TECHNOLOGY AND LIVELIHOOD EDUCATION VOLUME 1

251. An orange wood stick is used to:

a. apply oil on the nails b. remove excess cuticle remover
c. remove excess nail polish around the nails d. remove stain on nails
252. The ability of the hair to absorb moisture whether the hair is coarse, medium or fine is:
a. hair analysis b. hair elasticity c. hair porosity d. hair texture
253. Foot cosmetics with tiny particles that helps remove stubborn dirt when giving foot spa is:
a. foot balm b. foot scrub c. foot soak d. foot spray
254. Arrange steps in cleaning the nails:
I. Apply cuticle remover
II. Cut & file nails
III. Push cuticle
IV. Trim cuticle
a. I, III, II, IV b. II, I, III, IV c. III, I, IV, II d. I, III, IV, I
255. One best way of shaping the eyebrow with the use of shave is:
a. Depilation b. Epilation c. Threading d. Waxing
256. A heavy make-up is suitable for:
a. casual affair b. evening affair c. picture affair d. night swimming
257. The first cosmetic applied on the nail when applying nail polish is:
a. base coat b. colored nail polish c. cuticle remover d. top coat
258. What is the proper term for the practice of dividing the hair into smaller, more workable pieces for
the purpose of control?
a. Bunching b. Spitting c. Sectioning d. Texturizing
259. A darker shade of eye color makes the natural color of the eye appear ________.
a. Lighter b. Darker c. Smaller d. Deeper
260. Mariana would like to apply the principles she learned in corrective make-up to a friend whose lips
are broad. Which should you not recommend?
a. apply light color lipstick b. apply lip gloss
c. use lip liner at the outer portions of the lips d. use lip liner on the inner lips
261. The nail is composed mainly of:
a. Melanin b. Keratin c. Collagen d. Sebum
262. Customer A is complaining and getting pushy about the pedicure service she received. If you were
the
pedicurist, what would you do?
a. Tell your customer to look for another pedicurist.
b. Refrain from becoming emotional and continue working without being bothered by the complained.
c. Remain cool and calm, pleasant and professional.
d. Ask for an apology, maintain professionalism and ask what she wants.
263. Which of these is the first thing the pedicurist should do to avoid such situation?
a. Be courteous.
b. Ask the customer what she wants for her toenails like the shape, color, etc.
c. Decide you own design and styles.
d. Proceed to the service right after customer A says that she wants pedicuring.
264. The following are guidelines for good human relations and professional attitude, EXCEPT one:
a. Always greet a client by name with a pleasant tone of voice.
b. Show interest in the client's personal preferences.
c. Make a good impression by wearing obtrusive jewelry to look at your best.
d. Be ethical in all your dealings with clients and others with whom you come in contact.
265. Lisa applied as public teacher. She doesn't have any experience for job interview. Could you please
help her decide? What type of clothing will she wear?
a. Casual dress b. Sunday dress c. Business attire d. Party dress
266. In relation to question 281, what type of make-up may she put on?
a. Corrective make-up b. Light make-up
c. Heavy make-up d. Photographic make-up
129
267. Which of the following makeup does she need?
a. Day make-up b. Evening make-up
c. Photographic make-up d. Theatrical/Fantasy make-up
268. Miss T has short nails. What nail shape is best for her?
a. Round nail b. Oval nail c. Square nail d. Pointed nail
269. Which of these are implements?
a. chair, manicure pillow, and finger bowl
b. assorted colored polish, top coat, base coat, and cuticle remover
c. cuticle pusher, nail brush, cuticle nipper, nail file and orange wood stick
d. cotton, hand towel, antiseptic solution, alcohol, and nail polish remover
270. Which of these are cosmetics?
a. cotton, hand towel, antiseptic solution, alcohol, and nail polish remover
b. top coat, base coat, assorted colored polish and cuticle remover
c. finger bowl, manicure pillow, and chair
d. orange wood stick, cuticle pusher, cuticle nipper, nail file and nail brush
271. Which of these are equipment?
a. cuticle remover, base coat, top coat, and assorted colored polish
b. cuticle nipper, nail file, nail brush, orange wood stick and cuticle pusher
c. hand towel, nail polish remover, and antiseptic solution
d. manicure pillow, chair, and finger bowl
272. Which of these is the correct way to use cuticle nail file?
a. The pointed side is used to push back and moisten the cuticles.
b. The dull spade side is used to scrape and moisten the cuticles.
c. The pointed side is used to push back and remove the cuticles.
d. The dull spade side is used to push back and loosen the cuticles.
273. Which of these is the correct way to use nail brush? Insert the ring finger and pinky in the nail brush
handle and brush the nails with a _________.
a. downward motion from the base to the fingertips to clean the nails and fingers.
b. sideward motion from the base to the fingertips to clean the nails and fingers.
c. upward motion from the base to the fingertips to clean the nails and fingers.
d. sawing motion from the base to the fingertips to clean the nails and fingers.
274. Which is created by allowing the nail to grow out straight and then filing the tip straight across at
right angles with the rest of the nail plate?
a. round nail b. square nail c. pointed nail d. oval nail
275. Massage is part of manicuring and pedicuring services. When is a massage applied? Before
_________.
a. removing old polish b. coloring polish c. base coat d. top coat
276. Which of the following is the last step in manicuring/pedicuring?
a. apply top coat b. clean under free edge
c. re-examine nails and cuticles d. dry fingertips
277. Which of these is an imaginative and artistic process of caring for the nails and toenails, involving
special care and expertise for bringing out the best effects?
a. nail tattoo b. nail art c. nail extender d. nail technician
278. Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
a. Adult fingernails grow at an average rate of 1/8 inch a month.
b. Older people nail grow slowly than younger people.
c. Fingernails grow more easily than toenails.
d. The rate of nail growth is greatest during winter.
279. Which is the technical term for nail?
a. Onyx b. Onychosis c. Onychology d. Keratin
280. Which refer to hand-held tools used in manicure which are durable and must be sanitized after use
with each client?
a. Cosmetics b. Equipment c. Materials d. Implements
130
281. Which of the following term refers to a light, continuous stroking movement applied with the fingers
and palms in a slow and rhythmic manner?
a. friction b. vibration c. petrissage d. effleurage
282. It is not good to apply massage when a person has _________.
a. high blood pressure and heart condition b. mayoma and diabetic
c. deliver a baby d. cancer
283. If you are going to start a home service as a manicurist/pedicurist and your parents give you
₱500.00
to start with, which equipment, implements, cosmetics and materials should you buy first?
I. Nail cutter, nail pusher, cuticle nipper, assorted nail polish, base coat, and top coat
II. Solvent, lotion, cuticle oil, and nail art designs
III. Tray basket, emery board, orangewood stick, nail brush, nail file, and nail polish remover
IV. Finger bowl, manicure pillows, hand towel, antiseptic solution, and nail buffer
a. I only b. I and II c. I and III d. I and IV
284. In shaping the nails, what comes first?
a. Hold the client's finger between the thumb and the two fingers of the left hand.
b. Hold the file or emery board in the right hand and tilt it slightly so that filling is confined mainly to the
underside of the free edge.
c. Discuss with the client the nail shape best suited for him/her. File the nails at the left hand starting with
the little finger and working towards the thumb.
d. Shape the nails.
285. Teacher F is a MAPEH teacher. Sometimes or most of the time she is exposed to the sunlight. What
type of skin protection should she apply?
a. face toners b. anti-aging body creams
c. body mask d. SPF lotion
286. Which of the following drinks can she take to hydrate herself?
a. soft drinks b. Gatorade c. cobra juice d. plain water
287. Which part of the body is best for the color testing of a foundation?
a. earlobe b. jawline c. nose d. cheek
288. Which aids in maintaining face?
a. face cleansers b. face toners c. face lotions d. face serums
289. Which one helps to moisturize the face to return lost moisture and hydrate the skin to slow down the
skin's aging process?
a. anti-aging face creams b. face toners c. face exfoliators d. face cream
290. Which among the following would be the first step in giving facial?
a. apply cleansing cream b. apply treatment mask
c. apply moisturizer d. apply massage cream
291. Which of the following statement is NOT a concern in analyzing the client's skin? If the _________.
a. skin is dry, normal, or oily b. shape of the face
c. lines or creases exist d. skin texture is smooth or rough
292. Which of the following is NOT beneficial for facial treatments?
a. Softening and improving skin texture and complexion
b. Helping prevent the formation of wrinkles and aging lines
c. weakening muscle tissue
d. correcting skin disorders
293. Which of the following is a common skin disorder caused by the formation of sebaceous matter
within or under the skin?
a. blackheads b. whiteheads c. pimples d. acne
294. Which of the following facial is recommended for dry, scaly skin, or skin that is inclined to wrinkles?
a. plain facial b. packs and masks c. facial for dry d. hot oil mask facial
295. Mitch has acne problem so she went to a cosmetologist for an advice, though she is under medical
care. What would be the role of the cosmetologist?
a. Work closely with the client's physician to carry out instructions as to the kind and frequency of facial
treatments.
b. Advice the client to stop the medication from the physician.
c. She can have her own separate medication aside from the physician.
d. Refuse and do not give further service.
131
296. Under medical direction, the following are the measures of limitation in cosmetic treatment for acne,
EXCEPT:
a. Remove blackheads using proper procedures
b. Reduce the oiliness of the skin by local application
c. Apply moisturizer
d. Clean the face
297. What kind of cosmetic is used to set the foundation, giving a matte finish, and also to conceal small
flaws or blemishes?
a. powder b. lipstick c. eyeliner d. blush
298. Which of the following provides the backdrop for the entire colorful facial make-up artistry?
a. concealer
b. blush
c. cheek color
d. foundation
299. How is highlight produced for corrective make-up? A highlight is produced when:
a. a darker foundation than the original one is applied to a particular part of the face
b. a lighter shade than the original one is applied to a particular part of the face
c. a medium shade similar to the original one is applied to a particular part of the face
d. a shadow subdues or minimizes prominent features
300. What must one remember in giving facial manipulations to induce relaxation?
a. routine b. tempo c. pressure d. skin type
301. A client comes into the salon for a scalp treatment. She has some obvious abrasions on her scalp.
Which treatment would be acceptable?
a. Apply an antiseptic scalp treatment with minimum massage.
b. Apply an oil treatment with a heat cap.
c. Advise the client of her scalp condition and reschedule her appointment.
d. Give a first aid treatment and proceed with manipulations.
302. Mika noticeably has gray hairs but she is only 11 years old and she is not an albino. What may be
the
cause of gray hairs at this early age?
a. Lack of sleep and overexposed to computers.
b. She has serious illness.
c. She has defects in pigment formation occurring at birth.
d. A result of the natural aging process of humans.
303. Who is an albino? A person born with _________.
a. an hypertrichosis or superfluous hair, an abnormal development of hair
b. an absence of coloring matter in the hair shaft, which is accompanied by no marked of pigment
coloring in the skin or irises of the eyes
c. androgenetic alopecia
d. a small involuntary muscle attached to the underside of a hair follicle
304. What type of haircutting is done when one holds the shears at an angle to the hair strand other than
90 degrees?
a. blunt cut b. beveled cut c. graduated cut d. undercutting
305. Which of the following safety measures in haircutting is NOT true?
a. Always palm the shears when combing the hair.
b. When cutting bangs or any area close to the skin.
c. Beginners should always use a guard when razor cutting.
d. Cut past the second knuckle when cutting on the inside of the hand.
306. Which is an art of arranging the hair with attractive shapes and styles?
a. Hairstyling b. Hair trimming c. Curling d. Waving
307. David cut the hair of Miss P. David just did partially wet and partially dry of Miss P's hair. What would
be the result of Miss P's hair?
a. Even b. Uneven c. Perfect d. Curly
308. Following a haircut, when is texturizing performed most effectively?
a. On dry hair styled the way it will typically be worn.
b. At the shampoo bowl after the conditioner is applied.
132
c. On soaking wet hair that has been brushed.
d. On moderately damp hair prior to styling.
309. The following are some myths about hair growth, EXCEPT:
a. Close clipping, shaving, trimming, cutting, or singeing has an effect on the rate of hair growth.
b. The application of oils increases hair growth.
c. Hair grows after death.
d. Normal, healthy hair grows and sheds each follicle repeatedly cycles through three stages.
