29-01-2025

4504CMD303034240010 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-1

1) Two wires of same material and lengths L and 2L have areas of cross-section A and 2A,
respectively. These are joined in series and connected across a battery. The values of the electric
field and the drift velocity in the two wires will be, respectively, in the ratio of :-

(1) 2 : 1, 2 : 1
(2) 2 : 1, 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 1, 1 : 2
(4) 1 : 1, 2 : 1

2) A galvanometer of resistance 2Ω and having full scale deflection for a current of 100 mA can be
converted into a voltmeter of range 5 volt by connecting a resistance R in series with the
galvanometer. The resistance R in ohm is :-

(1) 98
(2) 52
(3) 50
(4) 48

3) In an experiment, a graph was plotted of the potential difference V between the terminals of a cell
against the circuit current i by varying load rheostat. Internal conductance of the cell is given by :-

(1) xy
(2) y/x
(3) x/y
(4) (x – y)

4) In given circuit current through AB is zero, then what will be the value of unknown resistance 'X'
(1) 10Ω
(2) 5Ω
(3) 40Ω
(4) 15Ω

5)

How will the reading of ammeter change if the key K is closed ?

(1) Increase
(2) Decrease
(3) Remains same
(4) Information insufficient

6) A group of N cells whose emf varies directly with the internal resistance as per the equation EN =
1.5 rN are connected as shown in the figure below. The current I in the circuit is :-

(1) 0.51 amp

(2) 5.1 amp
(3) 0.15 amp
(4) 1.5 amp

7) Assertion (A):– Terminal voltage of a cell is smaller than its emf during discharging of the cell
Reason (R):– The emf of a cell increases during discharging of the cell.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanaition of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanationi of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

8) A wire of resistance 10Ω is bent to form a circle. P and Q are points on the circumference of the
circle dividing it into a quadrant and are connected to a battery of 3 V and internal resistance 1Ω as

shown in the figure. The currents in the two parts of the circle are

(1)
and

(2)
and

(3)
and

(4)
and

9) Consider the following statements and select the correct option.

(I) When resistances are connected in parallel the equivalent resistance is less than the smallest
resistance.
(II) When resistances are connected in parallel, current distributes in the inverse ratio of
resistances.
(III) When resistances are connected in series maximum current flows through the resistance having
least value.

(1) I only
(2) II only
(3) I and II only
(4) I, II and III

10) An electric current i enters and leaves a uniform circular wire of radius a through diametrically
opposite points. A charged particle q moving along the axis of the circular wire passes through its
centre at speed v. The magnetic force acting on the particle when it passes through the centre has a
magnitude :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

11) Consider the following two statements :

(A) Kirchhoff's junction law follows from the conservation of charge.
(B) Kirchhoff's loop law follows from the conservation of energy
Which of the following is correct ?

(1) Both (A) and (B) are correct

(2) Both (A) and (B) are wrong
(3) (A) is correct and (B) is wrong
(4) (A) is wrong and (B) is correct

12) Two protons move parallel to each other, keeping distance r between them, both moving with
same velocity . Then the ratio of electric and magnetic force of interaction between them is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

13) Assertion (A) :- In a conductor, electric field setup in wire at a speed which is nearly equal to
the speed of light.
Reason (R) :- Current density is a scalar quantity.

(1) A and R both are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) A and R both are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true and R is false.
(4) A is false and R is true.

14)

The magnetic field at centre of a regular hexagonal loop of side carrying current i is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

15) Three long wires, with identical currents, either directly into or directly out of the page, are
placed at three corners of a square in four different arrangements as shown. Correct order of the
magnitude of net magnetic field at the empty upper right corner of the square is : (I)
 (II) (III) (IV)

(1) BI = BIV > BII = BIII

(2) BI > BIV > BII = BIII
(3) BII = BIII > BI = BIV
(4) BI > BIII > BII > BIV

16) An electron moving in a circular orbit of radius r makes n revolutions /sec. The magnitude of the
magnetic field produced at the centre of the orbit is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) zero

17) A torch bulb rated 4.5W, 1.5 V is connected as shown in figure. The emf of cell needed to make

the bulb glow at full intensity is :-

(1) 4.5 V
(2) 1.5 V
(3) 2.67 V
(4) 13.5 V

18) A cell is connected between the points A and C of a circular conductor ABCD of centre O with
angle AOC = 60°. If B1 and B2 are the magnitudes of the magnetic fields at O due to the currents in

ABC and ADC respectively, the ratio is :-

(1) 0.2
(2) 6
(3) 1
(4) 5

19) In the figure, a charged sphere of mass m and charge q starts sliding from rest on a vertical
fixed circular track of radius R from the position shown. There exists a uniform and constant
horizontal magnetic field of induction B. The maximum force exerted by the track on the sphere is :

(1) mg
(2)
(3)
(4)

20) A wire of length L carrying a current of I is bent in the form of an equilateral triangle. Its
magnetic moment is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) In the circuit diagram fig. the potential difference across the plates of the capacitor C is:

(1) 2.5 volt

(2) 1.5 volt
(3) 1.0 volt
(4) zero volt

22) In the network, the current in the resistor 12Ω is

(1) 0.67A
(2) 0.4 A
(3) 0.5 A
(4) zero

23) The value of I1 & I2 is :-

(1)

(2) 2A, 3A
(3) 6A, 3A
(4) 1A, 2A

24) A charged particle (mass m and charge q) is projected with velocity )-from origin. A
uniform magnetic field and an electric field are also present there. Time taken by
the particle to triple its initial speed will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) A galvanometer with 50 division on the scale has a resistance of 25 Ω. A current 2 × 10–4 A gives
a deflection of one scale division. The additional series required to convert it into a voltmeter
reading up to 25 V is :-

(1) 1200 Ω
(2) 1225 Ω
(3) 2475 Ω
(4) 2500 Ω

26) Which of the following graphs best represents the variation of magnetic field due to a uniform
current carrying long hollow cylindrical pipe at a distance r from its axis ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) The emf of the battery shown in figure is :-

