21-12-2024

6201CMD30334124SRG004 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

1) Which statement is incorrect :-

For calculating centre of mass of combination of bodies we can assume whole mass of each of
(1)
the bodies to be concentrated at centre of mass.
For calculating torque of gravitational force on a body we can assume whole mass to be
(2)
concentrated at centre of mass in uniform gravitational field.
For calculating moment of inertia of a body about some axis we can assume whole mass to be
(3)
concentrated at centre of mass.

For a system we can write for momentum as Msystem where Msystem is mass of system and
(4) is velocity of system even though velocities of bodies in system can be different from velocity of
centre of mass of system.

2) A uniform rod of mass m and length ℓ is connected with two ideal strings from ends of rod as
shown in figure, if tensions in strings are T1 & T2 respectively then :-

(1)
T1 >

(2)
T2 >

(3)
T1 <

(4)
T1 = T2 =

3) For the wheel-and-axle system shown, which of the following expresses the condition required for
the system to be in static equilibrium?

(1) m1 = m2
(2) am1 = bm2
(3) am2 = bm1
2 2
(4) a m1 = b m2

4) Four Ts are made from two identical rods of equal mass and length. If I represents the moment of
inertia about the axis shown in figure.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) I1 > I4 > I2 > I3

(2) I1 > I2 > I4 > I3
(3) I1 > I2 > I3 > I4
(4) I1 > I3 > I4 > I2

5) A ball of mass M and radius R has a moment of inertia of I = 2/5 MR2. The ball is released from
rest and rolls down the ramp with no frictional loss of energy. The ball gets projected vertically
upward of a ramp as shown in the diagram, reaching a maximum height ymax above the point where it
leaves the ramp. Determine the maximum height of the projectile ymax in terms of h. (Assume no

collision anywhere)

(1) h

(2)

(3)

(4)
6) A wheel rolls without sliding along a horizontal road as shown. The velocity of the center of the
wheel is represented by → . Point P is painted on the rim of the wheel. The instantaneous

acceleration of point P is:

(1) represented by →
(2) represented by ←
(3) represented by
(4) zero

7) Two uniform semicircular discs, each of radius R are stuck together to form a disc. Masses of the
two semicircular parts are M and 3M. The moment of inertia of the circular disc about an axis
perpendicular to its plane and passing through the centre of the formed disc. (Point 'O' in figure)

(1) 2MR2

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) A uniform disc of mass m0 rotates freely about a fixed horizontal axis passing through its centre. A
thin cotton pad is fixed to its rim, which can absorb water. The mass of water dripping onto the pad
per unit time is μ. After what time will the angular velocity of the disc get reduced to half its initial

value?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

9) A body attains a height equal to the radius of the Earth when projected from Earth' surface. The
velocity of the body with which it was projected is :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10)

Calculate energy needed for moving a mass of 4kg from the centre of the earth to its surface. If
radius of the earth is 6400 km and acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the earth is g = 10
m/sec2

(1) 1.28 × 108 J

(2) 1.28 × 106 J
(3) 2.56 × 108 J
(4) 2.56 × 1010 J

11) Time taken by the planet to cover path ABC is t1 & time taken by the planet to cover path C D A

is t2 :-

(1) t1 = t2
(2) t2 > t1
(3) t1 > t2
(4) cannot be determined

12)

The gravitational field due to a mass distribution is E = K/x3 in the x-direction. (K is a constant).
Taking the gravitational potential to be zero at infinity, its value at a distance x is

(1) K/x
(2) K/2x
(3) K/x2
(4) K/2x2

13) Five point masses m each are placed at five corners of a regular pentagon. Distance of any
corner from center is r. Match the following two columns.

Column I Column II

Gravitational field strength at

A P Gm/r2
center

B Gravitational potential at center Q 4 Gm/r

When one mass is removed

C R zero
gravitational field strength

When one mass is removed

D S None of these
gravitational potential at center
(1) A - S, B - R, C - P, D - Q
(2) A - R, B - P, C - S, D - Q
(3) A - R, B - S, C - P, D - S
(4) A - S, B - R, C - Q, D - P

14) The rotation of the Earth having radius R about its axis speeds upto a value such that a man at
0
latitude angle 60 feels weightless. The duration of the day in such case will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) A particle placed

1. inside a uniform spherical shell of mass M, but not at the center
2. inside a uniform spherical shell of mass M, at the center
3. outside a uniform spherical shell of mass M, at distance r from the center
4. outside a uniform solid sphere of mass M, at distance 2r from the center
If F1,F2, F3 and F4 are gravitational forces acting on the particle in four cases respectively, then

(1) F1>F2>F3> F4
(2) F1 = F2< F3< F4
(3) F1 = F2 < F4 < F3
(4) F1 < F2 < F3 < F4

16) Two vessels A and B of different shapes have the same base area and are filled with water up to
the same height h (see figure). The force exerted by water on the base is FA for vessel A and FB for
vessel B. The respective weights of the water filled in vessels are WA and WB. Then

(1) FA > FB ; WA > WB

(2) FA = FB ; WA > WB
(3) FA = FB ; WA < WB
(4) FA > FB ; WA = WB

17) Two soap bubbles of radii and equal to 4 cm and 5 cm are touching each other over a
common surface S1S2 (shown in figure). Its radius of curvature will be

(1) 4 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 5 cm
(4) 4.5 cm

18) A liquid drop of diameter D breaks into 27 tiny drops. The resultant change in energy is :–

(1) 2π TD2
(2) 4π TD2
(3) π TD2
(4) None of these

19) Two capillary tubes of same diameter are put vertically one each in two liquids whose relative
densities are 0.8 and 0.6 and surface tensions are 60 dyne/cm and 50 dyne/cm respectively. Ratio of

heights of liquids in the two tubes is :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
20) In a capillary tube experiment, a vertical 30 cm long capillary tube is dipped in water. The water
rises up to a height of 10 cm due to capillary action. If this experiment is conducted in a freely
falling elevator, the length of the water column becomes :–

(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) zero

21) A vessel, whose bottom has round holes with diameter of 0.1 mm, is filled with water. The
maximum height to which the water can be filled without leakage is :– (S.T. of water = 75 dyne/cm, g
= 1000 cm/s2)

(1) 100 cm
(2) 75 cm
(3) 50 cm
(4) 30 cm

22) The velocity of falling rain drop attain limited value because of :–

(1) Surface tension

(2) Upthrust due to air
(3) Viscous force exerted by air
(4) Air current

23) Two soap bubbles coalesce to form a single large bubble.:

Column I Column II

Surface energy in the

(A) (p) increase
process will

Temperature of the
(B) (q) decrease
bubble will

Pressure inside the

(C) (r) remains same
soap bubble will
(1) A - q, B - p, C - q
(2) A - q, B - r, C - p
(3) A - q, B - p, C - r
(4) A - r, B - q, C - p

24) This question has Statement-1 and Statement-2 of the four choices given after the Statements,
choose the one that best describes the two Statements.
Statement 1 : A capillary is dipped in a liquid and liquid rises to a height h in it. As the temperature
of the liquid is raised, the height h increases (if the density of the liquid and the angle of contact
remain the same)
Statement 2 : Surface tension of a liquid decreases with the rise in its temperature.
(1) Statement-1 is false and Statement-2 is true
Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true. Statement-2 is not the correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is true and Statement-2 is false
Statement-1 and Statement-2 both are true, But Statement-2 is the correct explanation for
(4)
Statement-1

25) Wax is coated on the inner wall of a capillary tube and the tube is then dipped in water. Then,
compared to the unwaxed capillary, the angle of contact θ and the height h upto which water rises
change. These changes are :

(1) θ decreases and h also decreases

(2) θ increases and h decreases
(3) θ increases and h also increases
(4) θ decreases and h increases

26) The maximum load a wire can withstand without breaking, when its length is reduced to half of
its original length, will

(1) be double.
(2) be half.
(3) be four times.
(4) remain same.

27) A sample of metal weights 210 grams in air, 180 grams in water and 120 grams in an unknown
liquid. Then:–

(1) the density of metal is 3 g/cm3

(2) the density of metal is 7 g/cm3
(3) density of metal is 4 times the density of the unknown liquid
(4) the metal will float in water

28) A wooden block with a coin placed on its top, floats in water as shown in Fig. The distance and
h are illustrated.