310. Cutting the hair for a graduated effect is called _________.
a. taped haircutting b. wedge haircutting
c. sectioning d. barbering
311. Which of the following is an art of creating curls or weaving?
a. Hairstyling b. Thermal styling
c. Hair setting d. Traditional finger waving
312. Which is done to increase the circulation of the blood to the scalp, rest and soothe the nerves,
stimulate the muscles and the activity of the scalp glands?
a. Shampooing b. Hair treatment
c. Scalp manipulation d. Rebonding
313. Which is the correct way to remove tangles from the hair before hairstyling.
a. Crown b. Forehead c. Nape of the neck d. Back of the head
314. Under normal circumstances, how many strands of hair does an average person shed per day?
a. 20-50 b. 40-100 c. 80-120 d. 150-200
315. Hair is distributed all over the body, EXCEPT:
a. Soles of the feet b. Earlobe c. Hands d. Eyes
316. A form of electricity where the flow of current is always in the same direction:
a. voltage b. power c. alternating current d. direct current
317. The force which opposes and reduces the flow of electrical current is recognized as ________.
a. power b. resistance c. electromagnetism d. frequency
318. A part of an electric circuit which converts electrical energy into another form of energy to do work is
________.
a. load b. circuit c. source d. control
319. A part of an electrical circuit, consists of batteries, generator or a main electrical power which
supplies electricity is called ________.
a. control b. load c. source d. voltage
320. A law that states that current is directly proportional to voltage and inversely proportional to
resistance is known as ________.
a. PEC b. Law of Resistivity c. Kirchoff's Law d. Ohm's Law
321. In Ohm's Law, to find the unknown voltage in the circuit, the formula to be used is:
a. E = I x R b. E = I / R c. I = E / R d. R = E / I
322. What amount of current does a 40-watt fluorescent lamp draw from a 220 volts power source?
a. 5.5 amperes b. 0.18 amperes c. 25.5 amperes d. 50.5 amperes
323. There are several factors involved in electrical wiring installation but the foremost consideration is
________.
a. cost b. labor c. safety d function
324. The standard number or diameter of wires for convenience outlet layout should be?
a. 12 b. 14 c. 18 d. 10
325. To comply with the requirements of the Philippine Electrical Code, the appropriate fuse rating for
lighting outlet should be ________.
a. 15 amperes b. 30 amperes c. 60 amperes d. 20 amperes
326. Which term usually refers to a device that produces an electric current when light falls upon them?
a. Solar cell b. Dry cell c. Solar lamp d. Solar light
327. Which is synchronous alternating-current machine that changes mechanical power into electrical
power?
a. Dynamo b. Motor c. Alternator d. Lathe machine
328. Which battery CANNOT be recharged after its chemical energy has been depleted?
a. Energizer b. Eveready
c. Primary battery d. Secondary battery
133
329. Which generator generates direct current?
a. Alternator b. Dynamo c. Battery d. Adaptor
330. Which battery can be recharged after each chemical energy has been depleted?
a. Primary battery b. Energizer c. Eveready d. Secondary battery
331. Which is used to change mechanical energy into electrical energy?
a. Battery b. Circuit c. Dry cell d. Generator
332. A process in splitting the atom of uranium is called ________.
a. fusion b. fission c. friction d. tension
333. A process by joining hydrogen atoms which causes heat hotter than the sun is called ________.
a. fusion b. fission c. friction d. tension
334. Which transforms heat energy to electric energy?
a. Transformers b. Battery c. Generator d. Thermocouple
335. Which is the kinetic energy of falling water?
a. Thermo energy b. Hydro energy c. Solar energy d. Mechanical energy
336. Which is a solar collector that is capable of producing voltage when exposed to radiant energy
(sunlight)?
a. Photoelectric b. Photovoltaic system
c. Photoemission system d. Solar light
337. Energy derived or extracted from the internal heat of the earth is called ________.
a. volcanic b. geothermal c. thermal d. chemical
338. Which refers to the extraction of electrons from a substance by sunlight on incident electromagnetic
radiation?
a. Photoelectric effect b. Photovoltaic effect
c. Photoemission d. Electron microscopy
339. Which statement is TRUE?
a. Bigger size of wire has higher resistance. b. Bigger size of wire has lower resistance.
c. Long wire has lesser resistance. d. Short wire has higher resistance.
340. A small light bulb with a resistance of 100 ohms is connected across a 120-v line. What is the current
through the bulb?
a. 1.2 A b. 0.012 A c. 0.12 A d. 12 A
341. A 200-v lamp has a resistance of 400 ohms. The power rating in watts of lamp is ________.
a. 100 w b. 600 w c. 200 w d. 250 w
342. If 18 resistances, each of a value of 36 ohms, are connected in parallel, then the total resistance is
________.
a. 36 ohms b. 2 ohms c. 648 ohms d. 54 ohms
343. A toaster takes 10 A from a 120v line. The power used is:
a. 12 w b. 130 w c. 1,200 w d. 120 w
344. What is the resistance of a 100 w, 110-v incandescent lamp?
a. 121 ohms b. 115 ohms c. 125 ohms d. 12.1 ohms
345. How many kilowatts is the water heater if it draws a current of 10 amperes and has a resistance of
23
ohms?
a. 23 Kw b. 2,300 Kw c. 230 Kw d. 2.3 Kw
346. The resistance of an electrical wire is inversely proportional to its ________.
a. length b. cross sectional area
c. temperature d. material
347. A fluorescent lamp unit connected to a 110v AC line takes 1.2A and requires 110w power. What is its
power factor?
a. 0.9 b. 0.833 c. 0.866 d. 0.8
348. An electric heater uses 20kw-in 8 hours. If the voltage across the heater is 240 volts. What is the
heater resistance?
a. 2.5 ohms b. 83.3 ohms c. 23.04 ohms d. 2.30 ohms
349. The resistance of a 230v incandescent lamp is 300 ohms. What current is required to operate the
lamp?
a. 0.85 A b. 0.77 A c. 1.30 A d. 7.74 A
134
350. A group of lamps operates a current of 12 A and a voltage of 120v. What is the total power of the
lamps?
a. 1.44 kw b. 1.20 kw c. 1.34 kw d. 14.4 kw
351. What is the maximum load capacity of a 15A circuit breaker protecting a branch circuit that supplies
a
continuous load?
a. 15 A b. 10 A c. 12 A d. 14 A
352. What is the horsepower rating of an electric water pump if it has a power rating of 1.75 Kw?
a. 2 Hp b. 2.3 Hp c. 2.5 Hp d. 23 Hp
353. How many kilowatts does a certain appliance consume for 5 hours of use if it has a power rating of
1.5 Hp?
a. 56 Kw b. 7.5 Kw c. 5.6 Kw d. 75 Kw
354. A cell supplies a load current of 0.5A for a period of 20 hours until its terminal voltage falls to an
unacceptable level. How long can it be expected to supply a current of 100mA?
a. 50 hours b. 100 hours c. 60 hours d. 70 hours
355. A battery is rated 200Ah. If it is used to supply a constant current of 8Ah. How long can the battery
last until it becomes unusable?
a. 20 hours b. 2.5 hours c. 15 hours d. 2.5 hours
356. The resistance of 500 meters of a certain wire is 125 ohms. What length of the same wire will have a
resistance of 60 ohms?
a. 24 meters b. 225 meters c. 240 meters d. 235 meters
357. If three equal resistances are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance of the circuit will be
________ the value of one resistor.
a. three time b. half c. one-third d. the same
358. Find the cost of using a 100W, 220V lamp for 20 hours at P3.00 per kW-hr?
a. P6.00 b. P9.00 c. P10.00 d. P60.00
359. Which is a box with a blank cover is inserted in one or more runs of raceway to facilitate pulling of
the
conductors?
a. Blank box b. Junction box c. Terminal box d. Pull box
360. Which is a box with a blank cover for joining runs of conduits and providing space for connection and
branching of enclosed conductors?
a. Blank box b. Junction box c. Terminal box d. Pull box
361. The minimum size of wire used in electrical wiring is the no.14 AWG. Under the SI standard, what is
the diameter of this wire?
a. 1.2 mm b. 1.6 mm c. 1.5 mm d. 2.0 mm
362. A thin-walled steel raceway of circular with a corrosion-resistant coating for protection of wires or
cable is ________.
a. rigid metal conduit b. flexible metal pipe
c. metal moulding d. electrical metallic tubing
363. Armored cable is commercially known as ________.
a. BX cable b. flat cable c. metallic cable d. duplex cable
364. Which type of cable is fabricated assembly of insulated conductors enclosed in a flexible metal
sheath?
a. Underground cable b. Armored cable
c. Flat cable d. Flexible cable
365. Flat cable assembly shall be installed for ________.
I. concealed work only
II. exposed work only
a. I only b. II only c. I and II d. cannot be determined
366. An assembly of two pieces of insulating material provided with grooves for holding one or more
conductors at a definite spacing from the surface wired over and from each other, and with holes for
fastening in position is called:
a. split knob b. cleat c. spool insulator d. strain insulator
367. Which is a wiring method that uses knobs, tubes, and flexible non-metallic tubing for the protection
and support of single insulated conductors concealed in hollow spaces of walls and ceilings of buildings?
a. Knob and tube wiring b. Open wiring on insulators
c. Concealed knob and tube wiring d. Open wiring with knob and tubes
135
368. Which term refers to that switch or outlet body that is embedded or hidden in the wall?
a. Surface type b. Flush type c. Concealed type d. Open type
369. The use of surface non-metallic raceway is not permitted in all the following, EXCEPT:
a. dry locations b. where subject to severe physical damage
c. where voltage is over 300 V d. where concealed
370. When the entire switch or outlet body is visible and extends beyond the wall surface, the device is
said to be ________.
a. Wall type b. Surface type c. Flush type d. Open type
371. What device automatically breaks the circuit the moment an overload or short circuit occurs?
a. Breaker switch b. Overload c. Circuit breaker d. Main switch
372. Which term is used when two conductors are embedded in one solid mass of rubber insulation?
a. two in one b. three in one c. stranded d. duplex
373. What type of socket is used for outdoor or wet location in wiring installation?
a. Waterproof socket b. Special purpose socket
c. Weatherproof socket d. Outdoor socket
374. What is the smallest size of wire permitted by the Code to be used in wiring installation?
a. 2.0 mm squared b. 3.5 mm squared c. 2.0 mm d. 1.25 mm squared
375. Which one of the following uses is permitted by the Code to be used for surface non-metallic
raceway?
a. dry locations b. where concealed
c. where subject to severe physical damage d. where voltage is over 300 V
376. Service entrance using copper conductors shall have sufficient capacity and shall not be smaller
than
________.
a. 5.5 mm squared b. 3.5 mm squared c. 14 mm squared d. 8.0 mm squared
377. If two identical lamps give normal light when connected in parallel in a 230v line are reconnected in
series in the same line, the bulb will ________.
a. give more light b. not light c. give less light d. blows out
378. When flexible metal conduit is installed as a fixed raceway, it shall be secured within ________ on
each side of every outlet box.
a. 250 mm b. 300 mm c. 100 mm d. 150 mm
379. A short circuit can be detected by using ________.
a. an ohmmeter b. a megger c. an oscilloscope d. an ammeter
380. The electrical plans for residential house include the following items, EXCEPT:
a. Substation plan b. Location plan
c. Floor plan showing location of service
d. Layout of wiring plan for general lighting and receptacles outlets
381. If installed in raceways, conductors of size ________ and larger shall be stranded.
a. 5.5 mm squared b. 8.0 mm squared c. 14 mm squared d. 3.5 mm squared
382. At least ________ of free conductor shall be left at each outlet, junction and switch point for splices
or connection of fixture or devices.
a. 250 mm b. 175 mm c. 150 mm d. 300 mm
383. A certain residential house has lighting load of 1.1 kVA and an appliance load of 10A at 220 volts,
single phase, two wires, 60 Hz. The branch circuit fuse protection for lighting and appliance loads are
________ and ________, respectively.
a. 20 A and 60 A b. 20 A and 30 A c. 15 A and 30 A d. 15 A and 20 A
384. Live vegetation or trees ________ used for support of overhead conductors spans.
a. shall be b. should be c. shall not be d. should not be
385. Light fixtures suspended from the ceiling by chains should be wired so that the wires ________.
a. will be grounded b. will not touch the chains
c. will support the fixture d. will not support the fixture
386. In rigid metal conduit wiring, conduit of 15-20 mm diameter shall be supported at least every
________.
a. 2,500 mm b. 3,500 mm c. 1,800 mm d. 3,800 mm
136
387. Why do conductors need additional wiring insulators?
a. Electrical wiring needs to be protected from mechanical harm.
b. Wires are connected by joints therefore need reinsulation.
c. Wires touches wood surface therefore need protection.
d. Wires skin is weak.
388. What is the total number of mechanical degrees that an electrical pipe run maybe bent between pull
points?
a. 360 degrees b. 180 degrees c. 120 degrees d. 270 degrees
389. Rigid non-metallic conduit shall be supported within ________ of each box.
a. 600 mm b. 800 mm c. 900 mm d. 760 mm
390. Electrical metallic tubing smaller than ________ electrical trade size shall NOT be used.
a. 12 mm b. 10 mm c. 15 mm d. 20 mm
391. Type AC cable shall be secured by approved staples, straps, hangers or similar fittings at intervals
NOT
exceeding ________.
a. 1,250 mm b. 1,300 mm c. 1,500 mm d. 1,000 mm
392. In concealed knob and tube wiring, the clearance to be maintained between conductors is ________.
a. 65 mm b. 45 mm c. 76 mm d. 50 mm
393. Three bulbs are connected in parallel and controlled by a single switch. If one of the 3 bulbs is
busted,
what will happen to the remaining bulbs?
a. it will not lit b. its brightness is reduced
c. its brightness increases d. its brightness in maintained
394. Find the profit of Wang’s water refilling business with revenue of ₱56,000,000 and costs of
₱42,000,000.
a. ₱14,000,000 b. ₱140,000 c. ₱1,400,000 d. ₱14,000
395. Norma's food stall has costs of ₱2,900. Her total food sales are ₱11,600. What percent of her food
sales do the food costs represent?
a. 20% b. 25% c. 27% d. 30%
396. Marvin needs 250 cookies for a buffet. He will make oatmeal raisin, macaroons, and chocolate chunk
cookies. He wants 25% of the cookies to be oatmeal raisin and 15% of the cookies to be macaroons. How
many chocolate chunk cookies must Marvin bake?
a. 150 b. 125 c. 140 d. 100
397. If a shirt is marked down 25%, what will the purchase price be?
a. ₱25 b. 75% of its original price
c. 50% off d. ₱75
398. A customer places a special order through 480 Furniture Store. The list price in the manufacturer's
catalog is ₱1,600. 480 Furniture receives a 35% trade discount. What is the net price for the furniture
order?
a. ₱560 b. ₱1,535 c. ₱1,565 d. ₱1,040
399. Ron's Manufacturing offers discounts on most of its products. What is the trade discount rate on an
item with a list price of ₱16.79 and a net price of ₱2.42?
a. 22% b. 26% c. 54% d. 74%
400. What type of financial statement summarizes the information concerning the cash inflows and
outflows during a particular period?