(1) 12V
(2) 16V
(3) 18V
(4) 15V

28) An infinitely long wire carrying current I is along Y- axis such that its one end is at point A (0,b)
while the wire extends upto + ∞. Find the magnitude of magnetic field strength at point (a,0).
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

29) The current density J (current per unit area) in a solid cylinder of radius R varies with distance r
from its axis as J = kr where k is a constant. Find the magnetic field at a point P where r > R.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30)

Match the columns :-

(A) Drift velocity (vd) (i)

(B) Current density (j) (ii) nevd

(C) Conductivity (σ) (iii)

(D) Resistivity (ρ) (iv)

(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)

(2) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(3) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(4) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
31) Find the value of x for which bridge is balanced

(1) 80 Ω
(2) 20 Ω
(3) 160 Ω
(4) 16 Ω

32) An infinite long horizontal current carrying wire is tightly fitted to a rigid support. An another
horizontal current carrying wire is in equillibrium below to the fixed wire. If magnitude of current
becomes one third in any one wire then instanteous acceleration of free wire is –

(1) g/3
(2) 2g/3
(3) g/9
(4) 2g/9

33) The deflection in a moving coil galvanometer is reduced to half when it is shunted with a 40 Ω
coil. The resistance of galvanometer is:-

(1) 15 Ω
(2) 20 Ω
(3) 40 Ω
(4) 80 Ω

34) Match the column :

A B

Permeability of free
(a) (p) [L2A]
space

(b) Magnetic field (q) [MT– 2 A–1]

(c) Magnetic moment (r) [MLT– 2 A–2]

(d) Torsion constant (s) [ML2 T–2]

(1) a → q, b → p, c → s, d → r
(2) a → r, b → p, c → q, d → s
(3) a → r, b → q, c → s, d → r
(4) a → r, b → q, c → p, d → s

35) A charged particle of mass m and charge q enters a magnetic field B with a velocity at an angle
θ with the direction of B. The radius of the resulting path is
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

SECTION-2

1) The magnetic induction at the centre O in the figure shown is:

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) For what value of R in circuit, current through 4Ω resistance is zero ?

(1) 4Ω
(2) 1Ω
(3) 3Ω
(4) 5Ω

3) Resistances of 6Ω each are connected in the manner shown in fig. The PD between points P and Q

is :-

(1) 3.6 V
(2) 6.0 V
(3) 3.0 V
(4) 7.2 V

4) Which of the following statements is wrong ?

(1) Voltmeter should have high resistance

(2) Ammeter should have low resistance
(3) Ammeter is placed in parallel across the conductor in a circuit
(4) Voltmeter is placed in parallel across the conductor in a circuit

5) The emf of a cell is ε and its internal resistance is r. Its terminals are connected to a resistance R.
The potential difference between the terminal is 1.6 V for R = 4Ω, and 1.8 V for R = 9Ω. Then :-

(1) ε = 1 V, r = 1 Ω
(2) ε = 2 V, r = 1 Ω
(3) ε = 2 V, r = 2 Ω
(4) ε = 2.5 V, r = 0.5 Ω

6) Voltmeter of resistance 10Ω and ammeter of resistance 10Ω are attached in the following circuit

with switches S1 and S2

Column II
Column I
(reading of
(switch
voltmeter
position)
& ammeter)
S1 open, S2
(P) I 0, 7.5 A
closed
S1 closed, S2
(Q) II 50 V, 10A
open
S1 open, S2
(R) III 0, 0
open
S1 closed, S2
(S) IV 150 V, 0
closed
(1) (P)- II ; (Q)- III ; (R)- I ; (S)- IV
(2) (P)- II ; (Q)- III ; (R)- IV ; (S)- I
(3) (P)- III ; (Q)- II ; (R)- I ; (S)- IV
(4) (P)- III ; (Q)- II ; (R)- IV ; (S)- I

7) Which particle will have minimum frequency of revolution when projected with same velocity
perpendicular to magnetic field ?
(1) Li+
(2) Electron
(3) Proton
(4) He+

8) Two long parallel wires are at a distance 2d apart. They carry steady equal currents flowing out of
the plane of the paper as shown. The variation of the magnetic field B along the line XX' is given by-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) In the following figure, the reading of an ideal voltmeter V is zero. Then, the relation between R,

r1 and r2 is :-

(1) R = r2 – r1
(2) R = r1 – r2
(3) R = r1 + r2

(4)
R=

10) A Galvanometer of resistance 100 Ω is connected to a battery of 5V along with a resistance of

4900 Ω in series. A full scale deflection of 40 division is obtained in galvanometer. In order to reduce
this deflection to 20 division , the additional resistance in series should be :-
(1) 1000 Ω
(2) 9900 Ω
(3) 5000 Ω
(4) 10000 Ω

11) An infinite ladder network of resistance is constructed with 1Ω and 2Ω resistance. The 6V
battery between A and B has negligible internal resistance. The current that passes through 2Ω

resistance nearest to the battery is

(1) 1A
(2) 1.5 A
(3) 2 A
(4) 2.5 A

12) A galvanometer of resistance, G, is connected in a circuit. Now a resistance R is connected in

series of galvanometer. To keep the main current in the circuit unchanged, the resistance to be put
in parallel with the series combination of G and R is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A thin circular disk of radius R is uniformly charged with density σ > 0 per unit area. The disk
rotates about its axis with a uniform angular speed ω. The magnetic moment of the disk is :

(1) πR4σω

(2)

(3)

(4) 2πR4σω

14) The magnetic field due to a small current element at a distance and element carrying
current i is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

15) In the circuit shown in figure, the power which is dissipated as heat in the 6Ω resistor is 6W.
What is the value of resistance R in the circuit?