If the coin falls into the water then

(1) decreases and h increases

(2) increases and h decreases
(3) Both and h increase
(4) Both and h decrease

29) A Cylindrical tank has a cross-sectional area S = 1000 cm2, stands motionless on a horizontal
surface (figure). In its wall there is a hole, cross-sectional area of which S1 = 10 cm2, located at a
distance h1 = 80 cm from the surface of water in the tank and h2 = 180 cm from the bottom. Find
cross-sectional area S2 of the jet emanating from the hole at the place of its falling on a horizontal

surface.

(1) 7.5 cm2

(2) 5 cm2

(3)

(4)

30) Water flows in a horizontal tube (see figure). The pressure of water changes by 700 Nm–2
between A and B where the area of cross section are 40 cm2 and 20 cm2, respectively. Find the rate
of flow of water through the tube, (density of water = 1000 kgm–3)

(1) 1810 cm3/s

(2) 3020 cm3/s
(3) 2720 cm3/s
(4) 2420 cm3/s

31) If the ratio of lengths, radii and Young’s moduli of steel and brass wires in the figure are a,b and

c respectively, then the corresponding ratio of increase in their lengths is :-

(1) 2a2c/b
(2) 3a/2b2c
(3) 2ac/b2
(4) 3c/2ab2

32) A rope of diameter 2cm breaks if tension in it exceeds 500 N. The maximum tension that may be
given to similar rope of diameter 4cm is :-

(1) 500 N
(2) 250 N
(3) 1000 N
(4) 2000 N

33) The length of a metal wire is ℓ1 when the tension in it is T1 and is ℓ2 when the tension is T2. The
natural length of the wire is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) If S is stress and Y is Young's modulus of material of a wire, the energy stored in the wire per
unit volume is :-

(1) 2S2Y

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) The graph shown is the extension of wire of length 1m suspended from the top of a roof at one
end and with a load W connected to the other end. If the cross sectional area of the wire is 1 mm2,

then the Young's modulus of the material of the wire is :-

(1) 2 × 1011 Nm–1

(2) 2 × 1010 Nm–2

(3)
× 1011 Nm–2
(4) None of these

SECTION - B
1) Two bodies of masses 2kg and 3kg are connected by a metal wire of cross section 0.04 mm2.
Breaking stress of metal wire is 2.5 GPa. The maximum force F that can be applied to 3kg block so

that wire does not break is :- (Neglect friction)

(1) 100 N
(2) 150 N
(3) 200 N
(4) 250 N

2) Assertion (A):- If line of action of the force passes through the axis of rotation, then the body will
rotate even with the application of a small force.
Reason (R):- If line of action of force passes through the axis of rotation, then torque is zero.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

3) Assertion : For a body, pure rolling down a rough inclined surface, work done by friction is
negative.
Reason : In pure rolling on a fixed surface, velocity of contact point of the body is zero.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

4) Assertion: A ladder is more apt to slip, when you are high up on it than when you just begin
to climb.
Reason: At the high up on a ladder, the torque is large and it is small when one just begins to climb.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason or true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

5) Two particles of combined mass M, placed in space with certain separation, are released.
Interaction between the particles is only of gravitational in nature and there is no external force
present. Acceleration of one particle with respect to the other when separation between them is R,
has a magnitude :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) not possible to calculate due to lack of information

6) Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely as the nth power of the distance. Then, the time
period of a planet in circular orbit of radius R around the sun will be proportional to :

(1) Rn
(2) R(n+1)/2
(3) R(n–1)/2
(4) R–n

7) In the given figure there is a hollow sphere. Then on which points, gravitational potential due to

the sphere will be same ?

(1) O, A, B, C
(2) O, A, B
(3) O, B
(4) No where

8) Two artificial satellites P and Q are revolving round the earth in circular orbits. If the ratio of
their orbital radius is 1 : 4 and ratio of their masses is 3 : 1 then the ratio of their orbital speeds is :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 4 : 1

9) The only elastic modulus that applies to fluids is :

(1) Young's modulus

(2) Shear modulus
(3) Modulus of rigidity
(4) Bulk modulus

10) The poisson's ratio of a material is 0.5. If a force is applied to a wire of this material, there is a
decrease in the cross-sectional area by 4%. The percentage increase in the length is :-

(1) 1%
(2) 2%
(3) 2.5%
(4) 4%
11) Compressibility per unit atm. pressure of water is 'σ' and if due to pressure P (in atm) there is
decrement in volume, find change is volume (V - volume)

(1) σ P / V
(2) σ PV
(3) σ / PV
(4) σ V / P

12) When a metal wire elongates by hanging a load Mg on it, the gravitational potential energy of
mass M decreases by Mgl. This energy appears:-

(1) as elastic potential energy completely

(2) as thermal energy completely
(3) half as elastic potential energy and half as thermal energy
(4) as kinetic energy of the load completely

13)

A vertical U-tube of uniform inner cross section contains mercury in both sides of its arms.
A glycerin (density = 1.3g/cm3) column of length 10 cm is introduced in to one of its arms. Oil of
density 0.8 gm/cm3 is poured into the other arm until the upper surfaces of the oil and glycerine are
in the same horizontal level. Find the length of the oil column, (density of mercury = 13.6 gm/cm3) :-

(1) 10.4 cm
(2) 8.2 cm
(3) 7.2 cm
(4) 9.6 cm

14) An incompressible liquid flows through a horizontal tube as shown in the figure. Then, the

velocity v of the fluid is :-

(1) 3.0 m/s

(2) 1.5 m/s
(3) 1.0 m/s
(4) 2.25 m/s
15) Water flows in a streamlined manner through a capillary tube of radius a, the pressure
difference being p and the rate of flow Q. If the radius is reduced to a/2 and the pressure increased
to 2p, the rate of flow becomes

(1) 4Q
(2) Q

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

1) Standard entropy of X2, Y2 and XY3 are 60, 40 and 50 JK–1 mol–1, respectively. For the reaction,

X2 + Y2 → XY3, ΔH = – 30 kJ,
to be at equilibrium, the temperature will be:

(1) 1250 K
(2) 500 K
(3) 750 K
(4) 1000 K

2)

Match the columns

Column I Column II

Free expansion at
A P
ΔV = 0 q = -w = nRT ln

Isothermal
B Q ΔU = wad
irreversible change

Isothermal
C R ΔU = qv
reversible change

For adiabatic
D S q = -w= Pex(Vf - Vi)
changes
(1) A-S, B-P, C-R, D-Q
(2) A-R, B-Q, C-P, D-S
(3) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q
(4) A-Q, B-E, C-S, D-P

3) By the addition of an inert gas to the system

2HI ⇌ H2 + I2,
the degree of dissociation of HI will be

(1) Suppressed
(2) Not altered
(3) Increased
(4) Doubled

4) Considering entropy (S) as a thermodynamic parameter, the criterion for the spontaneity of any
process is

(1) ΔSsystem + ΔSsuroundings> 0

(2) ΔSsystem – ΔSsuroundings> 0
(3) ΔSsystem > 0 only
(4) ΔSsuroundings> 0 only

5) For the process H2O(l) (1 bar, 373 K) → H2O(g) (1 bar, 373 K), the correct set of thermodynamic
parameters is :

(1) ΔG = 0, ΔS = –ve
(2) ΔG = 0, ΔS = +ve
(3) ΔG = –ve, ΔS = +ve
(4) ΔG = +ve, ΔS = 0

6) The true statement amongst the following is:

(1) Both ΔS and S are functions of temperature.

(2) S is not a function of temperature but ΔS is a function of temperature.
(3) Both S and ΔS are not functions of temperature.
(4) S is a function of temperature but ΔS is not a function of temperature.

7) The standard reaction Gibbs energy for a chemical reaction at an absolute temperature T is given
by ΔrG° = A – BT
Where A and B are non-zero constants. Which of the following is TRUE about this reaction?

