VAJIRAM & RAVI

PowerUp Current Affair Test Series – 2025

CA Test – 05
(CA2255)

2025
35/-
 DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

VAJIRAM & RAVI

PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 05 – (CA2255)
TEST BOOKLET
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS
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THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR
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without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any
omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the
Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside.
DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You
will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more
than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY
ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.
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have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination
has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted
to take this Test Booklet with you.
9. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN ALL THE
QUESTIONS.
i. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be
deducted as penalty.
ii. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the
given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
iii. If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.

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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
1. With reference to biotechnology, what is a 4. Consider the following pairs:
'biobank'? Disease Caused by
(a) a repository of all the molecules that occur 1. Primary Amoebic Naegleria Fowleri
naturally in the living organisms Meningoencephalitis amoeba
(b) conservation of seeds for food and agriculture 2. Mpox Variola virus
in the event of a global crisis 3. Cervical Cancer Treponema
(c) a repository of biological samples that is held Pallidum bacterium
for use in medical research Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
(d) a complete set of genes or genetic material matched?
present in humans (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
2. Consider the following statements:
(c) 1 and 2 only
Statement-I:
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Bond yield in India is most likely to decrease if
there is an interest rate cut by the Federal Reserve
of the United States of America. 5. Consider the following statements:
Statement-II: Statement-I:
An interest rate cut by the Federal Reserve of the Different parts of the Sun rotate at different speeds,
United States of America leads to an outflow of depending on the latitude.
Foreign Portfolio Investments (FPI) from India. Statement-II:
Which one of the following is correct in respect of
Unlike the Earth, the Sun is not rigid but a massive
the above statements?
body of plasma.
(a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct
and Statement–II explains Statement–I Which one of the following is correct in respect of
(b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct, the above statements?
but Statement–II does not explain Statement–I (a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct
(c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is and Statement–II explains Statement–I
incorrect (b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are
(d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is correct, but Statement–II does not explain
correct
Statement–I
(c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is
3. With reference to communication technologies,
consider the following statements regarding incorrect
‘Pagers’: (d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is
1. They receive and send both alphanumeric correct
text or voice messages via radio frequencies.
2. They leave a small electronic footprint for 6. The primary purpose of the ‘Jalvi-store’ in India is
communication making it less vulnerable to to:
hacking or surveillance.
(a) streamline the process of approval of pumped
3. They can transmit basic messages without
storage projects
internet or cellular networks.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (b) provide subsidised tap water connections
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) promote the sale of products made by
(b) 1 and 3 only traditional artisans and craftspeople
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) simplify the procedure of application and
(d) 1, 2 and 3 grant of mining licences
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7. Consider the following: 10. Which of the following statements are correct
1. Cancer Moonshot Initiative with reference to the benefits provided by invasive

2. Maritime Initiative for Training in the Indo- species to the native ecosystems?
1. Some invasive species can help filter air and
Pacific
water contaminants, supporting ecosystem
3. Indo-Pacific Logistics Network
health.
4. Investors Network 2. Some Invasive species increase biodiversity
How many of the above have been launched by by outcompeting weaker native species.
the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QUAD)? 3. Some invasive species can be more drought-
(a) Only one tolerant than native species, helping
ecosystems adapt to climate change.
(b) Only two
Select the correct answer using the code given
(c) Only three
below:
(d) All four (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
8. Consider the following pairs: (c) 1 and 3 only
Tribe State (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Saora Uttarakhand
2. Mankidia Odisha 11. Consider the following:
3. Raika Karnataka
1. South China Sea
4. Thadou Manipur
2. Philippine Sea
How many of the pairs given above are correctly 3. East China Sea
matched? 4. Sea of Japan
(a) Only one pair Which of the above are linked by the Taiwan
(b) Only two pairs Strait?
(a) 1 and 2
(c) Only three pairs
(b) 3 and 4
(d) All four pairs
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
9. Distant Relatedness for Identification and Variant
Evaluation (DRIVE) refers to a: 12. Which one of the following best describes the
(a) tool for evaluating environmental factors term ‘Fiscal Profligacy’?
(a) Excessive government spending leads to high
affecting genetic expression
deficits and unsustainable debt levels
(b) tool for correcting mutations or modifying
(b) A situation where the government increases
gene functions
the tax rates to control inflation
(c) process for assessing the impact of drug (c) The strategic reduction of government
interactions on genetic disorders spending to achieve fiscal discipline
(d) method for identifying undiagnosed genetic (d) A government policy of reducing the impacts

diseases by clustering distant relatives of the Crowding Out effect

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13. It is often called the "Troy of the East" due to its 16. Consider the following statements:
strategic importance. It encompasses three large Statement-I:
hills - Rajagiri, Krishnagiri and Chandrayan Durg, The Global Methane Pledge was launched by
each fortified by successive rulers over centuries. China, the United States of America and India.
It is notable for structures like the Kalyana Mahal Statement-II:
and the Venkataramana Swamy temple. This is the China, the United States of America and India are
most likely description of: the three largest emitters of methane.
(a) Shivneri Fort Which one of the following is correct in respect of
(b) Gingee Fort the above statements?
(c) Vellore Fort (a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct
(d) Sankagiri Fort and Statement–II explains Statement–I
(b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are
14. Which of the following factors contribute to the correct, but Statement–II does not explain
formation of the heat dome effect in India? Statement–I
1. Poor soil moisture (c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is

2. Weakening of the monsoon incorrect

(d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is
3. Changes in the jet stream
correct
4. Deforestation
Select the correct answer using the code given
17. Which of the following statements is not correct
below.
regarding the ‘thermobaric weapon’?
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(a) It consists of a fuel container containing two
(b) 1 and 2 only
separate explosive charges.
(c) 2 and 4 only
(b) It involves precision-guided bomb strikes
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
targeting the area.
(c) It causes fragmentation and depletes ambient
15. If you visit the Depsang Plains located in the
oxygen from the environment.
northern part of Eastern Ladakh, which of the
(d) There is an international law in operation
following geographical features can you see in
specifically prohibiting its use.
this region?
1. Tso Moriri Lake
18. Consider the following countries:
2. Lingzi Thang Mountain Range
1. Nicaragua
3. Shipki La 2. Eswatini
4. Rimo Glacier 3. Somalia
5. Chip Chap River 4. India
Select the correct answer using the code given How many of the above are members of the
below. International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA)?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) Only one
(b) 2, 4 and 5 only (b) Only two
(c) 4 and 5 only (c) Only three
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) All four

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19. The Occupation Shortage Index (OSI), seen in 22. Consider the following statements regarding the
news recently, measures: various Rhino species:
(a) the gap between the required skill set and 1. Black rhino and white rhino species are found
in Africa whereas one-horned rhino species
available workforce in specific occupations
are found in Asia.
(b) the mismatch between job vacancies and the
2. White rhino species are the heaviest of all the
availability of suitable candidates
rhino species in the world.
(c) the quality of jobs across the various industries 3. Rhino species of Africa have two horns
(d) the gap between demand and supply of whereas all the species of Asian rhinos have
workers in a particular occupation only one horn.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
20. With reference to Priority Sector Lending (PSL), (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
consider the following statements:
(c) 1 and 3 only
1. All banks need to allocate 40% of their
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) towards
the PSL. 23. With reference to the recently released Periodic
2. Loans to small and marginal farmers for Labour Force Survey (PLFS) report, 2023-24,
purchase of land for agricultural purposes are consider the following statements:
covered under the PSL. 1. Unemployment Rate for males has increased,
3. Banks having any shortfall in lending to the while that for females has decreased compared
to 2022-23.
priority sector have to contribute to the Rural
2. In rural areas, the Labour Force Participation
Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF).
Rate (LFPR) has increased steadily in the last
Which of the statements given above are correct?
five years.
(a) 1 and 2 only 3. The Worker Population Ratio (WPR) for
(b) 2 and 3 only urban areas is higher than that for rural areas.
(c) 1 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
21. With reference to the Mineral Security Finance
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Network (MSFN), consider the following
statements:
24. Which of the following can be considered as a
1. It is aimed at strengthening global cooperation moon or a natural satellite in space?
in securing critical mineral supply chains. 1. A celestial body orbiting a large asteroid
2. India is one of the members of the MSFN. 2. A frozen ball of dust, ice and rock that orbits
Which of the statements given above is/are the Sun
correct? 3. An asteroid orbiting dwarf planets
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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25. In the Indian context, Secondary agriculture refers 29. Consider the following statements:
to which one of the following? 1. Elephants cover the body of a dead elephant
(a) Replacement of chemical inputs by with branches and soil as a mourning ritual.
homemade organic manures 2. Dholes, the Indian wild dogs, make a
(b) Replacing food crops with cash crops whistling sound when they attack their prey.
3. Muntjacs communicate with each other
(c) Transforming raw agriculture products into
through scent present in the glands on their
high-value finished goods
faces.
(d) Use of wasteland instead of farmlands for
Which of the statements given above are correct?
sowing crops (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
26. Which one of the following is authorised to (c) 1 and 3 only
conduct the ‘Drug Fail Quality Test’ in India? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Quality Council of India
(b) Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation 30. Consider the following:
(c) National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority 1. To increase milk procurement of dairy
(d) Central Drug Research Institute cooperatives by 50% over the next five years
2. To increase the share of dairy cooperatives in
the organised sector
27. The term “sponge city”, often in the news, refers
3. To increase the foreign direct investment in
to which one of the following?
the milk processing sector
(a) Use of synthetic rubber instead of asphalt for
How many of the above are the objectives of the
pavement in city planning
recently launched “White Revolution 2.0”?
(b) Extensive multi-model transportation nodes (a) Only one
for facilitating rapid mobility in the cities (b) Only two
(c) Complete underground electrical and optical (c) All three
fibre networks in urban areas (d) None
(d) Presence of abundant natural spots to absorb
rainwater and prevent flooding in urban areas 31. Which of the following statements are correct
regarding the recently adopted “Global Digital
28. Which of the following are features of the Compact”?
1. It was adopted during the 50th G7 Summit in
sustainable food system?
2024.
1. It is profitable throughout.
2. It aims to close all digital divides and
2. It has broad-based benefits for society.
accelerate progress across the Sustainable
3. It has a positive or neutral impact on the
Development Goal.
natural environment. 3. It enhances international governance of artificial
Select the correct answer using the code given intelligence for the benefit of humanity.
below: Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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32. With reference to India’s defence sector, what 35. Consider the following statements:
is Advanced Ballistics for High Energy Defeat 1. The combined Gross Domestic Product
(ABHED)? (GDP) contribution of southern Indian States
(a) Bulletproof jacket exceeds 30% of India’s total GDP.
(b) Laser beam-riding guidance system for
2. Sikkim has the highest per capita income in
missiles
India.
(c) Directed-energy weapon
3. Karnataka holds the largest share of India’s
(d) Anti-submarine missile system
GDP.
33. Consider the following statements: How many of the above statements are correct?
Statement-I: (a) Only one
Catalytic droplets can increase the speed and (b) Only two
efficacy of reaction manifolds. (c) All three
Statements-II: (d) None
Catalytic droplets allow a barrier-free environment
for molecules within the droplets to move freely.
36. In the context of economics, the term ‘soft landing’
Which one of the following is correct in respect of
refers to:
the above statements?
(a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct (a) an economy characterized by high economic
and Statement–II explains Statement–I growth, low inflation rate and full employment
(b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are (b) a situation where inflation in an economy is
correct, but Statement–II does not explain controlled without causing a recession
Statement–I (c) a significant slowdown in economic growth
(c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is that occurs after a period of rapid growth
incorrect
(d) the disbursement of loans at zero interest or
(d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is
below-market rate of interest
correct

34. With reference to the Law Commission of India, 37. Consider the following statements regarding
consider the following statements: the Anusandhan National Research Foundation
1. It is constituted by the President of India. (ANRF):
2. It was first established under the Government 1. It is an independent statutory body.
of India Act, 1935. 2. Its Governing Board is headed by the Prime
3. It can suo-motu undertake research in law Minister of India.
and review existing laws. 3. It aims to promote Research and Development
4. The Chief Justice of India is the ex-officio
(R&d) throughout India’s universities.
Chairperson of the Commission.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Only three (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All four (d) 1, 2 and 3
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38. “PARAM Rudra, Arka and Arunika”, recently 41. Consider the following statements regarding
seen in the news, are: the harnessing of biotechnology for economic
development:
(a) High-Performance Computing Systems 1. Precision fermentation can be utilized to
(b) Anti-Submarine Warfare Vessels produce animal-free milk with the same taste,
(c) Solar-Powered Unmanned Aerial Vehicles texture and nutritional value as natural milk.
2. Polylactic acid, an eco-friendly alternative
(d) Indigenous Missile Tracking Radar Systems to traditional plastics, is derived from
hydrocarbons.
39. The proposed TAPI gas pipeline will pass through 3. Genetically modified microorganisms can
be used to capture and convert atmospheric
which of the following countries? carbon dioxide into biofuels.
1. Turkmenistan Which of the statements given above are correct?
2. Afghanistan (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
3. Pakistan (c) 1 and 3 only
4. India (d) 1, 2 and 3
5. Iran
42. Consider the following statements regarding the
6. Azerbaijan difference between CRISPR and Prime Editing:
Select the correct answer using the code given 1. CRISPR-based systems can cause unintended
below: edits to untargeted regions of the genome.
2. Unlike CRISPR, Prime Editing does not
(a) 1, 3 and 6 only involve replacing an existing DNA sequence
(b) 2, 4 and 5 only with a new one.
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only 3. CRISPR cuts both strands of DNA, while
Prime Editing modifies only one strand.
(d) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
40. Which of the following are the benefits of (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 only
Quantum Natural Language Processing (QNLP)? (c) 2 and 3 only
1. It incurs lower energy costs as compared (d) 3 only
to conventional Large Language Models
43. What are ‘Dark patterns’, sometimes talked about
(LLMs).
in the media?
2. Unlike conventional LLMs, QNLP produces (a) Trade practices that undermine consumer
more accurate outputs. trust and pose significant risks to the economy
(b) Deceptive design practices that are used
Which of the statements given above is/are
to manipulate online user preferences and
correct? decisions
(a) 1 only (c) Visual design techniques used to enhance
user experience and improve customer
(b) 2 only
satisfaction
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Desirable practices that help to increase the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 accessibility of the dark web

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44. Which of the following are eligible beneficiaries 47. Consider the following pairs:
under the Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Military Exercise Held between India
Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY)? and
1. AL NAJAH Oman
1. Senior citizens aged 70 years and above,
2. Eastern Bridge France
irrespective of income
3. Dharma Guardian Japan
2. Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHAs)
How many of the pairs given above are correctly
and their families
matched?
3. Families without an adult member between
(a) Only one pair
the ages of 16 to 59
(b) Only two pairs
4. Construction workers and their families
(c) All three pairs
5. Households having motorized 2-wheeler
(d) None
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only 48. Which one of the following landscapes is most
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only viable for establishing a metapopulation of
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only Cheetah in India?
(d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only (a) Satpura-Melghat
(b) Ranthambore-Kuno
45. Consider the following statements regarding the (c) Kuno-Gandhi Sagar
Parliamentary Committee on Official Languages: (d) Corbett-Nainital
1. It was constituted under the provisions of the
Official Languages Act, 1963. 49. Consider the following statements:
2. The Union Home Minister acts as the Statement-I:
Chairman of the committee. The international price of gold tends to rise
3. It reviews the progress made in the use of whenever global oil prices increase.
Hindi for the official purpose of the Union.
Statement-II:
Which of the statements given above is/are
The value of the U.S. dollar is directly proportional
correct?
to the international price of gold.
(a) 1 and 2 only
Which one of the following is correct in respect of
(b) 2 only
the above statements?
(c) 1 and 3 only
(a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct
(d) 1, 2 and 3
and Statement–II explains Statement–I
(b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are
46. Which one of the following States has declared
India's second largest butterfly species, the correct, but Statement–II does not explain
Southern Birdwing, as its State butterfly? Statement–I
(a) Tamil Nadu (c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is
(b) Odisha incorrect
(c) Kerala (d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is
(d) Karnataka correct

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50. Consider the following pairs: 53. Which one of the following best describes the
Term Description property of heliotropic plants?
1. Supernova An explosion of a star at the (a) The ability of plants to grow in response to
end of its life the direction of sunlight
2. Magnetar A neutron star with an extremely (b) The tendency to produce more oil when
powerful magnetic field planted in clusters
3. Protostar A star with a rapid nuclear (c) The growth pattern that results in uniform
height among neighboring plants
fusion of hydrogen atoms
(d) The capacity to withstand reduced sunlight
How many of the pairs given above are correctly
due to shading from nearby plants
matched?
(a) Only one pair 54. Consider the following pairs:
(b) Only two pairs Festival State
(c) All three pairs 1. Nada Habba Meghalaya
(d) None 2. Kadalekai Parishe Karnataka
3. Bombe Habba Maharashtra
51. Consider the following statements regarding the 4. Megh Malhar Gujarat
impact of the Arctic Sea on the Monsoon rainfall How many of the pairs given above are correctly
in India: matched?
(a) Only one pair
1. A decline in ice levels of the central Arctic
(b) Only two pairs
Sea leads to less rainfall over western and
(c) Only three pairs
peninsular India. (d) All four pairs
2. Decreasing sea ice levels in the Barents-Kara
Sea region of the northern Arctic are linked to 55. Which one of the following best describes the
a delayed onset of the Indian monsoon. term "drug repurposing"?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) Use of previously approved medications for
(a) 1 only entirely different therapeutic indications
(b) Modification of existing drugs to create novel
(b) 2 only
compounds targeting new diseases
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Formulation of new drugs aimed specifically
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
at rare and orphan diseases
(d) Utilization of expired medications in
52. Which of the following statements are correct innovative treatment protocols
regarding Silicon Carbide:
1. It cannot be manufactured synthetically. 56. Which of the following marine energy sources are
2. Its electrical conductivity lies between that of considered in the Integrated Ocean Energy Atlas?
metals and insulating materials. 1. Solar energy
2. Wind energy
3. It is an abrasive substance used for smoothing
3. Tidal energy
non-metallic materials.
4. Salinity gradients
4. It can withstand very high temperatures. 5. Ocean thermal energy
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only (a) 1, 3 and 5 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