(1) 6 Ω
(2) 10 Ω
(3) 13 Ω
(4) 24 Ω

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-1

1) The electrophile in the nitration of benzene is

+
(1) NO2
(2) NO2
(3) NO+
–
(4) NO2

2) In the following reaction, the major product is:

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

3) Which of the following ring is most reactive towards electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) The reaction, CH3Br + OH– CH3OH + Br– obeys the mechanism:

(1) SN1
(2) SN2
(3) E1
(4) E2

5) Which of the following carbocations is likely to rearrange ?

(I) (II)

(III)

(1) I Only
(2) II Only
(3) III Only
(4) I and III

6) Statement I: Neopentane, (CH3)4C, forms only one monochlorinated product.

Statement II: Neopentane has four identical methyl group attached to a quaternary carbon.

(1) Statement–I is True, Statement–II is True; Statement–II is a correct explanation for Statement–I
 Statement–I is True, Statement–II is True; Statement–II is not a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement–I
(3) Statement–I is True, Statement–II is False
(4) Statement–I is False, Statement–II is True

7) + CH3CH2CH2–Cl ?
Identify the product?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Benzene reacts with CH3Cl in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3 to form:

(1) Xylene
(2) Toluene
(3) Chlorobenzene
(4) Benzylchloride

9) Which of the following compounds will not undergo Friedal-Craft's reaction easily:

(1) Toluene
(2) Ethylbenzene
(3) Chlorobenzene
(4) Nitrobenzene

10)
Product of given reaction is
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) In given compound which H is most reactive with Cl2/hν :-

(1) Ha
(2) Hb
(3) Hc
(4) Hd

12) Arrange the following is correct order of reactivity towards Cl2/hν :-

(A) CH4 (B) CH3CH3

(C) CH3CH2CH3 (D)

(1) A > B > C > D

(2) D > C > B > A
(3) B > C > A > D
(4) C > B > D > A

13) When 1-butyne is treated with excess of HBr, the expected product is :

(1) 1, 2-Dibromobutane
(2) 2, 2-Dibromobutane
(3) 1, 1-Dibromobutane
(4) All the above

14) The correct statement is:

(1) SN1 reaction is favoured by polar protic medium

(2) SN2 reaction is favoured by non-polar medium
(3) SN2 reaction is favoured by weak nucleophile
(4) SN1 reaction is favoured by very strong nucleophile

15)
How many monochloro substituted product obtained (Excluding stereo isomers) :-

(1) 10
(2) 12
(3) 5
(4) 11

16) The reactivity of alkyl halides in E2 elimination reactions follows the order

(1) R–I < R–Br < R–Cl < R–F

(2) R–F < R–Cl < R–Br < R–I
(3) R–I > R–Cl > R–Br < R–F
(4) R–I < R–Br < R–F < R–Cl

17)
What is the structure of B

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Rate of dehydrohalogenation maximum in :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Product of following reaction is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20)
A & B are respectively :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

21) is major product so, A is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Rank the following compounds in decreasing order of reactivity towards electrophilic aromatic

substitution reaction (ESR).

(1) (c) > (a) > (b) > (d)

(2) (c) > (a) > (d) > (b)
(3) (d) > (c) > (b) > (a)
(4) (a) > (c) > (d) > (b)

23) Toluene is more reactive than benzene towards electrophilic reagents due to :-

(1) Inductive effect only

(2) Hyperconjugative effect only
(3) Both inductive as well as hyperconjugative effects
(4) Strong mesomeric effect
24) Give reactivity order towards EAR. (i) (ii)

(iii) (iv)

(1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)

(2) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)
(3) (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii)
(4) (iii) > (ii) > (iv) > (i)

25) A :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26)

How many 1,2-shifts are involved in following carbocation :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

27) Peroxide effect is observed in :-

(1) HCl
(2) HBr
(3) HI
(4) All of these

28) Arrange the following compounds in decreasing order of nucleophilic addition reaction.
(1) ii > iv > iii > i
(2) i > ii > iii > iv
(3) iv > iii > ii > i
(4) ii > iii > iv > ii

29) Ketone upon treatment with Grignard Reagent gives

(1) Primary alcohol

(2) Secondary alcohol
(3) Tertiary alcohol
(4) Aldehyde

30) Which of the following is correct matching?

CH3–CH2–Cl CH2=CH2+HCl
(1)
(Substitution reaction)
CH3–CH2–Cl CH2=CH2+HCl
(2)
(Elemination reaction)
CHΞCH+Na CHΞCNa + 1/2H2
(3)
(Electrophilic substitution)
CH3–CO–CH3+HCN

(4)

(Rearrangement reaction)

31) Arrange the following in order of their leaving group tendency ?

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) I >III > II > IV
(3) I > II > IV > III
(4) I > IV > III > II

32) Which of the following alkyl halides will undergo SN1 reaction most readily?

(1) (CH3)3C–F
(2) (CH3)3C–Cl
(3) (CH3)3C–Br
(4) (CH3)3C–I

33) Order of nucleophilicity in polar protic solvent

(1) I > Br > Cl >F

(2) F > Cl > Br >I

(3) I > Cl > Br >F

(4) F >I > Br > Cl

34)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) The compound that does not undergo hydrolysis by SN1 mechanism.

(1) C6H5–CH2X
(2) C6H5–X
(3) CH2=CH–CH2–X
(4) All of these

SECTION-2

1)
Product of given reaction is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) In the given reaction

the product P is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3)
Product is:
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4)
'A' is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

5)
The product A is:

(1) CH3–CH2–CH3

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Select the incorrect statement among the following:

(1) Carbocation rearrangement can take place in SN1 reaction.