(1) Exothermic if B < 0

(2) Exothermic if A > 0 and B < 0
(3) Endothermic if A < 0 and B > 0
(4) Endothermic if A > 0

8) The incorrect expression among the following is :-

(1) K = e–ΔG°/RT

(2)
=–T
 In isothermal process,
(3)
Wreversible = – nRT ln
lnK =
(4)

9) What can be concluded about the values of ΔH and ΔS from this graph?

(1) ΔH > 0, ΔS > 0

(2) ΔH > 0, ΔS < 0
(3) ΔH < 0, ΔS > 0
(4) ΔH < 0, ΔS < 0

10) Choose the correct statement :

(1) Standard Gibbs free energy is equal to zero for a reversible reaction at equilibrium
Gibb's function of the system attains its maximum value when a reversible reaction reaches
(2)
equilibrium.
For H2O(s) H2O(l), at its melting point and 1 atm pressure, 1 mole of H2O(s) has same Gibbs
(3)
energy as 1 mole of H2O(ℓ)
(4) If ΔH < O, the process will always be spontaneous.

11) KP will be greater to KC under which of the following conditions for the reaction at 300K
temperature
aA + bB ⇌ cC + dD

(1) (a+b) > (c+d)

(2) (a+b) – (c+d) = 0
(3) (c+d) > (a+b)
(4) (a+c) = (b+d)

12) An ideal gas is taken around the cycle ABCDA as shown in figure. The net work done during the
cycle is equal to :-

(1) Zero
(2) Positive
(3) Negative
(4) We cannot predict

13) If for a given substance, TB is the m.pt. and TA is the freezing point, then correct variation of
entropy by graph between entropy change and temp. is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

14) Which of the following reaction has maximum ΔS value ?

(1)

(2)
(3)
(4)

15)

Match the Column-I with Column-II.

Column-I Column-II

Heat absorbed but there is no Isothermal

(a) (p)
external work process

Heat absorbed to do the Adiabatic

(b) (q)
maximum external work process

Heat absorbed or evolved is

Isochoric
(c) zero during changes (r)
process
in temperature

Internal energy of system

Isobaric
(d) containing gas remains (s)
process
constant
(1) a – r, b – s, c – q, d – p
(2) a – p, b – s, c – q, d – r
(3) a – r, b – q, c – s, d – p
(4) a – r, b – p, c – q, d – s

16) What is the net work done (w) when 1 mole of monoatomic ideal gas undergoes in a process
described by 1, 2, 3, 4 in given V–T graph
Use : R = 2cal/mole K
ln 2 = 0.7
(1) –600 cal
(2) – 660 cal
(3) + 660 cal
(4) + 600 cal

17) An ideal gas is allowed to expand both reversibly and irreversibly in an isolated system. If Ti is
the initial temperature and Tf is the final temperature, which of the following statements is correct?

(1) (Tf)rev > (Tf)irrev

(2) Tf = Tf for both reversible and irreversible processes
(3) (Tf)irrev > (Tf)rev
(4) Tf > Ti for reversible process but Tf = Ti for irreversible process

18) Correctly match the number of sigma and Pi bond in the given compounds :
1) Furan (a) σ = 7; π = 1
2) Pyridine (b) σ = 9; π = 2
3) Urea (c) s = 11; π = 3

(1) 1→a, 2→c, 3→b

(2) 1→a, 2→b, 3→c
(3) 1→b, 2→c, 3→a
(4) 1→c, 2→a, 3→b

19) Match correct general formula :

1. Ester (a) CnH2nO2
2. Ketone (b) CnH2n+2O
3. Ether (c) CnH2nO

(1) 1→b, 2→a, 3→c

(2) 1→c, 2→a, 3→b
(3) 1→a, 2→c, 3→b
(4) 1→a, 2→b, 3→c

20) Number of olefinic, acetylinic, double bond and triple bond is present in the given compound:
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) The higher homologue of dimethylamine (CH3–NH–CH3) has the structure :-

(1)

(2) CH3 — CH2 — NH2

(3) CH3 — CH2 — NH — CH3

(4)

22) The number of olefinic bond in the structure :-

(1) 3
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 4

23) Which of the following have only 2° H-atm :-

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
Correct code is :

(1) only (a) and (b)

(2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) All of these

24)

Number of carbon atoms in the parent chain of given structure are :-

(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 8
(4) 9

25) IUPAC name of is -

(1) 3-methyl cyclohexene

(2) 1-methyl cyclohex-2-ene
(3) 6-methyl cyclohexene
(4) 1-methyl cyclohex-5-ene

26) The IUPAC name of is -

(1) 1,1,1-Trichloro-3,3-diphenyl propane

(2) 1,1-Diphenyl-3,3,3-trichloro propane
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

27) The IUPAC name of is -

(1) 3-Methyl cyclo-1-buten-2-ol

(2) 4-Methyl cyclo-2-buten-1-ol
(3) 4-Methyl cyclo-1-buten-3-ol
(4) 2-Methyl cyclo-3-buten-1-ol

28) The IUPAC name of the following compound is :

(1) 3-Amino-2-hydroxy propanoic acid

(2) 2-Aminopropan-3-ol-1-oic acid
(3) 2-Amino-3-hydroxy propanoic acid
(4) Amino hydroxy propanoic acid
29) The number of carbon atom in parent carbon chain in given compound

(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 3
(4) 7

30) The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is :

(1) 7-nitro-4 (carboxymethyl) heptanoic acid

(2) 6-nitro-3-(carboxy ethyl) hexanoic acid
(3) 4-(3-nitro propyl) hexane-1, 6-dioic acid
(4) 3-(3-nitro propyl) hexane-1, 6-dioic acid

31) The IUPAC name of the compound shown below is

(1) 2-Bromo-6-chlorocyclohex-1-ene
(2) 6-Bromo-2-chlorocyclohexene
(3) 3-Bromo-1-chlorocyclohexene
(4) 1-Bromo-3-chlorocyclohexene

32) Number of C-atoms in first higher homologue of first member of ester family is

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 2

33) Which of the following is incorrect about given compound ?

(1) It contains eight sp2 hybridized carbon atoms.

(2) It contains one 4º carbon.
(3) Its IUPAC name is 3, 3-Diethenylpenta-1,4-diene
(4) It contains four hydrogen atoms.

34) IUPAC name of following compound is :-

(1) 1-Ethyl-2, 2-dimethyl-6-cyclohexene

(2) 2-Ethyl-1, 1-dimethyl-2-cyclohexene
(3) 1-Ethyl-6, 6-dimethyl- 1-cyclohexene
(4) 2-Ethyl-3, 3-dimethyl- 1-cyclohexene

35) Amino group (–NH2) of Primary amine is attached to which type of carbon :

(1) Primary Carbon

(2) Secondary Carbon
(3) Tertiary Carbon
(4) All

SECTION - B

1) The IUPAC name of the compound is:

(1) 1,2,3-tri hydroxy propane

(2) 3-hydroxy pentane-1,5-diol
(3) 1,2,3-hydroxy propane
(4) Propane-1,2,3-triol

2) Calculate total number of chiral centre present in following compound

(1) 12
(2) 8
(3) 16
(4) 14

3) How many of following can show geometrical isomerism.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

4) How many structural isomers are possible for molecular formula C4H10O ?

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 9
(4) 7

5) Benzyl alcohol and p-methyl phenol are :-

(1) Chain isomer

(2) Functional group
(3) Position isomer
(4) Metamers

6) Total number of aromatic structural isomers shown by C7H8O is :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

7) In the following compounds - The order of acidity is -

(1) III > IV > I > II

(2) I > IV > III > II
(3) II > I > III > IV
(4) IV > III > I > II

8) Arrange given carbocation in decreasing order of stability :

(I)

(II)

(III)

(IV)

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) IV > III > I > II
(3) IV > III > II > I
(4) II > IV > III > I

9) In which pair's I more stable than II

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Which carbocation is more stable

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

11) Correct order of acidic strength among the following :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) The successive ionisation energies (in eV/atom) of an element 'X' are 5.98, 18.82, 28.45, 119.99,
153.82, 190.49 and 241.76 respectively. The element 'X' is likely to be :

(1) Be
(2) Li
(3) Na
(4) Al

13) Two elements A and B have following electronic configuration

A : 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s2
B : 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p3
If expected compound formed by A and B is AxBy. Then x + y is equal to

(1) 7
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 9

14) The chemistry of lithium is very similar to that of magnesium even though they are placed in
different groups. Its reason is :-

(1) Both are found together in nature

(2) Both have nearly the same size
(3) Both have similar electronic configurations
(4) The ratio of their charge to size is nearly the same

15) Which of the following statement is not correct?

