1.

Skeletal traction produces joint distraction by

a. linear force system b. parallel force system
c. concurrent force system d. muscle force system

2. Mechanical advantage is least in this lever

a. I order b. II order c. III order d. I & III

3. Friction between joint surfaces are reduced by the help of

a. outer most layer of articular cartilage b. II zone
c. III zone d. IV zone

4. Size of motor unit is determined by

a. Type of muscle fibers b. size of the neuron cell body
c. number of muscle fiber d. diameter of axon

5. The study about the description of motion of a segment without regard to

the forces that produce the movement is known as
a. kinetics b. kinematics c. kinesiology d. anthropometrics

6. The primary support of lateral arch of foot is provided by

a. spring ligament b. long plantar ligament
c. short plantar ligament d. deep transverse metatarsal ligament

7. Normal lumbo sacral angle is about

a. 20 degree b. 30 degree c. 40 degree d. 45 degree

8. Normal “ Q” angle
a.7 – 9 degree b. 10 – 15 degree
c. 16 – 18 degree d. above 20 degree

9. During spinal flexion and extension the greatest mobility occurs between
a. L3 – L4 b. L3 – S1 c. L1 - L4 d. L4 – S1

10. The integrity of the atlanto – axial articulation is maintained by

a. adjacent inferior disc b. alar ligament
c. Transverse ligament d. tectorial membrane

11. In which type of hand grip thumb is not involved

 a. hook grip b. Cylindrical grip
c. spherical grip d. pad to pad prehension

12. In genu valgum, the medial aspect of the knee complex is subjected to
a. compressive stresses b. tensile stresses
c. shear stress d. bending stress

13. When standing COG fall on

a.L5 b.S1 c.S2 d. in between both legs

14. The gas exchange unit of lung is

a. acinus b. alveolus
c. terminal bronchiole d. respiratory bronchiole

15. Coronary blood flow is dependent upon

a.coronary perfusion pressure b. duration of diastole
c. coronary vasomotor tone d. all of the above

16. Antitrypsin deficiency will produce

a.Bronchitis b. emphysema c. bronchiectasis d. asthma

17. Astereognosis is due to involvement of which structure

a. frontal lobe b. parietal lobe c. occipital lobe d. temporal lobe

18. Pure motor paralysis is caused by

a. polio b. Thalamic lesions
c. spinal cord injury d. peripheral neuropathy

19. CSF leakage from nose is

a.CSF otorrhoee b. CSF rhinorrhoea
c. Battle’s sign d. kernig’s sign

20. Which of the following surgical procedure is used to correct hip flexion
contracture in polio
a. Wilson’s operation b. lambrinudi operation
c. soutters operation. d. Steindler’s Operation

21. To test anterior drawer sign the knee will be held at

a.15 degree flexion b. 45 degree flexion
 c. 90 degree flexion d. 60 degree flexion

22. Phantom limb is one of the complications of

a. fracture shaft of femur b. Anterior dislocation of shoulder
c. amputation d. paraplegia

23. In fracture fat embolism is a

a. immediate complication b. delayed complication
c. late complication d. any time complication

24. Commenest degenerative joint disease is

a. Gout b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Tuberculosis of joint d. osteo arthritis

25. Epiphyseal injury is common in

a.adolescents b.old age c. children d. at any age

26. Most common nerve damage in shoulder dislocation is

a.Radial nerve b. axillary nerve c. ulnar nerve d. median nerve

27. Bennets fracture is fracture dislocation of base of

a.1st metacarpal b. 3rd metacarpal
c. 4th metacarpal d. 5th metacarpal

28. Abduction / adduction movements takes place around:

a. Sagittal plane & frontal axis b. transverse plane & vertical axis
c. frontal plane & sagittal axis d. frontal plane & vertical axis

29. Oxford technique is:

a.High resistance low repetition b. low resistance - high repetition
c.low resistance – low repetition d. High resistance – high repetition