a. Balance sheet b. Statement cash flows
c. Income statement d. Statement of retained earning
401. Closing entries are made:
a. so that financial statements can be made
b. in order to terminate the business as an operating entity
c. in order to transfer net income/loss and owner's drawings to the owner's capital account
d. so that all assets, liabilities, and owner's capital accounts will have zero balances when the next
accounting period starts
402. Suppliers who allow business to receive goods and services before paying for them are known as:
a. Finance companies b. Leasing companies c. Trade Credits d. Trade debtors
403. Which of the following is an example of external finance?
a. Disposal by a business of surplus assets
b. Bank loan
137
c. Day to day cash from sales to customers
d. Money loaned from trade suppliers through extended credit
404. A shareholder sells his shares for more than he paid for them. This is known as:
a. Capital gain b. Profit on disposal c. God deal d. Capital allowance
405. The point at which the level of sales of a business exactly equals its costs is known as the:
a. Break-even point b. Insolvency point c. Start-up stage d. Profit point
406. Working capital is:
a. Current Assets-Current Liabilities b. Notes Payable
c. Current Liabilities d. Accounts Payable
407. Which of the following does not appear in a Balance Sheet?
a. Cash b. Equipment
c. Accounts Payable d. Depreciation Expense
408. Adjusting entries are used to:
a. close the books b. record accruals
c. correct errors d. all of the listed answers are correct
409. Net Income or Profit results from:
a. revenues exceeding expenses b. assets exceeding liabilities
c. expenses exceeding revenues d. liabilities exceeding assets
410. Assets are normally recorded at:
a. cost b. appraised value
c. market value d. management's estimated value
411. Which financial report measures results for a period of time?
a. Balance Sheet b. Income Statement
c. Trial Balance d. All of the listed answers
412. Using the double entry system, every business transaction _________.
a. affects two or more accounts b. affects only asset accounts
c. affects only one account d. affects only income statement
413. A debt incurred by buying goods or services from a supplier on credit is called _________.
a. property b. accounts payable
c. an expense d. accounts receivable
414. In the entrepreneurial world, new ideas and opportunities are evolving. What is the ability to create
new things, invest in new enterprises and expand business?
a. Creativity b. Entrepreneurship
c. Manufacturing d. Producing
415. Alvin has transferred to a new locality. He observed that there is an opportunity for him to put up his
own business since he has enough capital and very much interested to the idea. Which of these factors
must he possess so that he will not rely on the services of the employees?
a. Markets b. Manpower
c. Supply of resources d. Knowledge/Skills
416. Management functions and principles play a very critical role in running a business. What principle of
planning specifies that the objectives of an entrepreneur should match the needs of the society?
a. must be realistic b. must be based on felt needs
c. must focus on dealing with a crisis d. must start with a simple project
417. Entrepreneurs use various management tools to succeed in a business. What management tool is
used to analyze business opportunities?
a. Environmental scanning b. Market study
c. Market survey d. SWOT
418. When an entrepreneur communicates with people through interviews, observations and
advertisement on what is new, what entrepreneurial activity does he/she engage?
a. Statistical study b. Marketing study
c. Entrepreneurial scanning d. Environmental scanning
419. There are P's in preparing market research. Which P in marketing is designed to communicate the
product to customers?
a. Place b. Price c. People d. Promotion
138
420. The site of the business enterprise is one of the requirements of entrepreneurship. Which of the
following is the most important in choosing the best location for the business?
a. access to supplies and raw materials b. clean, decent and peaceful environment
c. less competitors in the area d. enough capital to pay space rental
421. Which term refers to people, institutions or organizations for whom the business is designed?
a. sample b. population c. market d. society
422. Which one is not included in planning a business?
a. how and when to do it b. how to increase profits
c. what to expect in the future d. what to do
423. What is the benefit of business planning wherein the entrepreneur determines whether the business
is profitable or not?
a. minimize cost production b. detect the weakness of the business
c. eliminate business risk d. estimate sales
424. What is thinking ahead of objectives, strategies, financing, production, marketing, profit proposal,
and growth facilities?
a. forecasting b. managing c. planning d. projecting
425. Business enterprises should operate in a dynamic environment in order to survive. What kind of
environment includes technological, social and ethical/political factors?
a. Macro environment b. Micro environment
c. Technological environment d. Social environment
426. Mr. Silva purchased a right to operate an already established business, what type of retail ownership
is it?
a. Corporate b. Franchise
c. Independent d. Single-store-ownership
427. Who among the following is the principal actor of the production?
a. Entrepreneur b. Customer c. Production manager d. Worker
428. These are the perishable tangible used in the production process.
a. Financial resources b. Human resources
c. Information resources d. Material resources
429. Which method of establishing a business starts from scratch?
a. buy-out b. franchising c. loan d. start-up
430. What brief description of the market describes the buyers and users of the product and the area of
dispersion?
a. market analysis b. market dispersion c. marketing d. market study
431. It is a type of organization wherein a superior delegates authority to a subordinate.
a. committee type b. functional type c. line type d. line and staff type
432. Which is one disadvantage of a functional type of organization?
a. Morale is likely to be low when discipline is weak.
b. Each manager is supreme in his own field.
c. It is difficult to secure executives and superiors with an all-around knowledge.
d. There is greater flexibility.
433. What type of product, as designed, produced and marketed by the seller?
a. Licensed brand b. National brand c. Private label brand d. Trademark
434. Which of the following is the correct definition of the term "entrepreneur"? A person who ________.
a. pursues opportunity without regard to resources
b. starts a new business with the aim of making a profit
c. seeks to create value for local communities, people or customer by starting new ventures which exploit
new products, processes or markets.
d. seeks to generate value through creation or expansion of economic activity, by identifying and
exploiting new products, processes or markets
435. Which of the following skills are NOT needed by an entrepreneur?
a. Technical skills b. Personal entrepreneurial skills
c. Working skills d. Business management skills
436. Which of the following statement is INAPPROPRIATE in starting a business?
a. Study the concepts and principles of entrepreneurial skills.
b. Cope with failures of the business.
139
c. Undergo training on entrepreneurial skills.
d. Know what characteristics are needed to become an entrepreneur.
437. Which of the following is NOT a source of fund for Mr. Fajardo's future business?
a. Seek assistance from Central Bank of the Philippines.
b. Borrow money from friends and relatives.
c. Avail of the government program on financing micro-macro business.
d. Use part of her retirement benefit.
438. If her business idea is a boutique, what quality of a future entrepreneur is INAPPROPRIATE?
a. Relaxed b. Hard worker c. Risk taker d. Innovative
439. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an entrepreneur?
a. Coping with failure b. Irritated
c. Opportunity seeker d. Persistent
440. Which among these characteristics of an entrepreneur is UNDESIRABLE?
a. Opportunity seeker b. Goal setter
c. Futuristic d. Impassive
441. Which of the following is a primary cause of failure in small business?
a. Poor financial control b. Poor location
c. Management mistakes d. Improper inventory control
442. Which of these traits gets an entrepreneur off of his feet and puts him into action, turning daydream
into reality?
a. Perseverance b. Ambition c. Creativity d. Enthusiasm
443. Which entrepreneurial trait gives an entrepreneur a positive outlook in life which gives the energy to
pursue his endeavors?
a. Perseverance b. Ambition c. Creativity d. Enthusiasm
444. Which trait is an entrepreneur able to withstand the troubles that come with a starting business?
a. Perseverance b. Ambition c. Creativity d. Enthusiasm
445. What is the general function of marketing, involves the physical meeting point for buyers and sellers
at the point of production or via some other means of communication?
a. Specific functions b. Exchange functions
c. Physical functions d. Facilitating functions
446. Which type of marketing functions, enables the actual flow of commodities through space and time
from producer to consumer and their transformation to a form desirable function to the consumers?
a. Specific functions b. Exchange functions
c. Physical functions d. Facilitating functions
447. From a social viewpoint, which of the following statements about marketing objective is NOT true?
a. Assist in the efficient allocation of resources.
b. Create wealth and promote economic growth.
c. Improve income distribution among different sectors of the economy.
d. Maintain instability of supply and demand for marketed goods.
448. Which is considered a vehicle for informing target market about the enterprise and the products or
services?
a. Product b. Price c. Place d. Promotion
449. At what stage of marketing effort does an entrepreneur concentrate on targeting a new market of
buyers and taking market share from competitors by price cutting or re-launching the product?
a. Introduction b. Growth c. Maturity d. Decline
450. Which of the following is NOT appropriate in running a small-scale business?
a. Keeping clear records b. Verifying profit and loss
c. Managing cash flow d. Distribution channel
451. Which marketing channel operates with capital owned directly by the operators and their partners,
or in some cases by shareholders?
a. Cooperatives
b. Independent, locally based private enterprise
c. Marketing boards and other state enterprises
d. Transnational companies
452. At which stage of a product life cycle must an entrepreneur decide whether he wants to try to
rejuvenate the product by investing in development and aggressive marketing or to quietly admit defeat
140
and exit the market?
a. Introduction b. Growth c. Maturity d. Decline
453. A marketing mix that can have both tangible and intangible aspects and is the thing you offer to
satisfy your customers' wants and needs is ________.
a. Product b. Packaging c. Price d. Promotion
454. Which is considered to be the best way to assess entrepreneurial projects or business ventures?
a. Environmental analysis b. SWOT analysis
c. Competitor analysis d. PEST analysis
455. An analysis that provides the details for opportunities and threats of a business to make better
decisions regarding marketing plan is termed ________.
a. Environmental analysis b. SWOT analysis
c. Competitor analysis d. PEST analysis
456. The acronym SWOT stands for:
a. Strengths-Weaknesses-Options-Testing
b. Strengths-Weaknesses-Opportunities-Testing
c. Strengths-Weaknesses-Options-Threats
d. Strengths-Weaknesses-Opportunities-Threats
457. Which question is asked at the first stage in the marketing planning process of an enterprise?
a. Where are we now? b. Where are we heading?
c. Are we on course? d. Where would we like to be?
458. Which of these stages is the final stage in the marketing planning process flow chart?
a. Control b. Marketing planning mix
c. Setting marketing objectives d. Setting the product price
459. An entrepreneur might select a target market probably because the target market ________.
a. is attractive to the business and matches its supply capabilities
b. is large and well-served with existing products
c. is fully understood by the entrepreneur
d. has a proven track record for buying product
460. A carefully thought structured formal commercial report that is extraordinary well documented and
clearly written to safeguard any wastage of further investment project is called ________.
a. Portfolio b. Business plan c. Resume d. Feasibility study
461. Which is considered as a comprehensive and effective blueprint to guide an entrepreneur in a
business venture?
a. Resume b. Portfolio c. Business plan d. Insurance plan
462. A schematic diagram shows the components of an electronic circuit by means of:
a. Symbol b. Construction c. Physical appearance d. Linear appearance
463. What is the best place for electronic hand tools and equipment?
a. Tool box b. Tool cabinet c. Tool room d. Tool bag
464. Imagine three resistors in parallel, with values of 22 ohms, 27 ohms, and 33 ohms. If a 12 V battery
is
connected across this combination, what is the current drawn from the battery?
a. 1.4 A b. 15 mA c. 150 mA d. 1.5 A
465. Which of the following is a non-polarized electronic component?
a. Transistor b. Resistor c. Diode d. Electrolytic capacitor
466. The voltage rating found in a capacitor is called ________.
a. Peak-reverse voltage b. Working voltage
c. Blow-up voltage d. Breakdown voltage
467. A diode is an electronic part that at all times is expected to do one of the following functions. Which
one is it?
a. allow current to flow in both directions b. multiply voltage
c. allow current to flow in one direction only d. not allow any current flow
468. There are various types of diodes. This diode that acts as a regulator is the ________.
a. Silicon diode b. Crystal diode c. LED d. Zener diode
469. You will find an electrode nearest the white band on a rectifier. What is it?
a. Anode b. Cathode c. Gate d. Main Terminal
470. When a diode is tested and the reading is zero, it means the diode is ________.
a. Shorted b. Open c. Leaky d. Good
141
471. If the transistor is an NPN type, the base is ________.
a. negative & positive b. negative
c. positive d. common
472. If the arrow of a transistor symbol is pointing inward it tells us that the transistor is:
a. NPN b. PNP c. Bipolar d. Injunction
473. In the electronic symbol of a transistor, the electrode with an arrow is the:
a. Emitter b. Base c. Collector d. Cathode
474. The production of magnetic field by current in a conductor is ________.
a. Electromagnetism b. Ferromagnetism c. Magnetism d. Diamagnetism
475. The type of current whose amplitude drops to zero periodically and is produced in rectifier is known
as ________.
a. Pulsating Direct Current b. Damped Alternating Current
c. Varying Direct Current d. Saw tooth wave
476. Printed on the dial of an AM radio is an RF band covering _________.
a. kHz 76 - 90 MHz b. 88 - 108 MHz c. 16 Hz - 20 kHz d. 535 - 1,605 kHz
477. An ordinary radio can be tuned to different stations. The electronic component responsible for this
function is the:
a. Tuning capacitor b. Oscillator coil c. IF transformer d. Detector diode
478. The condition of a loud speaker is tested more accurately using one of the ranges listed below:
a. R x 1K b. R x 10 c. R x 1 d. R x 10K
479. Working efficiently is a good work habit. Tinning the tip of a soldering iron refers to:
a. Cleaning the tip with a sand paper b. Making the tip pointed
c. Cutting the tip d. Applying flux to the tip
480. The common cause of an erratic or distorted sound of a transistor radio is a defective?
a. Amplifier b. Volume control c. Antenna d. Tuner
481. An appliance with 110 Volts AC Supply is accidentally plugged to a 220 Volts AC outlet. What
component is usually destroyed?
a. Switch b. AC plug c. Line fuse d. Power transformer
482. The word electron was derived from the Greek word "elektron", which means:
a. to rub b. to flow c. amber d. friction
483. The peak to peak voltage in a 117 V AC outlet is ________.
a. 620 V b. 165.5 V c. 331 V d. 220 V
484. Which is a type of modulation where the amplitude of the carriers is changed in accordance with
demodulating signal?