(1) Nobel gases have a different number of outermost electrons than their group number.
(2) In the sixth period the orbitals being filled are 6s, 4f, 5d, 6p.
(3) The second transition series contains the elements from Y to Cd.
(4) O–2 has the same no. of electrons in its outermost as well as penultimate shell.

BOTANY

SECTION - A

1) Assertion: Pneumatophores are respiratory roots.

Reason: Pneumatophores help to get oxygen for respiration.

If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is

(1)
the correct explanation of the Assertion.
If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is
(2)
not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

2) Assertion : In majority of dicotyledonous plants, the direct elongation of the radicle leads to the
formation of primary root.
Reason : The primary root and it's branches constitute the tap root system.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

3)
Identify the number of correct statements w.r.t., phloem fibres:
(I) Phloem fibres (bast fibres) are made up of sclerenchymatous cells.
(II) These are generally absent in the primary phloem but are found in the secondary phloem.
(III) These are much elongated, unbranched and have pointed, needle like apices. The cell wall of
phloem fibres is quite thin.
(IV) Before maturity, these fibres lose their protoplasm and become dead.

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 4

4) Which stem acts as an organ of perennation?

(1) Potato
(2) Ginger
(3) Colocasia
(4) All of these

5) Assertion : Stem of some plants protect them from browsing animals.

Reason : Axillary buds of stems of these plants are modified into thorns.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

6)

Cork cells are a result of:

(1) Apical meristem activity

(2) Lateral meristem activity
(3) Intercalary meristem activity
(4) Basal meristem activity

7) Assertion : When a leaf Lamina is entire or incised, but incisions don't reach upto midrib, then it
is said to be simple.
Reason : Lamina is the green, expanded part of leaf with vein and veinlets.

(1) Assertion is correct and reason is correctly explaining the statement of assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is also correct but doesn't explain the statement of assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is also incorrect.

8)

Which tissue is responsible for the growth of stem in length in grasses

(1) Apical meristem
(2) Lateral meristem
(3) Intercalary meristem
(4) Both (1) and (3)

9) The given figure shows some types of phyllotaxy. Select the option that correctly match them :-

a b c

Opposite eg. Alternate eg. Whorled eg.

1
Calotropis, Guava Mustard, chinarose Alstonia

Alternate eg. Opposite eg. Whorled eg.

2
Calotropis, Guava Chinarose, Mango Mustard

Alternate eg. Opposite eg. Whorled eg.

3
Mustard, Chinarose Calotropis, Guava Alstonia

Opposite eg. Alternate eg. Whorled eg.

4
Chinarose, Guava Calotropis, Mustard Sunflower
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones :-
(a) In all leguminous plants, the leaf base many become swollen, which is known as pulvinus.
(b) Long thin flexible petioles allow leaf blades to flutter in wind there by cooling the leaf and
bringing fresh air to leaf surface.
(c) A single leaf arises at each node in mustard and chinarose.
(d) Leaves originate from shoot apical meristem and arranged in basipetal manner.

(1) b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) a and b
(4) c and d

11) The aestivation in petals of lady finger and Calotropis plants are respectively :-
(1) A & D
(2) B & A
(3) D & A
(4) D & B

12) Match the Column-I, Column-II and Column-III & select the correct option :

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Mustard,
Superior
(1) Hypogynous (A) (X) Brinjal,
ovary
China rose
Half Plum,
(2) Epigynous (B) inferior (Y) peach,
ovary rose
Guava,
Inferior
(3) Perigynous (C) (Z) cucumber,
ovary
sunflower
(1) 1-A-X, 2-B-Y, 3-C-Z
(2) 1-A-X, 2-C-Z, 3-B-Y
(3) 1-B-Y, 2-A-X, 3-C-Z
(4) 1-A-X, 2-B-Z, 3-C-Y

13)

Character common between Liliaceae, Malvaceae, Solanaceae is

(1) Axile plancentation

(2) Cohesion of stamens
(3) Both of these
(4) Monoadelphous

14) Depending on whether the apex gets converted into a flower or continues to grow, how many
major type of inflorescences are defined :-

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) Seven
(4) Five
15) In how many of the following plant underground stem works as organ of perennation?
Turnip, Ginger, Colocasia, Opuntia, Jasmine, Pistia.

(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Five

16) How many example of plants in the list given below have axile placentation.
Mustard, Sesbania, Trifolium, Belladonna, Tobacco, Petunia, Onion, Datura, Makoi, Chilli.

(1) 5
(2) 7
(3) 8
(4) 6

17)

Consider the following 4 statements a-d and select the option which includes all the correct ones :-
(a) When stamens are united into bunches/bunch it is called adelphy.
(b) When anthers are united and filaments are free, then it is syngenesious condition.
(c) When anthers as well as filaments are united then it is called synandrous condition.

(d) In tetradynamous condition inner 4 stamens are short while outer 2 stamens are long.
(1) Statement a, b, c
(2) Statement b, c, d
(3) Statement b, d
(4) Statement c, d

18) In the list given below how many genera consists of monocarpellary and tricarpellary ovary
respectively?
Moong, Lupin, Gloriosa, Turnip, Aloe, Barseem, Colchicum, Tulip, Indigofera, Datura, Ladyfinger,
Lily.

(1) Five and four

(2) Three and five
(3) Four and five
(4) Three and four
19) Which matches are correct?

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Maturation Permanent
i A
zone cells

Elongation Growth of the

ii B
zone root in length

Meristematic Cells divide

iii C
zone repeatedly

Protect the
iv D Root cap
tender apex
(1) Only ii and iv
(2) i, ii, iii and iv
(3) Only iii and iv
(4) Only ii, iii and iv

20) Which of the following is/are correct combinations with respect to their special condition of
stamens and types of placentation :-
(A) Cotton - Monoadelphous, axile
(B) Lemon - Polyadelphous, axile
(C) Sunflower - Syngenesious, basal
(D) Gram - Diadelphous, marginal

(1) Only A & B

(2) Only B & C
(3) Only D
(4) All A, B, C & D

21)

Identify the family which shows the following diagnostic features:-

Flower Pentamerous, Corolla-vexillary aestivation, Androecium Diadelphous, Gynoecium mono

carpellary.
(1) Solanaceae
(2) Fabaceae
(3) Cruciferae
(4) Lliaceae

22) Which of the following statements are true for pea plant :-
A. In stem vascular bundles are arranged in ring.
B. Conjoint collateral vascular bundle in leaf
C. Vexillary aestivation of petals
D. Reticulate venation in leaf
E. Good quantity of endosperm is present in mature seed
F. Multicellular trichomes are present in stem epidermis

(1) A, B, C, D & F
(2) A, B, C, D, E & F
(3) C, D & E
(4) B, C, D, E, F

23) Find out the incorrect statement:

(1) Flower is a characteristic feature of the the Angiospermic plants

(2) Mature or ripened ovary develops in fruit
(3) If fruits is formed without fertilization from the ovary known as parthenogenesis
(4) Fleshy pericarp differentiated into epicarp, mesocarp and endocarp

24)

Soyabean, Tomato, Potato, Solanum, Sesbania, Muliathi, Aloe, Gloriosa, Sem, Lupin, Tulips, Petunia,
Sunhemp, Ashwagandha, Asparagus, Tobacco, Belladona and Trifolium.