30. Normal cadence during gait cycle :

a.60-80 b. 80-120 c. 120-140 d. 150-180

31. Normal range of cervical spine rotation is

a.0-45 degree b. 0-60 degree c. 0-35 degree d. 0.-50 degree

32. Angle of pull is more effective in

 a. Inner range b. middle range
c. outer range d. right angle to lever

33. Low resistance – High repetition exercise is to improve

a.endurance b. power c. strength d. endurance & strength

34. Which of the following glide increases shoulder abduction

a. inferior b. superior c. anterior d. posterior

35. In human body the gravitional force is counter balanced by

a.isometric b.isotonic c. isotonic and isometric d. static

36. Contractile unit of muscle

a.sarcoma b. action c. myocin d. troponin

37. In smith apparatus the length, height, width is ______ feet

a.6, 7 ½ , 2 b. 7 ½ 2,6 c. 9, 5, 3 ½ d. 2,6, 7 ½

38. Function of axial suspension is to

a. maintain muscle power b. increase muscle power
c. assist and improve muscle power d. relax the body segments

39. The sensory organ of stretch reflex is

a.tendon b. muscle fibers c. muscle spindle d. golgi organ

40. Effect of rhymical stabilisation is to

a.improve strength b. improve relax c. a & b d. improve Rom

41. In Ballistic type of stretching

a.duration and intensity is more b. duration is less & intensity more
c.duration and intensity is less d. duration is more & intensity is less

42. Gives 67% of transmission of ultrasonic waves

a. aquesonic gel b. glycerol c. air d. liquid paraffin
43. The therapeutic use of thermal effects is to
a.accelerate healing b. stretch scars
c. relieve adhesions d. all of the above

44. The depth of penetraction of SWD is

a. 6 cm b. 2 cm c. 4 cm d. 3 cm
45. When interrupted direct current is applied to the sensory nerves, it
causes?
a. Stabbing sensation b. prickling sensation
c. Tingling sensation d. Dull ache sensation

46. The electrical transformer works on the principles of,

a. Electro static induction b.electro magnetic induction
c. a & b d. none

47. Short duration current has impulses less than,

a. 1ms b. 30 ms c. 10 ms d. 100 ms

48. Chemical effects of constant direct current is used in

a. medical ionization b. surgical ionization
c. both a & b d. none

49. Innervated muscle’s contraction is obtained with,

a. saw tooth impulse b. rectangular impulse
c. both a &b c. triangular impulse

50. The gate control theory of pain was suggested by,

a. Mechanzhe b. Melzack & wall c. Maitland d. none

51. Lenz’s law deals with the

a.inductance of the conductor b. rate of change of magnetic field
c.Direction of current flow d. Direction of induced EMF

52. As the temperature of the conductor increase the resistance to flow of

electrons
a. Doubles b. decrease c. remains the same d. increase

53. Cyanosis is seen when the hemoglobin is less than

a. 2g% b. 5g% c. 12g% d. 15g%

54. T wave indicates

a. Ventricular depolarization b. Ventricular repolarisation
c. Atrial Repolarisation d. Atrial repolarisation

55. What is the normal fasting blood sugar level

 a.70-110mgldl b. 80-120mgldl c. 70-90mgldl d. 150-200mgldl

56. Aponea means

a. Cessation of respiration b. increased respiration
c. decreased respiration d. none of the above

57. Silent chest in due to

a. insufficient air flow in trachea & bronchus b. emphysema
c. asthma d. hyper ventilation

58. Normal suction pressure is

a.80 to - 120 mmHg b. 100 to - 120 mmHg
c. 90 to - 120 mmHg d. 50-75 mmHg

59. Stony dull note on percussion is characteristic of

a. pleural effusion b. consolidation c. pleurisy d. pneumothorax

60. Respiratory acidosis is due to

a. Hypo ventilation b. Hyper ventilation
c. atelectasis d. all of the above

61. In pneumothorax chest X – Ray is taken during

a.Inspiration b.expiration
c. deep inspiration d. force full expiration

62. O2 therapy is usually prescribed when Pao 2 falls

a. below 55 mm of Hg b. between 70 – 89 mm Hg
c. between 80-85 mm Hg d. above 65 mm Hg

63. Which breathing is used to reduce the respiratory rate

a. Diaphragmatic b. apical c. abdominal d. pursed lip

64. Dangerous type of pneumothrax is

a.Open type b. Valvular c. Closed type d. a & b

65. Lock – Jaw is common in which of the following condition,

a. Meningitis b. Poliomyelitis c. Tetanus d. Cerebral palsy.