a. FM b. PDM c. AM d. PCM
485. The actual flow of current is from ________.
a. negative to positive b. positive to negative
c. positive to positive d. negative to negative
486. The rate of doing work is called ________.
a. energy b. power c. voltage d. resistance
487. MilliHenry is equal to ________.
a. 10th Henry b. 100th Henry c. 1,000th Henry d. 1,000,000th Henry
488. An inductor opposes any change in ________.
a. voltage b. current c. frequency d. modulation
489. A circuit having two or more current paths is a ________ connection.
a. parallel b. series c. series-parallel d. cannot be determined
490. Which is an electrical unit of measuring a power?
a. Ohms b. Ampere c. Watt d. Volt
491. A category of a resistor which obey Ohm's Law is ________.
a. linear b. non-linear c. potentiometer d. resistance
492. Which is an electronic device that is used to limit or oppose the flow of current in a circuit?
a. Capacitor b. Resistor c. Diode d. Inductor
493. An instrument that is used to measure the amount of resistance in a circuit is called ________.
a. DC voltmeter b. ohmmeter c. AC voltmeter d. ammeter
494. Solder is a mixture of ________.
a. tin lead b. zinc and lead c. zinc and tin d. copper and lead
142
495. The common used soldering lead is ________.
a. 40-60 b. 60-40 c. 50-50 d. 50-40
496. A standard 220VAC has a frequency of ________.
a. 45 Hz b. 30 Hz c. 50 Hz d. 60 Hz
497. A low frequency speaker is sometimes known as ________.
a. tweeter b. squeaker c. woofer d. howler
498. The three leads of a common transistor are a/an:
a. collector base emitter b. emitter collector base
c. base collector case d. collector base emitter
499. Connecting lead from the negative to the positive of a battery will produce a/an ________.
a. high resistance circuit b. low current path
c. short circuit d. open circuit
500. What is the approximate characteristic voltage that develops across a red LED?
a. 1.7 V b. 0.6 V c. 3.4 V d. 6 V
501. If two resistors are placed in series, the final resistance is ________.
a. higher b. lower c. the same d. cannot be determined
502. A 100n capacitor in parallel with 10n produces ________.
a. 90n b. 110n c. 100n d. cannot be determined
503. The 10k resistor in parallel with 10k produces ________.
a. 10K b. 20K c. 5K d. cannot be determined
504. The 2 pcs. of 3V batteries are connected in series. The output voltage is ________.
a. 3V b. 6V c. 0V d. cannot be determined
505. An electronic device that is used to limit or oppose the flow of current in a circuit is called a
________.
a. capacitor b. resistor c. diode d. inductor
506. Which tool is needed in removing soldered components in the circuit board?
a. Long nose pliers b. Desoldering pump c. Diagonal cutting pliersd. Wire stripper
507. Which tool is used in joining or soldering electronic components in the circuit board?
a. Soldering iron b. Electrical pliers c. Desoldering pump d. Long nose plier
508. Which tool is used to hold or pick up components in the circuit board?
a. Mechanical pliers b. Long nose pliers c. Electrical pliers d. Wire stripper
509. Which tool is used in turning slotted screws?
a. Flat screw driver b. Phillips screw driver c. Electrical pliers d. Wire stripper
510. Which is a pocket-sized tool that provides maximum safety when pulling cartridge fuses and
checking
electrical connections?
a. Fuse puller b. Screw driver c. Desoldering tool d. Mini drill
511. If a 10K resistor is placed across a 10 v supply, the current will be ________.
a. 10 mA b. 0.001 mA c. 1 mA d. 65 mA
512. A disadvantage of LCD (liquid crystal display) is ________.
a. high current demands b. slow reactance to input
c. environmental temperature sensitivity d. persistence limitations
513. Which is TRUE of a series DC motor with no load?
a. Tends to stop or not start b. Maybe damaged by excessive speed
c. Has reverse direction d. Becomes an AC generator
514. A fuse marked 250V, 650m can be used in circuits with an "open fuse" supply voltage of ________.
a. 125 Volts b. 500 Volts c. 5,000 Volts d. 250 Volts
515. To prevent transistor from getting hot, use ________.
a. silicon grease b. insulator c. heat sink d. exhaust fan
516. To obtain a higher value of resistance, resistors are ________.
a. reverse b. parallel c. forward d. series
517. Which fuse has its internal fusible wire wrapped around an insulator?
a. a slow-blow type fuse b. an inductive fuse
c. a capacitive fuse d. intended for high voltage fuse
518. Which would be considered "basic components of a power supply"?
a. zener, regulator, transformer b. regulator, diode, AC power, load
c. transformer, bridge, capacitor, load d. filter, regulator, rectifier, transformer
143
519. Which presents the rise and fall of alternating current and voltages?
a. Graph b. Sine wave c. Fluctuation d. Cycle
520. When two capacitors are connected in parallel, the capacitance will ________.
a. increase b. have the same value
c. decrease d. increase and decrease
521. Which circuit has the most gain?
a. Common emitter b. Common collector c. Common base d. Emitter follower
522. Which rectifier circuit uses four diodes for its rectification?
a. half-wave rectifier b. full-wave rectifier
c. full-wave rectifier d. split type rectifier
523. When a resistor is open, the resistance ________.
a. increases b. gets zero
c. decreases d. is infinite
524. A low voltage power supply converts ________.
a. AC voltage output b. Pulsating DC voltage
c. DC output voltage d. AC and DC voltage outputs
525. When checking an open resistor using an ohmmeter the resistance reads
________.
a. zero level b. high resistance but within the tolerance
c. infinite d. low but not zero
526. Moving one plate of a capacitor further away from the other will ________.
a. decrease capacitance b. increase capacitance
c. decrease voltage rating d. increase mutual transconductance
527. In checking capacitor to see if it is shorted, open or leaky, you would use the _____ohmmeter range.
a. lowest b. highest c. middle d. upper
528. A schematic diagram shows the components of an electronic circuit by means of ________.
a. a symbol b. a construction
c. physical appearance d. linear appearance
529. If there are only two resistors with the same values in parallel circuit, which formula may be used to
find its total resistance?
a. Rt = R/n b. Rt = (R1xR2) / (R1+R2)
c. 1/Rt = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + ......1/Rn d. Rt = (R1+R2) / (R1xR2)
530. Which hand tool is used solely for cutting metals?
a. utility knife b. saw
c. magnifying glass d. paint brush
531. What is the reason why threads become stripped?
a. screws are over tightened b. screws are heated
c. screws are molded d. screws are painted
532. In what instrument is the ohmmeter found?
a. Ammeter b. Tube tester
c. Capacitor tester d. VOM
533. From what part of the ohmmeter do you derive resistance reading?
a. Range multiplier b. Reading scale c. Test probes d. Pointer
534. Which instrument serves as 3 measuring instruments in one?
a. Audio generator b. Oscilloscope c. Signal generator d. VOM
535. Which device produces simple waveforms?
a. Audio amplifier b. VOM c. Signal tracer d. Signal generator
536. What is the other name for connection diagram?
a. Wiring diagram b. Block diagram c. Pictorial diagram d. Schematic diagram
537. Which equipment is used to discharge electrical charges produced by the human body?
a. Audio generator b. Signal generator c. ESD d. VOM
538. Which term refers to the set of rules or practices to ensure no accident prevention?
a. Safety practices b. Rules and regulation c. Policy order d. Action plan
539. What tools are NOT recommended to be used in electronics works?
a. brand new tools b. branded tools
c. damaged tools d. locally produced tools
144
540. Which type of lines is used to show mechanical linkages between components or parts on schematic
diagram?
a. Connecting lines b. Dashed lines
c. Medium lines d. Thin lines
541. What does VOM mean?
a. AC Voltmeter b. Ohmmeter
c. DC Milliammeter d. Volt-Ohm-Milliammeter
542. Which tool is used to cut the insulation without cutting the wire?
a. utility knife b. hacksaw c. side cutter d. wire stripper
543. What does LED stands for?
a. Light emitting display b. Low energy display
c. Light emitting diode d. Light emitting detector
544. Which picture or sketch shows the components of a circuit and how these components are
connected together?
a. Wiring diagram b. Block diagram
c. Pictorial diagram d. Schematic diagram
545. 3 pieces of resistors in which the values are 10 ohm, 20 ohms, and 50 ohms. If the 20 ohms is open,
what will be the reading in the ohmmeter?
a. 60 ohms b. 0 c. infinite d. 80 ohms
546. Why does an AM receiver receive or pick-up signal despite the far distance from the transmitter
compared to the FM receiver?
a. The AM receiver picks up signal easily because of the transistor.
b. The AM receiver picks up signal easily because the signals transmitted by the AM transmitter is by
means of line to sight.
c. The AM receiver picks up signal easily because the signals transmitted by the AM transmitter is by
means of line to ground.
d. The AM receiver picks up signal easily because the signals transmitted by the AM transmitter is by
means of line to televise.
547. Why is it needed to place antenna in higher or an elevated area particularly in a mountainous place?
I. All signals transmitted by the transmitter station is by means of line to ground; the higher antenna the
more signal can be received.
II. The antenna is placed in higher or elevated area in order to capture the wind direction.
III. Signals transmitted by the transmitter station is by means of line of sight; the higher antenna the
more
signal can be received.
a. I only b. III only c. II only d. I, II, III
548. A Service Electronics Technician cleaned the terminal of the component using sand paper or knife
before it soldered to the PCB. What is the main purpose of that cleaning?
a. To attract more charges.
b. To remove the insulator so that soldering can be made easily.
c. To attract electrons, protons, and neutrons.
d. To maximize the desired voltages.
549. If the Service Electronics Technician applied the so-called pre-tinning, how should be the process be?
a. The Service Electronics Technician applies a little amount of soldering lead and soldering flux to the tip
during pre-heating of the soldering iron.
b. The Service Electronics Technician cleans the soldering tip using files, sand paper or a cutter.
c. The Service Electronics Technician allows his soldering iron to heat at least 40 minutes before he uses
it
and solders with the terminal of the component.
d. The Service Electronics Technician checks the temperature of the tip before soldering is made.
550. Jonas has sautéed some meat in the pan. There are some brown bits left on the bottom of the pan.
While the pan was still on the stove, he added some white wine and scarped the bottom of the pan.
What do you call the techniques just used?
a. Cleaning b. Deglazing c. Caramelizing d. Flambé
551. Energy value is express in terms of calories which represents the chemical energy that released as
heat when food is oxidized. Which nutrient has more than twice the calorie per gram?
a. Carbohydrates b. Protein c. Fat d. Minerals
145
552. Food furnishes the body with the different nutrients it needs. Which of the following nutrients is
needed as the main structural component of the body?
a. Carbohydrates b. Protein c. Fat d. Fiber
553. Frostings are products that are closely associated with sugar. What kind of sugar is used primarily in
the preparation of flat icings with butter cream?
a. brown sugar b. refined sugar c. granulated sugar d. confectioner sugar
554. Meats are considered rich in proteins. What kind of protein is found in connective tissue of meat that
converts to gelatin when it is cooked?
a. Elastic b. Gluten c. Marbling d. Collagen
555. Which of these nutrients is an anti-oxidant?
a. Vitamin E b. Calcium c. Fiber d. Vitamin B12
556. Which cooking method destroys nutrients?
a. Boiling b. Roasting c. Slow cooking d. All of the above
557. Which food is the "best source of thiamine?"
a. Pork b. Milk c. Carrots d. Potatoes
558. What happens to carbohydrates that are not used right away as energy?
a. They are stored in the body as fat.
b. They are stored in the body as amino acids.
c. They circulate through the bloodstream until they are burned as fat.
d. They are all used immediately as energy.
559. All of these are good sources of Vitamin C. Which one has the most vitamin C?
a. 1 cup of sliced strawberries
b. 1 cup of chopped green chili peppers
c. 1 cup of orange sections
d. 1 cup of diced tomatoes
560. Saturated fats raise the cholesterol level in our bloodstream. Saturated fats can be found in?
a. Olives b. Beans
c. Movie theater popcorn d. Fish
561. Food is more appetizing to the eye if small portions of colorful food such as celery, parsley and
tomatoes are added to a dish to improve its appearance. Which of the term applied to the statement?
a. glace b. garnish c. frosting d. decoration
562. To soak the meat or fish in a mixture of oil, vinegar and wine to add flavor and make it tender is to
________ it.
a. marinade b. season c. dip d. marinate
563. Working the dough by stretching and folding in a floured surface to obtain the required consistency
is
________.
a. Beating b. Kneading c. Punching d. Folding
564. Which of the following term may apply in cutting vegetables into thin match sticks size which are
used to garnished dishes?
a. Mirepoix b. Macedoine c. Brunoise d. Julienne
565. A 50g serving size of chiffon cake contains 3g fat, 22g carbohydrates and 3g protein. How many kcal
are in a serving size of chiffon cake?
a. 117 kcal b. 127 kcal c. 137 kcal d. 147 kcal
566. Fat-soluble vitamins can easily be dissolved in fat. The following are examples of fat soluble
vitamins,
EXCEPT:
a. Vitamin D b. Vitamin K c. Vitamin E d. Vitamin C
567. The food pyramid illustrates the balance of foods needed for a healthy lifestyle. Fat, sugar, salt and
alcohol are group under what classification?