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57. The “Bio-RIDE” scheme aims to: 60. 'Teal carbon' refers to the carbon stored in:
(a) promote biofuel use in public transportation (a) urban green spaces and city parks
by providing subsidies to fuel companies (b) agricultural soils and croplands
(b) support agricultural biotechnology innovations (c) tidal salt marshes
for increasing crop yields in arid regions (d) non-tidal freshwater wetlands
(c) promote electric vehicles by funding startups
focused on green energy 61. In India, the Manas Tiger Reserve (MTR) has also
(d) strengthen India’s position as a global leader been declared as:
in biomanufacturing and biotechnology 1. World Heritage Site
2. Important Bird Area
58. Which of the following countries are members of 3. Elephant Reserve
the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC)? 4. Biosphere Reserve
1. Qatar 5. Ramsar Wetland Site
2. Bahrain Select the correct answer using the code given
3. Iran below:
4. Yemen (a) 1, 2 and 5 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
5. Iraq
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only
Select the correct answer using the code given
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only
62. The Philadelphi Corridor is a demilitarised border
(b) 1 and 2 only
zone located along:
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(a) Gaza Strip and Egypt
(d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(b) Russia and Ukraine
(c) Armenia and Azerbaijan
59. With reference to the Salt Pans, consider the
(d) Turkey and Greece
following statements:
1. These are low-lying areas where seawater is
63. Consider the following statements regarding the
allowed to evaporate, leaving behind salt and
Credit Default Swap (CDS):
other minerals.
1. It enables investors to manage their credit
2. The Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ)
risk by transferring it to another party.
prohibits all economic activities in salt pan 2. It can be used for arbitrage to exploit price
lands except for salt extraction and natural discrepancies between different markets.
gas exploration. 3. Mutual funds are prohibited from engaging
3. The government has recently allowed in CDS transactions to maintain market
private entities to lease salt pan lands for salt stability.
production. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only
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64. The ‘Delhi Declaration’, adopted during the 68. Consider the following statements with reference
2nd Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference 2024, to the windfall tax in India:
primarily focuses on: 1. It is levied in the form of a Special Additional
(a) enhancing regional military cooperation in Excise Duty (SAED).
the Asia-Pacific 2. It was first imposed in India during the 2007–
(b) promoting tourism through regional alliances 2008 financial crisis.
3. In India, the windfall tax rates on oil
(c) fostering sustainable growth in the civil
companies are reviewed every fortnight.
aviation sector
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(d) strengthening trade agreements among Asia-
(a) 1 and 2 only
Pacific nations (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
65. Consider the following: (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Syria
2. Israel 69. What is the primary function of the Drp1 protein
3. Mediterranean Sea in the human body?
4. Caspian Sea (a) RNA transcription
How many of the above share a border with Lebanon? (b) Mitochondrial fission
(a) Only one (c) DNA replication
(b) Only two (d) Protein synthesis
(c) Only three
70. Consider the following statements regarding the
(d) All four
India Post Payments Bank (IPPB):
1. It does not provide ATM services.
66. Which of the following regions is currently facing
2. It cannot sign the Inter Creditor Agreement
unprecedented wildfires, resulting in phenomena
(ICA) with other banks.
like "black rain," green rivers, and air pollution 3. It can only hold a maximum balance of ₹2
levels nearly 50 times above WHO's recommended lakh in the regular savings account.
limit? Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) South America (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Southeast Asia (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Northern Australia (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Eastern Europe (d) 1, 2 and 3

67. With reference to the Pink Bollworm (PBW), 71. Consider the following description:
consider the following statements: 1. It requires an annual rainfall of 1500-2000 mm.
1. It primarily damages cotton crops by 2. It thrives in soil types such as clay loam and
sandy loam.
burrowing its larvae into the cotton bolls.
3. It is mainly cultivated as an intercrop with
2. It spreads mainly through the air.
Arecanut and Coconut.
3. Frequent application of insecticides can
4. In India, it is predominantly cultivated in
protect infested cotton bolls from PBW. Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
Which of the statements given above are correct? Which is this crop?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) Cotton
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) Cocoa
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Coffee
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Tea

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72. The SCOMET List, sometimes seen in the news, 76. Which one of the following statements best
is associated with: describes the term "Quantum Gravity"?
(a) import of rare earth elements (a) It is an experimental technique used to
(b) agricultural subsidies for farmers
measure gravitational waves produced by
(c) export control of dual-use items
(d) import of Genetically Modified crops cosmic events like the merger of black holes.
(b) It is a computational method that uses quantum
73. With reference to the National Test House (NTH), algorithms to simulate complex gravitational
consider the following statements: interactions in astrophysical systems.
1. It works under the Ministry of Consumer (c) It combines the principles of general relativity
Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.
and quantum mechanics to describe the
2. It assists the Bureau of Indian Standards
(BIS) in the formulation of national standards behaviour of particles at subatomic levels.
of goods and services in India. (d) It refers to the merger of various galaxies in
3. It certifies drones to promote the drone the universe characterised by strong gravity.
manufacturing ecosystem in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct? 77. Consider the following ports:
(a) 1 and 2 only
1. Hambantota, Sri Lanka
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only 2. Dammam, Saudi Arabia
(d) 1, 2 and 3 3. Jebel Ali, United Arab Emirates
4. Haifa, Israel
74. In an economy, an increase in household financial 5. Duqm, Oman
savings may lead to: The India-Middle East Europe Economic Corridor
(a) increase in inflation
(IMEC) will connect how many of the above?
(b) increase in tax revenues
(c) decrease in per capita income (a) Only two
(d) increase in consumer spending (b) Only three
(c) Only four
75. With reference to the Centralized Pension (d) All five
Payment System (CPPS), consider the following
statements:
78. A Vertical Fiscal Imbalance (VFI) is best described
1. It will be implemented as a part of the
as a situation where:
Centralized IT Enabled System (CITES 2.01).
2. It requires pensioners to attend the branch for (a) State Governments’ spending is not financed
verification when their benefits start. through their revenues
3. The transfer of Pension Payment Orders (PPO) (b) Both Central and State Governments collect
from one office to another is not required if a equal revenues but have different spending
pensioner relocates or switches banks.
levels
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(c) State Governments collect all necessary
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only revenue independently
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) Local Governments depend solely on Central
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Government transfers for all their revenues
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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
79. Which of the following initiatives have been 82. With reference to the Indian wolf, consider the
launched for the growth of the semiconductor following statements:
industry in India? 1. It is a subspecies of grey wolf inhabiting
semi-arid and arid areas.
1. Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme
2. Its mating season is generally restricted to winters.
2. Design Linked Incentive (DLI) Scheme 3. It is listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife
3. Chips to Startup (C2S) Scheme Protection Act of 1972.
Select the correct answer using the code given Which of the statements given above are correct?
below: (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 83. Who was the first Indian to be honored with the
Ramon Magsaysay Award for his/her contribution
to community leadership?
80. The Combined Operational Review and Evaluation
(a) Verghese Kurien
(CORE) programme is associated with:
(b) Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay
(a) reviewing the effectiveness of school (c) Vinoba Bhave
education programs (d) Jayaprakash Narayan
(b) evaluating environmental impact policies
(c) assessing railway operations for safety and 84. Consider the following:
1. Vitamin A deficiency
efficiency
2. Iron deficiency anaemia
(d) improving joint operational planning and 3. Iodine deficiency
strategic skills among the armed forces How many of the above are the most common
forms of Micronutrient malnutrition?
81. Consider the following statements with reference (a) Only one
(b) Only two
to the Digital Agriculture Mission (DAM):
(c) All three
1. AgriStack is designed as a farmer-centric
(d) None
Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) to streamline
services and scheme delivery to farmers. 85. Consider the following:
2. The Digital General Crop Estimation Survey 1. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY)
(DGCES) integrates remote sensing data on 2. Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya
Yojana (AB-PMJAY)
crops, soil, weather, and water resources into
3. Pradhan Mantri Street Vendors Atmanirbhar
a comprehensive geospatial system. Nidhi (PM-SVANidhi)
3. The Krishi Decision Support System (DSS) is 4. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment
used for crop-cutting experiments to provide Guarantee Act (MGNREGA)
precise yield estimates. 5. Pradhan MantriAwas Yojana-Gramin (PMAY-G)
How many of the above schemes are integrated
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
through the eShram-One Stop Solution initiative?
(a) 1 only
(a) Only two
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) Only three
(c) 3 only (c) Only four
(d) 1 and 2 only (d) All five

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86. Which one of the following is the highest decision- 90. Consider the following information:
making body for Defence Procurement in India? Species Habitat IUCN Status
(a) Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) 1. Elongated Sal Critically
(b) National Security Council (NSC) Tortoise Deciduous Endangered
(c) Defence Procurement Board (DPB) Forests
(d) Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) 2. Malabar Tree Evergreen Least
Toad Forests Concern
87. Which of the following form the basis for detection 3. Indian Star Thorn Scrub Endangered
and deportation of illegal migrants in India? Tortoise Forests
1. The Foreigner’s (Tribunal) Order, 1946 In how many of the above rows is the given
2. The Passport (Entry into India) Act, 1920 information correctly matched?
3. The Immigration (Expulsion from Assam)
(a) Only one
Act, 1950
4. The Citizenship Act, 1955 (b) Only two
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (c) All three
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) None
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
91. Consider the following:
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. Cameroon
88. Consider the following statements regarding the 2. India
types of Hepatitis: 3. Estonia
1. Hepatitis A and E are typically transmitted 4. Iceland
through contaminated food and water. 5. Norway
2. Hepatitis B, C and D are spread through blood
How many of the above countries have
and from mother to child during childbirth.
3. ‘Havisure’ is India’s first indigenously been declared as Global Particulate Matter
developed Hepatitis A vaccine. (PM) Hotspots by the World Meteorological
Which of the statements given above are correct? Organization (WMO)?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) Only two
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) Only three
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Only four
(d) All five
89. Consider the following statements regarding
Foreign Venture Capital Investors (FVCI): 92. What is the strategic importance of developing
1. They are incorporated and established outside
Galathea Bay as a Major Port for India?
India.
(a) It would provide better access to energy
2. They are regulated under the Companies Act,
2013. supplies from the Middle East.
3. They need to obtain a certificate of registration (b) It would provide strategic control over the
from SEBI. crucial maritime point, the Malacca Strait.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (c) It would serve as a hub for the fishing industry,
(a) 1 and 2 only
boosting exports to Southeast Asia.
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) It would reduce dependency on Chinese
(d) 1, 2 and 3 shipping routes for trade with Africa.

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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
93. What is the primary aim of the BPaLM regimen, 97. Consider the following:
recently seen in the news? 1. Fuel in nuclear reactors
(a) To reduce the side effects of Tuberculosis 2. Targeting cancer cells
(TB) treatment drugs 3. Fuel additive to reduce emissions
(b) To increase the global supply of TB medications
4. Food additive for enhancing flavour
(c) To improve vaccine efficacy for TB
How many of the above are the common
(d) To shorten the duration of TB treatment
applications of ferrocene?
compared to previous drug regimens
(a) Only one
94. Consider the following information: (b) Only two
Missile Feature Range (c) Only three
1. Agni Surface-to- 1000 - 2000 km (d) All four
Prime Surface
2. Prithvi II Surface-to-Air 150 - 350 km 98. In the context of universe, the “glories” refer to:
3. Trishul Air-to-Surface 100 - 150 Km (a) stars with extremely strong magnetic field
4. Nag Air-to-Air 250 - 400 Km
(b) neutron stars that emit electromagnetic radiation
In how many of the above rows is the given
(c) multicolor light effects similar to rainbows
information correctly matched?
(d) vast clouds of gas and dust
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three 99. "Yato Dharmastato Jayah" that translates to
(d) All four "Where there is Dharma, there is victory", is an
official motto of which one of the following?
95. Consider the following statements with reference (a) Central Bureau of Investigation
to the Habitat rights recognition to the Particularly (b) National Legal Services Authority of India
Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: (c) Supreme Court of India
1. It provides them with rights over their (d) Indian Army
intellectual knowledge of biodiversity.
2. It is given under the provisions of the Forest
100. Consider the following statements regarding the
Rights Act, 2006.
Framework Convention on Artificial Intelligence:
3. Madhya Pradesh is the only State to provide
1. It is the first-ever international legally binding
these rights to the highest number of PVTGs.
Which of the statements given above are correct? treaty on Artificial Intelligence (AI).
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. It does not regulate technology and is
(b) 2 and 3 only essentially technology-neutral.
(c) 1 and 3 only 3. It requires States to carry out risk assessments
(d) 1, 2 and 3 of AI in respect of its impacts on democracy
and the rule of law.
96. Which one of the following is the first musical 4. India is a signatory to this Framework Convention.
instrument in the country to get the Geographical Which of the statements given above are correct?
Indication (GI) tag?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) Thanjavur veena
(b) 2 and 4 only
(b) Daklu
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) Murali
(d) Davandi (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

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Answer Key
&
Detailed Answer Explanations
 CA Test - 05 (CA2255) - Answer Key

1. (c) 11. (c) 21. (c) 31. (b) 41. (c) 51. (c) 61. (d) 71. (b) 81. (a) 91. (a)

2. (c) 12. (a) 22. (a) 32. (a) 42. (a) 52. (b) 62. (a) 72. (c) 82. (d) 92. (b)

3. (d) 13. (b) 23. (b) 33. (a) 43. (b) 53. (a) 63. (c) 73. (d) 83. (c) 93. (d)

4. (a) 14. (d) 24. (c) 34. (a) 44. (b) 54. (b) 64. (c) 74. (c) 84. (c) 94. (a)

5. (a) 15. (b) 25. (c) 35. (b) 45. (d) 55. (b) 65. (c) 75. (c) 85. (d) 95. (a)

6. (a) 16. (d) 26. (b) 36. (b) 46. (d) 56. (d) 66. (a) 76. (c) 86. (a) 96. (a)

7. (d) 17. (d) 27. (d) 37. (d) 47. (b) 57. (d) 67. (a) 77. (c) 87. (d) 97. (b)

8. (b) 18. (d) 28. (d) 38. (a) 48. (c) 58. (b) 68. (c) 78. (a) 88. (d) 98. (c)

9. (d) 19. (d) 29. (d) 39. (c) 49. (c) 59. (a) 69. (b) 79. (d) 89. (c) 99. (c)

10. (c) 20. (b) 30. (b) 40. (c) 50. (b) 60. (d) 70. (c) 80. (d) 90. (a) 100. (a)

Q1.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● A biobank is a type of biorepository that stores biological samples (usually human)
for use in research. It is a large collection of biospecimens, linked to relevant personal and
health information, that are held predominantly for use in health and medical research. So,
option (c) is correct.
● Biomolecules are organic molecules that occur naturally in living organisms. They provide the
basic structural and functional constituents to the living cells. They can be categorised into
smaller molecules (lipids, phospholipids, glycolipids, sterols, glycerolipids, carbohydrates,
sugars, vitamins, and hormones), monomers (amino acids, nucleotides, monosaccharides),
polymers (peptides, oligopeptides, polypeptides, proteins, nucleic acids (DNA and RNA),
oligosaccharides, polysaccharides and lignin). So, option (a) is not correct.
● The Svalbard Global Seed Vault is a secure backup facility for the world's crop diversity to be
used in event of a global crisis. It is located on the Arctic Svalbard archipelago, Norway. So,
option (b) is not correct.
● A genome is the complete set of genetic information in an organism, which contains all
the instructions for the organism to develop and function. So, option (d) is not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, distant relatedness in biobanks harnessed to identify undiagnosed genetic diseases.

Q2.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Bond yield is the return an investor gets on a bond or on a particular government security.

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 ● A cut in the interest rate by the Federal Reserve of the United States would normally
lead to an inflow of FPI funds into India. It is because as the interest rates in the USA would
fall, the investors in the USA would look for more attractive investment opportunities in
developing economies like India. This will lead to an increase in FPI inflows in India. Thus, a US
Federal Reserve rate cut can positively affect India by boosting capital inflows. So, statement
2 is not correct.
● Consequently, if there is a rise in foreign investments in the country, it means an increase in
investors’ demand for the country’s assets including bonds. As the demand for
government/corporate bonds increases, the bond price will also increase. This will lead to
a decrease in the bond yield as bond price and bond yield are inversely related to each
other. Thus, Bond Yield in India is most likely to decrease if there is an interest rate cut by the
Federal Reserve of the United States of America. So, statement 1 is correct.
So, Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is incorrect.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The United States Federal Reserve recently announced that it will cut the benchmark interest
rate by 50 basis points.

Q3.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Pagers, also known as beepers, are wireless communication devices. They work in
dedicated radio frequencies designed to send and receive messages over these frequencies. They
send messages with VHF (very high frequency) radio signals, typically broadcast in the range 138–
466 MHz.
● The basic operation of the device includes receiving and sending messages. These messages can
be numeric (e.g., a phone number) or alphanumeric (text). Many pagers can also send out a
siren and then broadcast a voice message to groups. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Pagers are less traceable than mobiles. Pagers leave a small electronic footprint for
communication making it less vulnerable to hacking or surveillance. These devices are
simple to use and able to transmit basic messages without internet or cellular networks,
reducing risks. So, statements 2 and 3 are correct.
● Pagers were widely used in the 1980s, but thereon a massive decline was witnessed in its use
across the world. However, some groups and organisations are still using this device across the
world.
● Unlike mobile phones, pagers have longer battery life and last for several days on a single charge
making it a key reason to use them in certain professional settings.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recent pager explosions in Lebanon left many Hezbollah members dead.

Q4.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis (PAM) is a disease caused by Naegleria fowleri,
a microscopic amoeba commonly called a "brain-eating amoeba." The amoeba is commonly
found in warm freshwater lakes, ponds and rivers and enters the body through the nose, leading
to brain tissue destruction. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
○ PAM is a rare brain disease that affects the central nervous system of the infected
person. N. fowleri can infect the brain and destroy the tissues there. Primary
○ Amoebic Meningoencephalitis is highly fatal. The mortality rate is above 90%,
despite antimicrobial therapy.
● Mpox (previously known as Monkeypox) is a viral disease caused by an orthopoxvirus
called monkeypox virus. It spreads mainly through close contact with someone who has mpox.

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 It causes painful rash, enlarged lymph nodes and fever. It can make people very sick and leave scars
on the body. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
○ Smallpox is caused by the variola virus. Both MPXV and Variola viruses are
orthopoxviruses. They are closely related, but not the same.
● Cervical cancer is the fourth most common cancer in women globally. It is caused by
persistent infection with the Human Papillomavirus (HPV). So, pair 3 is not correctly
matched.
○ HPV is a common sexually transmitted infection which can affect the skin, genital area and
throat.
○ Persistent HPV infection of the cervix if left untreated, causes 95% of cervical cancers.
● Treponema pallidum is a type of bacterium that causes syphilis, which is a sexually transmitted
infection.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Amoebic meningoencephalitis has recently raised public health concerns across the state of
Kerala.

Q5.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Earth spins like a rigid ball, completing a full rotation every 24 hours. This rotation is the same
everywhere on Earth. Being a giant ball of plasma, different parts of the Sun rotate at
different speeds, depending on their latitude. So, statement 1 is correct.
● The Sun's equator spins much faster than its poles. It takes the equatorial region only about
25 days to complete one rotation, while the poles take 35 days. This difference in rotation speed
is called differential rotation.
● Unlike the Earth, the Sun is not a rigid body. The Sun is actually a massive sphere of plasma. The
plasma located in different places of the surface rotates at different speeds, that is what
we call differential rotation. So, statement 2 is correct.
So, both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II explains Statement–
I.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Astronomers from the Indian Institute of Astrophysics recently mapped the differential
rotation of the Sun's chromosphere using 100 years of Kodaikanal data.