66. Charcot joints is common in

 a. Multiple sclerosis b. Syringomyelia c. GBS d. None

67. Is the longest cranial nerve

a. V b. III c. VII d. X

68. Froment’s test is positive in,

a. Radial nerve injury b. Ulnar nerve injury
c. Median nerve injury d.none

69. Athetosis is due to damage of

a. Globus pallidus b. Putamen
c. Caudate nucleus d. Subthalamus.

70. Rectification of a circuit is achieved by using a

a. Diode valve b. Rheostat
c. Transformer d. Capacitor

71. skin resistance can be decreased by

a. Warming b. cooling c. drying d. use of low voltage current

72. The progression of E2 dose in UVR therapy is

a.25 % b. 50 % c.75 % d.100%
73. Spinal extension exercises are contraindicated in
a.spinal stenosis b. postural low back pain
c. disc prolapse d. all of the above

74. Commonest site of spondylolisthesis is

a.L2-L3 b. L3-L4 c. L4-L5 d. L5-S1

75. Range of motion of interphalangeal joint is

a.90 degree b. 75 degree c. 70 degree d. 60 degree

76. Thompson’s test is done in the case of

a.ankle sprain b. T.A. rupture
c. quadriceps rupture d. hamstring rupture

77. Nerve root of ankle reflex is

a.L4 b. L5 c. S1 d. S2

78. Tarsaltunnel syndrome is compression of

a.Posterior tibial nerve b. Posterior interrosseous nerve
c.proneal nerve d. femoral nerve

79. Anterior dislocation of shoulder commonest injured peripheral nerve is

a.radial nerve b. axillary nerve
c. ulnar nerve d. median nerve

80. Lachman test is used to detect the injury of

a.Meniscus b. anterior cruciate ligament injury
c.posterior cruciate ligament injury d. medial collateral ligament of knee

81. A sudden sharp pain in the chest made worse by breathing and
haemoptysis are often the first signs of
a. Myocardial infarction b. angina pectoris
c. pulmonary embolus d. lung carcinoma

82. As an ultrasonic beam travel through tissues the energy contained within
it decreases with the distance traversed. The phenomenon is know as:
a. Absorption b. Attenuation
c. Conduction d. Reflection
83. Lenz’s law deals with the
 a. Inductance of he conductor b. Rate of change of magnetic field
c. Direction of current flow d. Director of induced EMF.

84. The resting nerve is

a. Negative inside and positive outside
b. Negative outside and positive inside
c. Positive inside and positive outside
d. Negative inside and negative outside

85. Which of the following statement regarding ultraviolet radiation is false

a. Carcinogenesis is a danger due to long exposure to UVR.
b. Short UVR can be used for sterilization
c. UVB damages granulation tissue
d. Minimal erythemal dose is used for whole body irradiation

86. When a healthy innervated muscle is stimulated with an electrical current

we stimulate the:
a. the neurolemma of the axon b. the sarcolemma of the muscle
c. the neuromuscular junction d. all of the above

87. The modality of choice for the treatment of postnatal perineal pain would
be
a. Ultraviolet radiation b. Microwave diathermy
c. Pulsed electromagnetic energy d. None of the above

88. Which of the following statement is false?

a. Motor conduction velocity of the nerves decreases with cooling
b. Cooling reduces the metabolic rate of the tissues
c. Motor skills are enhanced as a result of cooling
d. Cooling diminishes muscle strength