Plant species given above belongs to how many taxonomical families :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 5

25)

Which of the following characters are found in solanaceae family :-

(a) Epipetalous condition
(b) Apocarpous ovary
(c) Oblique septum
(d) Swollen placenta
(e) Zygomorphic flower

(f) Endospermous seeds

(1) Only a and b
(2) a, c and d
(3) c, d, c and f
(4) a, c, d and f
26)

Read following four (A-D) statements :-

(A) Xylem parenchyma is a living cell
(B) Xylem fibre have obliterated lumen
(C) End wall of vessels is imperforated
(D) End wall of tracheids is imperforated but pitted

How many statement is/are wrong ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

27) Which of the following option gives the correct categorisation of the tissue systems found
in plants :-

A C
B Ground
Epidermal Vascular
tissue
tissue tissue
system
system system

Bulliform Primary
(1) Cambium
cells xylem

Madullary
(2) Stomata Pericycle
Rays

Vascular
(3) Trichomes Hypodermis
Bundles

(4) Root hair Endodermis Epiblema

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

28) Find out the correct match from the following table :-

(1) i only
(2) i and ii
(3) iii only
(4) ii and iii

29) How many are formed by the process of dedifferentiation and re-differentiation, respectively ?
Phellogen, phellem, wood, phelloderm, secondary phloem, pith, interfascicular cambium

(1) Four and Two

(2) Two and Four
(3) Two and three
(4) One and Four

30) Observe the given diagram carefully and how many statements are true about given diagram:

(a) The position of xylem in the vascular

bundle is adaxial
(b) The position of phloem in the vascular bundle is abaxial
(c) Two distinct patches of parenchyma are present above & below of the large vascular bundle.
(d) The adaxially placed palisade parenchyma is made up of elongated cells which are arranged
vertically and parallel to each other

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

31) How many of the following are part of cortex in dicot root ?
Pericycle, Pith, Hypodermis, General cortex, Endodermis, Xylem

(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Five

32) In the given diagram, different parts are indicated by alphabets. Choose the answer in which
these alphabets correctly matches with parts they indicate :-
(1) A - Cork B - Secondary cortex C - Complimentary cells D - Cork cambium
(2) A - Cork B - Complimentary cells C - Secondary Cortex D - Cork cambium
A - Epidermis B - Complimentary cells
(3)
C - Cork cambium D - Secondary cortex
A - Epidermis B - Cork cambium
(4)
C - Secondary cortex D - Complimentary cells

33) Cortex of dicot root consists of –

(1) Multi layers of thick walled parenchyma with intercellular space

(2) Several layers of thin walled parenchyma with intercellular space
(3) Few layers of thick walled parenchyma without intercellular space
(4) Few layers of thin walled parenchyma without intercellular space

34) Given diagram represents T.S. of woody dicot stem passing through lenticel. Which of the
following statement is true about labelleld parts A, B & D.

(1) They are collenchymatous

(2) They are sclerenchymatous
(3) They are parenchymatous
(4) They are meristematic cells

35)

Read the four statements(A–D) and answer as asked next to them :

(A) The parallel venation in monocot leaves is reflected in the near similar size of vascular bundles
except in main veins.
(B) The primary and secondary phloem get gradually crushed due to continued formation and
accumulation of secondary xylem
(C) At some places, the cambium forms a narrow band of parenchyma passing through secondary
xylem and the secondary phloem in radial directions. These are the secondary madullary rays.
(D) The cambium ring of dicot root is previously wavy but later becomes circular.

How many of above statements are correct.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) four

SECTION - B

1) In which type of placentation, ovules are present on central axis

(1) Axile
(2) Parietal
(3) Free central
(4) Both 1 & 3

2) Which of the following statements is false?

(I) In dicot root next to endodermis lies a few layers of thin walled parenchymatous cells called
pericycle
(II) Waxy layer cuticle is absent in roots
(III) Root hair are unicellular, while stem hair/trichomes are multicellular
(IV) Trichomes are branched/unbranced, soft/ stiff and secretory of transpiration preventive.
(V) Guard cells are dumbell-shaped in dicots and bean-shaped in monocots

(1) I & IV
(2) IV & III
(3) III & I
(4) V only

3) Read the following four statements (A-D):

(A) Phloem transports food materials, usually from leaves to other parts of the plant.
(B) The companion cells are specialised parenchymatous cells.
(C) Phloem fibres are made up of sclerenchymatous cells
(D) Gymnosperms have albuminous cells
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

4) In the T.S. of Zea mays stem, which sequence is correct in a vascular bundle, from periphery to
centre.

(1) Protoxylem → protophloem → metaxylem → metaphloem

(2) Protoxylem → metaxylem → metaphloem → protophloem
(3) Protophloem → metaphloem → metaxylem → protoxylem
(4) Metaphloem → metaxylem → protoxylem → protophloem

5)

Axillary bud is modified into or gives rise to

(1) Leaf and branch

(2) Branch and flower
(3) Shoot and root
(4) Both (2) and (3)

6)

Stomatal apparatus doesn’t include

(1) Guard cells

(2) Subsidiary cells
(3) Stoma
(4) Epidermis

7) Read the following four statements (A-D):

(A) Study of internal structure of plants is called anatomy.
(B) Different organs in a plant show differences in their internal structure.
(C) Growth in plants is largely restricted to specialised regions of active cell division called
meristem.
(D) Meristem which occurs between mature tissues is known as intercalary meristem.
How many of the above statemens are correct ?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) One
(4) Two

8) Which of the following have well-developed pith?

A – Monocot root
B – Dicot root
C – Monocot stem
D – Dicot stem
E – Monocot stem and Dicot root
Select the correct one :

(1) A & B
(2) B & C
(3) C, D & E
(4) A & D

9)
How do bulliform cells help plants during drought conditions?

(1) By increasing photosynthesis

(2) By storing excess nutrients
(3) By curling the leaves to reduce water loss
(4) By producing more chlorophyll

10) Find out the correct match from the following table ?

Column I Column II Column III

(i) Tracheids Unicellular Perforated
(ii) Vessels Multicellular Perforated
(iii) Sieve tube Unicellular Living syncyte
(iv) Albuminous cells Gymnosperm Analogous to companion cell
(1) (i), (ii), (iv)
(2) (ii), (iv)
(3) Only (i)
(4) (ii), (iii), (iv)

11) Select the incorrect statement :

(1) Fascicular cambium and phellogen are examples of lateral meristem

(2) Axillary bud develops from intercalary meristem
(3) In dicot root, phellogen develops from pericycle.
(4) Quiescent centre is found in root of maize

12) Study the given statements carefully and give the answer.
(A) Bark is a nontechnical term that refers to all tissues exterior to the cork cambium only
(B) Phellem, phellogen and phelloderm are collectively called pericarp.
(C) In the dicot stem vascular cambium is completely secondary in origin.
(D) In dicot stem endodermis cells are rich in starch grains and the layer is also called starch sheath.

(1) A, B correct, C, D incorrect

(2) A, C correct, B, D incorrect
(3) A, B, C correct, D incorrect
(4) A, B, C incorrect, D correct

13) How many of the following are observed in tomato : Exstipulate leaf, compound leaves,
underground tuber, reticulate venation, non endospermic seed, complete flower, conjoint
bicolleteral open vascular bundle in stem, swoollen placenta, multicellur trichome, isobilateral leaf.

(1) Six
(2) Seven
(3) Five
(4) None

14) Study the following statements carefully :-

(a) Lateral meristems mostly perfoms secondary growth
(b) Stem of grass continues to grow even when apical portion is removed
(c) Fascicular vascular cambium is an example of lateral meristem
(d) Both apical and intercalary meristems are primary meristam
How many from the above statements are correct ?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

15)

Consider the following statement a-d and select the option which includes all the correct ones :-
(a) Midrib is called principle vein.
(b) A leaf is said to be compound when the incision of lamina reach up to the midrib breaking into
number of leaflets.
(c) When the veins runs parallel to each other within lamina. The venation is parallel.
(d) Leaves in all dicotyledons plant posses parallel venation.

(1) Statement a, b, c
(2) Statement b, c, d
(3) Statement c, d
(4) Statement a, c, d

ZOOLOGY

SECTION - A

1) Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some airways remains in the lungs which can never
be expelled because ?

(1) There is a positive intrapleural pressure

(2) Pressure in the lungs is higher than the atmospheric pressure
(3) There is a negative pressure in the lungs
(4) There is a negative intra pleural pressure pulling at the lung walls

2) How many statements are right ?