Q6.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Pumped Storage Project (PSP) is a type of hydroelectric energy storage. The Central
Electricity Authority (CEA) has introduced the online portal, “Jalvi-store,” to streamline the
processing of the Detailed Project Report (DPR) stage of PSPs. It will bring more
transparency in processing of the chapters at the pre DPR stage of the PSPs.
● CEA aims to approve at least two PSPs per month in 2024-25. The target for 2024-25 is to approve
15 PSPs with a combined capacity of 25,500 MW.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Central Electricity Authority (CEA) has recently given its nod to two Pumped Storage
Projects (PSPs) in Maharashtra.

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Q7.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QUAD) is a diplomatic partnership between four countries:
Australia, India, Japan and the United States of America. It is aimed at promoting regional security
and economic cooperation in the Indo-Pacific region.
● It has launched the Quad Cancer Moonshot at the 6th summit level meeting in 2024. It is a
collective effort to leverage public and private resources to reduce the number of lives lost to
cancer in the Indo-Pacific, with an initial focus on cervical cancer. So, point 1 is correct.
○ According to the mission document, collaboration with the private and non-profit sectors
of all QUAD countries is indispensable to the success of this initiative.
● The Maritime Initiative for Training in the Indo-Pacific (MAITRI) was another major
outcome of the 6th summit. The initiative highlights the QUAD’s commitment to regional
security and capacity building in the maritime domain. This initiative aims to train QUAD
partners to monitor and secure their territorial waters, enforce laws, and deter unlawful behavior.
So, point 2 is correct.
● It also launched the QUAD Indo-Pacific Logistics Network at the 6th Quad Summit. This
initiative is aimed at improving airlift capacity for rapid disaster response across the
Indo-Pacific. So, point 3 is correct.
○ It aims to pursue shared airlift capacity among the four nations and leverage collective
logistics strengths, in order to support civilian response to natural disasters more
rapidly and efficiently across the Indo-Pacific region.
● The QUAD Investors Network (QUIN) is a nonprofit initiative launched at the 2023
QUAD Leaders’ Summit. It aims to accelerate investments in critical and emerging
technologies across the Indo-Pacific region. So, point 4 is correct.
○ It aims to bring together investors, entrepreneurs, technologists and public institutions
from the QUAD countries to support innovation that aligns with the QUAD’s shared
values and promotes economic growth, resilience and regional stability.
So, all four of the above have been launched by the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QUAD).
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the 6th Quad Summit was held at Delaware in the United States of America.

Q8.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Saora is one of the ancient tribes of Odisha. It is one of the PVTGs of Odisha. Though
Odisha is the main land for the tribe, a small number of people are also found in the states of
Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, and Assam. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
● The Mankidia are a nomadic ethnic group of India that live in Odisha. They have been
identified as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG) in Odisha. They are primarily a food
gathering and hunting community. They belong to Austro-Asiatic community. So, pair 2 is
correctly matched.
● Raikas are a specialized community of pastoralists from northwestern India, particularly
the arid and semi-arid parts of Rajasthan. They are mostly pastoralist camel breeders. Many
Raika families also raise sheep and goats. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
● Thadou are tribal people who mostly live in the hill areas adjacent to the Imphal Valley in
Manipur. They are the second largest in terms of population in Manipur, next to Meitei. They
are also found in Assam, Nagaland, and Mizoram, and in Chin State and Sagaing
Division in Myanmar. The Thadou language belongs to the Tibeto-Burman family of the Sino-
Tibetan languages. So, pair 4 is correctly matched.
So, only two of the pairs given above are correctly matched.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

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Relevance: Recently, a section of the Thadou tribes has formed a global platform to look into critical
issues facing the community.

Q9.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Distant Relatedness for Identification and Variant Evaluation (DRIVE) is a genetic
inference tool developed to identify undiagnosed genetic diseases by analyzing distant
relatedness within large biobank populations.
● It identifies individuals in biobanks who share "Identical-By-Descent" (IBD) segments of DNA.
These IBD segments are inherited from a common ancestor, meaning individuals who share
them are distantly related. This relatedness allows researchers to identify groups of people who
carry the same genetic mutations or disease-causing variants.
● By identifying clusters of individuals with shared genetic variants, DRIVE can help detect
undiagnosed carriers of rare genetic disorders. For example, in a study, DRIVE identified
carriers of a rare variant in the KCNE1 gene, which causes Type 5 Long QT syndrome (LQT5), a
condition that can lead to abnormal heart rhythms and sudden death.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● Environmental factors affecting genetic expression: This concept relates to

epigenetics. Epigenetics studies how environmental factors like diet, stress, and toxins can
affect gene expression without altering the DNA sequence.
● Drug interactions and genetic disorders: This is related to pharmacogenomics.
Pharmacogenomics examines how a person’s genetic makeup affects their response to drugs,
including adverse effects or how effectively a medication works for an individual.
● Gene-editing technology: It allows scientists to alter specific genes within an organism’s
genome, either to correct mutations or modify gene functions. CRISPR (Clustered Regularly
Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats) is one of its examples.

Relevance: An innovative genomic analysis of shared segments has identified undiagnosed cases of Long
QT syndrome, a rare disorder causing abnormal heart rhythms, fainting, and sudden death.

Q10.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● An invasive species is an organism that is not indigenous to a particular area. It can cause
great economic and environmental harm to the new area.
Points To Remember

Not all non-native species are invasive. To be

invasive, a species must adapt to the new area
easily. It must reproduce quickly. It must harm
property, economy, or the native plants and
animals of the region.
● An over-fixation on demonising “invasive” species and controlling their spread, is ultimately futile
and limits our understanding. Invasive species are often viewed negatively due to their potential
to disrupt ecosystems, but they can also provide certain benefits to native ecosystems:
○ Some invasive species contribute positively by helping to clean the environment.
They can filter out air and water contaminants, supporting ecosystem health. This
is a direct benefit to local ecosystems, especially in areas facing pollution challenges. For

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 example, invasive plants may improve water quality by absorbing pollutants. So,
statement 1 is correct.
○ Certain invasive species, especially plants, may be more resilient to climate extremes
than native species. This allows the invasive species to support ecosystems in the face of
climate change. For example, Siberian elm has adapted well to dry river areas where
native elms can no longer thrive. So, statement 3 is correct.
● Invasive species typically increase competition, often outcompeting native species for
resources like water, sunlight, and nutrients. It leads to a decline in native biodiversity. So,
statement 2 is not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q11.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The Taiwan Strait (also called the Formosa Strait) is a
narrow body of water that separates the island of Taiwan from
the southeastern coast of mainland China. The strait is an arm
of the Pacific Ocean. It links the South China Sea, to the
southwest, with the East China Sea, to the northeast.
● At its narrowest point, the strait is 100 miles (160 kilometres)
wide. Taiwan’s Pescadores Islands lie within the strait.
Points To Remember

Luzon Strait connects the South China

Sea with the Philippine Sea and Korea
Strait connects the East China Sea with the
Sea of Japan.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, a Japanese warship has sailed through the
Taiwan Strait between Taiwan and China for the first time, prompting
Beijing to lodge complaints with Tokyo.

Q12.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Fiscal profligacy refers to excessive government spending that leads to large budget deficits
and increasing debt.
● This can lead to unsustainable debt levels, inflationary pressures and reduced investor
confidence, potentially harming the economy in the long term.
● It might also divert resources from the capital-building and lead to lower capital
expenditure.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● Contractionary Fiscal Policy: It involves increasing taxes or cutting government spending

to reduce inflation.
● Fiscal consolidation: This is when the government aims to reduce deficits and debt levels by
reducing expenditure or increasing revenues. It is the opposite of fiscal profligacy.
● Crowding Out effect: It is an economic theory that describes how increased government
spending can lead to a decrease in private sector activity.

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Relevance: The recent fiscal profligacy seen in poll-bound states will impact capital expenditure over the
coming years, as per the UBS, a Swiss brokerage firm.

Q13.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Gingee or Senji Fort, located in Villupuram District, Tamil Nadu, is often referred to as the
“Troy of the East” due to its strategic significance and impenetrable nature. This formidable
fortress has witnessed the rise and fall of various empires, including the Vijayanagara Nayaks,
Bijapuri Sultans, Mughals, Marathas, French and the British.
● Originally fortified by Ananda Kon in the 13th century, it saw significant expansions under
the Vijayanagara Empire, which further enhanced its military and architectural prominence.
○ The fort complex is built across three hills—Rajagiri, Krishnagiri, and Chandrayan
Durg and features a wide rampart and moat.
● The Fort is notable for structures like the Kalyana Mahal and the Venkataramana Swamy
temple. The fort complex houses several temples and shrines dedicated to goddesses such as
Kamalakanni and Senji, and includes well-planned water tanks like Anaikulam, Chakrakulam,
and Chettikulam.
● Throughout its history, the fort served as a crucial military base, playing a significant role in battles,
including those during the Carnatic Wars between the French and British. After
undergoing various changes in control, the Fort eventually fell under British possession following
the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War in 1799.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Maratha Military Landscapes of India:

● It has been included in India’s nomination for recognition as UNESCO World Heritage List for
the year 2024-25. The twelve component parts of this nomination are, Salher fort, Shivneri
fort, Lohgad, Khanderi fort, Raigad, Rajgad, Pratapgad, Suvarnadurg, Panhala Fort,
Vijay durg, Sindhudurg in Maharashtra and Gingee Fort in Tamil Nadu. These
components, distributed across diverse geographical and physiographic regions, showcase the
strategic military powers of the Maratha rule.
● The Maratha Military Landscapes of India, which developed between the 17th and 19th
centuries, represent an extraordinary fortification and military system envisioned by the
Maratha rulers.
● There are more than 390 forts in Maharashtra out of which only 12 forts are selected under
the Maratha Military Landscapes of India. Of these, 8 forts are protected by the
Archaeological Survey of India.
Relevance: Gingee Fort, along with 11 other forts that make up the Maratha Military Landscapes, has
been nominated by the Central Government for UNESCO’s World Heritage Site recognition.

Q14.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The heat dome effect is a type of high-pressure system that forms over a large area in the
atmosphere, causing extremely hot and dry weather conditions.
● The weakening monsoon circulation, poor soil moisture, heavy exposure to sunlight,
and factors like heavy deforestation and expanding industrial activity have all contributed
towards the heat dome effect. So, points 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
● Additionally, changes in the jet stream, which is controlled by atmospheric circulation, are
responsible for the formation of the heat dome. The monsoonal circulation is impacted by the

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 changes currently happening to air currents, which are largely threatened by climate change. So,
point 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the northeastern states of India have experienced the 'heat dome effect.'

Q15.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The Depsang Plains lie to the west of Aksai Chin, with the Siachen Glacier on their
northwestern edge.
● Located in the northern part of eastern Ladakh, the plains are close to the strategically
important Daulat Beg Oldie (DBO), near the Karakoram Pass, where India’s highest airstrip is
located.
● To the north of Depsang is the Karakoram Pass. To its right is Aksai Chin, annexed by China,
across which runs the G-219 highway connecting Tibet and Xinjiang provinces. The Lingzi Thang
Mountain range divides the Depsang Plains from Aksai Chin. So, point 2 is correct.
● The western edge of Depsang abuts the southeast part of the Rimo Glacier, which is an
extension of the Siachen Glacier, the world’s highest battlefield. So, point 4 is correct.
● The Chip Chap River, a tributary of the Shyok River, originates at the eastern edge of the
Depsang Plains and flows west, skirting around the Depsang Plains in the north. So, point 5 is
correct.
● Tso Moriri Lake is located in the Changthang Plateau of Eastern Ladakh. So, point 1 is not
correct.
● Shipki La is located in the Kinnaur district of Himachal Pradesh. So, point 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, India reached an agreement with China on Line of Actual Control, patrolling and
the resolution of the friction points.

Q16.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The Global Methane Pledge (GMP) is a voluntary agreement by countries to reduce methane
emissions by at least 30% by 2030 compared to 2020 levels. This could eliminate over 0.2˚ C of
warming by 2050. The pledge was launched in 2021 at COP26 of the United Nations Climate
Change Conference, by the United States of America and the European Union. It
currently has 155 participating countries, representing nearly 50% of global anthropogenic
methane emissions. So, statement 1 is not correct.
○ India is not a signatory to the Global Methane Pledge but has several programmes that
incorporate methane emission reduction strategies.
● Globally, China, the United States of America, and India contribute 42.6% of total
methane emissions, while the bottom 100 countries account for only 2.9%. China, the
world’s largest methane emitter, produces about 14% of global emissions annually. So,
statement 2 is correct.
So, Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Methane as a greenhouse gas:

● Methane, the second most abundant greenhouse gas after carbon dioxide, has contributed
about a quarter of the cumulative warming, equating to 0.5°C of global temperature increase,
compared to 0.8°C by carbon dioxide (CO2).

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 ● According to the UN Environment Programme (UNEP), every million tonnes of methane
emitted results in the loss of roughly 300 million hours of work and 145 kilo tons of crops
globally. Global methane emissions in 2019 stood at 11,000 million tonnes of CO2 equivalent.

Q17.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● A thermobaric bomb (also called a vacuum or aerosol bomb or fuel air explosive)
consists of a fuel container with two separate explosive charges. So, option (a) is correct.
○ This weapon can be launched as a rocket or dropped as a bomb from aircraft. When it
hits its target, the first explosive charge opens the container and widely scatters the
fuel mixture as a cloud, which can penetrate any building openings or defences that are
not totally sealed.
○ A second charge then detonates the cloud, resulting in a huge fireball, a massive blast
wave, and a vacuum that sucks up all surrounding oxygen. The weapon can destroy
reinforced buildings, equipment, and kill or injure people.
● The work of a thermobaric bomb involves precision-guided bomb strikes targeting the
area, a small explosion that releases a cloud of explosive material, and a second explosion that
ignites the cloud, causing a massive blast capable of vaporising human bodies. So, option (b) is
correct.
● It causes damage and harm through overpressure and thermal effects, but secondary harm may
also occur due to fragmentation, consumption and depletion of ambient oxygen and the
release of toxic gases and smoke. So, option (c) is correct.
● There are no international laws specifically banning their use, but if a country uses them to
target civilian populations in built-up areas, schools, or hospitals, then it could be convicted of
a war crime under the Hague Conventions of 1899 and 1907. So, option (d) is not
correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the answer.
Relevance: Russia's use of the ODAB-1500 thermobaric bomb in Ukraine highlights a global trend in
investing in this devastating warfare technology.

Q18.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● India has recently approved the proposal to become a member country of the International Big
Cat Alliance (IBCA) by signing and ratifying the Framework Agreement on the
establishment of the IBCA.
● The IBCA has been conceived as a multi-country, multi-agency coalition of 96 big cat range
countries. It aims to improve habitats, increase prey populations, ensuring the well-being of big
cats, and mitigating the negative effects of climate change.
● All UN member countries are eligible for becoming a member of IBCA. Twenty-four
countries (including India) have consented to be members of IBCA. Nine International
Organizations have also consented to be a partner organization of IBCA.
● As of September 2024, only 4 countries have become members of IBCA including India,
Nicaragua, Eswatini and Somalia. So, points 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
● The IBCA is headquartered in India.
Points To Remember

Seven big cats of IBCA include Tiger, Lion, Leopard, Snow

Leopard, Puma, Jaguar and the Cheetah. Out of these, five

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 big cats viz. Tiger, Lion, Leopard, Snow Leopard and
Cheetah are found in India.
So, all four of the above are members of the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA).
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Prime Minister of India has recently approved the proposal of India to become a member
country of the International Big Cat Alliance (IBCA).

Q19.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The International Labour Organisation (ILO) in collaboration with OECD has established the Skill
Gap Portal for several countries. Recently, India has been incorporated into this Skill Gap Portal.
For having the information on demand-supply gap at State X Occupation level, the
Occupation Shortage Index (OSI) for the States in India is computed and derived based on
the methods and guidelines provided by the ILO.
● OSI measures the level of gap between demand and supply of workers in a particular
occupation. This Index is essential for long-term labour market planning and development of
policies to facilitate the employment market which promote economic growth.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

More about OSI:

● The OSI comprise of following 4 sub-indicators:
o Hourly Wage Growth
o Employment Growth
o Growth in Hours Worked
o Share of Under-qualified Workers.
● High OSI indicates Shortage/higher demand of workers within a particular occupation,
which may result in higher wages, more job opportunities.
● Low OSI indicates Surplus/less demand of workers, which may lead to lower wages, fewer
job opportunities, and increased competition for available positions.
Relevance: Occupation Shortage Index (OSI) for the States in India has been computed recently.

Q20.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Priority Sector Lending (PSL) requires banks to give a minimum proportion of their
loans to sectors of development importance or the sectors that have difficulty getting loans. It is
the role exercised by the RBI to banks, imploring them to dedicate funds for specific sectors of
the economy.
● Not all banks are required to allocate 40% of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC) towards
PSL. The requirement varies slightly for different types of banks:
o For domestic scheduled commercial banks and foreign banks with 20 or more
branches, the PSL target is 40% of their ANBC.
o For Foreign Banks with less than 20 branches have a PSL target of 40% of their
ANBC, but it is applied differently with certain phased targets for different categories.
o For Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and Small Finance Banks (SFBs), the target is
higher at 75% of their ANBC. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● Loans to small and marginal farmers for purchase of land for agricultural purposes
are covered under PSL and such loans fall under the "Agriculture" category of the PSL. So,
statement 2 is correct.

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 ● Banks that fall short of their PSL targets are required to contribute to the Rural
Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF), which is maintained by the National Bank for
Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD). So, statement 3 is correct.
o This fund is used for rural infrastructure development projects, compensating for
the shortfall in direct PSL lending by banks.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has revised its PSL guidelines to
address regional disparities in the availability of credit.

Q21.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Minerals Security Finance Network (MSFN) is a new initiative emerging from the Minerals
Security Partnership (MSP). It is aimed at strengthening global cooperation in securing critical
mineral supply chains. The network brings together institutions from the Indo-Pacific region
and Europe, promoting cooperation, information exchange and co-financing. So, statement 1 is
correct.
● The partnership includes 14 countries and the European Commission. These are the United
States of America, Australia, Canada, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, India, Italy, Japan, the
Republic of Korea, Norway, Sweden, the United Kingdom, and the European Union (represented
by the European Commission). So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, India has officially joined the US-led Minerals Security Finance Network.

Q22.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Rhinos are one of the few megaherbivores, plant-
eaters that weigh more than 2,000 pounds, that
still live in the world.
● There are 5 species of rhinos, of which 2 are found
in Africa and 3 in Asia. White rhinos and Black
rhinos are found in Africa, whereas the
Greater one-horned rhino (Indian rhino),
the Javan (Lesser one-horned) rhino and the
Sumatran rhinos are found in Asia. So,
statement 1 is correct.
● Out of all the species in the world, African White rhinos are the heaviest. African White
rhinos are known to weigh over a whopping 3 tonnes (3,000 kg). So, statement 2 is correct.
● Both African species—the Black Rhino and the White Rhino—have two horns. However, not
all Asian rhino species have only one horn.
o The Greater One-Horned Rhino and Javan Rhino each have one horn, while the
Sumatran Rhino has two horns. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The greater one-horned rhinoceros has returned to central Assam's Laokhowa-Burachapori
Wildlife Sanctuary after 40 years.