89. Which of the following statement regarding interferential current therapy

is true?
a. Bipolar method does not provide endogenous interferential current
b. In quadripolar technique the current at the electrode skin surface is
modulated
c. quadripolar approach the stimulus is stronger on the skin
d. Bipolar method is difficult and time consuming.
90. Patient X who has a cardiac pacemaker suffers from left shoulder pain and
stiffness. Which of the following modality would be indicated?
 a. TENS b. IFT c. Ultrasound d. None of the avove

91. The quantity of ions introduced across the body surface by iontophoresis
is directly proportional to
a. Current intensity b. Current density
c. Duration of current d. Concentration of ions in the solution

92. Which of the following statement regarding diadynamic current in false?

a. It is a sine wave at a frequency of 100Hz.
b. It is either half wave or full wave rectified
c. It is biphasic pulsed current
d. It is a unidirectional current flow with long pulse duration

93. Treatment of psoriasis with Leads regimen includes all except

a. local application of coal tar
b. Test reaction to UVR in the sensitized condition
c. E1 dose is given to the patient
d. A theraktin tunnel or an air-cooled lamp can be used.

94. Which of the following statement regarding Theraktin tunnel is false?

a. It is an easiest way to give a general irradiation with UVR
b. It emits only UVB rays
c. A suberythemal dose is given
d. Dosage is progressively increased by 12.5%

95. When an ultrasonic beam is applied to a cell membrane it causes

unidirectional flow of tissue components. This is termed as:
a. Cavitation b. Attenuation
c. Adsorption d. Acoustic streaming

96. Energy require to change the state of substance is called as

a. Kinetic energy b. Potential energy
c. Latent heat d. Chemical energy
97. UVR reacts with oxygen in the air to produce
a. Neon b. Argon
c. Ozone d. Helium

98. The smallest current that produces a muscle contraction when the
stimulus is of infinite duration is
a. Chronaxic b. rheobase
c. microcurrent d. pulse duration

99. The most susceptible peripheral nerve fibers to be affected by cold

application are
a. B b. C c. A alpha d. A delta

100. The principal motion at atlanto-axial joint is

a. lateral flexion b. flexion-extension
c. axial rotation d. none of the above

101. When the thighs are stabilized, one of the following muscle becomes a
powerful forward flexor of the trunk
a. Internal oblique b. External oblique
c. Iliacus d, Rectus Abdominis

102. The flexor contracture of the right hip joint leads to:
a. Obliteration of lumbar lorodosis is standing
b. compensatory kyphosis of lumbar spine in standing
c. compensatory lordosis of lumbar spine is standing
d. none of the above

103. From 150 extension to flexion in the knee joint, pure rolling movement
occurs during the first
a. 5o of flexion b. 20o of flexion
c. 40o of flexion d. 60o of flexion

104. The excursion of the patella from full extension to full flexion of the knee
joint is
a. 2-3cm b. 5-7cm
c. 8-10 cm d. 10-12cm
105. The deltoid ligament across the ankle joint reinforces
a. the ankle joint alone
 b. the subtalar joint alone
c. the ankle & subtalar joint
d. the mid-tarsal & metatarso-phalangeal joints

106. The lateral half of the chopart’s joint consists of an articulation between
a. talus & calcaneum b. talus & navicular
c. calcaneum & cuboid d. calcaneum & pavicular

107. With the arm hanging down, medial rotation of the gleno-humeral joint is
primarily checked by the
a. coraco-humeral ligament b. capsule
c. anterior rim of glenoid d. rotator cuff muscles

108. While performing a passive movement, when the movement comes to a

firm stop; but can be pressed a little further by the use of some strength
with the sensation of stretching a scarcely elastic tissue, it is termed as:
a. bone-to-bone feel b. leathery feel
c. springy feel d. emptiness

109. 10 RM load refers to

a. a weight that can be lifted less than 10 times as it is too heavy
b. a maximum weight that can be lifted for minimum 10 times
c. a minimum weight that can be lifted for maximum 10 times
d. a weight that can be lifted only 10 times & is too heavy to be lifted
more than 10 times.

