
transferred to the uterus iii. It is a surgical procedure
iv. Of lack of sufficient facilities in many parts
4) Ova collected from a female donour and
transferrerd to the uterus of the country
Choose the correct option: [ NCERT EXEMPLAR]
194. During IVF-ET (In vitro fertilization embryo
transfer), after fertilization' if embryo is 1) i and iii 2) ii and iii
having 8 or less number of blastomeres, than 3) ii and iv 4) i, ii, iii and iv
it is transferred to __A__ while if the number 199. Following statements are given regarding
is more than 8, it is transferred to __B__. MTP. Choose the correct options given below:
1) A = Fallopian tube, B = Fallopian tube [ NCERT EXEMPLAR]
2) A = Fallopian tube, B = Uterus i. MTPs are generally advised during first trimester
3) A = Uterus, B = Fallopian tube ii. MTPs are used as a contraceptive method
4) A = Uterus, B = Uterus iii. MTPs are always surgical
195. Select the incorrect statement - iv. MTPs require the assistance of qualified
medical personnel
1) In India MTP is legalised but with some strict
conditions. 1) ii and iii 2) ii and iii
3) i and iv 4) i and ii
2) Even breast cancer can occur as a ill-effect of
use of contraceptive measures. 200. Identify the given contraceptive method and
its type.
3) As an emergency contraceptive measure, IUD
should be inserted within 72 hours of
unprotected coitus.
4) Multiload 375 is a hormone releasing
contraceptive. 1) Condom, Barrier 2) Condom, IUD
196. Select the set of correct statements - 3) Diaphragm Barrier 4) Diaphragm, IUD.
A. Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are
Previous Exam Corrections
transferred into fallopian tubes. Date : 03/01/2024 Test No. 13
B. STDs are very common in age group of 15 Sr.
Set Q. No.
Correct Wrong/
Subject
to 24 years. No. Option Given Option
1 P 35 1 2 Physics
C. Legal adoption of destitute children P 78
2 1, 3 1 Chemistry
increases the population of country. Q 56
P 97
1) A only b) B and C 3 Bonus 4 Chemistry
Q 96
3) B only 4) A, B and C P 171
4 2 3 Biology
Q 183

PCB TEST : 14(52) 24 Date : 05/01/2024