(2) SN1 is a single step reaction
(3) In SN1 reaction, racemisation takes place
(4) SN1 reactions invovle the formation of carbocation as intermediate

7) Dehydrobromination of the following in decreasing order :-

(1) III > II > I

(2) I > II > III
(3) III > I > II
(4) I > III > II

8) Predict the major product of the following reaction? A

(1) 2, 4–dinitrophenol
(2) 3,4–dinitrophenol
(3) 1 and 2 both
(4) None

9) X is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

10) A carbocation gives reaction except:-

(1) Addition with nucleophile

(2) Rearrange to give more stable carbocation
(3) Rearrange to give less stable carbocation
(4) Deprotonation to give alkene

11) Major product of the reaction :-

(CH3)3C–Cl + C2H5ONa would be :-

(1) (CH3)2C–OC2H5
(2) (CH3)3C–C2H5
(3) (CH3)2C=CH2
(4) CH3CH=CHC2H5

12)
In the above reaction the attack of a nucleophile would be from which side

(1) On the front side of Cl of C1 carbon

(2) On C2 carbon
(3) On the opposite side of Cl of C1 carbon
(4) On C3 carbon

13) The least reactive chlorine is present in

(1) Methyl chloride

(2) Allyl chloride
(3) Ethyl chloride
(4) Vinyl chloride
14) In the following reaction (where * represents 14C)

Product formed is

(1)

(2)

(3) Both (a) and (b)

(4)

15) When meso-2, 3-dibromo butane is heated with Zn dust, the product is :-

(1) Cis-2-butene
(2) Trans-2-butene
(3) 1-Butene
(4) Isobutene

BOTANY

SECTION-1

1) In a Mendelian dihybrid cross for seed shape and seed colour, F2 population has 128 plants. How
many plants are heterozygotes for both the traits?

(1) 128
(2) 16
(3) 64
(4) 32

2) Out of seven characters in Pea plant studied by Mendel the number of flower based characters
was

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 4
3) In the Mendelian dihybrid cross for the colour and shape of seed, what is the probability of plants
having homozygotic round seed character?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Among the following, which one is not a dominating trait?

(1) Axial position of flower

(2) Green colour of pod
(3) Violet colour of flower
(4) Green colour of seed

5) Match the following:

Column I Column II

1. Gametes a. Carry one allele each

Calculate the probability of all

2. Punnett Square b.
possible genotype

3. Alleles c. Slightly different form of a same gene

4. Homozygous d. Identical alleles pair

(1) 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c
(2) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
(3) 1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c
(4) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d

6) Experiments of Mendel had a ____ sampling size.

(1) Medium
(2) Small
(3) Large
(4) None of these

7) Which of the following trait of pea plant was not studied by Mendel in his experiment.

(1) Flower position

(2) Seed colour
(3) Pod length
(4) Seed shape

8) If a pea plant produces 2560 seeds in F2 generation during a dihybrid cross between round-yellow
and wrinkled-green plant. Then how many seed are wrinkled-yellow, round-yellow and wrinkled-
green respectively.

(1) 640, 480, 1280

(2) 480, 1440, 160
(3) 640, 1280, 320
(4) 160, 1440, 480

9) If a cross is made between two individuals with genotype Aabb × aaBb. What would be the
probability of individuals with genotype AaBb?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Based on these observations, Mendel proposed that something was being stably passed down,
unchanged, from parent to offspring through the gametes, over successive generations. Now we call
them as .....

(1) Factors
(2) Gene
(3) Alleles
(4) None of these

11) In bisexual plant with genotype RrYy the percentage of pollen grain with Ry genes are

(1) 50%
(2) 25%
(3) 75%
(4) 100%

12) A heterozygous pea plant with violet flowers was crossed with homozygous pea plant with white
flower. Violet is dominant over white. Which one of the following represents the expected
combinations among 40 progenies formed ?

(1) 30 produced violet and 10 produced white flowers

(2) 20 produced violet and 20 produced white flowers
(3) All 40 produced violet flowers
(4) All 40 produced white flowers
13) In a cross AABB × aabb, the ratio of genotypes AABB, AaBB, Aabb and aabb in F2-generation
would be:-

(1) 1 : 2 : 2 : 1
(2) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(3) 7 : 5 : 3 : 1
(4) 2 : 1 : 1 : 2

14) In an F2 population of 192 plants produced from a Mendelian cross of RRYY and rryy (wrinkled-
green). How many plants will be homozygous for round green seeds?

(1) 48
(2) 16
(3) 32
(4) 12

15) Identify the correct statement:

(1) A dihybrid cross involves inheritance of a single trait.

(2) Independent assortment is applied to linked genes.
(3) Dihybrid crosses yield a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation.
(4) The F1 generation of a dihybrid cross shows a 3:1 phenotypic ratio.

16) Which of the following genotypes does not produce any sugar polymer on the surface of the
RBC?

(1) IAIA
(2) ii
(3) IBi
(4) IAIB

17) A red flowered Snapdragon plant is crossed with a pink flowered plant, then what will be the
phenotypic ratio in the progeny?

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(4) 1 : 1

18) F1 generation when resembles :-

A : One of the two parents
B : In between of the two parents
C : With both the parents
Choose correct match :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19) In Dog flower, the percentage of plants having pink and red flowers would be .............. when
pink flower plant is test crossed.

(1) 25% pink & 25% red

(2) 50% pink & 50% red
(3) 50% pink & 0% red
(4) 0% pink & 50% red

20) Which statement is incorrect :-

(1) Pleotropic gene has multiple phenotype

(2) 3 : 1 ratio is produced due to co-dominance
(3) Two identical alleles are known as homozygous
(4) Incomplete dominance is present in Antirrhinum species

21) Statement-1:– Dominance is an autonomous feature of a gene and the product that it has
information for.
Statement-2:– More than one phenotype can be influenced by the same gene.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement-1 is correct
(4) Only statement-2 is correct

22) Assertion (A): Starch synthesis in pea seeds is an example of incomplete dominance.
Reason (R): Heterozygous pea seeds produce intermediate-sized starch grains.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation for A.
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation for A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

23) Heterozygous tall (Tt) is crossed with homozygous tall (TT). Percentage of heterozygous tall in
the progeny would be

(1) 25%
(2) 75%
(3) 50%
(4) 100%

24) In a Mendelian dihybrid cross experiment, how many plants of the F2 generation resembles F1
plants phenotypically?