110. During the normal human gait cycle, hamstrings work to decelerate
a. knee flexion & hip extension b. knee extension & hip flexion
c. knee flexion alone d. hip extension alone

111. Every movement begins is posture & ends in posture. This was stated by:
a. Herman Kabat b. Bobath
c. Sherrington d. Kaltenborne

112. The loads on the calcaneum will be maximum during

a. brief periods of standing b. slow pace walking
c. brisk walking d. running
113. The goniometer using the principle of gravity for functioning as:
a. Universal goniometer b. Electrogoniometer
c. Fluid-bubble goniometer d. None of the above

114. The ability of any force to cause rotation of the level is know as
a. compression b. tension
c. muscle pull d. torque

115. The patient with scoliosis can be treated with free swinging exercises in
the therapeutic gymnasium with the aid of
a. Parallel bar b. Wall bar
c. Suspension frame d. Rope & pulley

116. The intradiscal pressure at L-5 is maximum during

a. standing erect b. sitting erect
c. relaxed unsupported sitting d. supported reclined sitting

117. The loose packed position for the hip joint is

a. full flexion with slight external rotation
b. 10 deg extension with internal rotation
c. 30 deg flexion, 30 deg abduction and slight external rotation
d. 45 deg abduction with 60 deg internal rotation

118. Bridging is an activity not useful for

a. facilitating pelvic motions b. strengthening of low back extensors
c. strengthening of hip flexors d. strengthening of hip extensors

119. The most important line of treatment in the management of RSD is

a. vigorous mobilization of stiff joints
b. strengthening of the hand muscles to prevent wasting
c. interruption of the sympathetic reflex arc.
d. skin care to prevent trophic ulcers

120. In case of below-knee amputation, the prosthesis of choice is

a. SACH prosthesis
b. PTB prosthesis
c. Conventional quadrilateral socket with knee joint and SACH
D. Total surface bearing socket with knee joint & SACH.
121. Froment’s sign indicates involvement of:
a. median nerve b. ulnar nerve
c. post-interosseous nerve d. radial nerve

122. The first line of treatment in the management of peripheral nerve palsy is
a. strengthening o the weak muscles
b. splinting the paralysed muscles in optimal position to avoid lengthening
of those muscles.
c. skin care to avoid trophic changes
d. refer the paritnet for electrodiagnostic studies

123. The test performed to stretch the femoral nerve is called as

a. Schober test b. Kernig test
c. Babinski test d. Prone knee-Bending test

124. Large amplitude rhythmic oscillations performed within the range not
reaching the limit are referred to as:
a. Maitland’s grade I mobilisation b. Maitland’s grade II mobilisation
c. Kaltenborne’s grade I mobilization d. Kaltenborne’s grade II moblisation

125. A patient treated conservatively for recurrent dislocation of the shoulder is

advised to avoid
a. 60 deg flexion b. 45 deg abduction
c. 40 deg flexion d. 90 deg abduction with 45 deg external rotation

126. Symptoms of neurogenic intermittent claudication in case of lumbar canal

stenosis aggravate with
a. lumbar extension b. lumbar flexion
c. squatting d. forward bending

127. Schober Test is used to

a. assess the length of quadriceps
b. assess the length of TFL
c. measure the amount of lumbar flexion
d. measure the amount of cervical flexion
128. The endfeel detected when considerable pain is produced by movement is
termed as:
a. Capsular b. Bone to bone
c. Empty d. Springy block

129. During the first stage of rehabilitation of meniscal injuries, the activity to
be avoided is:
a. straight leg raising b. hip exercises
c. hamstring exercises is prone d. calf raises

130. The most common deformity seen in the hip joint due to affection by polio
is:
a. Flexion, adduction b. Flexion, abduction
c. Flexion, medial rotationd. Flexion, lateral rotation