(A) Nasal chambers are opened into a part of pharynx i.e. Nasopharynx
(B) Pharynx is a common path of food and air
(C) Epiglottis is a bony, flap like structure which covers glottis
(D) Larynx is a cartilagenous box which produces sound

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) During joint diastole :-

(a) All the four chambers of heart are in a relaxed state
(b) The tricuspid and bicuspid valves are open
(c) The semilunar valves are closed
Which of the above stages are correct :-

(1) only a and b

(2) only b and c
(3) only a and c
(4) a, b and c

4) The given diagram represent the CO2 transportation. Identify the A, B, C and phenomena D in this

diagram and choose the correct option :-

(1) A - Carbonic anhydrase, B - Carbonic anhydrase, C - HCO3– and D - haldane effect

(2) A - Carbonic anhydrase, B - Carbonic anhydrase, C - HCO3– and D - Hamburger phenomenon
(3) A - Carbonic anhydrase, B - Carbonic anhydrase, C - HCO2– and D - Chloride phenomena
(4) A - Carbonic anhydrase, B - Carbonic anhydrase, C - HCO2– and D - Bohr phenomena

5)

Partial pressure (in mm Hg) of Oxygen and Carbon dioxide at Different parts Involved in Diffusion is
given in table then identify the A, B, C and D :-

Respiratory Gases O2 CO2

Atmospheric Air 159 0.3

A 104 40

Blood (Deoxygenated) 40 B

Blood (Oxygenated) C 40

Tissues 40 D
(1) A - Pulmonary artery, B-45, C-95, D-45
(2) A - Pulmonary vein, B-45, C-104, D-40
(3) A - Alveoli, B-45, C-95, D-45
(4) A - Alveoli, B-40, C-104, D-45

6) Which one of the following is the incorrect statement for respiration in humans ?
(1) Workers in grinding and stone-breaking industries may suffer, from lung fibrosis
(2) About 20-25% of carbon dioxide (CO2) is carried by haemoglobin as carbomino-haemoglobin
(3) Cigarette smoking may cause emphysema
Neural signals from pneumotoxic centre in pons region of brain can increase the duration of
(4)
inspiration

7)

In human heart, identify the correct statements :

I. Volume of both the atria is the greater than the volume of both ventricles.
II. Volume of both the ventricle is greater than the volume of both the atria.
III. Inter-ventricular septum separates the right-and the left atria.
IV. Atrio ventricular septum don't separates the atrium and ventricle.

Choose the correct option accordingly.

(1) All except I are wrong
(2) All except II are wrong
(3) All except III are wrong
(4) All except IV are wrong

8) Find out the correct match from the following table:-

Column I Column II Column III

Tidal volume
(i) (EC – ERV) 500 ml
(TV)

Expiratory
(ii) reserve volume (VC – IRV – TV) 3000 ml
(ERV)

Vital capacity
(iii) IRV + ERV + RV 4500 ml
(VC)

Residual
(iv) FRC – ERV 1200 ml
volume (RV)
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i) and (iv)

9) Match the column I with column II

Column I Column II
(A) Gills (i) Prawn
(B) Moist skin (ii) Rabbit
(C) Lung (iii) Earthworm
(D) Body surface (iv) Frog
(v) Cockroach
(vi) octopus
(vii) Flatworms
 (viii) sponges
(ix) snakes
(x) Shark
A → (i), (vi), (x); B → (iii), (v), (viii) ;
(1)
C → (ii), (ix); D → (iv), (vii)
A → (i), (vi), (x); B → (iii), (iv);
(2)
C → (ii), (ix); D → (viii), (vii)
A → (vi), (vii), (iv); B → (i), (iii), (v);
(3)
C → (ii), (ix), (x); D → (viii)
A → (i), (vi), (x); B → (iii), (iv) ;
(4)
C → (ii), (ix), (x); D → (vii), (v)

10) The Erythroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by :-

(1) Administering anti-Rh antibodies to the mother immediately after conception

(2) Injecting Rh-antigen into mother's blood immediately after the delivery of the first child
(3) Artificially introducing Rh+ve blood into future mother
(4) Administering anti-Rh antibodies in mother's blood immediately after delivery of the first child.

11) Assertion : The amount of CO2 that can diffuse through the diffusion membrane per unit
difference in partial pressure is much higher than O2.
Reason : The solubility of CO2 is 20-25 time higher than that of oxygen.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

12)

Respiration involving following steps :-

A. Diffusion of gases O2 and CO2 across alveolar membrane
B. Transport of gases by blood
C. Utilization of O2 by cell for catabolic reactions and resultant release of CO2
D. Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and CO2 rich alveolar air is released
out
E. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and tissue

The correct sequence of steps is –

(1) A → B → C → D → E
(2) E → D → C → B → A
(3) D → A → B → E → C
(4) C → B → E → A → D

13) In the diagram the section of human heart given here, certain parts have been represented by
alphabets. Choose the correct option in which an alphabet has been not correctly matched with the
part they indicate and their function.

(1) A = aortic arch → supplies oxygenated blood to whole body organs

(2) B = SA node → It generates maximum contraction impulses and initiates heart beat
(3) C = pulmonary vein → it collects the deoxygenated blood from lungs
D = chordae tendinae → To prevents the reverse opening of the atrioventricular valve towards
(4)
atria during ventricular contraction

14) Arrange the following in order of decreasing volume :-

(A) Vital capacity (B) Tidal volume
(C) IRV (D) Residual volume

(1) A > B > C > D

(2) C > D > B > A
(3) A > C > D > B
(4) D > C > B > A

15) Pneumotaxic centre is present in the A . Chemosensitive area situated adjacent to Rhythm
centre Recognize B concentration in C Blood. Find A, B, C

A B C

(1) Pons Low O2 concentration Oxygenated

(2) Pons High CO2 concentration Oxygenated

(3) Medulla oblongata High CO2 concentration Oxygenated

(4) Medulla oblongata Low O2 concentration Deoxygenated

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) Which sequences is correct to initiate expiration?

I. Relaxation of EICM and return of diaphragm and sternum to their normal position
II. Air expelled from lungs
III. Volume of thorax decreases
IV. Intrapulmonary pressure increases

(1) I, III, IV, II

(2) II, IV, III, I
(3) IV, III, II, I
(4) I, II, III, IV

17) Read the following statement carefully :-

(A) Alveoli are primary sites of exchange of gases.
(B) Trachea has 'c' shape rings which are ventrally incomplete.
(C) Covering of lung are called pleura.
(D) Right lung has 2 lobes and left has 3 lobes.
How many statement is/are not incorrect ?

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 4

18) Match the disorders given in column I with symptoms under column II. Choose the answer which
gives the correct combination of alphabets with numbers :

Column I Column II

(a) Asthma (i) Inflammation of nasal tract

(b) Bronchitis (ii) Spasm of bronchial muscle

(c) Rhinitis (iii) Damaged alveolar wall

(d) Emphysema (iv) Inflammation of bronchi

Cough with blood strained

(v)
sputum
(1) a – iv, b – ii, c – v, d – i
(2) a – v, b – i, c – ii, d – iii
(3) a – ii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii
(4) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii

19) Identify a, b, c and d in the given diagram.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) Which wave represents depolarisation of ventricles :-

(1) P-wave
(2) Q-wave
(3) QRS-wave
(4) T-wave

21) Consider the following structures of human respiratory system :

Trachea, alveolar duct, terminal branchioles, alveoli, secondary bronchi, tertiary bronchi
how many above structure are not included in conduction zone of respiratory system.

(1) 6
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 4

22) Assertion (A) :- Respiratory rhythum centre can moderated the function of pneumotaxic centre,
located in the medulla region in brain.
Reason (R) :- Pneumotaxic centre controls the swtich "ON" point of inspiration.