Q23.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) is published annually by the National Sample
Survey Office (NSSO).

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 o It estimates the key employment and unemployment indicators in the short time interval
of three months for the urban areas only in the ‘Current Weekly Status’ (CWS).
o It also estimates employment and unemployment indicators in both ‘Usual Status’
and CWS in both rural and urban areas annually.
● The NSSO has released the PLFS report of 2023-2024. The following are the key highlights:
o Unemployment Rate (UR) in Usual Status was 3.2% for both male and female of age
15 years and above during July 2023 – June 2024. Unemployment Rate (UR) is defined as
the percentage of persons unemployed among the persons in the labour force.
▪ While the same for males has shown a marginal decline from 3.3% during July
2022 – June 2023 to 3.2% during July 2023 – June 2024, among females it has
increased from 2.9% to 3.2% during the same time span. So, statement 1 is
not correct.
o The Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) increased from 55.5% in 2019-20 to
57.4% in 2020-21. It further increased to 57.5% in 2021-22, 60.8% in 2022-23 and finally
to 63.7% in 2023-24. Thus, the increasing trend of LFPR has been steady in the last five
years. So, statement 2 is correct.
o In rural areas, Worker Population Ratio (WPR) for persons of age 15 years and above
was 62.1% in 2023-24 while for urban areas it was 49.4% in 2023-24. So, statement
3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently the Annual Report (July, 2023 – June, 2024) of the Periodic Labour Force Survey
(PLFS) was released.

Q24.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● A moon is an object that orbits a planet, dwarf planets, large asteroids, and other bodies that is
not a star.
● A celestial body that orbits a planet is a moon. Examples include Earth's Moon, the moons of
Jupiter (Ganymede, Europa, etc.), the moons of Saturn (Titan, Enceladus, etc.), etc.
● A celestial body orbiting a large asteroid can also be considered a moon or natural satellite.
Some large asteroids have smaller bodies orbiting them, which are often called asteroid moons.
For example, the asteroid Ida has a small moon named Dactyl. So, point 1 is correct.
● Comets are celestial bodies composed of ice, dust, and rock that orbit the Sun, often with highly
elliptical orbits. They are not moons, as they do not orbit a planet or a larger celestial body
other than the Sun. So, point 2 is not correct.
● An asteroid or a moon orbiting a dwarf planet can be considered a moon or natural satellite.
For instance, the dwarf planet Pluto has several moons, including Charon. Any object orbiting a
dwarf planet is considered a natural satellite. So, point 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, scientists have discovered a new Uranian moon after 20 years.

Q25.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Secondary agriculture in the Indian context is defined as “All practices and processes of
converting agricultural produce, residues and by-products into high value commodities
for pharmaceutical, industrial, medicinal and specified food uses as per market intelligence and
consumer preferences for increasing farmers’ income”.
● High value product extraction from complete biomass of a particular crop, rural
industrialization and marketing are the main elements of Secondary Agriculture.

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 ● The Doubling Farmer Income (DFI) Committee report categorised secondary agriculture
into three types:
o Type A denotes a value addition to primary agriculture production systems.
o Type B denotes alternative enterprises like beekeeping, poultry, agritourism, and off-farm
enterprises.
o Type C represents enterprises that thrive on crop residues and waste materials of primary
agriculture.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the President of India addressed the National Institute of Secondary Agriculture in
Ranchi.

Q26
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Recently, the samples of around 50 medicines, including some common ones such as paracetamol
(used for fever), metformin (first line of treatment for diabetes), and pantoprazole (used for
acidity), have been found to be spurious or not of standard quality by the country’s top drug
regulator, Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO).
● Every month, the CDSCO releases a list of drugs that are found to be “not of standard quality”
(NSQ) during checks. The Central Drugs Testing Laboratories (CDTLs) under the CDSCO
perform Drug Fail Quality Test in India.
o There are seven Central Drug Testing Laboratories under CDSCO. These are at Kolkata,
Mumbai, Chennai, Guwahati, Chandigarh, Kasauli and Hyderabad.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: CDSCO found 50 commonly used medicines to be of substandard quality.

Q27.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The term “sponge cities” is used to describe urban areas with abundant natural areas such
as trees, lakes and parks or other good design intended to absorb rain and prevent
flooding.
● A growing number of urban areas are experiencing devastating floods as climate change brings
heavier rainfall and growing flood risk. In this context, the “sponge cities” are very important.
● Cities as diverse as Shanghai, New York, and Cardiff are embracing their “sponginess” through
inner-city gardens, improved river drainage, and plant-edged sidewalks.
● Natural ways to absorb urban water are about 50% more affordable than man-made
solutions, and are 28% more effective, according to earlier research by global design firm
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation has come out with the plan to create sponge
zones in all six zones of Hyderabad.

Q28.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The food system is composed of subsystems (farming system, waste management system, input
supply system, etc.) and interacts with other key systems (e.g. energy system, trade system, health
system, etc.).
● A sustainable food system (SFS) is a food system that delivers food security and nutrition for
all in such a way that the economic, social, and environmental bases to generate food
security and nutrition for future generations are not compromised. It lies at the heart of
the United Nations’ Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

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 ● This means that:
o It is profitable throughout (economic sustainability); So, statement 1 is correct.
o It has broad-based benefits for society (social sustainability); So, statement 2 is
correct.
o It has a positive or neutral impact on the natural environment (environmental
sustainability). So, statement 3 is correct.
● To realise the SDGs, the global food system needs to be reshaped to be more productive,
inclusive of poor and marginalised populations, environmentally sustainable and resilient, and able
to deliver healthy and nutritious diets to all.
● Global Alliance for the Future of Food has identified Zero Budget Natural Farming in India,
Community Markets for Conservation in Zambia, EOSTA in the Netherlands, MASIPAG of the
Philippines, and San Francisco Zero Waste Initiative as examples of the SFS.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The UN Food Systems Summit was recently held in Rome.

Q29.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Elephants have an elaborate mourning ritual under which the body of a dead elephant is
covered with branches and soil to cover it up. Elephants return to the spot where the
member of the herd died as if to pay respects. They have a profound understanding of how death
works and display signs of stress when they experience loss, both in the wild and in captivity. So,
statement 1 is correct.
● Indian wild dogs, Dholes, make a whistling sound and a screaming KaKaKa sound when
they attack prey. Other sounds include whines, chatter, and growls. They are extremely social
animals that live in packs and are found across the Western and Eastern Ghats as well as in Assam,
Meghalaya, West Bengal, Arunachal Pradesh, and the Terai region of the Indo-Gangetic Plain. So,
statement 2 is correct.
● Barking deers (Muntjacs) communicate with each other through scent from two
glands on their faces. When it wants to leave a message about its presence, these glands swell
and inflate like balloons. The deer then rubs its face against tree trunks or bushes to tell other
forest denizens it is around. So, statement 3 is correct.
Point To Remember

Mudskippers fish move on land to feed, rush back into the water when
threatened, and breed. Their pectoral fins also double up as limbs, while
their gills and skin allow them to breathe.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q30.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Operation Flood was launched in 1970, ushered in the White Revolution and transformed the
dairy sector in India. Recently, the Government of India launched “White Revolution 2.0,”
whose idea revolves around cooperative societies, which were also the bedrock of Operation
Flood five decades ago.
● White Revolution 2.0 will “increase milk procurement of dairy cooperatives by 50% over
the next five years by providing market access to dairy farmers in uncovered areas and
increasing the share of dairy cooperatives in the organized sector”. So, points 1 and
2 are correct.

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 ● During the launch of the scheme, the Union Home and Cooperation Minister said that White
Revolution 2.0 would empower women, fight malnutrition in children, generate employment,
strengthen organic farming, and enhance soil fertility through organic farming in the country.
● India allows 100% foreign direct investment (FDI) in the food processing sector, including milk
processing, through the automatic route. The Dairy sector has seen substantial Foreign Direct
Investment (FDI) constituting about 40% of FDIs in the Indian food sector. However, it is
not an objective of the White Revolution 2.0. So, point 3 is not correct.
So, only two of the above are the objectives of the recently launched “White Revolution
2.0”.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Union Home and Cooperation Minister launched the Standard Operating
Procedure (SoP) of white revolution 2.0.

Q31.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The Global Digital Compact (GDC) is a comprehensive framework for global governance of
digital technology and artificial intelligence. Twenty years after the World Summit on the
Information Society, it charts a roadmap for global digital cooperation to harness the immense
potential of digital technology and close digital divides.
● Recently, the world leaders convened in New York for the Summit of the Future, adopted a
Pact for the Future that includes a Global Digital Compact. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● GDC pursues the following objectives:
o Close all digital divides and accelerate progress across the Sustainable
Development Goal, expand inclusion in and benefit from the digital economy for all;
So, statement 2 is correct.
o Foster an inclusive, open, safe, and secure digital space that respects, protects and
promotes human rights,
o Advance responsible, equitable and interoperable data governance approaches,
o Enhance international governance of artificial intelligence for the benefit of
humanity. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Prime Minister of India recently participated in the UN Summit of the Future 2024.

Q32.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Defence Research & Development Organisation (DRDO), along with researchers of
the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Delhi, has developed Light Weight Bullet Proof
Jackets named Advanced Ballistics for High Energy Defeat (ABHED).
● ABHED jackets have been created from polymers and indigenous boron carbide
ceramic material. The design configuration is based on the characterization of various materials
at a high strain rate, followed by appropriate modeling and simulation in collaboration with DRDO.
● The jackets meet the highest threat levels and are lighter than the maximum weight limits
stipulated in the respective General Staff Qualitative Requirements of the Indian Army.
● ABHED jackets have been classified as BIS level 5 and BIS level 6 by the Bureau of Indian
Standards (BIS), which issues standards for bullet-resistant jackets and ballistic shields for the
Indian Army.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: ABHED (Advanced Ballistics for High Energy Defeat) jackets have been developed at the
DRDO Industry Academia Centre of Excellence (DIA-CoE) at IIT, Delhi.

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Q33.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Traditionally, chemists have relied on physical and chemical barriers to confine molecules during
catalytic reactions. These methods, while effective, come with inherent limitations.
o While these barriers effectively maintain molecular structure, they also restrict the
movement of substrates (reacting molecules) and products (resulting molecules). This
limitation often slows down the very reactions they aim to facilitate, particularly in critical
fields like drug development.
● The scientists at the Institute of Nano Science and Technology (INST), Mohali confined protein–
metal nanocomposites within droplets formed through liquid-liquid phase separation instead
of traditional barriers.
● The droplet approach allows barrier-free confinement so that the molecules within the
droplets can move freely. These droplets are indifferent to the native conformation of the
proteins (the catalyst) they contain, creating an ideal environment for catalysis. The result was
a staggering tenfold increase in the catalytic efficiency of the metal nanocatalysts. So,
statements 1 and 2 are correct.
● In a subsequent study, the researchers explored deeper into the behaviour of these droplets
under varying conditions. They found that as the concentration of the substrate increased, the
droplets, once fluid and dynamic, began to undergo an internal phase transition. The excess
substrate induced changes within the droplets, restricting the movement of both the
substrate and the products. This, in turn, led to a reduction in the overall reaction rate.
● This discovery suggests that while liquid-liquid phase separation offers incredible potential for
enhancing catalysis, the concentration of substrates within these droplets is a critical factor that
must be carefully managed.
Points To Remember

The ability to confine molecules within barrier-free droplets

while maintaining, or even amplifying, reaction rates could
lead to more efficient industrial processes, from drug
manufacturing to energy production.
So, both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II explains Statement–
I.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Researchers at the Institute of Nano Science and Technology (INST), Mohali (Punjab) have
developed catalytic droplets that can lead to a 10-fold increase in speed and efficient catalytic reactions.

Q34.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body (not created by a law of Parliament) and
is constituted by the Union Ministry of Law and Justice, Department of Legal Affairs with a
definite term of reference to carry out research in the field of law and the Commission makes
recommendations to the Government (in the form of Reports) as per its terms of reference. So,
statement 1 is not correct.
● The body is formed to help the government review the functioning of laws, suggest
repealing of obsolete legislation, and make recommendations on matters referred to by the
government.
● The Central Government established the First Law Commission in 1955 with the then
Attorney-General of India, Mr. M. C. Setalvad, as its Chairman. Since then twenty-three Law
Commissions have been appointed, each with a three-year term and with a definite term of
reference. So, statement 2 is not correct.

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 ● The Law Commission can suo-motu or on the reference of the government, undertake research
in law and review existing laws. So, statement 3 is correct.
● The Commission is usually chaired by a retired judge of the Supreme Court or a High
Court and not the Chief Justice of India and has legal scholars as members. Serving judges can
also be appointed to the commission. So, statement 4 is not correct.
● The Law Commission of India is only an advisory body to the Government. Its
recommendations are not binding on the Government. The Government is under no
obligation to accept the reports of the Commission.
So, only one of the above statements is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● The 22nd Law Commission recommended that Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code,
the widely criticised law against sedition, should be retained. The commission cited
threats to internal security, including from Maoists, militancy in the Northeast, terrorism in
Jammu & Kashmir and the Khalistan movement to back its recommendation. However, the
commission did recommend certain amendments to “bring about greater clarity regarding the
usage of the provision”.
Relevance: Recently, the Union government has notified the constitution of the 23rd Law Commission
of India.

Q35.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● A working paper by the Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (EAC-PM) has shown
data regarding the economic performance of States in India. The paper is titled ‘Relative Economic
Performance of Indian States: 1960-61 to 2023-24’.
● The data shows that the five southern states — Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Kerala
and Tamil Nadu— accounted for over 30 per cent of India’s Gross Domestic Product
(GDP) in 2023-24. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Sikkim has the highest per capita income in India in 2024, at an estimated ₹588,745.
Meanwhile, it was the lowest in the northern state of Bihar at over 60 thousand rupees. So,
statement 2 is correct.
● Maharashtra is India's top GDP contributor, with a 13.3% share in India’s GDP but its share
declined to 13.3% from more than 15% earlier. However, its per capita income rose to 150.7% of
the national average by March 2024. So, statement 3 is not correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● State share in national GDP: It is defined as the ratio of the State’s Gross State Domestic
Product (GSDP) to the sum of the GSDP of all States. This gives an idea of the relative economic
importance of States.
● Relative per capita income: It is defined as the percentage of per capita Net State Domestic
Product (NSDP) of the State to the all-India per capita Net National Product (NNP) or per
capita Net National Income (NNI).
Relevance: According to the EAC-PM report, steady economic growth has been observed in western
and southern states, while West Bengal has experienced a decline.

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Q36.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● A Soft Landing is when a Central Bank is able to control inflation without setting off a
significant decline in economic activity, also known as a recession.
● When the Central Bank is concerned about inflation, it raises interest rates to slow the pace of
economic growth. If the central bank raises interest rates a lot, it may cause a recession – known
as a hard landing. However, if the bank can raise interest rates just enough to slow the
economy and reduce inflation without causing a recession, it has achieved what is known
as a soft landing. So, option (b) is correct.
● A soft landing is the goal of a central bank when it seeks to raise interest rates to control
high inflation and, at the same time, prevent a recession.
● The Goldilocks scenario in an economy is a term that describes an ideal state for an economic
system. In this perfect state, there is full employment, economic stability, and stable growth. So,
option (a) is not correct.
● A hard landing refers to a situation where a period of rapid growth is followed by a
marked economic slowdown or sharp downturn. A hard landing occurs when the economy
contracts sharply due to the central bank's efforts to control inflation. It is a significant economic
slowdown that occurs after a period of rapid growth. It can result in a recession or a growth
recession, where the economy shrinks. So, option (c) is not correct.
● A soft loan is a loan with no interest or a below-market rate of interest. Also known as
"soft financing" or "concessional funding," soft loans have lenient terms, such as extended grace
periods in which only interest or service charges are due, and interest holidays. So, option (d)
is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The recent substantial growth in US household wealth may enhance the likelihood of
achieving a soft landing for the economy.

Q37.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) is an independent statutory body
established by the Anusandhan National Research Foundation Act, 2023, an Act of the
Parliament of India. So, statement 1 is correct.
● ANRF will act as an apex body to provide high-level strategic direction of scientific
research in the country as per recommendations of the National Education Policy (NEP).
○ National Research Foundation (NRF) will be the apex body in the country to provide
strategic direction for research, innovation and entrepreneurship in the fields of: (i)
natural sciences including mathematics, (ii) engineering and technology, (iii) environmental
and earth sciences, (iv) health and agriculture, and (v) scientific and technological
interfaces of humanities and social sciences.
● It has a Governing Board headed by the Prime Minister of India. The Board will provide
strategic direction to the Foundation and monitor the implementation. Other members of the
Board are (i) the Union Ministers of Science and Technology, Education as Vice Presidents,
(ii) the Principal Scientific Advisor as Member Secretary and (iii) Secretaries to the Departments
of Science and Technology, Biotechnology and Scientific and Industrial Research. So, statement
2 is correct.
● The ANRF aims to seed, grow and promote Research and Development (R&D) and foster a
culture of research and innovation throughout India’s universities, colleges, research
institutions, and R&D laboratories. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

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Relevance: Recently the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF) has been established under
the Anusandhan National Research Foundation Act of 2023.

Q38.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Recently the Prime Minister of India dedicated three PARAM Rudra supercomputers to the
nation, marking a significant leap in India's high-performance computing capabilities. These
state-of-the-art supercomputers, now installed at leading scientific institutions in Delhi, Pune, and
Kolkata and are set to drive advanced research in fields like astronomy, medicine, and high-energy
physics, supporting India’s strides in multidimensional scientific progress.
● The three PARAM Rudra supercomputers have been developed indigenously under the
National Supercomputing Mission. These supercomputers have been deployed in Pune, Delhi, and
Kolkata to facilitate pioneering scientific research.
● Two High-Performance Computing (HPC) systems, ‘Arka’ and ‘Arunika’, were made
for weather and climate research. These systems will be deployed by the Indian Institute of
Tropical Meteorology (IITM) in Pune and the National Center for Medium-Range Weather
Forecast (NCMRWF) in Noida.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently the Prime Minister of India dedicated three Param Rudra supercomputers and a
High-Performance Computing System for weather and climate to the nation.