131. In a diagnosed cervical rib disease with spondylotic changes in the cervical
spine which of the following strengthening exercises should be avoided?
a. cervical flexors and extensors b. elevator
c. depressors d. lateral flexors of the neck

132. Which exercises are prescribed in the first phase of rehabilitation post ACL
injury?
a. isokinetic b. closed kinemaite chain
c. open kinematic chain d. none of the above

133. Which of the following is not a sound ergonomic advice for lifting an
object?
a. Avoid lifting heavy objects
b. Use a narrow base of support
c. Keep the weight close to the body
d. Avoid lifting combined with rotation
134. In the final phase of rehabilitation of an ankle ligament injury emphasis
should be laid on:
a. Mobility exercises b. Jumping
c. Low grade calisthenics d. Proprioceptive feedback exercises

135. The angle by which a finger falls short of complete extension when
passively stretched by the examiner is the:
a. Unassisted angle b. Assisted angle
 c. Contracture angle d. Deformity angle

136. In a patient with vertebrobasillar insufficiency which of the following is

contraindieated?
a. Cervical collar b. Hot packs
c. Manipulations d. Prolonged cervical traction

137. All of the following examination findings are true in a plica syndrome
except
a. Tenderness on the lateral joint line
b. Shutter test may be positive
c. Hamstring tightness is present
d. Quadriceps weakness and atrophy may exist

138. The normal range of lateral deviation of the mandible is:

a. 2-4mm b. 6-8 mm
c. 10-12mm d. 14-16 mm

139. The acromio-clavicular joint is especially injured in:

a. collision sports b. racket sports
c. cricket d. weight lifters

140. Pressure by a tumor or from surgical procedure of the posterior triangle

may cease injury to the:
a. Long thoracic nerve b. dorsal scapular nerve
c. Spinal accessory nerve d. Suprascapular nerve

141. Transverse spreading of the forefoot is referred to as:

a. Club foot b Splay foot
c. Rocker sole d. Pes cavus

142. Maximum orthotic control of the cervical spine may be achieved with:
a. Minerva orthosis b. Philadelphia collar
c. Four-poster cervical orthosis d. Sub-occipital mandibular immover.

143. The muscle spared in case of a cervical cord lesion at C4 would be:
a. Serratus anterior b. Subscapularis
c. Latissimus dorsi d. Trapezius

144. Which of the following technique is used in the treatment of cerebellar

lesion?
 a. Brunnstorm b. Timing of Emphasis
c. Bobath d. all of the above

145. The characteristic feature of an athetoid cerebral palsy is:

a. Emotional lability b. Perceptual problems
c. Epilepsy d. Nystagmus

146. Posterior and lateral column damage is mostly seen in:

a. Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord
b. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
c. Syringomyelia
d. Multiple sclerosis

147. Which of the following receptor is responsible for detecting the rate of
movement at the joint?
a. Ruffini endings b. Golgi tendon organs
c. Pacinian corpuscle d. Muscle spindle

148. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis shows sign and symptoms of:

a. Lower motor neuron lesion
b. Upper motor neuron lesion
c. Upper motor and lower motor neuron lesion
d. Cerebellar signs

149. Hyperalgesia is the term used to describe

a. Pain in response to touch
b. Pain in response to mild noxious stimuli
c. Pain in response to non noxious stimuli
d. All of the above
150. Cerebellar nystagmus occurs as a result of damage to the:
a. Anterior lobe b. Posterior lobe
c. Flocculonodular lobe de. Vermis

151. In which of the following muscle disorder there is muscle weakness

affecting the pelvic girdle followed by shoulder girdle, pain and tenderness
of the affected muscle but preserved tendon reflexes:
a. Pompe’s disease b. Limb girdle dystrophy
c. Polymyositis d. None of the above

152. Which of the following statement is true?

 a. Left brain damage patients deny their defects
b. Right brain damage patients respond better to visual instructions
c. Left brain damage patients respond better to verbal instructions
d. Aphasia generally occurs after left brain damage