(1) 4
(2) 9
(3) 3
(4) 1

25) Multiple alleles can be found only when

(1) Population studies are made

(2) Individual study is made
(3) Mutation is absent
(4) Dominance is present

26) Phenylketonuria disease caused by:-

(1) Two gene mutation

(2) Single gene mutation
(3) Four gene mutation
(4) Three gene mutation

27) If both parents have 'AB' blood groups. How many types of phenotypes and genotypes are
formed in their progeny :

(1) 4, 4
(2) 3, 3
(3) 2, 2
(4) 4, 6

28) Choose correct match for ABO Blood group system :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

29) Mendel conducted hybridisation experiments on garden pea plant from ______ .

(1) 1851-1858
(2) 1856-1863
(3) 1866-1873
(4) 1956-1963

30) Mendel's Law of dominance explain:

(1) Expression of only one of the parental characters in monohybrid cross in the F1
(2) Expression of both parental character in F1
(3) Proportion of 3 : 1 obtained at the F2 generation
(4) All of these

31) Select the incorrect statement with respect to polygenic inheritance:-

(1) In human polygenic traits are height and skin colour

In a polygenic trait the phenotype reflects the contribution of each allele i.e. the effect of each
(2)
allele is additive
A human genotype with all the dominant allels (AABBCC) will have the lightest skin colour and
(3)
that with all the recessive allels (aabbcc) will have darkest skin
A human genotype with three dominant allele and three recessive alleles will have an inter
(4)
mediate skin colour

32) If an organism is homozygous for gene A and heterozygous for gene B & C. What is the
probability of gamete whose genotype is ABC.

(1) 1/4
(2) 1/8
(3) 2/4
(4) Zero

33) Which of the following characteristics represent Inheritance of blood groups' in humans?
A. Dominance
B. Codominance
C. Multiple allele
D. Incomplete dominance
E. Polygenic inheritance

(1) B, C and E
(2) A, Band C
(3) A, C and E
(4) B, D and E

34) In case of incomplete dominance the monohybrid ratio of phenotypes in F2 generation is

(1) 3 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(4) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

35) In Mendelian dihybrid cross, how many individuals are heterozygous for both the characters in
F2-generation?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

SECTION-2

1) In a dihybrid cross in F2 generation, how many progeny are phenotypically and genotypically
similar to parents.

(1) 2 and 2 respectively

(2) 10 and 2 respectively
(3) 10 and 6 respectively
(4) 1 and 2 respectively

2) An allele is said to be dominant if

(1) It is expressed only in heterozygous combination.

(2) It is expressed only in homozygous combination
(3) It is expressed in both homozygous and heterozygous condition.
(4) It is expressed only in second generation.
3) Punnett was

(1) Italian botanist

(2) British geneticist
(3) American geneticist
(4) Austrian geneticist

4) Which one of the following traits of pea can be expressed in the presence of its identical
homozygous recessive alleles only?

(1) Constricted pod

(2) Axial flower
(3) Green pod
(4) Round seed

5) The fact that the alleles do not show any blending and the both the characters are recovered as
such in F2 generation, become the basis of

(1) Law of Dominance

(2) Law of paired factors
(3) Law of Segregation
(4) Law of independent assortment

6) On selfing a plant of F1 generation with genotype 'AABbCC', the genotypic ratio in F2 generation
will be

(1) 3 : 1
(2) 1 : 2 : 1
(3) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(4) 27 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 1

7) What type of gametes will be formed by genotype AaBb?

(1) Ab, AA, Bb, BB

(2) AB, Ab, ab, aa
(3) Ab, AA, Bb, aB
(4) AB, Ab, aB, ab

8) Select correct representation of test cross:-

(1) AA × AA
(2) Aa × Aa
(3) aa × aa
(4) Aa × aa

9) When there is a modification in a wild type gene, then the modified allele could be responsible for
the production of
(a) Normal enzyme
(b) Non-functional enzyme
(c) Less efficient enzyme
(d) No enzyme at all
The correct one(s) is/are

(1) All (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (d) only
(3) (b) and (d) only
(4) (b) and (c) only

10) In which of the following cases maximum types of gametes are possible?

(1) AABB
(2) AABb
(3) aaBb
(4) AaBb

11) If more than 2 alleles are present for a particular gene than this phenomenon is known as

(1) Multiple allelism

(2) Incomplete dominance
(3) Polygenes
(4) Co-dominance

12) When a heterozygous ‘A’ blood group man (IAi) marries a woman who is homozygous ‘B’
blood (IBIB) group, than the % of progeny with ‘B’ blood group is

(1) 75%
(2) 0%
(3) 50%
(4) 100%

13) Statement I: Polygenic inheritance involves multiple genes controlling a single trait.
Statement II: Human skin colour is classic example of polygenic inheritance.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true, and Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false, and Statement II is true.
14) The below diagram represents

(1) Receprocal cross

(2) Monohybrid cross
(3) Test cross
(4) Dihybrid cross

15) How many traits of pods in pea were chosen by Mendel?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Seven

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-1

1) LH :-

(1) Acts on sertoli cells and stimulates the synthesis of androgens

(2) Acts on endometrium and induces the proliferation
(3) Acts on leydig cells and stimulates the synthesis and secretion of androgen
(4) Acts on mammary glands and induces the secretion of milk

2) The opening of the vagina is often covered partially by a membrane called as :-

(1) Hymen
(2) Clitoris
(3) Foreskin
(4) Mons pubis

3) Spermatogenesis ceases in male around the age of:-

(1) 45 years
(2) 50 years
(3) 60 years
(4) None of these

4) By the end of __________, the body is covered with fine hair, eye-lids separate and eyelashes are
formed. Choose the option that fills the blank correctly.