a. Eat Least Food b. Eat Moderately Foods
c. Eat All Foods d. Eat Most Foods
568. The following are physiological functions of food, EXCEPT:
a. give energy b. build and repair cells
c. provide satisfaction d. regulate body process
569. CHON is the chemical formula for ________.
a. carbohydrates b. protein c. fat d. minerals
146
570. What vitamin deficiency is present when a person suffers from poor night vision or blindness?
a. Retinol b. Thiamine c. Niacin d. Folic acid
571. What disease would result to a person who has an iron deficiency?
a. Cough and cold b. Nose bleed c. Anemia d. Xeropthalmia
572. Which of the following fruit and vegetables have higher water percentage composition?
a. Apple b. Strawberry c. Carrots d. Tomatoes
573. Which is NOT a function of fat?
a. Enhance flavor and palatability of food b. Carrier of fat-soluble vitamins
c. Protect the heart and kidneys d. Repair body tissues
574. The following vegetables are good sources of carotene, EXCEPT:
a. Mangoes b. Carrots c. Legumes d. Tomatoes
575. Which is NOT a group from the Food Guide Pyramid?
a. water, milk, yogurt b. food additives
c. chicken, pork, egg d. rice, corn, pasta
576. Which statement regarding vitamins is most accurate?
a. Inorganic substances needed in the body
b. Cannot be destroyed by heat, light or oxygen
c. Regulate physiological processes
d. Control composition of body fluids
577. Estimate the kilocalorie value of a 25g biscuit with 16g total carbohydrates.
a. 54 kcal b. 64 kcal c. 74 kcal d. 84 kcal
578. Which antioxidant vitamin helps to absorb iron?
a. Vitamin C b. Vitamin A c. Vitamin D d. Vitamin E
579. Which is not a function of water?
a. Regulate body processes b. Carrier of waste products
c. Provides energy d. Regulates body temperature
580. What do you call the sugar in milk or milk carbohydrate?
a. Fructose b. Lactose c. Glucose d. Sucrose
581. The loss of riboflavin in milk can be prevented if milk is ________.
a. heated to a boiling point b. pasteurized before packing
c. kept cold and protected from light d. fermented and sealed
582. Eliza wants to celebrate her birthday in a restaurant. She ordered food from appetizer to dessert at
P300.00 per cover, good for 60 pax and she paid a total amount of P18,000. What type of menu did she
avail of?
a. Table d'hote b. Cycle menu c. Ala carte d. Static menu
583. A TLE teacher plans to prepare Chicken Galantina for her food and nutrition class. What cooking
method is applied for this chicken dish?
a. Broiling b. Roasting c. Frying d. Steaming
584. Sauce is a richly flavored thickened liquid, used to complement a meal. What leading sauce is used
in
making Carbonara?
a. Veloute sauce b. Brown sauce c. Bechamel sauce d. Tomato sauce
585. Vegetables have different degrees of doneness. It is done when it has reached the desired degree of
tenderness. The following are the guidelines to achieve proper doneness in vegetables, EXCEPT:
a. cook vegetables close to serving time b. cut vegetables into uniform pieces
c. separate tough part from tender part d. cook different kinds of vegetables together
586. Eggs serve many important functions in cookery. What is the function of eggs when it is used to bind
food together?
a. as a leavening agent b. as a thickening agent
c. as a clarifying agent d. as an emulsifying agent
587. In an American service, all drinks should be served ________ of the guest.
a. at the right side b. at the left side c. across d. in front
588. Mother wants to prepare Callos and Goto for father's birthday party. Which variety of meat could you
suggest for these recipes?
a. Tongue b. Tripe c. Heart d. Liver
147
589. The teacher demonstrated to the students the proper way of slitting the abdominal part of the
poultry and pulling out the entrails. This step in dressing chicken is referred to as ________.
a. slaughtering b. defeathering c. evisceration d. scalding
590. The students are preparing food for their culminating activity. They are expected to invite 100
guests.
What type of service is more convenient for 100 guests with limited space and food servers?
a. Counter service b. Russian service c. Buffet service d. French service
591. Jessa plans to cook Bopiz for her catering function. Which part of pork cuts would she buy?
a. Leg b. Loin c. Picnic d. Variety
592. What is the function of eggs in mayonnaise preparation?
a. Emulsifying agent b. Thickening agent
c. Browning agent d. Leavening agent
593. Why do we buy food from approved sources?
a. cheaper price b. guarantee safe and wholesome food
c. good customer service d. accessibility and comfort
594. Which of the following reasons for cooking meat is FALSE?
a. improve flavor and appearance b. tenderize meat
c. unavailability of nutrients d. destroy harmful microorganisms
595. Which of the following is NOT a moist-heat method of cooking?
a. Scalding b. Stewing c. Baking d. Steaming
596. One sachet of powdered juice contains 60g orange flavor. How many liters of water should be added
if the proportion is 1g powder, 20 mL water?
a. 3.5 L b. 2.3 L c. 2.0 L d. 1.2 L
597. How many ounces is 1 cup of soda?
a. 6 ounces b. 8 ounces c. 12 ounces d. 16 ounces
598. Which of the statement about the general direction for Low-Cholesterol diets is FALSE?
a. use of corn oil b. avoid coconut milk
c. use of margarine d. trim all visible fats from meat
599. What is the menu pattern for breakfast?
a. fruits, protein dish, cereal, beverage b. appetizer, protein dish, pasta, dessert
c. cereal, protein dish, beverage d. soup, vegetable dish, dessert
600. Which is considered as the most important meal of the day?
a. Supper b. Lunch c. Breakfast d. Brunch
601. The main course or courses of dinner consisting usually of meat, fish or pulses with or without
accompaniments is called ________.
a. entrée b. espagnole c. emincer d. entremets
602. The main goal in meal planning, food preparation and service is _________.
a. present low cost foods b. serve appetizing meals
c. satisfaction of family members d. keep meals nutritionally adequate
603. Which food group is a good source of fiber?
a. milk, yogurt, cheese b. meat, poultry, eggs
c. bread, rice, pasta d. banana, apples, oranges
604. Which of the following is NOT a principle in planning meals?
a. Plan meals ahead of time.
b. Plan meals that have interesting variety.
c. Plan meals that are rich in essential nutrients.
d. Plan meals that are expensive and entail more time to prepare.
605. Which of the following has the biggest expense in the food budget?
a. Meat b. Fruits c. Cereals d. Dairy
606. Which is a low cost but nutritious dish?
a. Grilled fish b. Beef with broccoli
c. Ginataang monggo with dilis d. Chicken lollipop with tartar sauce
607. One of the functions required before assembling the food materials to produce quality meals is
________.
a. market list b. menu planning c. mis en place card d. standardized recipe
608. When guests enter into a restaurant the first thing that a receptionist should offer is ________.
a. water b. appetizer c. bread and butter d. menu card
148
609. Which of the following is the CORRECT menu sequence?
a. main dish, appetizers, cereals, beverages, desserts
b. appetizers, main dish, cereals, beverages, desserts
c. cereals, main dish, appetizers, beverages, desserts
d. desserts, main dish, cereals, appetizers, beverages
610. Which of the following statement about service rule is FALSE?
a. Serve women before men
b. Serve food from the left side of the guest with service person's left hand
c. Scrape and stack dirty plates on guest table
d. Bring all food to the guest at the same time
611. Which of the following is an example of a low cost dish?
a. Pork adobo b. Chicken kare-kare
c. Baked mussels d. Seafood sinigang
612. When the recipe calls for steaming fish and a steamer is not available, what will you do?
a. Place the fish wrap in banana leaf and cook in a tightly covered frying pan containing water.
b. Place the fish in a frying pan and cover with coconut milk.
c. Place the fish in a casserole lined with barbecue stick and apply heat.
d. Place the fish in a frying pan, add water and cook.
613. Baking chiffon cake requires a baking temperature of 350 degrees Fahrenheit. What is its equivalent
in Centigrade if your oven thermostat was set in degree Celsius?
a. 176 degree Celsius b. 186 degree Celsius
c. 196 degree Celsius d. 206 degree Celsius
614. Olivia bakes cheese bread, forming a fairly firm, porous structure. What gives structure to the
cheese
bread?
a. Albumen b. Gluten c. Whey d. Casein
615. What will you do to the shortening if you want to make quick breads using the biscuit method?
a. Melt the shortening b. Cream the shortening
c. Fold in the shortening d. Cut in the shortening
616. The students are cutting apples for their apple pie filling. They noticed that browning occurs at the
cut surfaces of apples. What process may have caused the browning color of an apple?
a. Reaction between protein, amino acids and sugar b. Oxidative enzymatic changes
c. Carmelization of sugar d. Over handling
617. Which is NOT a function of salt in food?
a. flavor enhancer b. preservative
c. increase volume d. control agent
618. Which statement about conventional method of mixing is FALSE?
a. time consuming b. produce velvety texture
c. one-bowl method d. alternate addition of dry and liquid ingredients
619. Which ingredient controls and regulates the fermentation in bread making?
a. Yeast b. Salt c. Baking powder d. Sugar
620. A blunt knife with an extremely flexible steel blade primary used for mixing colors in cake designing
is ________ knife.
a. cake b. serrated c. chef d. palette
621. Which is usually done with a fork to make small holes in bottoms and side of crust for single crust
pies?
a. Docking b. Punching c. Cutting d. Fluting
622. Which is known as strong flour because it contains 12-14% protein?
a. All-purpose flour b. Cake flour c. Pastry flour d. Bread flour
623. Which phrase describes a good characteristic of pastry?
a. wet and brown b. tender and flaky
c. dry and hard d. sweet and mushy
624. The following are some safety risks in baking, EXCEPT:
a. hot oven b. moving parts
c. sufficient light d. cutting equipment
149
625. Which icing is made from shortening, sugar syrup and eggs?
a. boiled icing b. royal icing
c. buttercream icing d. fondant icing
626. When the pastry shell is baked before it can be filled, this is called ________.
a. molding b. blind baking
c. proofing d. resting
627. Which of the following does NOT belong to the group?
a. Muffin b. Popover
c. Waffle d. Pie
628. Which living organism feeds in sugar to produce alcohol and carbon dioxide?
a. Yeast b. Bacteria c. Fungi d. Mold
629. What disease-causing microorganism is commonly found in eggs?
a. Escherichia coli b. Salmonella
c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Shigella
630. A kind of needle work in which loops of thread or yarn are interwoven with a hooked needle is
A. Crocheting B. Embroidery C. Smocking D. Stenciling
631. A form of decorative darning using straight embroidery stitches in fabrics with even weave is known
as
A. Smocking B. Calado C. Recycling D. Hardanger
632. If you want to go upstairs, which part do you hold on to?
a. Handrail
b. Tread
c. Handle
d. Riser
633. Which of the following should be taken into account before preparing the farm lots?
a. Soil and water supply b. Sunlight and air circulation
c. Accessibility and proximity to market d. all of the above
634. Which of the ff. is a characteristic of good soil?
a. should be viable b. fresh and mature
c. damage free and free from seed – borne diseases d. all of the above
635. It is the first and most important tillage operation in preparing the land for to make it
more moisture – retentive
a. Cleaning b. Plowing
c. Harrowing d. Pulverizing
636. Is an organic material consisting of very fine routed animal waste, plant parts and other organic
and biodegradable material
a. Biomass b. Compost
c. Heap d. Fertilizer
637. This method of fish – culture is characterized by the use of net enclosures in shallow
protected areas in inland waters
a. Cage method b. Fish pen method
c. Aquarium method d. Open – water method
638. The objective of applying fertilizers to fish ponds
a. Promote fish growth b. Enhance production
c. Neutralize acidity d. Enhance the color of the water
639. This type of plants contains nitrogen in its roots which is converted to nitrates by rhizobia,
thus, contributing to soil fertility
a. Vine crops b. Root crops
c. Legumes d. Tubers
640. Which of the ff. is NOT an aspect of fish – culture?
a. Fish cultivation b. Fish propagation
c. Fish conservation d. Fish marketing
641. The object is represented by the sides seen at one time
a. perspective b. projection
c. Orthographic d. Isometric
150
642. The system of representing the true shape of any object arranged on a plane in two or more views at
right angle to each other
a. Perspective b. Dimension
c. Orthographic d. Oblique drawing
643. Isometric projection is drawn on tree axes namely the vertical and 2 ________ degree lines.
a. 90 b. 60 c. 40 d. 30
644. It is part of the electrical circuit which converts electrical energy into another form to do work
a. Voltage b. Load c. Current d. Ampere
The system on which the flow of electricity is always in one direction
a. Power b. Integrated circuit
c. Alternating current d. Direct current
645. The amount of heat required to take 1 lb. of water to change its temperature 1 degree F
a. British Thermal Unit (BTU) b. Voltage
c. Watt d. Calorie
646. Property of metal w/c can be hammered and flattened into sheets without breaking
a. Ductility b. Brittleness
c. Elasticity d. Malleability
647. A system of principles to conduct life
a. Beliefs b. Values
c. Philosophy d. Goals and Objectives
648. Process of reaching solution to a problem which is based on family goals,
a. Assessment b. Reorganization
c. Decision – Making d. Problem Solving
649. Human resources which the family can use to achieve its goals
a. Energy b. Abilities and skills
c. Knowledge d. all of the above
650. Earnings of corporations which are distributed among stocks holders
a. profit b. Retained earnings
c. Stocks d. Dividends
651. Brings about a successful entrepreneurial activity
a. careful planning b. good luck
c. big capital d. proper connection
652. As an entrepreneur, he must be aware if his business is good. He must then
identify a good business
through? availability of supply, interest in business, capacity and skills
a. pricing of the products and services b. single product practice
c. human – resources oriented d. profit – oriented
653. It is the profile of an entrepreneur’s intuitions, philosophy, ideals, perception
and details of a planned project
a. Thesis b. Project proposal
c. Project description d. Rationale
654. Provides the entrepreneur information on market, sources and consumption of
products and services
a. Consultancy assistance b. Organizational assistance
c. Training assistance d. marketing assistance
655. There are agencies that provide counseling or consultancy serviced to entrepreneurs
who have difficulty solving their own business problems
a. Technology and livelihood Center b. National Manpower and youth Council
c. UP Institute of Small Scale Industries d. All of the above
656. Painting on cloth or other materials with the use of needle and thread is called
a. Smocking b. Recycling c. Stenciling D. Embroidery
657. A kind of needle work applied to hold gathers in place is known as
a. Smocking b. Recycling c. Stenciling D. Embroidery
658. A process of regaining the usefulness of discarded material is
a. Smocking b. Recycling c. Stenciling D. Embroidery
151
659. A person who installs pipes, fixtures and other apparatus to convey and supply
water in buildings and to dispose and discharge waste water.