Q39.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The Turkmenistan-Afghanistan-Pakistan-India (TAPI) pipeline is a proposed 1,814-
kilometre pipeline that aims to transport natural gas from Turkmenistan to Afghanistan,
Pakistan and finally, India. It is also called the ‘Peace Pipeline’. The TAPI project aims to
export up to 33 billion cubic meters (bcm) of natural gas per year from Turkmenistan. So,
options 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
● The pipeline will see around 33 billion cubic metres of natural gas each year extracted from the
Galkynysh gas field in southeast Turkmenistan.
● Pakistan and India will each purchase 42% of the gas deliveries, and Afghanistan 16%.
● The TAPI pipeline does not pass through Iran and Azerbaijan. So, points 5 and 6 are not
correct.
● Recently, Afghanistan announced the start of construction on its section of the $10 billion TAPI
gas pipeline. It has faced numerous delays due to longstanding security concerns in Afghanistan.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The TAPI pipeline, which runs through Turkmenistan, Afghanistan, Pakistan and India, has
faced multiple delays in progress due to ongoing security challenges in conflict-affected Afghanistan.

Q40.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Quantum Natural Language Processing (QNLP) is a relatively new field of study that uses
quantum computing to represent the meaning of sentences as vectors in quantum computers.
QNLP aims to improve on the shortcomings of classical Natural Language Processing (NLP)
techniques.
○ Natural language processing (NLP) is a branch of Artificial Intelligence (AI) that
allows computers to understand, generate, and manipulate human language. NLP uses
machine learning to process and interpret text and data.

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 ● QNLP incurs lower energy costs than conventional Large Language Models (LLMs)
by leveraging quantum phenomena. QNLP models also require far fewer parameters than
their classical counterparts in order to achieve the same outcomes (on paper), thus promising
to enhance efficiency without compromising performance. So, statement 1 is correct.
● A limitation of current LLMs is that LLMs excel at processing the semantic (meaning-related)
aspects of natural language but struggle with syntax. However, the QNLP system focuses on
grammar (syntax) and meaning (semantics) together, rather than separately as conventional
systems do. As a result, QNLP models are better equipped to distinguish the contexts
of various pieces of information and produce more accurate outputs. So, statement
2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recent years have witnessed a significant transformation in the landscape of artificial
intelligence (AI), especially in the field of Natural Language Processing (NLP).

Q41.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Biotechnology is the science of manipulating biological organisms and processes to
develop desired products or applications, is a vast and diverse field. It includes areas such as
genomics, genetic engineering, synthetic biology, bioinformatics, gene therapy, etc.
However, recent breakthroughs in gene editing technologies, protein synthesis, or the ability to
grow specific enzymes using genetically modified microorganisms, coupled with increased data
processing capabilities and the use of artificial intelligence, have opened up new possibilities for
biotechnology.
● The following are the uses of biotechnology for economic development:
○ Precision fermentation and animal-free milk: It is a biotechnology process that
enables the production of specific proteins and compounds using
microorganisms. This method can produce animal-free milk that is identical in
taste, texture, and nutritional value to natural milk, but without relying on
animals. This approach lowers the environmental impact of dairy production by reducing
carbon emissions, land, and water use associated with traditional dairy farming. So,
statement 1 is correct.
○ Polylactic acid and bioplastics: It is a biodegradable plastic made from renewable
sources like corn starch or sugarcane, not hydrocarbons. It offers an
environmentally friendly alternative to traditional plastics derived from fossil fuels, as it is
compostable and reduces the dependency on non-renewable resources. So, statement
2 is not correct.
○ Carbon capture using modified microorganisms: Biotechnology allows for the use
of genetically modified microorganisms, such as specific bacteria and algae, to
capture and convert atmospheric carbon dioxide into useful compounds like
biofuels. This bioprocess reduces the need for storage of CO₂ in geological formations,
offering a sustainable and practical approach to carbon capture and contributing to efforts
to mitigate climate change. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● The BioE3 (Biotechnology for Economy, Environment and Employment) Policy is a plan
to use biotechnology to promote India's economic growth, environmental sustainability, and
employment generation.
● To address the national priorities, the BioE3 Policy would broadly focus on the following
strategic and thematic sectors:
○ smart proteins & functional foods.

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 ○ high-value bio-based chemicals, biopolymers & enzymes;
○ precision biotherapeutics;
○ climate resilient agriculture;
○ carbon capture & its utilization;
○ marine & space research.
Relevance: Recently, the BioE3 (Biotechnology for Economy, Environment and Employment) Policy for
Fostering High-Performance Biomanufacturing was approved by the Government of India.

Q42.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats (CRISPR) is a technology that
research scientists use to selectively modify the DNA of living organisms. It is a gene-editing
technology that uses DNA sequences found in bacteria to modify the DNA of living organisms.
● CRISPR-based systems that rely on traditional Cas nucleases like Cas9 cut through both
strands of DNA which can lead to undesirable and even dangerous edits to the
genome. This is known as off-targeting. Off-target cutting is a major limitation of the CRISPR-
Cas9 system. It can lead to unintended genetic modifications. So, statement 1 is
correct.
○ Researchers using CRISPR-Cas9 gene editing tools have discovered that while this
technology can enhance T-cell cancer therapies, it may also lead to unintended
chromosomal loss in the edited immune cells. Some researchers have found that
chromosome loss occurred for nearly 90 percent of all genes targeted.
● Prime Editing is a genome editing technology that can modify the DNA of living organisms
by directly inserting new genetic information into a targeted DNA site. Prime editing (PE)
is a “search-and-replace” genome editing technology. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● CRISPR-Cas9 removes both strands of DNA at the place they make an edit, while prime
editing only modifies one of the two strands of DNA. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, researchers have discovered that although base and prime editing techniques lead
to fewer undesired mutations compared to CRISPR-Cas9, they still produce some mutations, especially
at nicked sites.

Q43.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Dark patterns refer to the deceptive design practices that are used to manipulate users
into making decisions they might not otherwise make, such as signing up for unwanted services
or sharing personal information. These are unethical UI/UX interactions, designed to mislead or
trick users to make them do something they don't want to do.
● This issue is particularly pressing within India’s rapidly growing e-commerce sector. These are
increasingly used to manipulate user decisions, exploiting the surge in digital activity.
● Common techniques of dark patterns include creating a false sense of urgency to rush users into
making purchases, hiding subscription cancellations deep within websites and using confusing
language to mislead users. The tactics are unethical and undermine the integrity of the design
process, leading to practices that prioritise manipulation over genuine long-term user engagement.
The practices fall under the ‘unfair trade practices’ category under the Consumer
Protection Act, 2019.
● The Department of Consumer Affairs issued ‘Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Dark
Patterns, 2023’ under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

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Relevance: As the digital landscape expands and websites and apps become essential to daily life, a
concerning trend of dark patterns has emerged.

Q44.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY) provides financial
protection to vulnerable families with a health cover of Rs. 5 lakh per family per year. The
eligibility is determined based on the Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) database. The scheme
includes:
○ all the senior citizens aged 70 years and above, irrespective of income. So, point
1 is correct.
○ Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHAs) and their families. So, point 2 is correct.
○ The different categories in rural and urban areas based on deprivation criteria in the
SECC database include:
■ families having only one room with kucha walls and kucha roof;
■ families having no adult members between ages 16 to 59. So, point 3 is
correct.
■ female-headed households with no adult male member between ages 16 to 59;
■ disabled member and no able-bodied adult member in the family;
■ SC/ST households;
■ landless households deriving a major part of their income from manual casual
labour,
■ Families in rural areas having any one of the following: households
without shelter, destitute, living on alms, manual scavenger families, primitive
tribal groups, legally released bonded labour.
■ For urban areas, 11 defined occupational categories are entitled under the
scheme - Occupational Categories of Workers, Rag pickers, Beggars, Domestic
worker, Street vendor/Cobbler/hawker/Other service provider working on
streets, Construction worker/Plumber/
Mason/Labour/Painter/Welder/Security guard/, Coolie and another head-load
worker, Sweeper/Sanitation worker/Mali, Home-based
worker/Artisan/Handicrafts worker/Tailor, Transport worker/Driver/
Conductor/Helper to drivers and conductors/Cart puller/Rickshaw puller, Shop
worker/Assistant/Peon in small establishment/ Helper/Delivery
Assistant/Attendant/Waiter, Electrician/Mechanic/ Assembler/Repair worker,
Washerman/Chowkidar. So, point 4 is correct.
● As per the SECC 2011, the following beneficiaries are automatically excluded:
○ Households having motorized 2/3/4 wheeler/fishing boat. So, point 5 is not
correct.
○ Households having mechanized 3/4 wheeler agricultural equipment
○ Households having Kisan Credit Card with a credit limit above Rs. 50,000
○ The household member is a government employee
○ Households with non-agricultural enterprises registered with the government
○ Any member of the household earning more than Rs. 10,000/ - per month
○ Households paying income tax
○ Households paying professional tax
○ House with three or more rooms with pucca walls and roof
○ Owns a refrigerator
○ Owns a landline phone
○ Owns more than 2.5 acres of irrigated land with 1 irrigation equipment
○ Owns 5 acres or more of irrigated land for two or more crop seasons

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 ○ Owning at least 7.5 acres of land or more with at least one irrigation equipment
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Union Cabinet approved the inclusion of senior citizens aged 70 years and
above in Ayushman Bharat - Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY).

Q45.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The Parliamentary Committee on Official Languages was constituted under the Official
Languages Act, 1963. This Committee comprises 30 members of Parliament, 20 from Lok
Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha. So, statement 1 is correct.
● The Union Home Minister is the chairman of the committee. The Chairman of the
Committee is elected by the members of the Committee. As a convention, the Union
Home Minister has been elected as Chairman of the Committee from time to time. So,
statement 2 is correct.
● The primary function of the committee is to review the progress made in the use of Hindi
for official purposes within the Union, as well as to assess compliance with the provisions of the
Official Languages Act. The committee periodically submits reports to the President of India,
outlining the status of Hindi usage in government offices and recommending measures for its
promotion. So, statement 3 is correct.
● The Secretariat of the Committee is headed by the Secretary of the Committee. The
Secretary is assisted by the officers of the level of Under Secretary and other officials. They extend
all required assistance in performing the various activities of the Committee. For administrative
purposes, this office is a subordinate office of the Department of Official Language, Ministry of
Home Affairs.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Union Home Minister was elected as chairman of the Parliamentary Committee
on Official Language.

Q46.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Recently, a Southern Birdwing
butterfly has been found on the
satellite campus of the American
College in the Madurai district of
Tamil Nadu.
● It is also called the ‘Sahyadri
Birdwing’ and it is India’s second
largest butterfly species. It is the
State butterfly of Karnataka.
● Distribution: It is a large and
striking butterfly species found in
South Asia, majorly in the
Western Ghats and also in the
Eastern Ghats.
● It is exceptionally large in size, with wings that exceed the dimensions of smaller birds.
This notable wingspan is the reason behind its name, “birdwing.“
● It is listed as Least Concern on the IUCN Red List. It is also listed in CITES (Convention on
International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) and is considered a high
conservation priority.

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 Points to remember

Recently, the Golden

Birdwing (Troides aeacus), a
stunning Himalayan butterfly,
has been identified as India’s
largest butterfly, breaking an
88-year-old record.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q47.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Exercise AL NAJAH: It is a biennial military exercise between India and Oman. The fifth
edition of AL NAJAH V focused on strengthening defence ties and enhancing interoperability
between the Indian and Omani armies. It was held at the Rabkoot Training Area in Oman. So,
pair 1 is correctly matched.
● Exercise Eastern Bridge: It was aimed to strengthen military cooperation and enhance the
interoperability of both forces. It was held in 2024 between the Indian Air Force and the
Royal Air Force of Oman in Masirah, Oman. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
● Dharma Guardian: It is a joint military drill between the Indian Army and the Japan
Ground Self-Defense Force. It aims at enhancing defence cooperation and tactical
interoperability between the two countries' armies. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
So, only two of the pairs given above are correctly matched.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The bilateral exercise Eastern Bridge VII endeavours to enhance interoperability between
the Royal Oman Air Force and the Indian Air Force.

Q48.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● A metapopulation consists of a species population distributed across multiple but
connected habitats. Establishing such a population of cheetahs is a key objective of Project
Cheetah.
● The Kuno-Gandhi Sagar landscape, spanning both Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan, is
critical in this effort, as it encompasses multiple protected areas and forest divisions. This
landscape covers regions such as Sheopur, Gwalior, Morena, and Shivpur in Madhya Pradesh and
extends into Rajasthan through areas like Kota, Bundi, and Sawai Madhopur. By conserving and
managing this vast landscape, the long-term viability and genetic diversity of the cheetah population
can be ensured.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Project Cheetah:
● It is a program to reintroduce cheetahs to India. The project began in September 2022 and
involves moving cheetahs from South Africa and Namibia to Kuno National Park in

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 Madhya Pradesh. The goal is to establish a self-sustaining population of cheetahs by bringing in
5-10 animals each year for the next decade.
Relevance: According to the government's 2023-24 Project Cheetah progress report, protecting
contiguous forest habitats across Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan is crucial to achieving a metapopulation
of 60-70 cheetahs.

Q49.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Understanding the relationship between global commodities is crucial for analyzing market trends.
The prices of gold and oil, along with the value of currencies, play a significant role in the global
economy.
● There is a positive correlation between global oil prices and the international price of
gold. When crude oil prices rise, it often signals global inflation, increasing the demand for gold
as a hedge against inflation. Gold, being a tangible asset, is not subject to the same depreciation
risks as financial assets, making it a preferred store of value during inflationary periods. So,
statement 1 is correct.
● On the other hand, there is a negative correlation (inverse relationship) between the value
of the U.S. dollar and the price of gold. When the U.S. dollar weakens against other major
currencies, the price of gold typically increases, as gold becomes cheaper in foreign currencies.
Since the global price of gold is expressed in U.S. dollars, its depreciation raises the global
price of gold. So, statement 2 is not correct.
So, statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is incorrect.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: In recent weeks gold has witnessed a phenomenal price increase, with expectations to rise
further.

Q50.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Supernova: It is a massive explosion that occurs when a star exhausts its nuclear fuel and
collapses under its own gravity. This event marks the end of a star’s life cycle, especially
for massive stars. The outer layers of the star are expelled in a powerful explosion, leaving behind
a neutron star or black hole. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
● Magnetar: It is a rare type of neutron star with an extremely powerful magnetic field, often
trillions of times stronger than Earth’s. These stars occasionally produce massive bursts of energy
in the form of gamma rays or X-rays due to shifts in their crust, triggered by their magnetic forces.
So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
● Protostar: It represents an early stage in the formation of a star, where nuclear fusion
has not yet started. While the star is still accumulating mass from its surrounding nebula, it is
not yet capable of sustaining hydrogen fusion. Only after sufficient temperature and pressure are
reached does hydrogen fusion begin, marking the transition to a main-sequence star. So, pair 3
is not correctly matched.
So, only two of the pairs given above are correctly matched.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Pulsar:
● It is a type of neutron star, which is highly magnetized and rapidly rotates, emitting beams of
electromagnetic radiation. Pulsars do not "pulse" by periodically shrinking or swelling,

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 as previously thought. Instead, their pulsing effect is due to the beam of radiation being oriented
in such a way that it intermittently points towards Earth, much like a cosmic lighthouse.
Relevance: Astronomers have discovered a new millisecond pulsar within the globular cluster Terzan 6,
using the powerful Green Bank Telescope.

Q51.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The Arctic Sea's changing ice levels, primarily due to climate change, are increasingly
understood to have a significant impact on the Indian monsoon system. Recent studies by
researchers, including those from India’s National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research
(NCPOR), have revealed the intricate ways in which Arctic ice melt influences the timing and
intensity of monsoon rainfall in India.
● Research shows that a decline in sea ice in the central Arctic Sea has complex regional
impacts on India's monsoon. Rather than increasing rainfall uniformly across the country,
reduced sea ice levels in the central Arctic result in less rainfall over western and peninsular
India, while increasing rainfall over northern and central regions. The pattern is thus more
regionally varied. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Studies have observed that decreasing sea ice levels in the Barents-Kara Sea region of
the northern Arctic are linked to a delayed onset of the Indian monsoon. This occurs due
to disruptions in the upper atmospheric conditions over subtropical Asia and India, leading to a
more unpredictable and delayed monsoon. The decline in sea ice affects the atmospheric
circulation patterns, particularly influencing the Rossby waves and subtropical jet streams, which
in turn delay the arrival of the monsoon. So, statement 2 is correct.
● Additionally, lower sea ice in the northern Arctic causes disturbances that lead to an increased
likelihood of heavy rainfall in northeastern India, while central and northwestern regions may
receive below-average rainfall.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Rossby Waves:
● These are fast-flowing streams of air in the upper atmosphere. They are created due to
the rotation of the planet.
● These are formed when polar air moves toward the Equator while tropical air is
moving poleward.
● These waves help transfer heat from the tropics toward the poles, and cold air from poles
toward the tropics.
● They also help locate the jet stream and mark out the track of surface low-pressure systems.
The slow motion of these waves often results in fairly long, persistent weather patterns.
Relevance: A recent study found that seasonal changes in the Arctic Sea ice affect the Indian monsoon
as well.

Q52.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Silicon Carbide (SiC) is a hard, synthetic crystalline compound of silicon and carbon.
While small quantities of Silicon Carbide (SiC) do occur naturally in minerals such as
moissanite, the majority of the SiC used industrially is synthetically manufactured. It is
produced by heating a mixture of silica sand and carbon (such as petroleum coke) in an electric
furnace at very high temperatures. So, statement 1 is not correct.

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 ● It is classified as a semiconductor and not a metallic compound. Its electrical conductivity lies
between that of metals and insulating materials, making it useful in high-performance
electronics. It is used in power electronics due to its ability to handle high temperatures and
voltages. So, statement 2 is correct.
● It is an extremely hard material, and its sharp grains make it ideal for use in abrasive
applications. It is commonly used in grinding wheels, polishing, cutting, and smoothing non-
metallic materials such as glass, ceramics, and stones, as well as some non-ferrous metals. So,
statement 3 is correct.
● It is one of the most widely used non-oxide ceramics and is known for its ability to withstand
very high temperatures. It has excellent thermal conductivity, thermal shock resistance, and
strength at high temperatures, which makes it suitable for use in high-temperature applications
like refractories and kilns. So, statement 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: India's first Silicon Carbide manufacturing facility is set to be established in Odisha.

Q53.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Heliotropism refers to the growth of plants in response to sunlight, allowing them to
maximize exposure for photosynthesis, as shown by sunflowers leaning toward the sun.
● A 2017 study uncovered a remarkable observation in sunflower growth patterns. When
sunflowers were planted densely in a row, they naturally formed a zigzag pattern by
leaning away from their neighboring plants in alternating directions. This movement, known
as circumnutation, helped the plants avoid shading each other and maximize sunlight
exposure. As a result, these sunflowers thrived, producing more oil. In contrast, sunflowers
forced to grow upright without leaning produced less oil.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: A recent study discovered that sunflowers planted closely together naturally arranged
themselves in a zigzag pattern.