(1) First trimester

(2) Second trimester
(3) One month
(4) Two months

5) Oogenesis in female is initiate :-

(1) at the age of 12 years

(2) at the age of 10 years
(3) at the age of 11 years
(4) None of these

6) The figure given below depicts a diagrammatic sectional view of the female reproductive system
of humans. Which one set of three parts out of I–VI have been correctly identified ?

(1) (II) Endometrium, (III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriae

(2) (III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriae, (V) Cervix
(3) (IV) Oviducal funnel, (V) Uterus, (VI) Cervix
(4) (I) Perimetrium, (II) Myometrium, (III) Fallopian tube

7) Parturition is the process of giving birth to a baby. It is controlled by

(1) Neural mechanism only

(2) Endocrine mechanism only
(3) Physical mechanism only
(4) Neuro-endocrine mechanism

8)
Find out A, B, C respectively :-
Option :-
A B C
(1) GH FSH LH
(2) GnRH ICSH FSH
(3) GH FSH ICSH
(4) GnRH FSH LH

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) It is a diagrammatic presentation of developing follicle identify corpus luteam

(1) A
(2) D
(3) E
(4) F

10) Identify A and B and their respective functions:

Function
A B
A B

Inner cell Attach to the Differentiated

(1) Trophoblast
mass Endometrium as embryo

Inner cell Differentiated Attach to the

(2) Trophoblast
mass as embryo Endometrium

Inner cell Differentiated Attach to the

(3) Mesoderm
mass as embryo Endometrium

Attach to the Differentiated

(4) Ectoderm Mesoderm
myometrium as embryo
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11)

How many structures in the list given below are diploid ?

Spermatid, primary spermatocyte, sperm, spermatogonia

(1) One
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Three

12) These are some events associated with reproduction and embryonic development. Arrange these
from first to last and select the correct answer.
(a) Starts the formation of corpus luteum
(b) Cleavage
(c) Fertilisation
(d) Ovulation
(e) Implantation
(f) Formation of Graafian follicle
(g) Blastocyst
(h) Morula
(i) Zygote

(1) f, d, a, c, i, b, h, g, e
(2) f, d, i, c, a, b, h, g, e
(3) a, f, d, c, b, i, h, g, e
(4) i, h, g, f, d, c, b, e, a

13) Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III.

Column - I Column - II Column - III

Proliferative Corpus luteum

(A) (a) 14th day (i)
phase remains active

Secretory Endometrial
(B) (b) 1st-4th day (ii)
phase growth

Menstruation Shedding of
(C) (c) 15tn-28th day (iii)
phase endometrium

Rupture of
Ovulatory
(D) (d) th tn
5 -13 day (iv) mature
phase
graafian follicle
(1) A → d → iii; B → c → i, C → b → iv, D → a → ii
(2) A → c → ii; B → b → iii, C → a → i,D → d → iv
(3) A → d → ii; B → c → i, C → b → iii, D → a → iv
(4) A → d → iii; B → b → iv, C → a → ii, D → c → i

14) Menstruation is initiated by

(1) A sudden release of FSH from the anterior pituitary
(2) A lack of estrogen and progesterone due to degeneration of the corpus luteum
(3) An increased release of estrogen and progesterone from the corpus luteum
(4) A sudden drop in FSH

15) It is a diagrammatic sectional view of female reproductive system. In which identify the site

where the embryo develop?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

16) Read the following statements-

(A) The scrotum helps in maintaining the low temperature of the testes necessary for
spermiogenesis.
(B) In adults, each testis is oval in shape, with a length of about 4 to 5 cm and a width of about 2 to 3
cm.
(C) Immunologically competent cells are present in interstitial space.
(D) Vas deferens ascends to the abdomen and loops over the uterus.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Only One
(4) Two

17) Read the following statements and select the correct option
Statement A: All copulations do not lead to fertilization and pregnancy.
Statement B: Fertilization is possible only if ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to
the ampullary region.

(1) A is true and B is incorrect statement

(2) Both A and B statements are correct
(3) Only B statement is correct
(4) Both A and B are incorrect

18) Which of the following structure help in fertilisation of sec. oocyte ?

(1) Centriole of ovum

(2) Acrosome
(3) Tail of sperm
(4) Mitochondria of sperm

19) Foetal movement starts usually from

(1) II month of pregnancy

(2) III month of pregnancy
(3) IV month of pregnancy
(4) V month of pregnancy

20) The following refers to schematic representation of oogenesis.

Identify A to E correctly.

(A) Foetal life (B) Birth (C) Puberty

(1)
(D) Adult reproductive life (E) Childhood
(A) Foetal life (B) Birth (C) Childhood
(2)
(D) Puberty (E) Adult reproductive life
(A) Adult reproductive life (B) Birth
(3)
(C) Puberty (D) Childhood (E) Foetal life
(A) Birth (B) Childhood (C) Foetal life
(4)
(D) Puberty (E) Adult reproductive life

21) Secondary follicle in ovary has-

(1) Primary oocyte

(2) Secondary oocyte
(3) Ootid
(4) Antrum

22) When released from ovary, human egg contains:-

(1) 1 Y chromosome
(2) 2 X chromosome
(3) 1 X chromosome
(4) XY chromosome
23) Placenta is the region where :-

(1) Foetus is attached to myometrium of uterus.

(2) Foetus receives oxygen and nourishment from mother's blood.
(3) Foetus is covered by fetal membranes.
(4) Foetus is attached to mother by spermatic cord.

24) During implantation, the embryo becomes embedded in which layer of uterus ?

(1) Perimetrium
(2) Myometrium
(3) Endometrium
(4) Epimetrium

25) Which accessory sex gland in human being is unpaired ?

(1) Mammary gland

(2) Seminal vesicle
(3) Cowper gland
(4) Prostate gland

26) The figure below shows ovarian changes during a mestruation cycle (A, B, C, D). Select the
correct structure which secretes progesterone for maintenance of pregnancy.