(1) A & R true and R is correct explanation of A

(2) Both A & R true but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A & R is false

23) Oxyhaemoglobin curve will show right shift in the case of :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 1 and 3 both

24) In amphibians and reptiles respiratory structure/organ receives :-

(1) Deoxygenated blood

(2) Oxygenated blood
(3) Mixed blood
(4) 1 and 2 both

25)

Read the following statement (A-D) :-

(A) Artery always carry blood from heart to the organs
(B) Valves are absent in the arteries
(C) Artery always carry oxygenated blood
(D) Lumen of artery is wide
How many statements are wrong ?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) One
(4) Two

26) Correct match the following columns :-

Column-I Column-II

A Neutrophils I 20-25% of WBC

B Basophils II 2-3% of WBC

C Monocytes III 6-8% of WBC

 D Eosinophils IV 0.5-1% of WBC

E Lymphocytes V 60-65% of WBC

(1) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II, E-V
(2) A-V, B-IV, C-III, D-II, E-I
(3) A-V, B-IV, C-I, D-II, E-III
(4) A-V, B-II, C-IV, D-III, E-I

27)

Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all correct ones:-
(a) Coronary Artery disease, (CAD), often result due to Atherosclerosis
(b) Heart failure occurs when the heart muscle is suddenly damaged by an inadequate blood supply
(c) High blood pressure leads to heart diseases and also affects vital organs like brain and kidney

(d) Angina occurs due to conditions that affect the blood flow to myocardium.
(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)
(2) Statements (a), (b) only
(3) Statements (c), (d) only
(4) Statement (a), (c) and (d)

28) Assertion : The formation of Bicarbonate 70% takes place in the RBC not in the plasma.
Reason : RBCs contain very high concentration of the enzyme carbonic anyhydrase.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion are True but Reason is not correct.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

29)

Read the following statements:-

(i) During ventricular systole, auriculo-ariculoventricular valves are get closed
(ii) During ventricular systole, semilunar valves are get closed
(iii) During ventricular diastole, semilunar valves are get closed
(iv) During ventricular diastole, ariculoventricular valves are get opened

Which statement is/are incorrect from following?

(1) Only (i) & (iii)
(2) Only (ii)
(3) Only (i) & (iv)
(4) Only (iii)

30) Which blood group have maximum antigen ?

(1) AB–
(2) O–
(3) AB+
(4) All of these

31) Systolic pressure is higher than diastolic pressure due to :-

(1) Volume of blood in the heart is greater during systole

(2) Arteries contract during systole
(3) Blood vessels offer resistance to flowing blood during systole
(4) Blood is forced into arteries during systole.

32) The typical Lubb-Dup sounds heard in the heart beat of a healthy person are due to :-

(1) Closing of the tricuspid and bicuspid valve

(2) Blood flow through the aorta
(3) Closing of the tricuspid and semilunar valves
(4) Closing of the semilunar valves

33) Statement-I: Lower invertebrates like sponges, coelenterates, flatworms, etc., exchange O2 with
CO2 by simple diffusion over their entire body surface.
Statement-II: Among vertebrates, fishes use gills whereas amphibians, reptiles, birds and mammals
respire through lungs.

(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

34) Following diagram of a structure represent how much percentage of WBCs ?

(1) 60–65%
(2) 0.5–1%
(3) 2–3%
(4) 6–8%

35) Which of the following circulatory pathway is correct ?

(1) Left ventricle → Pulmonary vein → Lungs → Right auricle

(2) Left auricle → Pulmonary artery → Body organs → Lungs
(3) Pulmonary artery → Lungs → Pulmonary vein → Left auricle
(4) Lungs → Pulmonary vein → Right auricle → Right ventricle

SECTION - B
1) Blood from intestine to the liver is carried by :-

(1) Hapatic artery

(2) Hepatic Vein
(3) Hepatic portal vein
(4) Both 1 and 3

2) Mitral valve in mammals guards the opening between :-

(1) Right atrium and Right ventricle

(2) Left atrium and Left ventricle
(3) Right atrium and Left ventricle
(4) Left atrium and Right ventricle

3) Given below is the flow chart of Human respiratory system. A, B, C are denoted as :-

(1) A-Epiglottis, B-Bronchiole, C-Alveoli

(2) A-Trachea, B-Initial Bronchus, C-Alveoli
(3) A-Trachea, B-Bronchioles, C-Alveoli
(4) A-Glottis, B-Terminal Bronchioles, C-Alveoli

4) Carbon monoxide can kill a person because of it's extremely high affinity for :-

(1) haemoglobin
(2) phytochrome
(3) cytochrome
(4) None of these

5) Assertion: Atherosclerosis is also known as coronary artery disease

Reason: It is caused by deposits of calcium fat, cholesterol etc.
Which makes the lumen of arteries narrower?

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the Correct explanation for A
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect
(4) Both A and R is incorrect

6)

The maximum number of action potentials are generated by :-

(1) SAN
(2) AVN
(3) AV bundle
(4) Bundle of His

7) Assertion: Person with 'AB' group can accept blood from persons with AB as well as the other
groups of blood.
Reason: Persons with AB groups have antigen A and antigen B on its RBCs and no antibodies in
their plasma.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

8) In erythroblastosis foetalis, which conditions are observed :-

(1) Severe jaundice only

(2) Severe anaemia only
(3) Severe anaemia and jaundice
(4) Severe anaemia and diarrhoea

9) When heart muscles are suddenly damaged by an inadequate blood supply, this condition called
as :

(1) Heart failure

(2) Heart attack
(3) Cardiac arrest
(4) Congentive heart failure
10) Assertion : Platelets play an important role in blood clotting.
Reason : In the blood which oozing from an injury, the platelets disintegrate and release
thromboplastin that initiates clotting.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

11) Cardiac output is :-

(1) Stroke volume x heart beat

(2) Stroke volume - heart beat
(3) Stroke volume + heart beat
(4) Stroke volume ÷ heart beat

12) Duration of a cardiac cycle:-

(1) 0.8 seconds

(2) 1.2 seconds
(3) 1.8 seconds
(4) 2.0 seconds

13) Match the column-I with column-II with respect to oxygen dissociation curve.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Alveoli (i) PCO2↑, Temp↑, H+↑

(B) Tissues (ii) PO2↑, pH↑

(C) Foetus (iii) BPG↓, pH ↑

(1) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i)
(2) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii)
(3) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii)
(4) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i)

14) Muscle of inspiration are :-

(1) Diaphragm only

(2) EICM only
(3) Diaphragm and EICM
(4) Abdomen muscle and IICM

15) Additional volume of air a person can inspire by a forcible inspiration is called ?

(1) Tidal volume

(2) Inspiratory capacity
(3) Inspiratory reserve volume
(4) Functional residual capacity
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 4 2 1 4 3 1 4 1 1 3 4 3 3 3 2 2 1 4 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 4 3 1 1 2 4 2 4 4 3 2 4 3 2 2

SECTION - B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 4 4 3 1 2 2 2 2 4 4 2 3 4 3 4

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 3 2 1 2 1 4 4 1 3 3 1 1 3 1 3 3 3 3 2
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 3 2 2 1 1 2 3 1 4 3 3 4 3 4

SECTION - B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 4 2 2 4 2 4 4 4 3 3 3 4 3 4 4

BOTANY

SECTION - A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 1 2 3 4 1 2 2 4 3 1 2 2 1 1 2 2 1 3 2 4
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 1 3 1 4 1 3 1 2 3 2 3 2 3 4

SECTION - B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 4 4 3 4 4 2 4 3 2 2 4 1 3 4

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION - A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 3 4 2 3 4 2 4 4 4 1 3 3 3 2 1 1 3 1 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 3 4 4 3 4 2 4 1 2 3 4 3 3 4 3

SECTION - B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 2 3 1 1 1 1 3 2 4 1 1 3 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

(A) yes, can assume whole mass of each bodies to be concentrated at C.O.M.
(B) let assume a uniform Rod. of mass 'm' and length .

Torque about OO' axis

dτ = (dm) gx

τ = (mg) × (Distance of C.O.M from axis of rotation).

So, we can assume whole mass
Concentrated at centre of mass in uniform gravitational field.

(C)
let example of Ring. M.O.I about OO' of ring.
I = MR2
If we concentrated at C.O.M, then M.O.I about OO' = 0
Option (C) incorrect.
(D) Momentum of system.

Any option (C) incorrect.