a. Carpenter b. Plumber c. Mason d. Mechanic
660. The semi-liquid substance accumulated at the bottom of the septic tank.
a. Scum b. Sediment c. Sludge d. Silt
661. An underground tunnel that carries off the drainage and waste matter from
a home or town is called:
a. Drainage system b. Fixture c. Sewerage d. Sewer
662. The pipe that conveys waste from various fixture other than from the water closet.
a. Waste pipe b. Soil pipe c. Vent pipe d. Drain pipe
663. It is a fitting or device that provides liquid seal to prevent the back passage of air.
a. Loop b. Fixture c. Sewer d. Trap
664. The tools used to tighten or loosen hexagonal fittings like unions and other metal fittings.
a. Pipe vise b. Pliers c. Wrenches d. Threader
The kind of fitting used to connect fixed pipe and fixtures is a ________.
a. Wye fitting b. coupling c. Union fitting d. Reducer
665. A fitting or device installed at the inlet of a water pump to prevent backflow of water.
a. Ball valve b. Check valve c. Blackwater valve d. Gate valve
666. It is a device installed in water lines that can be closed or opened to allow installation or
troubleshooting of fixtures.
a. Check valve b. Gate valve c. Ball valve d. Float valve
667. The Plumbing Code on House Drain provides that there must be no more than two
closets that shall discharge into a ________ pipe diameter.
a. 3 inches or 75 mm b. 80 mm c. less than 75 mm d. 70 mm
668. A metal or plastic fitting used to connect smaller pipe from a larger pipe.
a. Reducer b. Elbow c. Union d. Coupling
669. A plumber wants to tighten and loosen pipes. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Pipe cutter b. Flux c. Pipe wrench d. Butane torch
670. A plumber wants to cut metal pipe. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Hacksaw b. Back saw c. Handsaw d. Drywall knife
671. Which plumbing tool is used for gripping large pipes and irregular objects?
a. monkey wrench b. chain wrench c. yoke vise d. pipe wrench
672. A plumber wants to create thread outside pipe by hand. Which tool is appropriate?
a. Pipe cutter b. Pipe threader c. Yoke vise d. Pipe wrench
673. A plumber wants to cut pipes. Which holding tool is needed?
a. Vise grip b. Pipe threader c. Yoke vise d. Pipe wrench
674. Water contaminants are being forced back into the water piping system.
Which term is referred to?
a. Water flow b. Back flow c. Pressure d. Harvesting
675. The following are examples of plumbing fixtures, EXCEPT:
a. water closet b. drainage c. shower d. urinals
676. A compartment that receives solid or liquid waste, located below the normal grade of
the gravity system is called ________.
a. septic b. sump c. trap d. Interceptor
677. Which is true toxic substance?
a. Hazardous to human health b. A fixture drain for a laboratory
c. Not hazardous to human health d. Bedpan washer and sterilizer drain
678. Water that is safe for drinking, cooking, and personal use is ________.
a. Potable b. purified c. clean d. Healthy
679. Rainwater from the roof down to the ground passes through what pipe?
a. Down spout b. Conductor c. Gutter d. Vent
680. A pipe that conveys only liquid waste is called ________.
a. vent pipe b. soil pipe c. main pipe d. waste pipe
681. If you install water supply inside the building, what is the diameter of pipes needed?
a. 4 inches b. 1 inch c. 0.75 inch d. 0.5 inch
152
682. In which type of pipes does portable water travel
a. ABS pipes b. Galvanized pipes c. Cast iron pipes d. PVC pipes (orange)
683. If your water system has leak, where can you shut off the flow of water?
a. Gate valve b. Globe valve c. Check valve d. Angle valve
684. A plumber wants to install a liquid seal to prevent sewer gasses from entering the building.
What device is needed?
a. Union b. Trap c. Backflow preventer d. Pump
685. A plumber wants to shut off the flow of water just 90 degrees turn. Which valve is appropriate?
a. Gate valve b. Globe valve c. Check valve d. Angle valve
686. What do you call those flexible waterproof ribbon for covering threaded pipes joints
to prevent leakage?
a. Rubber bond b. Masking tape c. Teflon tape d. Tape
687. How many PVC pipes can be installed in a 7.50 meter distance?
a. 2 pcs. b. 2.5 pcs. c. 3 pcs. d. 3.5 pcs.
688. A plumber wants to connect two length of pipes. Which fitting is necessary?
a. Coupling b. Elbow c. Tee d. Pipe wrench
689. If there is leaking in the water supply of lavatory, sink, and water closet,
which valve are you going to shut off?
a. Gate valve b. Globe valve c. Check valve d. Angle valve
690. If you install a soil pipe, what is the standard pitch or slope?
a. 5% b. 10% c. 2% d. 1%
691. If you put source of potable water, what is the minimum safe distance from the septic tank?
a. 15 meters b. 10 meters c. 5 meters d. 20 meters
692. No cesspool, septic tank or drain fields shall be located within how many meter radius from the well?
a. 15 meters b. 10 meters c. 50 meters d. 45 meters
693. If you plan to drill for a well that can supply water for public use, what is the minimum meter radius
from a well to the residences?
a. 150 meters b. 100 meters c. 50 meters d. 200 meters
694. Every trap for bath tubs, lavatories, sink, and other similar fixture shall be _________.
a. Self-regulating b. tight c. fix d. self-cleaning
695. There should be no concrete sanitary sewers existing within how many meter radius from the well?
a. 15 meters b. 10 meters c. 50 meters d. 45 meters
696. The standard length of a PVC pipe is _________.
a. 12 ft. b. 2.0 m c. 6.0 m d. 10 ft.
697. If you want to estimate the number of G.I. pipes needed from your house to the main supply,
what is the standard length of a G.I. pipe that you are going to use?
a. 20.0 m b. 6 ft. c. 3.0 m d. 20 ft.
698. 89. If you want to estimate the number of PVC pipes needed from your house to the main supply,
what is the standard length of a PVC pipe that you are going to use?
a. 20.0 m b. 6 ft. c. 3.0 m d. 20 ft.
699. 90. All plumbing fixtures must have P-trap, EXCEPT:
a. Lavatory b. water closet c. sink d. Bath tub
700. To achieve a satisfying family life, each member is expected to live his role with corresponding
_________.
a. loyalty b. Responsibilities c. needs d. wants
701. Which is true about dark colored vegetables
a. Affordable and fresher b. Cheaper and juicer
c. Fresher and sweeter d. Nutritious and cheaper
702. The branch of science that deals with the use of vacuum tube, transistors, and photo devices is
a. Electronics b. Biology c. Electricity d. Chemistry
703. The financial record that tells you how much your business is worth is the ________.
a. Cash flow report b. Income statement c. Cash report d. Balance statement
704. What quantity pushes electrons to move?
a. Voltage b. Frequency c. Wattage d. Resistance
705. It refers to as the title of a person who is skilled in the field of sanitation.
a. Engineer b. Plumber c. Doctor d. Teacher
706. Horizontal lines are best drawn using this instrument.
153
a. Ruler b. Triangles c. Meter stick d. T-square
707. The handle of the tool is generally made of plastic or wood and is used for spreading mortar.
a. Mason's hammer b. Mason's line c. Blocking chisel d. Trowel
708. It comes from the latin word "manus" which means hand, and "cura" meaning care and refers to
care for the hand.
a. Cosmetology b. Electrology c. Manicure d. Pedicure
709. If you have a small business, you want people to patronize the store. The best way of attracting
more buyers
depends on
a. Store layout b. High-pricing of local merchandise
b. Beautiful saleslady d. Consumers' likes
710. Static electricity is produced by massive collision of charges called _______________.
a. Carbon plate b. Friction c. Magnets d. Zinc plate
711. It is a process of changing the color of the tabletop using varnish.
A. Bleaching B. Staining C. Coloring D. Blending
712. It is recommended that the mixed concrete should be poured before the initial setting takes place
and this within.
A. 30min. B. 45min. C. 1hour D. 1hour and 30min.
713. It is kind of chisel used for hand chiseling work on a very small space to work. This kind of chisel has
a
long blade
A. Mortise chisel B. Firmer chisel C. Paring chisel D. Butt chisel
714. A plumbing permit is required for the replacement of which of the following?
a. Water closet b. Water heater c. Bathing unit d. Faucet
715. The provisions for licensing are determined by which of the following:
a. State Board of Plumbing b. Authority having jurisdiction
b. Plumbing inspector d. The responsible master plumber
716. Which of the following is suitable for testing a DWV system for leaks?
a. Air b. Water c. Smoke d. All of the above
717. All pipe used in plumbing applications will have all of the following markings except:
a. Pressure rating in psi b. Nominal pipe size
c. Length of pipe d. Manufacturer's brand name
718. What is the likely height of a handicap toilet?
a. 13 inches b. 15 inches c. 18 inches d. 22 inches
719. What is the minimum unobstructed opening of egress when a shower door is installed for a typical
shower?
a. 22 inches
b. 24 inches
c. 28 inches
d. 30 inches
720. Which of the following is considered to be the best method for connecting an indirect waste to a
sanitary drainage system?
a. Air gap
b. Air break
c. Both a and b are equal
d. None of the above
721. The minimum vertical distance from the bottom of an indirect drain line to its receptor's flood rim is
_____________________________.
a. 1"
b. ¾"
c. ½"
d. 2"
722. Which of the following types of fixtures can be served by a combination-waste-and-vent system?
a. Urinals
b. Toilets
c. Sinks
d. Bidets
723. You are connecting two back to back lavatories, two urinals and two water closets to one horizontal
branch. What are the maximum number fixtures that can be connected to a horizontal branch?
154
a. 3
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
724. Piping for building drains and horizontal drainage branches require the installation of cleanouts.
Spacing for these cleanouts is determined by the diameter of the drain and other factors. In this scenario
the drain pipe diameter is three inches. This drain has a running length of 77 feet. During this run the
pipe
takes one 90-degree turn. How many cleanouts are required for this installation?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
725. One trap arm may serve a total of how many P-traps?
a. 3
b. 1
c. 2
d. 4
726. Flexible water connections are required to be _________.
a. Readily accessible
b. Accessible
c. Limited to first-floor installations
d. Supported
727. Water heaters, hose bibs and sill cocks are normally protected from backflow with ________.
a. An air gap
b. An air break
c. A vacuum breaker
d. A reduced-pressure backflow preventer
728. What is the typical amount of grade required per liner foot on a household drainage pipe?
a. 1/8 inch
b. 1/4 inch
c. 3/4 inch
d. 1 inch
729. What will result when a 4 inch pipe is reduced in size in the direction of the flow?
a. The waste will travel faster which will allow for better cleaning of the pipe.
b. This could cause blockage to build up at the reduction point.
c. This could cause slugging in the waste system.
d. This will have no effect on the drainage system.
730. In Med Gas systems, the exhaust from vacuum pumps must be discharged into the following:
a. Designated receptor
b. Indirect drain
c. Outdoors
d. Relief vent
731. Flux can only be used in the brazing process when:
a. Brazing copper to brass
b. Brazing copper to copper
c. Not allowed
d. Both a and b
732. Where is the maximum allowable working pressure of a storage tank and water heater required to
be
shown?
a. In the installation guide
b. Stamped in the metal
c. On a permanently attached plate
d. Either b or c
733. The minimum depth thickness for a water heater drip pan is ____________.
a. 1"
b. 1.5"
155
c. 3/4"
d. 2"
734. Gray water that enters a collection reservoir must be ________.
a. Measured
b. Flow controlled
c. Filtered
d. Monitored
735. What is the maximum amount of time that gray water is allowed to be retained for use to flush a
toilet or urinal?
a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 72 hours
d. 96 hours
736. Gas piping installed in a laundry chute ____________.
a. Must be secured at maximum intervals of 6 feet
b. Must be protected from damage in the normal course of use of the chute
c. Is required to be installed with only vertical pipe sections
d. Is a code violation
737. When flow controls are installed on gas piping, they _____________.
a. Must be accessible
b. Must not contain sediment traps
c. Must be equipped with a leak-limiting device
d. Are used to keep operating pressure lower than the supply pressure
738. What is the angle made when you offset a sewer with a 1/8 bend?
a. 45°
b. 60°
c. 72°
d. 90°
739. What is the total force in pounds on a 6 inch diameter test plug with a water head of 15 feet?
a. 3.00 psi
b. 4.25 psi
c. 6.51 psi
d. 7.20 psi
740. The unit of energy in MKS system is
a. volt
b. erg
c. ohm
d. joule
741. For safety, the fuse wire used in the mains for household supply of electricity must be made of metal
having
a. low specific heat
b. high melting point
c. high resistance
d. low melting point
742. For galvanizing iron which of the following metals is used?
a. Lead
b. Aluminium
c. Copper
d. Zinc
743. Steel is more elastic than Rubber because
a. it is a metal
b. its density is high
c. ratio of stress to strain is more
d. ratio of stress to strain is less
744. Pressure cooker cooks rice faster because
a. it always lets the steam escape
156
b. high pressure crushes the hard covering of rice grains
c. it does not let the heat energy escape easily
d. high pressure raises the boiling point of water
745. The chief purpose of crop rotation is to check the loss of top soil
a. by weathering
b. by wind erosion
c. by water erosion
d. of its mineral content
746. Of the following foods, which one is the best source of protein?
a. Butter
b. Fish
c. Lettuce
d. Milk
747. The credit of inventing the television goes to
a. Edison
b. Baird
c. Faraday
d. Marconi
748. Wright Brothers are regarded inventors of the
a. Hot Air Balloon
b. Bicycle
c. Aeroplane
d. None of the above
749. The element of an electric stove made
a. invar
b. copper
c. magnalium
d. nicrome
750. Which of these is a modified underground stem?
a. Sweet Potato
b. Carrot
c. Potato
d. Radish
751. Microphone is used to convert
a. sound waves into electrical energy
b. sound waves into light rays
c. electrical energy into sound waves
d. sound waves into magnetic currents
752. The electron was first identified by
a. J. Kepler
b. D. Rutherford
c. J. J. Thompson
d. James Chadwick
753. The chemical name of Vitamin B is
a. thiamine
b. ascorbic acid
c. riboflavin
d. nicotinamide
754. What is done to raise dough while making bread?
a. Alcohal is added.
b. Yeast is added.
c. Carbon dioxide is passed.
d. Air is passesd.