(1) B
(2) D
(3) A
(4) C

27) Fill in the blanks in the following statements :-

The human male ejaculates about ........ million sperms during a coitus of which, for normal fertility,
at least ........... percent sperms must have normal shape and size and at least ........ percent of them
must show vigorous motility.

(1) 400 - 500, 60, 40

(2) 100 - 120, 40, 60
(3) 200 - 300, 60, 40
(4) 200 - 300, 40, 60
28) Which of the following structures are not included in external genitalia of female?

(a) Mons pubis (b) Labia majora

(c) Hymen (d) Labia minora

(e) Cervix (f) Fallopian tube

(1) c, e, f
(2) Only e, f
(3) Only c, f
(4) a, d, e, f

29) The edges of the infundibulum posses finger like projections called fimbriae which helps in:

(1) Collection of sperms

(2) Collection of ovum after ovulation
(3) To facilitate implantation
(4) To pass nutrition towards ovum

30) Placenta contains :

(1) Only chorionic villi

(2) Chorionic villi and uterine tissue
(3) Trophoblast and Amnion
(4) Only uterine tissue

31) How many of the following structures are present only in male reproductive system?
Vas deferens, Ejaculatory duct, Mons pubis, Seminiferous tubule, Epididymis, Fallopian tube, Corpus
luteum, Vasa effrentia.

(1) Six
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Seven

32) Read following statements regarding mammary glands in human female.

(A) Milk is stored in mammary alveoli cavity in mammary glands.
(B) Milk synthesis occurs in them throughout the pregnancy.
(C) Total 15 – 20 mammary lobes are present in both breasts
(D) Mothers milk contains antibodies
Which of the above statements are incorrect ?

(1) A, B and C
(2) A, B and D
(3) A, C and D
(4) B and C

33) 'Antrum' is a cavity present in :-

(1) Primary oocyte
(2) Secondary oocyte
(3) Secondary follicle
(4) Tertiary follicle

34) Read the following statement carefully "The primary spermatocyte undergo......A.......divisions
leading to sperm formation while......B......provide nutrition to the developing germ cells. The male
external genitalia is called.....C....... Which one of the following options gives the correct filling of A,
B, & C ?

A B C

(1) Mitotic Interstitial cells Vulva

Mitotic
(2) Sustentacular cells Clitoris
& Meiotic

(3) Meiotic Sertoli cells Penis

(4) Meiotic Leydig cells Penis

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) Morula with 8 cell stage found in

(1) Infundibulum
(2) Uterus
(3) Ampulla
(4) Isthmus

SECTION-2

1) How many sperms and ova are formed from 50 primary spermatocyte and 50 primary oocyte ?

(1) 200 sperm and 50 ovum

(2) 200 ovum and 50 sperm
(3) 50 sperm and 50 ovum
(4) 100 sperm and 200 ovum

2) Cleavage are repeated mitotic division which start in zygote at which of the following site:-

(1) Uterus
(2) Fimbriae
(3) Infundibulum
(4) Isthmus
3) Which of the following statement is not incorrect:-

(1) The secretions of the acrosome help the sperm enter into the cytoplasm of the ovum
During fertilisation, a sperm comes in contact with the zona pellucida layer of the ovum and
(2)
induces changes in the membrane that block the entry of additional sperms.
The ovum released by the ovary is also transported to the ampullary region where fertilisation
(3)
takes place.
(4) All of these

4) Which structure carries sperms from rete testis to epididymis ?

(1) Vas deferens

(2) Vasa-efferentia
(3) Tubuli recti
(4) Seminiferous tubules

5) By which of the following pathway milk is sucked out?

(1) Alveoli → Mammary duct → Mammary tubules → Mammary ampulla → Lactiferous duct
(2) Alveoli → Mammary tubules → Mammary duct → Mammary ampulla → Lactiferous duct
Alveoli → Mammary gland → Mammary tubules → Mammary ampulla
(3)
→ Lactiferous duct
(4) Alveoli → Lactiferous duct → Mammary ampulla → Mammary tubules → Mammary duct

6) The final stage of spermatogenesis, which sees the maturation of spermatids into mature, motile
spermatozoa :

(1) Maturation phase

(2) Growth phase
(3) Spermiogenesis
(4) Multiplication phase

7) Urethra originates from .......(A)....... and passes through.......(B)..... to its external opening called
urethral meatus. Fill 'A' and 'B' from following
Options :-

A B

(1) Prostate Seminal vesicle

(2) Penis Urinary bladder

(3) Urinary bladder Penis

(4) Urinary bladder Ureter

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
8) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Semen = Sperms + secretion of all accessory sex glands.

(2) Semen = Sperms + Seminal fluid + Prostatic fluid + Fluid of bulbourethral glands.
(3) Semen = Sperms + Seminal plasma
(4) Semen = Sperms + Seminal fluid

9) Types of spermatozoa formed from 1 primary spermatocyte:-

(1) 4
(2) 16
(3) 8
(4) 2

10) Types of ovum formed from 1 primary oocyte :-

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Thickness of uterine wall maximum will be, on which day of menstrual cycle approximately?

(1) 14th day

(2) 10th day
(3) 23th day
(4) 28th day

12) The second meiotic division in secondary oocyte completes:

(1) In fetal stage of female

(2) At the start of puberty
(3) After entry of sperms into oocyte
(4) Second meiotic division never completes in human females

13) A set of hormones which is secreted only during the pregnancy in human females:

(1) hCG, hPL, Estrogen

(2) Oxytocin, Relaxin, Progesterone
(3) hCG, Oxytocin, Progesterone
(4) hCG, hPL, Relaxin

14) Temporary storage and functional maturation of sperms take place in :-

(1) Vasa efferentia

(2) Epididymis
(3) Ampulla
(4) Seminal vesicle

15) Observe the schematic representation of menstrual cycle carefully and identify W,X,Y and Z

correctly from the given options :-

W X Y Z

(1) Estrogen Progesterone L.H. F.S.H.