Q54.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Nada Habba refers to the Mysuru Dasara festival celebrated in Karnataka. It is a grand
festival marking the victory of good over evil, and it's famous for its elaborate processions and
cultural events. So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
● Kadalekai Parishe is an annual festival celebrated in Bengaluru, Karnataka, dedicated to the
first groundnut (kadalekai) crop of the season. It is also called the Groundnut Fair and takes place
around the Bull Temple in Basavanagudi. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
● Bombe Habba is a part of the Dasara (Dussehra) celebrations in Karnataka. It involves
the display of dolls and figurines in homes, particularly during Navratri, and is a traditional practice
in the State. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
● Megh Malhar is celebrated in Saputara, Gujarat, which is a popular hill station known for its
monsoon festival. This festival includes cultural events, music and dance performances, and
showcases the beauty of the region during the monsoon season. So, pair 4 is correctly
matched.
So, only two of the pairs given above are correctly matched.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Megh Malhar was held at Saputara, Gujarat.

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Q55.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Drug repurposing is a strategy where an existing drug, originally developed and approved for
one medical condition, is tested and used for treating a completely different disease or
condition. This approach leverages the known safety profile and pharmacology of an existing
drug, significantly speeding up the drug development process. Since the drug has already passed
safety trials for its original use, repurposing it for another condition can reduce the time and cost
typically associated with bringing a new drug to market.
○ A well-known example is the drug Thalidomide, initially developed as a sedative, which
is now used to treat conditions such as leprosy and certain cancers.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q56.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The Integrated Ocean Energy Atlas has been developed by the Indian National Centre
for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS), which operates under the Ministry of Earth
Sciences, Government of India. INCOIS is responsible for providing ocean-related information,
services, and forecasting.
● The atlas encompasses marine meteorological energy sources like solar and wind and
hydrological energy forms such as waves, tides, currents, and ocean thermal and salinity
gradients. It identifies areas with high energy generation potential, serving as a vital resource for
policymakers, industries and researchers. So, points 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are correct.
● According to INCOIS, the atlas includes detailed annual, monthly and daily estimates of these
ocean energy components, which can be accessed via a WebGIS interface at a five-km grid
resolution.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) was established as
an autonomous body in 1999 under the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) and is a unit of
the Earth System Science Organisation (ESSO). It is mandated to provide the best
possible ocean information and advisory services to society, industry, government agencies and
the scientific community through sustained ocean observations and constant improvements
through systematic and focused research.
● The National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT) was established in November 1993
as an autonomous society under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, Government of India. It
aims to develop reliable indigenous technologies to solve the various engineering problems
associated with the harvesting of non-living and living resources in the Indian Exclusive Economic
Zone (EEZ).
Relevance: Recently, researchers at the Hyderabad-based Indian National Centre for Ocean Information
Services (INCOIS) have developed the Integrated Ocean Energy Atlas.

Q57.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The Biotechnology Research Innovation and Entrepreneurship Development (Bio-
RIDE) scheme is designed to foster innovation, promote bio-entrepreneurship, and strengthen
India’s position as a global leader in biomanufacturing and biotechnology.
● It aims to accelerate research, enhance product development, and bridge the gap between
academic research and industrial applications. The scheme is part of the Government of India’s

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 mission to harness the potential of bio-innovation to tackle national and global challenges such as
healthcare, agriculture, environmental sustainability, and clean energy.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Implementation of the Bio-RIDE Scheme will:

● Promote Bio-Entrepreneurship: It will nurture a thriving ecosystem for startups by
providing seed funding, incubation support and mentorship to bio-entrepreneurs.
● Advance Innovation: The scheme will offer grants and incentives for cutting-edge research
and development in areas like synthetic biology, biopharmaceuticals, bioenergy, and bioplastics.
● Facilitate Industry-Academia Collaboration: It will create synergies between academic
institutions, research organizations, and industry to accelerate the commercialization of bio-
based products and technologies.
● Encourage Sustainable Biomanufacturing: A significant focus will be placed on promoting
environmentally sustainable practices in biomanufacturing, aligned with India’s green goals.
● Support researchers through Extramural funding: It will play a critical role in advancing
scientific research, innovation, and technological development across diverse fields of
biotechnology by supporting extramural funding to research institutions, universities, and
individual researchers in areas such as agriculture, healthcare, bioenergy, and environmental
sustainability.
● Nurturing Human Resources in the Biotechnology sector: It will provide holistic
development and support to students, young researchers and scientists working in the
multidisciplinary areas of Biotechnology. The integrated programme of Human Resource
Development will contribute towards the capacity building and skilling of the manpower and
make them competent to leverage the newer horizon of technological advancements.
Relevance: The Union Cabinet recently approved the continuation of two umbrella schemes under the
Department of Biotechnology (DBT), now consolidated into a single scheme called 'Bio-RIDE'.

Q58.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The Gulf Cooperation Council
(GCC) is a political and economic
alliance of six Middle Eastern
countries—Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, the
United Arab Emirates (UAE), Qatar,
Bahrain, and Oman. It was
established in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia, in
May 1981. So, points 1 and 2 are
correct.
● The purpose of the GCC is to achieve
unity among its members based on
their common objectives and their
similar political and cultural
identities, which are rooted in Arab
and Islamic cultures. The Presidency of
the council rotates annually.
● Iran, Yemen and Iraq are not the
members of GCC. So, points 3, 4
and 5 are not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct
answer.

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 Knowledge Box

India-Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) Free Trade Agreement (FTA):

● The India-Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) Free Trade Agreement (FTA) is a
proposed trade pact between India and the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC). The FTA is
aimed at enhancing economic relations, reducing trade barriers, and promoting investment
between India and the GCC countries.
● Negotiations for the India-GCC FTA were initiated in 2004, but progress slowed due to
various factors. Two rounds of negotiations have been held so far in 2006 and 2008.
● In 2022, talks to revive the FTA gained momentum as both India and GCC countries showed
renewed interest in enhancing economic ties, especially post-COVID-19.
Relevance: Recently India and the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) adopted a Joint Action Plan 2024-
2028 during their first Foreign Ministers meeting in Riyadh.

Q59.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Salt pans are low-lying coastal areas designed to allow seawater to enter and evaporate,
leaving salt and other minerals behind. This evaporation process, driven by solar energy,
facilitates the traditional collection of salt. So, statement 1 is correct.
● According to the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) notification of 2011, ecologically sensitive salt
pans are classified under the CRZ-1B category, which prohibits any economic activities except
for salt extraction and natural gas exploration. So, statement 2 is correct.
● However, existing guidelines strictly prohibit the sale of salt lands to private entities.
Instead, these lands can only be transferred to government bodies, including Central and State
Ministries, departments and Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs). So, statement 3 is not
correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently Centre approved the transfer of 256 acres of salt pan land in Mumbai to the Dharavi
Redevelopment Project Pvt Ltd (DRPPL).

Q60.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● ‘Teal carbon’ refers to the carbon stored in non-tidal freshwater wetlands, encompassing
carbon sequestered in vegetation, microbial biomass and particulate organic matter. These
wetlands act as significant carbon sinks by absorbing and storing carbon dioxide from the
atmosphere, contributing to climate regulation.
● The term "teal" distinguishes it from "blue carbon" (stored in coastal and marine ecosystems) and
"green carbon" (stored in forests and terrestrial plants).
● Recently, India’s first study on ‘teal carbon’, undertaken at Keoladeo National Park (KNP) in
Rajasthan has highlighted the significance of wetland conservation to address the challenges of
climate adaptation and resilience. It has depicted the potential of teal carbon as a tool to mitigate
climate change if the anthropogenic pollution in the wetlands can be controlled.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, India’s first study on ‘teal carbon’, was undertaken at Keoladeo National Park (KNP)
in Rajasthan.

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Q61.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The Manas Tiger Reserve (MTR) spans across northwest Assam. To the north, it is separated
from the Royal Manas National Park of Bhutan by the River Manas and its tributaries- Beki
and Hakua; while to the west, it is separated from the Buxa Tiger Reserve of West Bengal
by the River Sankosh.
● The MTR has the unique distinction of being a Natural World Heritage Site, an Elephant
Reserve, a Biosphere Reserve and an Important Bird Area. Evolutionarily, it is the entry
point of tigers into India. It forms part of a large tiger conservation landscape which includes Buxa-
Nameri-Pakke-Namdapha tiger reserves and protected areas of Bhutan and Myanmar. So, points
1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
● It has not been designated as a Ramsar Wetland Site in India. So, point 5 is not correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Assam's Manas National Park and Tiger Reserve will reopen for tourists following the end of
the monsoon closure period as mandated by the Government of India.

Q62.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Philadelphi Corridor is a
narrow strip of land that runs
along the border between the
Gaza Strip and Egypt. It is
approximately 14 kilometers long
and 100 metres wide and serves as
a buffer zone.
● This corridor was established after
the Israel-Egypt Peace Treaty
in 1979, primarily to separate the
Gaza Strip from Egypt.
● It was designated as a
demilitarised border zone
after the withdrawal of Israeli
settlements and troops from Gaza
in 2005 and runs from the Mediterranean to the Kerem Shalom crossing with Israel. It was
seized by Israel in May this year as its Gaza ground offensive pushed into Rafah.
● The Rafah crossing between Egypt and Gaza is within the Philadelphi Corridor.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, Israel has faced significant pressure to relinquish control of the Philadelphi
Corridor.

Q63.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● A Credit Default Swap (CDS) is a financial derivative allowing an investor to swap or
offset their credit risk with another investor's. To swap the risk of default, the lender buys
a CDS from another investor who agrees to reimburse them if the borrower defaults. So,
statement 1 is correct.
● Most CDS contracts are maintained via an ongoing premium payment similar to the regular
premiums due on an insurance policy. A lender who is worried about a borrower defaulting on a
loan often uses a CDS to offset or swap that risk.

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 ● CDS serves multiple purposes: speculation, hedging and arbitrage.
○ Speculation: Investors trade CDSs to profit from fluctuations in their market values. By
buying or selling CDS contracts, they bet on changes in an entity's credit risk.
○ Hedging: CDSs act as insurance against credit risk. For example, a bank may
purchase a CDS to protect against potential default by a borrower, thereby transferring
the risk to another party.
○ Arbitrage: Investors can exploit price discrepancies between different markets
using CDSs. For instance, they can profit from differences in prices by buying a bond in
one market and a CDS on that bond in another. So, statement 2 is correct.
● Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) recently allowed mutual funds to sell Credit
Default Swaps (CDS) to aid liquidity growth in the corporate bond market. So, statement 3
is not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) recently allowed mutual funds to sell Credit
Default Swaps (CDS).

Q64.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Recently, the Prime Minister of India announced the adoption of the Delhi Declaration on
Civil Aviation in September 2024. The Declaration was adopted unanimously after the 2nd
Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference in New Delhi. The Declaration is a comprehensive framework
aimed at enhancing regional cooperation, addressing emerging challenges and fostering
sustainable growth in the civil aviation sector in the Asia-Pacific region.
● A key focus of the Delhi Declaration is accelerating efforts to reduce aviation's environmental
impact. The declaration also emphasizes the critical role of accelerating progress towards
gender equality in the sector. India leads with 15% of its pilots being women, triple the global
average. However, further efforts are needed to ensure gender equity in aviation across the region
and to meet the human resource demands of the sector’s rapid expansion.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Delhi Declaration, endorsed by 29 countries, sets ambitious targets for the future of air
travel in one of the world's fastest-growing aviation.

Q65.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Lebanon is a small Middle Eastern nation situated
on the eastern coast of the Mediterranean Sea in
Western Asia. It is located in the Northern and
Eastern hemispheres of the Earth.
● Lebanon borders two countries. It is bounded in the
northern and eastern parts by Syria; in the
southern part by Israel; and in the western part by
the Mediterranean Sea. The country shares its
maritime borders with Cyprus. So, points 1, 2 and 3
are correct.
● The Caspian Sea does not share borders with
Lebanon. So, point 4 is not correct.
So, only three of the above share a border with
Lebanon.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

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Relevance: Israeli strikes on Lebanon have resulted in 700 deaths in the past week, with ongoing clashes
between Israel and Hezbollah causing the displacement of thousands.

Q66.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● South America, particularly the Amazon, is experiencing record-breaking wildfires, driven
by severe drought worsened by climate change. These fires have created a massive toxic smoke
cloud covering nearly 4 million square miles, resulting in alarming environmental effects like
"black rain" and green rivers. The air pollution levels in some regions have soared to almost
50 times the limit recommended by the World Health Organization (WHO), posing
severe health risks.
● In recent weeks, cities across South America, including Buenos Aires, São Paulo, Rio de Janeiro,
Londrina, Cochabamba, and La Paz, have seen a sharp rise in black carbon, particulate matter,
and gases like ozone, nitrogen oxides, and carbon monoxide. In Montevideo, Uruguay’s capital,
dense smoke and "black rain"—caused by ash and soot mixing with precipitation—led to poor
visibility for several days. Similar conditions were reported across 11 Argentine provinces,
including the Buenos Aires metropolitan area.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, South America has been grappling with unprecedented fires, leading to black rain,
green rivers, and dangerously toxic air across the continent.

Q67.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Pink Bollworm (PBW) is a major pest affecting cotton crops, especially Bt cotton. It
damages the crop by burrowing into cotton bolls, causing considerable yield losses. So,
statement 1 is correct.
● PBW primarily spreads through the air. Residue of infected crops, often left by farmers on
the field to be used as fuel, can also harbour PBW larvae which can then infect future crops. So,
statement 2 is correct.
● PBW first appeared in North India during the 2017-18 season and primarily impacted Bt
cotton. Upon detecting Pink Bollworm (PBW) in cotton crops, experts at Punjab Agricultural
University, Ludhiana, recommend insecticide sprays to protect bolls that have not yet been
infested. However, once PBW has penetrated the bolls, insecticides are ineffective in
saving them. To prevent future outbreaks, experts advise that fields previously affected by PBW
should avoid cotton planting for at least one season. Additionally, farmers should burn any crop
residue promptly and ensure strict separation between healthy and infected seeds or cotton. This
precaution extends to cotton processing factories to minimise cross-contamination. So,
statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, farmers in Haryana have increasingly abandoned cotton cultivation in favour of
paddy due to severe infestations of the Pink Bollworm (PBW).

Q68.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The windfall tax in India refers to an additional tax levied on certain companies that experience
sudden and unexpected increases in profits, typically due to extraordinary market
conditions or external factors. This tax is primarily aimed at sectors that benefit significantly from
global price hikes or unique economic situations. The most common industries that fall target to
windfall gains tax include oil, gas, and mining. The tax is levied in the form of a Special Additional
Excise Duty (SAED). So, statement 1 is correct.

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 ● India first imposed windfall profit taxes on July 1, 2022, joining a host of nations that tax
supernormal profits of energy companies. The tax rates are reviewed every fortnight based on
average oil prices in the previous two weeks. So, statement 2 is not correct and statement
3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the government has decided to cut the windfall tax on domestically-produced crude
oil.

Q69.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Drp1 is naturally abundant in cells in the human body and travels to the mitochondria when
they divide into smaller sizes for higher mobility and quality control. However, excessive Drp1
activity causes excessive division, leading to fragmented mitochondria with impaired function.
● Drp1 is essential for the division of mitochondria, allowing them to split into smaller
organelles. This process is crucial for maintaining healthy mitochondrial function, distribution
and turnover. The recruitment of Drp1 to mitochondrial outer membranes is a key step in the
fission process of Mitochondrial Morphology. By facilitating mitochondrial fission, Drp1
helps regulate the overall shape and size of mitochondria, impacting cellular energy production
and metabolism.
● In Parkinson's disease, mitochondrial dysfunction is a significant contributing factor. Drp1 is
critical for mitochondrial fission and abnormalities in its function can lead to impaired
mitochondrial quality control, resulting in the accumulation of damaged mitochondria.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recent research revealed that mitochondria play a crucial role in keeping brain cells alive.

Q70.
Answer: c
Explanation:
India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) was set up under the Department of Post, Ministry of
Communication with 100% equity owned by the Government of India. IPPB has expanded its
strength across India covering post offices, through a network of one Branch and 649 Banking outlets
manned by Business Correspondents, working on a hub and spoke model.
● IPPB does not provide traditional ATM services. Instead, it operates on a different model
that focuses on digital banking and leveraging the extensive network of India Post. So, statement
1 is correct.
● IPPB can sign an Inter Creditor Agreement (ICA) with other banks. In 2018, IPPB was one
of 22 public sector banks that signed an ICA to resolve Non-Performing Assets (NPAs). So,
statement 2 is not correct.
● As per Reserve Bank of India (RBI) guidelines, it can only hold a maximum of Rs. 2 lakh in
the regular savings account. IPPB has collaborated with the DoP (Department of Posts) to
open a Post Office Savings Account (POSA) which will be linked to the IPPB account. Funds
exceeding Rs. 2 lakh in the regular savings account can be transferred to the linked POSA. So,
statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) has recently celebrated its 7th Foundation Day (IPPB Day).

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Q71.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Cocoa is an important plantation crop grown for chocolates around the world. It is known as a
crop of humid tropics and is native to the Amazon basin of South America. It is mainly
grown in an area of land around the equator between 20 degrees latitude north and south.
● Required climatic conditions
○ It can be grown up to 300 m above mean sea level.
○ Rainfall: It requires an annual rainfall of 1500-2000 mm.
○ Temperature: The temperature range of 15°-39°C with an optimum of 25°C is
considered ideal.
○ Soil: It requires deep and well-drained soils. The majority of the area under Cocoa
cultivation is on clay loam and sandy loam soil.
○ It grows well in the pH range of 6.5 to 7.0.
● Major producing regions in the world: About 70 percent of the world’s cocoa beans come
from four West African countries: Ivory Coast, Ghana, Nigeria and Cameroon.
● In India, it is mainly cultivated in Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu mainly as intercrop
with Arecanut and Coconut.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, Ghana has been piloting a system that traces cocoa beans from farm to port as it
gears up for a new EU law banning the import of commodities linked to deforestation.

Q72.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● SCOMET is an acronym for Special Chemicals, Organisms, Materials, Equipment and
Technologies.
● This List contains goods which are considered as dual-use items, i.e., goods, technology,
chemicals, organisms etc. which potentially have both, civil as well as military applications
and are capable of being deployed as weapons of mass destruction.
● India’s Foreign Trade Policy regulates the export of items on the SCOMET List. The exporter
must obtain a license from the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT), Ministry of
Commerce and Industry, to export SCOMET.
Points To Remember:

The SCOMET List is Governed by the Foreign

Trade (Development & Regulation) Act, 1992, as
amended in 2010.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry, has
recently notified the updated SCOMET list for the year 2024.

Q73.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● National Test House (NTH) is a premier Scientific Institution of the Country, established
way back in 1912 at Alipore in Kolkata, under the then Railway Board. Since then, it has grown
into a laboratory of national importance in the field of testing, quality evaluation and
ensuring the quality of almost all sorts of industrial and consumer products except drugs, arms
and ammunition by issuing test certificates in accordance with the national/international or
customer standard and specification.