755. The instrument used to measure electric current is
a. ammeter
b. electrometer
157
c. galvanometer
d. spectrometer
756. The reaction which converts sugar solution into alcohol is an example of
a. saponification
b. hydrogenation
c. fermentation
d. hydrolysis
757. The refrigerant commonly used for domestic refrigerators is
a. alcohol
b. ammonia
c. neon
d. None of the above
758. The SI unit of ___ is named after Andre Marie Ampere.
a. power
b. potential difference
c. electric current
d. energy
759. The purest form of water can be obtained from
a. a deep tubewell
b. a running stream
c. a hot water spring
d. a heavy shower of rain
760. The unit of current is
a. ohm
b. watt
c. ampere
d. None of the above
761. What is the function of a dynamo?
a. To convert heat energy into light energy
b. To convert light energy into heat energy
c. To convert mechanical energy into electrical energy
d. To convert electrical energy into mechanical energy
762. When cream is separated from milk
a. the density of milk increases
b. the density of milk decreases
c. the density of milk remains unchanged
d. it becomes more viscous
763. Most commonly used bleaching agent is
a. alcohol
b. carbon dioxide
c. chlorine
d. sodium chloride
764. Transferring text to another location w/out deleting it from its original location is called;
a. Scrolling
b. Searching
c. copying
d. moving
765. What bar that displays the part of the document that is temporarily off the screen?
a. scroll bar
b. tool bar
c. menu bar
d. status bar
766. A bar that contains shortcut buttons in graphic form, which is an alternative in using the menu bar.
a. tool bar
b. menu bar
c. ruler
158
d. title bar
767. Before a block of text can be copied or moved, what must be done first?
a. select /highlight blocks of text
b. mark the text
c. move the text
d. copied the text
768. What are words printed in darker type is said to be?
a. bold
b. Italic
c. Font style
d. Font size
769. If you accidentally erased a word, what feature to reversed?
a. redo
b. undo
c. copy
d. edit
770. What is the shortest command to open a document?
a. Ctrl + N
b. Ctrl + P
c. Ctrl + O
d. Ctrl + D
771. To select all
a. Press Ctrl + A c. Press Ctrl + B
b. Press Ctrl + C d. Press Ctrl + D
772. Which of the following is not found in the menu bar?
a. file b. edit c. table d. wood art
773. In saving files, which of the following is the first step?
a. change entry c. click minimize button
b. click on the file menu d. click open button
774. A general purpose word processing software.
a. word processing c. microsoftt word
b. microsoft Excel d. all of them
775. Which of the following component acts like “eyes and the ears “of the computer.
a. Input devices b. Output devices c. CPU d. software
776. What is the typical storage size of a floppy disk?
a. 1.4 MB b. 3.5 MB c. 600 MB d. 1GB
777. All of the following are components of a hardware in a typical computer system except
a. CPU c. compact discs
b. input and output devices d. storage devices
778. Are no-removable disks, fixed inside the cabinet, used for storing [read and write] very large amount
of information called
a. CPU b .Compact Disks c. floppy Disks d. hard disks
779. 16. What do you call the application programs that is used to store very large amount of data in a
structured manner, maintaining various relationships among these data?
a. Word processing b. Desktop Publishing
b. Networking d. Word processing
780. All of the following is an example of input devices except
a. mouse b. monitor c. keyboard d. scanners
781. A sequence of commands written in a computer programming language that specifies a task the
computer will perform is called
a. programs b. Data c. Documents d. Networks
782. What is the term given to the programmed formula
a. cell b. function c. graph d. range
783. A button in toolbar that let you arrange text in alphabetical order from A to Z
a. text alignment c. text direction
159
b. sort descending d. sort ascending
784. What is the extension of Microsoft Excel?
a. doc b. .xls c. .pub d. .html
785. To edit text in excel
a. double click the cell
b. click on the formula bar
c. From edit menu click copy
d. both a and b
786. How do call the group of cells?
a. rows b. range c. address d. columns
787. Text that are entered are
a. left aligned b. centered c. right aligned d. justified
788. In excel rows have
a. Alphabets c. alphabetic cells
b. numbers d .numeric labels
789. Temporarily stores the data and instructions entered from the disks drive or other input devices
a. RAM b. ALU c .DOS d. computer
790. Performs arithmetic and logic operations
a. hardware b. DOS c. ALU d. RAM
791. Disk operating system
a. hardware b. DOS c. ALU d. RAM
792. Refers to the computer equipment and all other physical devices connected to it.
a. computer aided instruction
b. computer
c. software
d. hardware
793. An instruction that tells the computer what you want it to do.
a. computer aided instruction
b. computer
c. software
d. hardware
794. A machine that performs mathematical calculations or electronic communication under the control
of a set of instructions
a. computer b. software c. hardware d. program
795. Kind of teaching where computers are used so that students will appreciate and understand the
lessons well.
a. Information c. program
b. computer aided instruction d. computer
796. Set of instructions that tells the computer what to do and how to it
a. data b. program c. information d .computer
797. A processed data
a. information b. data c .program d. system
798. A collection of facts about people, things, ideas and events
a. Information b. data c .program d .system
799. To delete text at the right of your cursor.
a. Del key b. bark space key c. space bar d. end key
800. The paper size w/c commonly known as long.
a. portrait b. landscape c. letter d. legal
801. The Ctrl + x means
a. copy b. paste c. cut d. undo
802. The paper size which is commonly as short.
a. portrait b. landscape c. letter d. legal
803. The command button used to verify if the document is properly layout for printing.
a. save b. print c. preview d. verify
804. To delete text located at the left of your cursor.
160
a. del key b. shift +spacebar c. backspace d. tab
805. The Ctrl + V means
a. copy b. paste c. cut d. undo
806. The feature of MS-Word where you can have gradient color of your auto shapes object.
a. color button b. file color c. shading color d .file efforts
807. The CTRL+C means
a. copy b. paste c. cut d. undo
808. The feature in MS Word where you can remove portion of graphics to fit your needs.
a. slice b. crop c. rotate d. cut
809. Which of the following that refers to the programs or instructions that the computer executes to
perform its task.
a. hardware b. software c. people ware d. store
810. A person who writes or creates a program.
a. Installer
b. Programmer
c. debugger
d. Computer
811. Which of the following software is most appropriate for an accountant/
a. Word Processing c. Spreadsheets
b. COBOL d. QBasic
812. What will you use to display the smallest value out of the set of values?
a. DIS b. MAX c. LARGE d. MIN
813. Loading an operating system into the computer is called
a. Booting b. Paging c. Prompting d. Interrupting
814. Microsoft Excel is how many times larger than Lotus 123 in terms of number of cell?
a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8
815. The command to transfer text to another location without erasing it from its original location is
a. Copy b. Move c. Scroll d. Search
816. What feature allows viewing any part of the document or worksheet on screen?
a. Editing b. Pasting c. Scrolling d. Searching
817. In spreadsheets, which of the following that cannot be used for calculations
a. Labels b. Values c. Dates c. Numbers
818. The term for restarting the operating system in a computer already powered is
a. warm boot b. cold boot c. warm start d. both a and c
819. This contains several menu names, if you click on one of these, a drop-down list of commands
appears.
a. Selection bar c. Menu bar
b. Document control menu d. Status bar
820. Which of the following toolbar is used to specify different fonts, styles, size, and text alignment and
so on?
a. Standard toolbar
b. Auto text
c. Formatting toolbar
d. Control toolbox
821. What output device allows the computer to communicate with the system unit?
a. Plotter b. Printer c. Monitor d. Scanner
822. Which feature of Word Processing transfer text to another location without deleting its form in its
original location?
a. Copying b. Moving c. Searching d. Scrolling
823. What document contains rows and columns of text and numbers?
a. Word b. Database c. Desktop d. Spreadsheet
824. How do you call a group of cells?
a. rows b. range c. address d. columns
825. What will you do to restore an accidentally erased word?
a. Edit b. Undo c. Redo d. Format
826. What is the keyboard shortcut for opening another new document?
161
a. Ctrl + N b. Ctrl + D c. Shift + N d. Shift + D
827. What is termed as the general accepted electronic device capable of interpreting and performing
programmed instruction?
a. Computer b. Fax Machine c. Internet d. Television
828. A valid DOS filename specification consist of
a. 10 alphanumeric characters
b. a 9-character filename
c. an 8-character filename pus an optional extension of a period followed by 3 characters
d. an 11 character name, separated by a period at any position within the name
829. To select all existing text, press:
a. Ctrl + Shift + A c. Ctrl + E
b. Ctrl + A d. Shift + A
830. What will you click on if you want to divide the empty space where you enter a text into two or three
parts?
a. Page Break b. Columns c. Gutter d. Parameter
831. In saving files, which is the fastest way?
a. Click the save button c. click the file menu
b. click the open button d. both a and b
832. Which of the following is defined as the distance of your text from the edge of the paper?
a. Margins c. Set tabs
b. Line Spacing d. Page Numbering
833. The numeric keypad can be used to
a. type numbers b. alphabet keys c. function keys d. 1 to 10 keys
834. The boldface function can be specified by pressing
a. the F8 keys c. Ctrl + B
b. shift + f8 d. none of the above
835. What do you call the text information in a cell?
a. Label
b. Value
c. Formula
d. Cell Address
836. What is the extension of Microsoft Excel workbook?
a. .sys b. .xls c. .doc d. .com
837. What do you call the bar that displays the menu options?
a. Title bar c. Menu bar
b. Toolbar d. Formatting toolbar
838. What are the buttons found on the upper right hand corner of an application program window or
folder?
a. Options buttons
b. Command buttons
c. Application Buttons
d. Program Control Buttons
839. What DOS internal command which means “clear screen”?
a. DIR b. CLS c. VER d. PROMPT
840. A static bitmap picture that appears in Window desktop.
a. Patterns c. Screen saver
b. Wallpaper d. Animated Picture
841. It is a moving bitmap picture on the screen so that an image is not permanently etched into the
screen.
a. Patterns c. Screen saver
b. Wallpaper d. Animated Picture
842. What do you call the set of letters, numbers, and symbols that have different styles and sizes?
a. font c. character
b. formatting set d. formatting tools
162
843. It refers to Disk Operating System commands that reside on disk as program files, what are these
commands?
a. DOS system files c. DOS utility programs
b. Internal DOS commands d. External DOS commands
844. What do you call the bar that provides tool buttons for speedy processing of a file?
a. Title bar c. Menu bar
b. Tool bar d. Formatting bar
845. What does ENIAC stands for?
a. Electronic Numeric Integrator and Computer
b. Electronic Numerical Integrator and Computer
c. Electronic Numerical Integrator and Compiler
d. Electronic Numerical Integrated and Computer
846. What type of software enables you to design pages with elaborate charts and graphics, with text and
headlines in a variety of typefaces?
a. Word Processing b. Desktop Publishing
b. Electronic Spreadsheet d. Database Management System
847. The conversion of data to information is,
a. Processed b. Processor c. Processing d. Possessed
848. What symbol is used to separate filename and file extension?
a. Slash (/) b. Asterisk (*) c. Dot or period (.) d. Back slash (\)
849. What do you call an electronic instruction that tell the hardware to perform a task?
a. Icon b. Button c. Software d. Command
850. An operating system is a ________.
a. set of users c. set of programs
b. supervisor program d. form of time-sharing
851. What do you call the actual number entered into a cell?
a. Label b. Value c. Graph d. Cell Address
852. What bar that displays the filename of the document?
a. title bar b. Menu bar c. Toolbar d. Formatting toolbar
853. What do you call an on screen picture?
a. Icon b. Page c. Spool d. Bullets
854. A relatively small and inexpensive type of computer, usually used by an individual in home or office
setting. What is the other term for this type of computer?
a. Mainframe c. Supercomputer
b. Minicomputer d. Personal computer
855. What is a machine or device that allows data to be read from a disk?
a. Hard disk c. Disk drive
b. c. Optical Scanner d. Primary memory
856. What is the largest and most powerful category of computers?
a. Mainframe c. Supercomputer
b. Microcomputer d. Personal computer
857. What GUI stands for?
a. Graphical User Interactive b. Graphical User Interface
b. Graphical User Interrupt d. Graphical User Imaging
858. The MKDIR, or MD, command will
a. manage directory files c. create a file copy
b. make a directory on a disk d. either a or b
859. This contains several menus and submenus. If you click on one of these, a drop-down list of
commands appears.
a. Selection bar c. Document control menu
b. Menu Bar d. Status bar
860. A valid DOS filename specification consist of
a. 10 Alphanumeric characters
b. a 9-character filename
c. C. an 11 character name, separated by a period at any position within the name
163
d. an 8-character filename plus an optional extension of a period followed by 3 characters
861. The manner of saving, giving filename, making folder, naming folder and placing folder in your
desired directory.
a. File Management skills c. File naming skills
b. cut, copy, paste skills d. Ms Word skills
862. The following are commands in Disk Operating System, which of these is considered as external
command.
a. Dir c. cls
b. chkdsk d. ren
863. Which is the correct syntax in the following
a. c:\format a:/p c. c:\del *.*/p
b. c:\format d:/p d. c:/ren Monday.xls Tuesday.xls
864. The following are the functions of an Operating system except
a. a. Ready both hardware and software
b. terminate software and hardware during error
c. Supervise and manage the hardware and software
d. Interact with users
865. The collection of unorganized facts is known as
a. Data
b. Information
c. Digits
d. Bytes
866. The speed of microprocessor is measured in terms of
a. bytes c. mbps
b. Hz d. lts
867. Which of the following toolbar is used to specify different fonts, styles, point sizes, text alignment
and
so on?