(2) F.S.H. L.H. Estrogen Progesterone

(3) L.H. F.S.H. Estrogen Progesterone

(4) Estrogen Progesterone F.S.H. L.H.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-1

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 2 3 1 4 3 1 3 4 1 1 3 1 1 3 4 3 3 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 4 1 1 4 3 3 1 2 4 1 1 2 3 4 1

SECTION-2

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 4 2 3 3 2 1 1 1 2 3 2 1 3 4 4

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-1

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 1 3 2 2 4 1 3 2 4 2 4 2 2 1 3 2 4 4 2 2
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 3 3 3 2 2 2 3 2 3 4 1 2 2

SECTION-2

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 2 1 3 3 2 2 2 1 3 3 3 3 4 3 2

BOTANY

SECTION-1

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 4 3 3 4 4 3 3 2 4 2 2 2 1 4 3 2 4 1 3 2
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 1 3 2 1 2 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 2 4

SECTION-2

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 3 2 1 3 2 4 4 1 4 1 3 1 3 3

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-1

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 1 4 2 4 2 4 4 3 1 3 1 3 2 1 4 2 2 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 1 3 2 3 4 4 3 2 2 2 3 4 4 3 4

SECTION-2

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 1 4 4 2 2 3 3 4 4 2 3 3 4 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

4)

For IAB = 0

= ⇒ x = 40Ω

5)

when key open when key closed

6)

i=

=
i = 1.5A

9) Conceptual.

10)
Magnetic field at O, B = 0
Force on charged particle = 0

12)

= ∴
=

13)

Current density is a vector quantity

16)

B= (I = ef = en)

17)
E = (2.67×4.5) + 1.5 = 13.5v

22)
∴ Req = 3 + 4.8 + 1.2
=9Ω

∴ amp.

Amp.
Amp.

24) Work done by B is zero

work done by E = ΔEK

0 0 0
m (3v )2 – m (v )2 = qE (x)
4 = q E0 (x)
displacement charge in x dir.

x=
use 2nd eqn of motion in x-dir.

x = ut + at2

t2 =

t=

25)

ig = 50 × 2 × 10–4 = 10–2 A, G = 25 Ω
V = ig(R+G)
25 = 10–2 (R+25) ⇒ R = 2475 Ω

27)

E=4×3
E = 12

28)
29) Current I =
We take the Amperian loop of radius r > R. Since the loop is outside the cylinder, the current
through the loop is

31) for balanced bridge

320 + 16x = 20x

x = 80 Ω

33)

∴ G = 40Ω

34) Theoritical

39)

Ammeter is connected in series and voltmeter is connected in parallel.

40)

VA – VB = E – ir =

1.6 =

1.8 =

(i)/(ii) ⇒

8 + 2r = 9 + r
r = 1Ω E = 2V

41)
(1) When S1 & S2 are open
RN = 20

IN =
Voltmeter reading = 0V [R(I)]
(2) When S1 open S2 closed.
RN = 15

IN = [P(II)] VMR = 50 V

44) I= V = E – Ir1

=
But V=0
Hence, r2 + R – r1 = 0
or R = (r1 – r2)

45) Ig = ∝ 40 ;

Ig' ∝ ∝ 20
When total resistance is (100 + 4900) = 5000 Ω
current = 40 div to reduce this up to 20 div total resistance must be 10000Ω resistance = 5000
Ω

= =2

=2⇒

46)

R=1+
2R + R2 = 2 + R + 2R
⇒ R2 – R – 2 = 0
 R=+ = =2

i= = = 3A
V1 = i(1) (3) (1) = 3V
V2Ω = 6 – 3 = 3V

i2 = = = 1.5A

47) G' = G

or

50)

Current in 6Ω I =

I= 1=
R = 24Ω

CHEMISTRY

57) NCERT XI, Pg. # 403, Part - 2

61)

Reactivity towards Cl2/hν stability of carbon free radical.

72) Reactivity towards electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction (ESR) α density in ring.

(2) c > a > d > b

 77) NCERT (XI) Pg # 382, 2nd para

81) Leaving group ∝

82) All the given compounds are tertiary alkyl halides but the bond formed between

94)

95)

96) It is a 3° alkyl halide hence SN2 not possible.

99) Due to , there is formation of benzyne intermediate.

which gives two product is equivalent amount.

BOTANY
 105) NCERT XII, Page # 57

112)

115) NCERT XII, Page # 64

119) Hint : It is atest cross of incomplete dominance.

124) NCERT Page No.: 63

133) NCERT PG. 77

135) NCERT page: 63

147) Ncert Pg No: 77_ 2021-22

148) NCERT XII, Page # 74

ZOOLOGY

151) NCERT(XII) Pg#47/51(H) Para: 3.3

152) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 30

157)
NCERT Pg. 54

158)

159)

NCERT XII, Pg # 50

160) NCERT XII, Pg # 52, 53

161) NCERT XII, Pg # 47

162)

Conduction of gametes is function of secondary sex organs.

164)

NCERT Pg. 50

165)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 29

166) NCERT PAGE (ENGLISH): 43

167)

NCERT Pg. 51

169)

NCERT Pg. 54

170)

NCERT-XIIth Pg. 33
171) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 52 (E) 57(H) , Fig. (3.11)

172)

NCERT-XII, Page # 36

174)

NCERT Pg. 53

175)

NCERT Pg. # 44

176)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 33

182)

NCERT XII - Page 47 + Module

184)

NCERT Pg. 47

187) NCERT Pg. # 52(E), 56(H)

191)

NCERT - XII Pg. No 33

193)

NCERT Pg. 44

197) NCERT XII Pg#52 Para: 3.5

198) NCERT (XII) Pg#53 Para: 3.6

200)

NCERT, Pg. # 35, Fig. 2.9