153. Cortical sensory loss is seen in damage to:

a. Parietal lobe b. Occipital lobe
c. Temporal lobe d. Frontal lobe

154. Which of the following test is not used as a test of cerebellar function?
a. Dysdiadochokinesia b. Finger-nose-finger test
c. Romberg’s sign d. Tandem walking

155. Loss of ability to recognize the meaning of words is called as:

a. Aphasia b. Abulia
c. Agnosia d. Dyslexia

156. The normal range for fetal Heart rate per minute is:
a. 60-90 b. 80-100
c. 100-120 d. 120-160

157. Hyaline membrane disease is associated with one of the following

maternal factors
a. Viral infection b. Cigaretee smoking
c. Diabetes d. Toxaemia

158. Symmetric tonic neck reflex is integrated at:

a. 1-2months b. 3-4 months
c. 5-6 months d. 7-8 months

159. A neuropathic foot does not exhibit one of the following:

a. Loss of protective sensation b. Intact bond ligamentous structures
c. Paralysis of muscles d. Autonomic disturbances

160. Opiate receptors are found in all except

a. Periaqueductal grey matter b. substantia gelatinosa
c. thalamus d. purkinje cells

161. A useful formula for predicting the maximum HR is:

 a. 200-patients age b. 210 patients age
c. 220-patients age d. 230-patients age

162. Percussion should not be used in an untreated case of:

a. Bron hitis b. Bronchiectasis
c. Pneumathorax d. Aspiration pneumonia

163. A progressive increase in diatolic blood pressure with exercise may

indicate
a. hypotension b. hypertension
c. severe coronary artery disease d. none of the above

164. At normal & submaximal level of exercise, as the workload & O2

consumption demands increase, the:
a. HR & CO increases linearly
b. HR increases & CO decreases linearly
c. HR & CO decreases linearly
d. HR decreases & CO increases linearly

165. Orthopnea means:

a. dyspnea at rest
b. dyspnea on basic ADL
c. dyspnea in the supine position & relief by sitting up
d. none of the above
166. Eupnea refers to
a. absence of ventilation
b. normal rate, normal depth, regular rhythm of ventilation
c. slow rate, shallow depth of ventilation
d. slow rate, irregular rhythm of ventilation

167. Foul-smelling, copious, layered, purulent sputum is predominantly

suggestive of:
a. Bronchopneumonia b. Bronchitis
c. Bronchiectasis d. Neoplastic lesions in the lung

168. Mediastinal shift to the contralateral side is associated with:

a. Atelectasis b. Pleural effusion
c. Lobectomy d. Pneumonectomy
169. The potential outcome of pursued-lip breathing exercises is:
a. an increase in arterial CO2 tension
b. an increase in arterial O2 tension
c. an increase in R.R
d. an increase in the number of respiratory cycles

170. The average H.R of a normal child of 12 years age is approximately

a. 130 bpm b. 100 bpm
c. 85 bpm d. 60 bpm

171. At each treatment session while suctioning a patient who is mechanically

ventilated, the time of which the patient stays detached from O 2 should
not be more than:
a. 5 secs. b. 12 secs.
c. 30 secs. d. 1 min

172. The first respiratory defense mechanisms are encountered in the:

a. mouth b. nose
c. larynx d. trachea

173. The most important defense mechanism in the alveoli are:

a. lymphatics b. goblet cells
c. macrophages d. epithelial cells
174. The capacity of the bag recommended for manual hyperinflation in infants
is:
a. 100ml b. 500 ml
c. 1 litre d. 1.5 litre

175. Sympathetic stimulation of the heart leads to:

a. increase in the H.R b. slowed conduction through A-V node
c. decrease in the H.R d. none of the above

176. In an ECG, ventricular depolarization is represented by:

a. P wave b. QRS complex
c. T wave d. U wave

177. A 40 year old teacher with venous valvular insufficiency is prone to

develop
a. Deep vein thrombosis b. Thromboangitis obliterans
c. Raynaud’s disease d. Stasis ulcers
178. Incase of DVT, following anti-coagulant therapy, the affected limb needs to
be immobilized for a minimum period of:
a. 8 hrs b. 12 hrs
c. 24 hrs d. 48 hrs