a. Standard Toolbar
b. Formatting Toolbar
c. Auto Text
d. Control Toolbox
868. To Select All existing text,
a. press Ctrl + Shift+ A C. press Ctrl + A
b. press Ctrl + Number 5 D. either B or C
869. The teacher ask you to create a document containing the list of top ten students according to their
rank more likely you will use this MS-Word feature.
a. column
b. table
c. b. header and footer
d. d. page border
870. One of the powerful feature of MS Word is spell checking. Accessing function key for spell checking
enable the user to work faster. Which of the following is use for checking spelling?
a. ALT+O+S C. F6
b. F7 D. CTRL+ALT+7
871. There are many toolbars in MS Word. What toolbars can you used to create or insert clipart.
a. Picture toolbar c. Drawing toolbar
b. Clipart toolbar d. table toolbar
872. One of the button of this toolbar is used to tilt down object or graphics.
a. Picture toolbarl c. drawing toolbar
b. 3d settings toolbar d. shadow setting toolbar
873. Page setup can be found in File menu. This dialog box is used to set document layout. Which of the
following is the horizontal layout of a document.
a. Portrait
b. horizontal
c. standing
164
d. landscape
874. You are using station 5 while station 20 have printer connected to its USB. You click the print button
but the printer is nor responding. Which of the following is the possible reason.
a. It will not print since it is not connected in your CPU.
b. The printer do not have ink
c. The printer is not shared in the network
d. The printer is not compatible with your unit
875. Line spacing can be found in format menu and paragraph command. However, it is best to use its
key
stroke to fasten your work and performance. Which of the following is the key stroke for line spacing
equivalent to 1.5 line.
a. ctrl + 1.5 c. ctrl + 1
b. ctrl + 5 d. ctrl + 2
876. If you want to print a tri-fold documents like activity program and brochure, you will use this feature.
a. column c. table
b. header and footer d. page border
877. The application program use for lecture and training by the speakers.
a. Ms - Word c. Ms - Excel
b. Ms - PowerPoint d. Ms – publisher
878. Graphics or pictures is now created using computer. It is more advantage than manual because of its
capability to undo, redo, edit, change color, etc. One of the following is very useful computer aided
design application software.
a. Ms – Word
b. Adobe Photoshop
c. Quark Express
d. Adobe In Design
879. It is more powerful in designing newsletter, brochure, certificates, advertisement, calling card,
poster
and streamers.
a. Ms - Word c. Ms - Excel
b. Ms - PowerPoint d. Ms – publisher
880. Formula or operators are powerful feature of Ms Excel to generate values. In getting the final grades
of the student which the following given D4= 84, D8 = 86, D12= the formulata should be
a. =sum(D4:D12)/3 c. =AVERAGE(D4:D12)/3
b. =sum(D4,D8,D12)/3 d. =AVERAGE(D4,D8,D12)/3
881. The MS Excel functions feature is so powerful that it can fasten your work specially arranging and
selecting the top ten according to grades. Which is the best function is appropriate to the situation?
a. Rank
b. Arrange
c. Topten
d. MAX
882. This Ms Excel feature is useful to get the name of the student who got the highest score in the test.
a. Rank
b. arrange
c. sum
d. d. MAX
883. This Ms Excel feature is used to get the quantity of students who passed the periodical test once you
determined the passing score.
a. rank
b. if
c. count if
d. else
884. If you type “partipants01” in one of the Excel cell, then you fill down using mouse. The lower cell will
have
a. blank cell
b. partcipants02
c. participants01
165
d. d. error message
885. The key stroke in fill down values is
a. ctrl + D c. ctrl + shift + d
b. ctrl + alt + d d. shift + d
886. To resize columns using mouse, the arrow pointer is
a. fat pointer
b. double arrow pointer
c. hour glass pointer
d. standard pointer
887. Internet, since it is introduced to the public has change the life of society. You can communicate in
your relatives and friends abroad at minimum cost. Which of the following is the function of the
internet where you can send textual message and may attached documents and graphics even the
receiver in not online?
a. chat
b. e-mail
c. Blog
d. information retrieval (web documents)
888. Two student are tired of collecting URL they visited. Realizing this problem, they come up with
the search engine technology in which every website address, topic, pages etc. can be index through
encoding its.
a. URL
b. domain name
c. IP address
d. Keywords
889. One of the greatest person in 21st century because he invented the World Wide Web as part of his
research.
a. Bill Gates c. Time Berners - Lee
b. Vinton Cerf d. Marc Andreessen
890. Back, forward, stop, refresh and home are buttons in what application software?
a. Ms Word 2003 c. Ms Publisher
b. Ms Internet Explorer 6 d. Ms Paint
891. Web Browser are application software that display the web pages according to HTML and other web
editor. The first ever graphical web browser is
a. Internet explorer c. Netscape Navigator
b. mosaic d. Mozilla
892. What is best role of internet to you as a student?
a. video - chat with friends
b. play on line games
c. Friendster and mp3 download
d. download discussions relevant to subjects.
893. A message “you won a trip to Caribbean” display even you are not clicking the link/s. This message
is
known as
a. pops – up c. you have a lucky day
b. cookies d. ranking
894. BPS means bytes per seconds while the frequency of a transmission channel in hertz, kilohertz, etc.
This frequency is known as _________.
a. anti virus c. spam
b. bandwidth d. domain nam
895. Chatting have been the favorite of students, teachers and even grandparents. It allows the chatter
to
communicate in real time to any places in the world. Normally, the begins of chatting text is “asl”
which means
a. Area where you live, system you are using and language you speaks.
b. Announcing your entry and you are Searching for friend and later wished to be Liken.
c. Age of the chater, his/her sex and the place you are chatting.
d. All of the following
896. The address depedcebu.ph, .deped.gov.ph, .stepcentralvisayas.co.nr, etc. are known as
166
a. data name c. Dynamic name
b. domain name d. digital name
897. What will you do if the browser hang up while it is displaying the homepage?
a. F3 c. F4
b. F5 d. F6
898. Protocol allows us to communicate to another person in different places. Which of the following
protocol is used for World Wide Web.
a. TCP/IP c. SMTP
b. DHCP d. ISP
899. The following are suffix that describe the type of the organization. Which one is used by corporation?
a. .net
b. .com
c. .org
d. .edu
900. CVISNET, Pldt, Globe, Smart, msn, bayantel, infocom, mozcom are companies that sells access to the
internet. They are known as
a. IRC
b. ISP
c. ISDN
d. DHCP
901. Everytime you open a web page, the computer store file/s in your hard drive. You will notice that it is
faster to open a page/s when you click the back button than to open a new one because it will
download file from web server while the other is already downloaded by computer. The downloaded
web page in your hard disk in known as
a. file
b. document
c. temporaty
d. cache
902. The following are very important skills if you want to communicate with your friends abroad. Which
one is not necessarily be a member of the group?
a. c c
b. b c c
c. subject
d. Pfc
903. The part of web browser where you can type the URL.
a. name bar c. address bar
b. URL bar d. menu bar
904. This new trends of internet is exciting since you can post your pictures, forum topic, comments.
Member of the group can post comments, objections and greetings to your personal web page.
Personal web page is also known as
a. Electronic mail c. On – line game
b. blog d. Video conferencing.
905. The first page of your browser always display www.msn.com. What menu or command in the
browser
can you use for setting the home page to www.stepcentralvisayas.co.nr.
a. setting menu c. favorite menu
b. tools menu d. home page menu
906. The following are suggested tips for e-mail users except
a. Consider carefully what you write; it is permanent record and can be forwarded easily to others.
b. When sending web site address, always type it in the form of http://
c. You can forward any e-mail you received since it is your message already
d. Write descriptive subject lines. Many busy people will only open messages with captivating subject
lines.
907. Respect other people’s online rights, respect the privacy of other people, be responsible online, do
not
read others chat message and do not forward malicious graphics are known as
a. good practices
b. netiquette
167
c. users guide
d. FAQ
908. One of the function of the internet that which cause the reduction of student performance especially
male.
a. Electronic mail c. On – line game
b. blog d. Video conferencing.
909. The global address of documents and other resources on the World Wide Web.
a. URL b. http c. html d. www
910. What is the term used to indicate a large container of liquid usually used in culturing fish.
A. Reservoir
B. Tank
C. Basin
D. Fishpond
911. How to remedy a tank with low dissolved oxygen?
A. Start the blower
B. Start the water pump
C. Start the puddle wheel
D. Start the electric fan beside the tank
912. Tool used for measuring the distance between two symmetrically opposing sides. It can be like a
compass.
A. Caliper
B. Folder ruler
C. Ruler
D. Square
913. A device for measuring the weight of an object.
A. Paper weight
B. Measuring tool
C. Weighing scale
D. Square
914. The meaning of calculation is:
A. To ascertain by estimating
B. To ascertain by computing
C. To ascertain by visualizing
D. To ascertain by converting
915. Which of the ff. is a project caretaker?
A. Prepare a feasibility study
B. Form a functional working team
C. Secure loan from a bank
D. Delegate work to others
916. What is the listing of activities in relation to manpower requirements?
A. Project estimation
B. Project development
C. Project programming
D. Project proposal making
917. What should be prepared in order to estimate the quality of materials and resources needed to
complete a work?
A. Schedule of development
B. Bill of materials
C. Feasibility study
D. Project proposal
918. What is needed to analyze the demand of a particular job in relation to the qualification of a job
applicant?
A. Job requirement
168
B. Educational qualification of applicants
C. Materials needed to complete a work activity
D. Financial requirements
919. It refers to domesticated birds or fowls.
A. Poultry
B. Livestock
C. Amphibians
D. Mammals
920. It is the practices related to production and work process.
A. Occupational safety
B. Safety
C. Psychosocial environment
D. Biological
921. It includes workplace stressors arising from a variety of sources.
A. Psychosocial environment
B. Biological
C. Chemicals
D. Mechanical/electrical
922. It includes bacteria, viruses, mold, mildew, insects, vermin & animals.
A. Biological
B. Chemicals
C. Mechanical/ electrical
D. Psychosocial environment
923. It includes electricity, machinery, equipment, pressure vessels, dangerous goods, fork lifts, cranes &
hoists.
A. Mechanical/or electrical
B. Chemicals
C. Biological
D. Psychosocial environment
924. Which tool resembles the appearance of spoon and use for transferring soil?
A. Spade
B. Shovel
C. Spading fork
D. Grab hoe
925. A tool with one end of its blade flattened and the other pointed at right angles to its handle is a
_____.
A. Mattock
B. Crowbar
C. Bolo
D. Spade
926. What tool does NOT belong to the group?
A. Crowbar
B. Mattock
C. Shovel
D. Pruning shear
927. Which tool is used for cutting grasses?
A. Shovel
B. Bolo
C. Crowbar
D. Mattock
928. Which of the ff. is an example of a digging tool?
A. Bolo
169
B. Crowbar
C. Grab hoe
D. Pruning shear
929. The physical unit associated with computer.
A. Hardware
B. Software
C. Microchip
D. Application
930. An electronic device designed to generate useful information through proper manipulation of data.
A. Digital computer
B. Computer
C. Calculator
D. Robots
931. Largest and fastest machine with a capacity of 50 million operations per second.
A. Large scale computers
B. Super computers
C. Medium size computer
D. Analog computer
932. Process data in continuous forms at high speed.
A. Large scale computer
B. Super computer
C. Medium size computer
D. Analog computers
933. Unlocks the margin stop.
A. Margin stop
B. Margin release
C. Tab clear key
D. Card holder
934. Means satisfying human wants and needs.
A. Utility
B. Manufacturing
C. Manufacturer
D. Processing
935. The products are brought to it instead of the products moving from one area to another.
A. Project manufacturing
B. Batch manufacturing
C. Flow shop
D. Job order
936. Manufacturing activity that falls midway between continuous flow and the job order type.
A. Flow shop
B. Job order
C. Project manufacturing
D. Batch manufacturing
937. Costumer and storeowner agreement on the amount to be paid by the costumer to the latter on
specified dates.
A. Selling price
B. Installment
C. Mark up
D. Mark down
938. Anyone who engages in entrepreneurial activities/enterprises.
A. Entrepreneur
B. Entrepreneurship
170
C. Services
D. Retailing
939. Activities/Benefits offered for sale.
A. Services
B. Retailing
C. Installment
D. Wholesaling
940. Production of goods and services.
A. Manufacturing
B. Wholesaling
C. Retailing
D. Purchasing
941. A part of the amount of the merchandise is paid in cash by the costumer and the rest of the amount
is charged to his/her account.
A. Lay away
B. Installment sale
C. C.O sale
D. Part cash part charge sale
942. The costumer and the store owner agree that a certain amount be paid on a specified date until the
merchandise is fully paid.
A. Lay away
B. Installment sale
C. C.O sale
D. Part cash part charge sale
943. Upon delivery of the merchandise to his/her home the costumer pay cash for it.
A. Lay away
B. Installment sale
C. C.O sale
D. Part cash part charge sale
944. The costumer takes home the merchandise that has been charge to him/her.
A. Cash send
B. Charge send
C. Cash take sale
D. Charge take sale
945. The goods are charged to the costumer and then deliver to his/her home.
A. Cash send
B. Charge send
C. Cash take sale
D. Charge take sale
946. The customer pays for the goods and takes these homes w/ him/her.
A. Cash send
B. Charge send
C. Cash take sale
D. Charge take sale
947. This sales type requires the costumers to pay for cash for the goods he/she buys and store delivers
the goods to his/her home.
a. Cash-Send or cash deliver sale
b. Charge-send or charge-deliver
c. Cash-take-sale
d. Charge-take-sale
948. Requires wise purchasing, vigilant checking, proper storage of goods, and reasonable pricing.
a. Wholesaling
171
b. Purchasing
c. Pricing
d. Retailing