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 ● NTH is a subordinate office under the administrative control of the Department of Consumer
Affairs, the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution. So, statement
1 is correct.
● It plays a pivotal role in the development of indigenous industries and serves as a vital link
between industrial research and the manufacture of finished products under rigid quality control.
● Among the various functions performed by the National Test House (NTH), it assists the
Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) in the formulation of national standards of goods and
services in India. So, statement 2 is correct.
● Recently, the Quality Council of India (QCI) has provisionally approved India’s first drone
Certification body to NTH Ghaziabad. The NTH will now certify drones or Unmanned Aircraft
Systems (UAS) at a highly competitive price to promote the drone manufacturing ecosystem in
India. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Quality Council of India (QCI) provisionally approved India’s first drone
certification body at NTH Ghaziabad.

Q74.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Household savings refer to the portion of disposable income that households set aside rather
than spend on consumption. These savings can be invested in various financial and physical assets.
● Household financial savings include currency, bank deposits, debt securities, mutual funds, pension
funds, insurance, and investments in small savings schemes. The total of these savings is referred
to as gross household financial savings.
Points To Remember

Net Household Financial Savings= Gross Savings-

Financial Liabilities
● If increased savings lead to reduced spending, it can slow down economic activity. Lower demand
can cause businesses to reduce wages or lay off workers, resulting in a decrease in per capita
income. When households choose to save more, they are typically reducing their consumption
of goods and services.
● Typically, an increase in household savings leads to a decrease in consumer spending, which can
reduce demand for goods and services. This tends to have a deflationary rather than an
inflationary effect.
● Increased savings usually reduce consumption, which may result in lower tax revenues.
Increased savings typically lead to reduced consumer spending.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Households in India have begun to rebuild their financial savings, primarily driven by rising
incomes.

Q75.
Answer: c
Explanation:
The Centralized Pension Payment System (CPPS) provides a national-level centralized system
allowing pension payouts through any bank or branch in India. This replaces the current
decentralised pension disbursement system, where each EPFO Zonal/Regional Office maintains
individual arrangements with just three to four banks.

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 ● The current decentralized pension disbursement system, in which each Employee Provident Fund
Organisation (EPFO) Zonal/Regional Office maintains individual arrangements with just three to
four banks, is replaced by the CPPS. Additionally, pensioners won't need to attend the branch
for any kind of verification when their benefits start, and their pension will be credited right
away after they are released. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● The EPFO anticipates that switching to the new system will result in large cost savings in pension
payouts. Beginning on January 1st, 2025, this feature will be made available as part of EPFO's
Centralized IT Enabled System (CITES 2.01), an ongoing IT modernization initiative. So,
statement 1 is correct.
● Additionally, even in the event that a pensioner relocates or switches banks or branches, the CPPS
will guarantee pension delivery across India without requiring the transfer of Pension
Payment Orders (PPO) from one office to another. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Who is eligible for a pension?

● Individuals have to fulfil the following criteria to be eligible for availing benefits under the
Employees' Pension Scheme (EPS).
○ Should be a member of EPFO,
○ Should have completed 10 years of service,
○ Has reached the age of 58.
● Beneficiaries can also withdraw the EPS at a reduced rate from the age of 50 years, and
can also defer the pension for two years (up to 60 years of age) after which they will get
a pension at an additional rate of 4% for each year.
Relevance: Recently, the proposal for a Centralized Pension Payment System (CPPS) for the Employees’
Pension Scheme, 1995 was approved.

Q76.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Quantum gravity is a theoretical framework that seeks to describe the force of gravity
within the context of quantum mechanics. It aims to unify general relativity, which describes
gravity as a curvature of space-time caused by mass, with quantum mechanics, which governs
the behaviour of particles at the atomic and subatomic levels.
Points To Remember

Graviton is a postulated quantum that is

thought to be the carrier of the
gravitational field.
It is analogous to the photon of the
electromagnetic field.
● One of the main challenges in this field is reconciling the continuous nature of gravitational
fields with the discrete nature of quantum particles. Researchers explore phenomena such as
gravity-induced entanglement, which investigates how gravity might affect quantum states of
particles.
● The ultimate goal of quantum gravity is to provide a comprehensive understanding of the
fundamental forces of nature, potentially offering insights into dark matter, dark energy, and
the origins of the universe itself.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

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Relevance: A team of researchers from the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Guwahati and the
University of Stellenbosch in South Africa are making significant strides in understanding the quantum
nature of gravity.

Q77.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The India-Middle East Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) is a proposed economic
corridor that aims to establish a direct trade route between India, the Middle East, and
Europe. It was announced in September 2023 at the G20 summit in New Delhi.
● It’s a multi-modal transportation corridor consisting of Railroad, Ship-to-Rail networks, and
Road transport routes. The IMEC corridor will also include an electricity cable, a hydrogen
pipeline, and a high-speed data cable.
Points To Remember

Signatories to the IMEC:

European Union, France, Germany,
Italy, Saudi Arabia, UAE and USA

● The corridor is made up of two parts:

○ Eastern corridor: Connects India to the UAE, Saudi Arabia, Jordan, and Israel.
○ Northern corridor: Connects those Middle Eastern countries to Europe.
● Ports to be connected as part of
IMEC:
○ India: Mundra (Gujarat),
Kandla (Gujarat), and Jawaharlal
Nehru Port Trust (Navi
Mumbai).
○ Middle East: Fujairah, Jebel
Ali, and Abu Dhabi in the UAE
as well as Dammam and Ras Al
Khair ports in Saudi Arabia.
Railway line will connect Fujairah
port (UAE) to Haifa port (Israel)
via: Saudi Arabia (Ghuwaifat and
Haradh) and Jordan. So, points 2, 3, 4 and 5 are correct.
○ Europe: Piraeus port in Greece, Messina in South Italy, and Marseille in France.
● Hambantota, Sri Lanka is not a part of the IMEC. So, point 1 is not correct.
So, only four of the above ports are part of the India-Middle East Europe Economic Corridor
(IMEC).
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Multiple route options are being considered that will include ports like Haifa in Israel and
Piraeus in Greece under the IMEC.

Q78.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Vertical Fiscal Asymmetry (VFA): It is defined as the share of sub-national governments’
own spending not financed through their own revenues. It is a situation in which revenues
do not match expenditures for different levels of government.

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 ● In other words, VFI is the fiscal gap in the sub-national governments due to improper
decentralization of public revenue and expenditure.This asymmetry in revenue and expenditure
decentralization is called Vertical Fiscal Asymmetry (VFA).’
● It is a structural issue that can be resolved if revenue and expenditure responsibilities can be
reassigned. It can be corrected through the financial transfers from the Union to the state
governments.
● With a horizontal fiscal imbalance, revenues and spending are mismatched for different
regions of the country. In a VFI, revenue and spending are not balanced for different government
levels.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, experts suggested that the role of the 16th Finance Commission should be to
eliminate vertical fiscal imbalance in federal relations.

Q79.
Answer: d
Explanation:
The semiconductor industry in India is rapidly evolving, driven by increasing demand for electronic
devices, government initiatives, and global supply chain shifts. India’s semiconductor market is expected
to grow significantly, with projections estimating a rise from about $15 billion in 2020 to over $63 billion
by 2026. Various initiatives aimed at fostering the growth of the semiconductor industry in India are as
follows:
● Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme for the electronics sector offers a $1.7 Bn
incentive package for companies establishing semiconductor manufacturing facilities in India,
making it a groundbreaking initiative. So, point 1 is correct.
● The Design Linked Incentive (DLI) scheme is part of India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) and
aims to offer financial incentives as well as design infrastructure support across various stages of
development and deployment of semiconductor design(s) for Integrated Circuits (ICs), Chipsets,
System on Chips (SoCs), Systems & IP Cores and semiconductor linked design(s) over a period
of 5 years. So, point 2 is correct.
● The Chips to Startup Programme represents a strategic effort by the Indian government to
build a sustainable semiconductor industry. By providing necessary support to startups, the
program aims to stimulate growth, innovation, and competitiveness in the semiconductor sector.
So, point 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Reference: The Union Cabinet approved the proposal of Kaynes Semicon Pvt Ltd to set up a
semiconductor unit in Sanand, Gujarat.

Q80.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The Combined Operational Review and Evaluation (CORE) programme has been
organised by the Headquarters Integrated Defence Staff (HQ IDS). It is conceptualized to
prepare senior officers of the Indian Armed Forces for future leadership roles, by
developing skills in strategic planning, duly anticipating, and preparing for future threats, challenges
and conflicts.
● The effective conduct of future wars will hinge on three vital elements: military leaders,
combatants (man–machine interface) and support staff. The Indian Armed Forces are
taking dynamic steps towards modernisation, both in concepts and inventory. It is, therefore,
imperative for future senior military leaders to stay abreast with changing geo-political dynamics
and futuristic combat scenarios augmented by disruptive technologies and advancements to take
comprehensive decisions.

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 ● The programme aims to foster jointness and integration and enhance cooperation and
coordination among different services to create a detailed understanding of the operational
environment. The programme will comprise panel discussions and lectures by 30 eminent
speakers and subject matter experts from varied fields, curated around a unique different theme
on each day.
● Changing Nature of Warfare, Globalisation and Interconnectedness, Lessons from Recent ongoing
Conflicts in the world, Impact of non-kinetic warfare, Cyber and Information Warfare, and
Adoption of Artificial Intelligence and autonomous systems in military are some of the topics that
will be discussed.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Reference: The Combined Operational Review and Evaluation (CORE) programme was recently
organised by the Headquarters Integrated Defence Staff (HQ IDS).

Q81.
Answer: a
Explanation:
The Digital Agriculture Mission is designed as an umbrella scheme to support various digital
agriculture initiatives. These include creating Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI), implementing the
Digital General Crop Estimation Survey (DGCES), and supporting IT initiatives by the Central
Government, State Governments, and Academic and Research Institutions.
● The scheme is built on three foundational pillars:
○ AgriStack is designed as a farmer-centric Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) to streamline
services and scheme delivery to farmers. A crucial feature of AgriStack is the
introduction of a 'Farmer ID', similar to Aadhaar card, serving as a trusted digital
identity for farmers. So, statement 1 is correct.
■ These IDs, created and maintained by the State Governments/ Union Territories,
will be linked to various farmer-related data, including land records, livestock
ownership, crops sown, and benefits availed. Agristack connects farmers to
services of various platforms.
■ The implementation of AgriStack is progressing through partnerships between
the Central and State Governments, with 19 states having signed MoUs with
the Ministry of Agriculture. Pilot projects have been conducted in six states to
test the creation of Farmer IDs and the Digital Crop Survey. The mission does
not mention the private sector.
■ Capacity building programs for training farmers to use digital tools have not
been explicitly mentioned in the Digital Agriculture Mission.
○ The Krishi Decision Support System (DSS) will integrate remote sensing data on
crops, soil, weather, and water resources into a comprehensive geospatial system. So,
statement 2 is not correct.
○ Under the Soil profile mapping mission, detailed soil profile maps on a 1:10,000 scale
for approximately 142 million hectares of agricultural land have been envisaged, with 29
million hectares of soil profile inventory already being mapped.
● Further under the Digital Agriculture Mission, the Digital General Crop Estimation Survey
(DGCES) will be used for crop-cutting experiments to provide precise yield estimates, enhancing
agricultural production accuracy. So, statement 3 is not correct.
○ By leveraging modern technologies like data analytics, AI, and remote sensing,
the mission will improve service delivery for farmers, including streamlined access to
government schemes, crop loans, and real-time advisories.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Reference: The Union Cabinet Committee recently approved the 'Digital Agriculture Mission' .

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Q82.
Answer: d
Explanation:
Indian Wolf (Canis lupus pallipes) inhabits thorn forests, scrub-lands, arid and semi-arid
grassland habitats. It is one of the common large carnivores found in the agro-pastoral semi-arid regions
of India. Majority of the 2000-3000 strong wolf population of India survives outside of protected areas and
in close proximity with people.
● The Indian wolf is the world’s oldest wolf lineage, found nowhere else in the world
besides India and Pakistan. They’ve been isolated within the Indian subcontinent for over
100,000 years. In contrast, wolves found from Iran to Turkey are more closely related to wolves
in Europe and North America than they are to wolves in India.
○ It is a subspecies of grey wolf inhabiting semi-arid and arid areas. High levels of
conflict are reported from human dominated landscapes with incidents of livestock lifting
attributed to them. So, statement 1 is correct.
Points To Remember

Wolves are a flagship species for

conserving India’s remaining grassland
ecosystems
● Indian wolves breed in winter, with mating occurring during October – November and is
restricted to the dominant (alpha) pair of the pack. After a courtship that can last from
days to months, wolves copulate during an estrus period of 5 to 7 days. So, statement 2 is
correct.
● Indian wolves are listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. This
categorization provides them with the highest level of protection in India, similar to other critically
endangered species, with stringent measures to prevent hunting and poaching. So, statement 3
is correct.
● The exact population of the Indian wolf remains uncertain, but estimates suggest that there are
between 2,000 and 3,000 individuals distributed across states such as Rajasthan, Gujarat,
Maharashtra, and Karnataka.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Reference: Recently, experts have raised concerns about the dire situation of the Indian wolf in India
and Pakistan.

Q83.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Vinayak Narahari Bhave, commonly known as Vinoba, was born at Gondia in Maharashtra, on
11 September 1895. He was one of the moving spirits of the Nagpur Flag Satyagraha, his
companions being Jamanalal Bajaj, Bhagwan Deen, and Nilkanthrao Deshmukh. In 1924, Gandhiji
sent Vinoba to Guruvayur (Kerala) to participate in the Harijan Temple Entry Satyagraha.
He participated in the famous ‘Dandi March’ for Salt Satyagraha in 1930, for which he was again
sent to prison.
● In April 1951, he started the Bhoodan Movement, with a view to bringing about fundamental
social and economical changes in society by peaceful means. The movement began by way of gifts
of lands to be distributed among the landless, later developing into voluntary renunciation
of ownership of land in favour of village communities – Gramdan. More than four million acres
of land were collected in self-sufficiency in food and clothing.
● He was the first Indian to be honored with the Ramon Magsaysay Award in 1958 for
his contribution to community leadership.
● Verghese Kurien (1963) and Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay (1966) were rewarded in the
category of Community Leadership.

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 ● In 1965, Jayaprakash Narayan was awarded in the category of Public Service.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Ramon Magsaysay Awards

● They were established in 1957 to honour the late President of the Philippines
● Often called Asia’s Nobel Prize, it was instituted in 1957 in the memory of the late Ramon
Magsaysay, the former President of Philippines Mr. Magsaysay. He was known for leading the
charge against the communist Hukbahalap or Huk movement and was popular among his people.
● The first awards were given out in 1958, in five categories. In 2008, these five categories were
discontinued. But a new category, the Ramon Magsaysay Award for Emergent Leadership, has
been introduced since 2009.
Relevance: Recently, the honorees of 2024 were felicitated with the Ramon Magsaysay Awards 2024.

Q84.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Micronutrient malnutrition is a term used to refer to diseases caused by a dietary deficiency of
vitamins or minerals. More than 2 billion people in the world today are probably affected by Micronutrient
malnutrition.
● Vitamin A deficiency, iron deficiency anaemia and iodine deficiency disorders are the
most common forms of Micronutrient malnutrition. People of all population groups in all
regions of the world can be affected by Micronutrient malnutrition. Although the most severe
problems of Micronutrient malnutrition are found in developing countries, people in developed
countries also suffer from various forms of these nutritional problems. So, points 1, 2 and 3
are correct.
● Micronutrient malnutrition is a major impediment to socioeconomic development and contributes
to a vicious circle of underdevelopment, to the detriment of already underprivileged groups. It
has long-ranging effects on health, learning ability and productivity. Poverty, lack of access to a
variety of foods, lack of knowledge of optimal dietary practices and high incidence of infectious
diseases are some of the factors which lead to Micronutrient malnutrition.
● At the International Conference on Nutrition (ICN), jointly convened by the Food and
Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) and the World Health Organization
(WHO) in December 1992, representatives of 159 countries endorsed the World Declaration
on Nutrition, pledging "to make all efforts to eliminate before the end of the decade, iodine and
vitamin A deficiencies" and "to reduce substantially other important micronutrient deficiencies,
including iron."
○ Linked to the World Declaration on Nutrition is the Plan of Action for Nutrition, which
recommends that governments give priority to food-based strategies to control and
prevent micronutrient deficiencies.
So, all three of the above disorders are the most common forms of Micronutrient
malnutrition.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Reference: Majority of the global population has inadequate access to vital micronutrients, claims a study
by the Lancet.

Q85.
Answer: d
Explanation:
‘eShram - One Stop Solution’ initiative aims to facilitate access of various social security schemes
being implemented by different Ministries/ Departments to unorganised workers through the eShram
portal.

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 ● As part of the initiative, Ministry of Labour and Employment (MoLE) has been working to integrate
following major schemes:
○ Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY)
○ Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY). So, point 1 is correct.
○ Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY). So, point 2 is
correct.
○ Pradhan Mantri Street Vendors Atmanirbhar Nidhi (PM-SVANidhi). So, point 3 is
correct.
○ Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA). So, point 4
is correct.
○ Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana Gramin (PMAY-G). So, point 5 is correct.
○ Ration Card scheme, for the benefit of the unorganised workers.
So, all five of the above schemes will be integrated through the eShram - One Stop Solution
initiative.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Reference: Recently, the Ministry of Labour & Employment revealed that eShram portal saw registration
of more than 30 crore unorganised workers in the last three years.

Q86.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) is the highest decision-making body for Defence
Procurement in India. It is responsible for formulating policies and procedures for defense
acquisitions, providing approvals for major defense procurements, and ensuring that the
procurement process aligns with India's strategic and security needs. It is chaired by the Union
Ministry of Defence.
● It was under the recommendations made by the Group of Ministers on Reforming the National
Security System, 2001. Its members include the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) and chiefs of
the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
● It has been entrusted with the following functions:
○ Give ‘in principle’ approval to Capital acquisitions in the Long Term Perspective
Plan (LTPP) covering a 15-year time span at the beginning of a Five Year Plan period. (The
approval will, in particular, identify the ‘Make’ projects in the Perspective Plan where long
gestation periods are involved).
○ Give ‘in principle’ Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) to each Capital acquisition
project for incorporation in the forthcoming Five Year Plan, at least nine months before
the commencement of the first year of that plan. The approval will involve the
identification of Either- ‘Buy’ Projects (outright purchase) Or- ‘Buy and Make’
projects (purchase followed by licensed production/ indigenous development) Or-
‘Make’ Projects (indigenous production and R&D)
○ Monitor the progress of major projects on feedback from the Defence Procurement
Board.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Reference: Defence Acquisition Council recently accorded preliminary approval for 10 procurement
proposals worth ₹1.44 lakh crore.