179. The ABG report associated with acute respiratory failure is:
a. Pao2 less than 80mm Hg. b. Paco2 less than 50mm Hg
c. Paco2 more than 50 mm Hg d. none of the above

180. Jet humidifiers produce an aerosol using;

a. Archimide’s principle b. Beenoulli’s principle
c. Peizoelectric effect d. Dalton’s principle

181. Identify the noise of breathing, suggestive of upper airway obstruction

a. stertor b. grunting
c. gurgling d. stridor

182. The diastolic blood pressure is indicative of:

a. myocardial contractility b. myocardial perfusion
c. peripheral resistance d. left ventricular function
183. Truncal ataxia is feature of:
a. brainstem lesion b. midline cerebellar lesion
c. midbrain lesion c. pontine lesion

184. Which type of spinal muscular atrophy has an age of onset before or
shortly after birth and the life expectancy not past two years?
a. Kugel berg-Welander b. Werdnig Hoffmann
c. SMA-II d. SMA-IV

185. Lesion of the facial nerve affects the sensation of the tongue from
a. Anterior two-thirds b. Posterior two-thirds
c. Anterior one-third d. Posterior one-third

186. A 15 months old baby would be expected to do all of the following except:
a. Walk alone b. Crawl upstairs
c. Run d. Name of families object

187. Lesion of the upper trunk of the brachial plexus leads to all of the following
except:
 a. Loss of abduction and rotation of the shoulder
b. Absence of biceps and supinator jerks
c. Loss of extension of the elbow
d. Loss of radial extension

188. The surfactant helps keep the alveoli expanded by:

a. Increasing the surface tension
b. lowering the surface tension
c. increasing their perfusion
d. increasing their lymphatic drainage

189. The chest with prominent forward projection of the sternum is referred to
as:
a. Pectus excavatum b. Pectus carinatum
c. Hariison’s sulcus d. none of the above

190. Ideally, the endotracheal tube should not extend beyond the:
a. base of the tongue b. pharynx
c. larynx d. carina
191. A lean of the trunk over the stance extremity is described as:
a. Gluteus maxinus gait b. Steppage gait
c. Equine gait d. GTrendelenberg gait

192. To increase eversion of the foot, glide the:

a. taius anteriorly b. talus posteriorly
c. calcaneus laterally d. calcaneus medially

193. Flexion, adduction and external rotation deformity of the hip is commonly
encountered in:
a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Osteoarthritis
c. Seronegative arthritis d. Tuberculosis of the hip

194. Positive Adson’s test suggests:

a. Cervical spondylosis b. Cervical Rib
c. Koch’s spine d. Cervical discprolapse

195. An extrapulmonary cause of restrictive lung disorder is:

a. Bronchial asthma b. Emphysema
c. Acute bronchitis d. Pectus excavatum
196. A breathing technique where in the patient is taught to force air into the
lungs by using the mouth, tongue, pharyngeal & laryngeal structures is
referred to as:
a. Pursed lip breathing b. Lateral costal breathing
c. Diaphragmatic breathing d. Glossopharyngeal breathing

197. Massage is contraindicted in case of:

a. edema b. thrombosis
c. insomnia d. muscle spasm
198. The most commonly encountered musculo-skeletal disorder with an
occupation involving the use of arm in 30 degrees forward or abduction at
the shoulder joint is:
a. bicipital tendonitis b. supraspinatus tendonitis
c. thoracic outlet syndrome d. scalenus anticus syndrome

199. Paralysis of vastus medialis alone leads to

a. tibia varum b. genu valgum
c. genu varum d. lateral dislocation of patella.

200. A joint is mobilized in the lengthen position leads to:

a. Elastic deformity b. Plastic deformity
c. Irresversible contracrure d. None of the above.