2)

Torque about point at the left end of rod

By force equation

3)
m2b = m1a

4)

I1 > I4 > I2 > I3

5)

6)
7) Ans. (1)

(i) The MOI of a uniform semicircular disc about axis AOB shown in figure is and of

another disc =
So MOI of the composite disc about
AOB is

0
I =

8)

9) By applying conservation of energy

KEi + PEi = KEf + PEf

10)

4E =

11)

From kepler's 2nd law

= constant
Thus ABC, area concept is more ⇒ more time

12)

Gravitation potential

Given,
 13)
Gravitational field at center is zero : (A - R)

Gravitational potential at center = (B - S)

When one mass is removed field strength with 4 mass (C - P)

Potential with 4 mass (D - S)

14)

effective value of acceleration due to gravity at a place of latitude ϕ is nearly equal to g' g–
Rω2 cos2 ϕ
ϕ = 60°
g'= 0
g = Rω2 cos260°

15)

Gravitational force inside a spherical shell is zero.

⇒ F1 = F2 = 0

For outside point the shell can be treated as a point mass M kept at the centre of the shell.
⇒

16)

WA > WB as mass of water in A is more than in B

PA = PB

Area of A = Area of B

or PA AreaA = PB AreaB
or FA = FB.

17)

18)

= 2πD2T

19)

20)

Length = ∞ according to formula

Hence rise of water column will be length of tube.

21)

ρgH =

= 30 cm

22)

Due to viscous force, as this force depends on the speed.

23) Surface area decreases, hence surface energy decreases and temperature increases.
Radius of single bubble is larger than two small bubble
Hence pressure decreases.

24)

Fact Based.

25)
θ < 90° for glass - water interface when capillary is coated with wax which is not wet by water
so θ > 90°
cos θ = –ve

h = –ve (then will be depression)

26) Stress same

Maximum stress remains same.

27) ρmVg = 210 ...(i)

(ρm – 1)Vg = 180 ...(ii)
(ρm – ρx)Vg = 120 ...(iii)
ρm = 7 gm/cm2

28) When the coin falls, it occupies less volume, therefore, h decreases, decreases as density
of wood decreases.

29)
Let V1 is velocity of efflux at S1 then
Let V2 is velocity at S2
From B to C
Let a is area of S2
A1V1 = A2V2

30)

Rate of flow of water = AAVA = ABVB

(40)VA = (20)VB
VB = 2VA ...(1)
Using Bernoulli's theorem

VA = 0.68 m/s = 68 cm/s

Rate of flow = AAVA
= (40) (68) = 2720 cm3/s

31)

TS = 3mg

= yS ×

= yb ×

= × × × = ×

32)

33) Let the natural length of wire = ℓ

Change in length (ℓ1 – ℓ1) when tenstion T1.
and cange in length (ℓ2 – ℓ) when tenstion T2.
∴ (ℓ1 – ℓ) = ...(i)

ℓ2 – ℓ = ...(ii)

⇒ ℓ1T2 – ℓT2 = ℓ2T1 – ℓT

34) U = (stress) (Strain) (Volume)

35)

36) F – T = 3a
T = 2a
T = 2.5 × 109 × 4 × 10–8
T = 100 N
T = 2a
100 = 2a
a = 50
F = 5 × 50
F = 250 N

37) Explanation : Assertion is false but Reason is true.

Torque =
if d = 0, that is line of action of force passes through O then torque will be zero. In this
situation, the body will not rotate how so ever large the force may be.

38) In pure rolling, velocity of point of application of friction force i.e. contact point is zero and
hence no work is done by friction force.
39) When a person is high up on the ladder, then a large torque is produced due to his weight
about the point of contact between the ladder and the floor. Whereas when he starts climbing
up, The torque is small. Due to this reason, the ladder is more apt to slip, when one is high up
on it.

40)

a1 = / M1 a2 = / M2
arel. = a1 + a2

= = .

41)

or

42)

Gravitational potential is same inside and surface of hollow sphere.

0
43) V =

⇒ ⇒

44)

Fluids do not have any exact shape, they acquire the shape of container therefore only bulk
modulus deals with change in volume and can be applied to fluids.

45) ⇒

⇒
 46)

K=

⇒ ΔV = σPV

47)

ΔUg = –Mgℓ

ΔUelast = kx2 =

k=
Remaining energy is converted to thermal energy.

48)

1.3 g (10) = 0.8g (x) + 13.6g (10 – x)

⇒ x = 9.6 cm

49)

Volume flowing per sec in left tube

= volume flowing per sec in 1st branch tube
+ volume flowing per sec in 2nd branch tube
Av1= Av2 + 1.5 Av
A × 3 = A × 1.5 + 1.5Av

∴ v = 1 m/s.

50)

Q ∝ pr4

CHEMISTRY
55)

Due to equilibrium between liquid and gaseous state of H2O on 373 K, ΔG = 0.

As the state changes from liquid to gas, the entropy also increases, ΔS = +ve.

56)
S = f(Temp)

57)

Gibb's free energy (ΔG):

ΔG = ΔH – TΔS
Where,
ΔG = Gibb's free energy
ΔH = enthalpy of the reaction
ΔS = entropy change
T = temperature
Under standard condition:
ΔG° = ΔH° – TΔS° º ΔG° = A – BT
For a spontaneous process, ΔG must be negative.
ΔG° = A – BT = –ve
ΔH < TΔS … (1)
A = ΔH can negative or positive if the condition of equation (1) is satisfied.
ΔH = A = +ve → Endothermic

58) ΔGo = ΔHo – TΔSo = –RTlnK

lnK =

lnK =

59)
Slope = – ΔS = –ve ⇒ ΔS > 0
Intercept = ΔH = +ve

60)

Statement A : ΔG° may or may not be equal to zero

Statement B : Gibbs function attains minimum value.
Statement D : (ΔG)T,P < 0

61) KP > KC

62)

ΔG = –RT ln Kp or Kp = e–ΔG/ RT

65)

Isothermal : T = constant
Adiabatic : q = 0
Isochoric : V = constant
Isobaric : P = constant

66) For process (1 → 2)

w = –nRTln

= –1 × 2 × 300ln (R = 2 cal/mol K)
= –600 × ln2
= –600 × 0.7
= –420 cal
For process (2 → 3)
w = –p(V2 – V1)

w = –600 cal
For process (3 → 4)
V1 = 40 L, V2 = 10 L, T = 600 K

w = –nRT ln
w = –1 × 2 × 600 × ln
w = 1200 × 2ln2 = 1680 cal
For process (4 → 1) (isochoric)
w=0
Net work = –420 + 1680 – 600 = 660 cal

71) For homologues F.G. must be same

72) double bond present between (carbon - carbon)

(c = c) called olefinic bond.

73)

(a)
Carbon ⇒ 2° & 3°
But Hydrogen only ⇒ 2°

(b)
Carbon ⇒ 2° & 3° both
But hydrogen only ⇒ 2°

(d)
Carbon and hydrogen both 2°

75) Refer IUPAC ruler

 76)

77)

90) and are

functional group isomer.

91)

100) (i) Group number of noble gas = zero group

(ii) ns (n–2) f (n–1)d np
n = 6 6s 4f 5d 6p
(iii) 2nd T.s. = Y–Cd

(iv) O–2 =

BOTANY

102) NCERT Pg. # 65

105) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 68

107)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 70
109) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 71

111) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 74

112) NCERT (XI) Pg # 73

115) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 68,

Ginger, colocasia and Turmeric

116) NCERT, Pg. # 75

119) NCERT-XI Pg.# 59

124) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 79,80,81

125) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 80

126) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 87

130)

NCERT Pg # 94

131)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 91
General cortex and endodermis

132)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 97

133) NCERT_11_PG_90_2021-22

134) NCERT Pg # 97

135)

NCERT Pg. # 94,95,97

138) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 88

 142) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 84, 85

ZOOLOGY

156)

NCERT - Pg. # 275, Para No. 17.6

157) NCERT XI, Page # 283, para-1

161) NCERT Pg#273

163) NCERT (XI)(E) Pg. # 283

169) NCERT – XI, Pg. #273, Fig. 17.3

171) NCERT, Pg # 270

172) NCERT, Pg. # 275, 17.5

177) NCERT (XI) Pg # 288

178)

NCERT Page No. # 275

183)

Ncert Page 268.

184) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 279; para-3

186) NCERT Pg. # 286

191)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 284

193) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 281; para-1

194) NCERT XIth Pg.#288

200) NCERT Pg. # 271