Q87.
Answer: d
Explanation:
In India, the following legislations are used for the detection and deportation of illegal migrants:

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 ● The Foreigner’s (Tribunal) Order, 1946: It established the framework for the functioning of
Foreigners' Tribunals, which are quasi-judicial bodies that determine the legality of a person's
presence in India. It plays a critical role in the identification and deportation of illegal migrants.
So, point 1 is correct.
● The Passport (Entry into India) Act, 1920: It regulates the entry of foreigners into India. It
outlines the conditions under which foreigners can enter and stay in the country, and violations
can lead to deportation. So, point 2 is correct.
● The Immigration (Expulsion from Assam) Act, 1950: Specifically applicable to the State of
Assam, this Act provides provisions for the expulsion of foreigners who have illegally entered the
state, particularly from neighboring countries. So, point 3 is correct.
● The Citizenship Act, 1955: While primarily focused on the acquisition and loss of Indian
citizenship, this Act also has provisions related to illegal migrants. It defines who can be considered
a citizen and can indirectly affect the status of illegal migrants. So, point 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Reference: The Union Home Ministry had constituted a High-Level Committee (HLC), headed by Justice
Biplab Kumar Sarma, for speedy implementation of Clause 6 of the Assam Accord

Q88.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Hepatitis refers to the inflammation of the liver, and it can be caused by various factors, including
viral infections, excessive alcohol use, certain medications, and autoimmune conditions. The most
common cause of hepatitis worldwide is viral infection, specifically through five main types of
hepatitis viruses: Hepatitis A, B, C, D, and E.
○ Hepatitis A and E are typically transmitted through contaminated food and
water, and they usually cause acute (short-term) infections. So, statement 1 is
correct.
○ Hepatitis B, C and D are spread through blood, sexual contact, and from mother
to child during childbirth. These can cause both acute and chronic (long-term)
infections, with chronic cases potentially leading to serious liver damage such as cirrhosis
or liver cancer. So, statement 2 is correct.
● Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C are major contributors to chronic liver disease and are the most
common causes of liver cancer (hepatocellular carcinoma). Chronic infection with these
viruses leads to ongoing inflammation and liver damage, increasing the risk of liver cancer.
● Hyderabad-based Indian Immunologicals Limited (IIL), a wholly owned subsidiary of National Dairy
Development Board (NDDB), has announced the launch of its latest breakthrough- the paediatric
dose of India's first indigenous Hepatitis A vaccine, Havisure (0.5 ml). The vaccine ‘Havisure’
represents a significant step forward in India’s fight against Hepatitis A. So, statement 3 is
correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Hyderabad-based Indian Immunologicals (IIL) announced the launch of its pediatric dose of
indigenous Hepatitis A vaccine, Havisure (0.5 ml).

Q89.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Foreign Venture Capital Investor (FVCI) is an investor incorporated and established
outside India, who invests primarily in unlisted securities of Venture Capital Undertakings and
Venture Capital Funds. The primary objective of FVCI is to support investments in early-stage
companies, startups, and venture capital projects, thereby promoting innovation and
entrepreneurship in India. So, statement 1 is correct.

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 ● FVCIs are regulated under the SEBI (Foreign Venture Capital Investors) Regulations,
2000, which establishes guidelines for registration, operations, and the regulatory framework for
FVCIs investing in Indian ventures. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● FVCIs need to obtain a certificate of registration from SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board
of India). A Designated Depository Participant (DDP) is a bank or other entity that is authorized
by SEBI to issue registration and certificates to Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) and FVCI. So,
statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Revised rules for FVCI by SEBI:

● New System for FVCI Applications: FVCI applicants must partner with Designated
Depository Participants (DDPs), which will act as custodians for investments.
○ DDPs will conduct due diligence and issue certification on SEBI's behalf.
○ This change takes effect from January 1, 2025.
● Mandatory Certification: FVCIs need a certificate from a DDP on behalf of SEBI to buy, sell,
or trade securities in India.
● Eligibility Criteria: Applicants must be companies/entities established outside India or in an
International Financial Services Center (IFSC).
○ They must come from countries with securities regulators who are members of IOSCO
or have bilateral MoUs with SEBI.
○ Government or related investors from Indian government-approved countries are
eligible.
○ Banks must be from countries whose central banks are BIS members or are otherwise
regulated.
○ Applicants and beneficial owners should not be on UNSC sanctions lists or from
countries identified by FATF for money laundering risks.
○ Applicants must meet SEBI’s “fit and proper” criteria.
● Restrictions on Resident Indians (RIs), NRIs, and OCIs: Contributions from NRIs, OCIs,
and RIs cannot exceed 25% of the total corpus individually and 50% combined.
○ These individuals cannot exercise control over the FVCI.
● Dematerialization Requirement: All FVCI investments must be held in dematerialized
(demat) form for enhanced transparency.
Relevance: Recently, SEBI made changes in Foreign Venture Capital Investors' registration, eligibility
criteria.

Q90.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Elongated Tortoise: It is a critically endangered species. The tortoise, found in the Sal
deciduous and hilly evergreen forests, is distributed across South Asia and Southeast Asia
from northern India, Nepal, Bhutan, and Bangladesh in the west, eastward through Myanmar,
Thailand, and all of Indochina, north to Guangxi Province of China and south to Peninsular
Malaysia. So, row 1 is correctly matched.
● Malabar Tree Toad: It is the only species in the monotypic genus Pedostibes. It can be found
along streams, on trees, and in tree cavities in evergreen to moist deciduous forests. It is
endemic to India’s Western Ghats. It is the only arboreal species in India, having the unique
capability to climb trees and dwell unlike the majority of the toads in the region that are ground-
dwelling. It is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List. So, row 2 is not correctly
matched.

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 ● Indian Star Tortoise: It is a species that has been listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List
since 2016. It is listed in the CITES Appendix I, which includes species threatened with extinction,
and Schedule 1 of India’s Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which provides absolute protection to
animals listed under it. It can grow up to the size of an adult palm and even bigger. In western
India, people like to keep it as a good luck charm. Sometimes it is kept as a religious object
or as a symbol of longevity. They occupy a wide variety of habitats, including semi-arid lowland
forests, thorn scrub forests, semi-desert and arid grasslands. So, row 3 is not correctly
matched.
So, in only one of the above rows the given information is correctly matched.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The critically endangered elongated tortoise was recently spotted in Aravallis.

Q91.
Answer: a
Explanation:
The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) bulletin was recently released for Clean Air for
Blue Skies Day. This year’s theme is ‘Invest in Clean Air Now’. The bulletin, the fourth in an annual series,
explores the intricate relationship between air quality and climate.
● Most people on Earth are exposed to harmful levels of PM2.5 pollution, with the highest exposures
occurring in Asia, Africa, and the Middle East. The 10 countries with the highest PM2.5 levels
(Global PM Hotspots) are India, Nepal, Niger, Qatar, Nigeria, Egypt, Mauritania, Cameroon,
Bangladesh, and Pakistan. So, points 1 and 2 are correct.
● The 10 countries with the lowest PM2.5 levels are Australia, Brunei Darussalam, Canada, Estonia,
Finland, Iceland, New Zealand, Norway, Sweden and the United States of America. So, points 3,
4 and 5 are not correct.
● Sources of PM2.5 pollution vary within and between countries and regions, and the mix of sources
changes over time. Some places are restricting activities or emissions, while others are increasing
the use of coal and other major drivers of PM2.5 pollution.
Points To Remember

Particles are defined by their diameter for air

quality regulatory purposes. Those with a diameter of
10 microns or less (PM10) are inhalable into the lungs
and can induce adverse health effects.
Fine particulate matter is defined as particles that are
2.5 microns or less in diameter (PM2.5).
So, only two of the above countries have been declared as Global Particulate Matter (PM)
Hotspots by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO).
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: United Nations’ World Meteorological Organization (WMO) released its fourth annual Air
Quality and Climate Bulletin

Q92.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Galathea Bay is located in the Great Nicobar Island of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
It is close to the strategic Malacca Strait, one of the world’s most critical maritime
chokepoints. Developing it as a major port would significantly enhance India’s strategic position in
the Indo-Pacific region by enabling better surveillance and control over this narrow sea
lane, through which a significant portion of global trade, including energy supplies from the Middle
East to East Asia, passes.

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 ● Nearly 25 per cent of all containers originating from India are transshipped through foreign ports.
Dependence on foreign ports adds to the cost incurred by the Indian industry and
poses a national security challenge.
● The designation of international transshipment hub at Galathea Bay in the Andaman and Nicobar
Islands as a 'major port' brings the Rs 44,000-crore mega project under the administrative purview
of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping, and Waterways, making it eligible for central funding.
Points To Remember

There are 12 major ports and 200 non-major ports (minor ports) in the country.
While the Major Ports are under the administrative control of the Ministry of
Shipping, the non-major ports are under the jurisdiction of respective State
Maritime Boards/ State Government.
All the 12 Major Ports are governed under the Major Port Trusts Act, 1963.
All the Non-Major Ports (minor ports) are governed under the Indian Ports Act,
IPA Act, 1908.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the centre notified Galathea Bay as a 'Major Port'.

Q93.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Tuberculosis (TB) is an infectious disease that most often affects the lungs and is caused by a
type of bacteria (Mycobacterium tuberculosis). It spreads through the air when infected people
cough, sneeze or spit. Tuberculosis is preventable and curable. About a quarter of the global
population is estimated to have been infected with TB bacteria.
● The BPaLM regimen (Bedaquiline, Pretomanid, Linezolid, and Moxifloxacin) is a newly
introduced treatment for drug-resistant TB. The primary aim of this regimen is to shorten the
duration of treatment for Multidrug-Resistant Tuberculosis (MDR-TB). Traditional TB
treatments can take up to 18-24 months, but the BPaLM regimen aims to reduce this to six
months, making treatment more manageable and improving patient outcomes.
Points To Remember

● Multidrug-resistant TB disease (MDR TB) is caused by germs that are

resistant to two or more of the main TB medicines: isoniazid and rifampin.
● Two more serious forms of MDR TB are called pre-extensively drug-resistant
TB (pre-XDR TB) and extensively drug-resistant TB (XDR TB).
● Pre-XDR and XDR TB are rare types of TB disease that are resistant to nearly
all medicines used to treat TB disease.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Union Ministry of Health recently approved a new treatment regimen for Multidrug-
Resistant TB.

Q94.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Agni prime: It is a two-stage, canisterized, solid propellant, surface-to-surface ballistic missile.
It has a range of 1,000–2,000 kilometers. It is lighter than its previous versions. It has an
improved propulsion and guidance systems with composite rocket motor casings and a
Manoeuvrable Reentry Vehicle (MaRV). So, row 1 is correctly matched.

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 ● Prithvi: It is a Short-Range Ballistic Missile (SRBM) developed by Defence Research and
Development Organisation (DRDO). It was India's first indigenous surface-to-surface missile,
and was developed as part of the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme.
○ Prithvi I: Has a range of 150 kilometers
○ Prithvi II: Has a range of 350 kilometers
○ Prithvi III: Has a range of 750 kilometers. So, row 2 is not correctly matched.
● Trishul: It is a short-range, surface-to-air missile developed by the Defence Research and
Development Organisation (DRDO). It was designed to defend naval vessels from missiles and
short-range surface-to-air missiles on land. The Trishul was supersonic and had a payload of 15
kilograms. It was also capable of being used as an anti-sea skimmer from a ship against low-flying
attacking missiles. The Trishul missile has a range of 300 meters to 9 kilometers. So, row 3
is not correctly matched.
● Nag: It is the 3rd generation, fire-and-forget anti-tank missile. It has a range of 500 meters to
4 kilometers. So, row 4 is not correctly matched.
So, in only one of the above rows the given information is correctly matched.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Agni-4 ballistic missile was successfully test-fired in Odisha recently.

Q95.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Habitat rights recognition to the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTGs) provides the
community concerned rights over their customary territory of habitation, socio-cultural practices,
economic and livelihood means, intellectual knowledge of biodiversity and ecology,
traditional knowledge of use of natural resources, as well as protection and conservation of their
natural and cultural heritage. So, statement 1 is correct.
○ Habitat rights safeguard and promote traditional livelihood and ecological
knowledge passed down through generations. They also help converge different
government schemes and initiatives from various departments to empower PVTG
communities to develop their habitats.
● Habitat rights are given to PVTGs under section 3(1) (e) [rights including community tenures of
habitat and habitation for primitive tribal groups and pre-agricultural communities] of The
Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest
Rights) Act, 2006 also known as the Forest Rights Act (FRA). So, statement 2 is correct.
○ According to Section 2(h) of FRA, “Habitat includes the area comprising the customary
habitat and such other habitats in reserved forests and protected forests of primitive tribal
groups and pre-agricultural communities and other forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes.”
● Odisha has become the only State in the country to provide such rights to the highest number
(5) of particularly vulnerable tribal groups (PVTGs). So, statement 3 is not correct.
○ Apart from Odisha, Madhya Pradesh has given habitat rights to Bharia PVTG and
Chhattisgarh government to Kamar and Baiga PVTGs.
Points To Remember

According to the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, tribal communities

who are technologically backward, who have stagnant or declining
population growth, extremely low level of literacy, and a
subsistence level of economy are declared as PVTG.
The Ministry has identified 75 PVGTs in 18 states and one Union
Territory.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Saoras became 5th Particularly Vulnerable Tribal group to get habitat rights in Odisha.

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Q96.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Thanjavur in Tamil Nadu is famed for being the hub of making veena,
an ancient musical instrument. Considered to be an abode of the arts,
the temple town is famed as the land where the veena is handcrafted,
with several artisans and their families involved in perfecting the
instrument generation after generation. The Thanjavur veena is the
first musical instrument in the country to get the
Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
● There are four types of veena.
○ While Rudra veena and Vichitra veena are popular in
Hindustani classical music, Saraswati veena and Chitra
veena are used in Carnatic classical music.
● Thanjavur is the only place where Saraswati veena is made.
Saraswati, the goddess of learning and arts, is portrayed with a veena.
The production of veena, handcrafted with skill and perfection, requires
dedication, time and devotion.
● At present, only a handful of families are engaged in making
Saraswati veena and the younger generation tends to avoid joining
the trade as it is not profitable and offers the artisans a meager
sustenance.
● The work involves making the resonator ( kudam), the neck (
dandi) and a tuning box — the three integral parts of a veena. The
process starts with ensuring that the sizing of the wood is accurate.
● Jackfruit wood is used to make veena and the process involves a
laborious task, taking up to 15-20 days, to get the finished product. The wood gets cut, intricately
carved, shaped, and assembled.
● In the case of ottu veena, the parts are made separately and assembled. In the case of ekantha
veena, it gets carved out of one whole piece of wood.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Thanjavur veena is the first musical instrument in the country to get the Geographical
Indication (GI) tag.

Q97.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Ferrocene is an organometallic compound consisting of a sandwich structure with a central iron (Fe)
atom between two cyclopentadienyl (C₅H₅) rings. This unique arrangement grants ferrocene distinctive
properties, such as thermal stability, solubility in various solvents, and redox activity. It is known for its
applications in diverse fields, including chemistry, materials science, and medicine.
● Ferrocene is not radioactive and is not used as a fuel in nuclear reactors. Nuclear reactors
typically utilize uranium or plutonium isotopes as fuel, which undergo fission to produce energy.
Ferrocene is mainly studied for its stability and combustion properties in chemical propulsion and
not for nuclear applications. So, point 1 is not correct.
● Ferrocene derivatives have shown promise in cancer research due to their ability to
selectively target cancer cells and enhance the efficacy of existing chemotherapy drugs.
Research has indicated that these compounds can interact with biological systems, making them
candidates for developing targeted therapies. So, point 2 is correct.

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 ● Ferrocene has applications in green energy due to its role in improving the efficiency of organic
solar cells and serving as an additive in fuels to reduce emissions. Its electrochemical properties
make it suitable for use in renewable energy technologies, contributing to cleaner energy
solutions. So, point 3 is correct.
● Ferrocene is not used as a food additive. While it is safe and stable for various industrial uses,
its properties and chemical structure do not lend themselves to flavor enhancement in food
products. Food additives typically consist of flavorings or preservatives that are specifically
designed for culinary applications. So, point 4 is not correct.
So, only two of the above are the common applications of ferrocene.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: A unique transistor developed using single molecules like Ferrocene, that could pave the
way for advancements in areas like quantum information processing.

Q98.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Glories are multicolor light shows similar to rainbows. The rainbows form via a combination
of reflection and refraction when sunlight bounces off falling rain droplets and splits into different
wavelengths. Glories are created by backward diffraction — when light bounces directly off
even smaller water droplets in clouds or mist, according to NASA's Earth Observatory.
● Because of this, glories only appear exactly opposite the sun, known as the anti-solar
point. Normally, glories appear as concentric multicolor circles when viewed from the ground
or in the air because the diffracted light radiates outward as it bounces back toward the observer.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: An unusual "double rainbow" glory appearing next to an unconnected chain of rare vortices
in the clouds above Mexico's Guadalupe Island was captured.

Q99.
Answer: c
Explanation:
The Supreme Court of India, the apex judicial body, is a federal
court, the highest court of appeal, and the guardian of the Constitution
of India.
● "Yato Dharmastato Jayah" that translates to "Where
there is Dharma, there is victory" or “Victory lies where
Dharma (righteousness) prevails” is the slogan of the Supreme
Court of India.
● It is written in the Devanagari Script and has been adopted from
the Mahabharata. Also, the new Supreme Court flag has ‘Yato
Dharmastato Jayah’ (in Devanagari script) inscribed on it.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Supreme Court's new flag has ‘Yato Dharmastato
Jayah’ inscribed on it in Devanagari script.

Q100.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Council of Europe’s Framework Convention on Artificial Intelligence and human
rights, democracy and the rule of law is the first-ever international legally binding treaty in
this field (adopted on 17 May 2024). It aims to ensure that activities within the lifecycle of artificial
intelligence systems are fully consistent with human rights, democracy and the rule of law, while
being conducive to technological progress and innovation. So, statement 1 is correct.

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 ● The Framework Convention complements existing international standards on human rights,
democracy and the rule of law, and aims to fill any legal gaps that may result from rapid
technological advances. In order to stand the test of time, the Framework Convention does not
regulate technology and is essentially technology-neutral. So, statement 2 is correct.
● Framework Convention require states to undertake risk and impact management steps:
○ Carry out risk and impact assessments in respect of actual and potential impacts on human
rights, democracy and the rule of law, in an iterative manner. So, statement 3 is
correct.
○ Establishment of sufficient prevention and mitigation measures as a result of the
implementation of these assessments;
○ Possibility for the authorities to introduce a ban or moratoria on certain applications
of AI systems (“red lines”).
● The Framework Convention was signed by Andorra, Georgia, Iceland, Norway, the Republic of
Moldova, San Marino, the United Kingdom as well as Israel, the United States of America and the
European Union. At present, India is not a signatory to the Convention. So, statement 4 is
not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Council of Europe Framework Convention on Artificial Intelligence and Human Rights,
Democracy and the Rule of Law, was opened for signature.

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 UPSC PRELIMS MOCK OMR ANSWER SHEET
DATE : TEST SUBJECT - .............................................................................

TEST NUMBER - ..................

Questions Attempted ____ Total Marks ____ Time Taken : ____ RESULT
Answers Wrong ____ (-)Negative marking____ Time Left : ____
Marks Obtained ____