PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI
HUYỆN Ý YÊN NĂM HỌC 2023 - 2024
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 6
Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút
Đề thi gồm 07 trang
Thí sinh làm bài trưc tiếp vào đề khảo sát này
Điểm bài thi Họ, tên và chữ ký 2 giám khảo Mã phách
Bằng số: ............................. Giám khảo 1: ..................................
Bằng chữ: ........................... Giám khảo 2: ..................................
PART A. LISTENING (4.0 points)
Hướng dẫn phần thi nghe hiểu:
- Nội dung phần nghe gồm 03 phần, mỗi thí sinh được nghe 2 lần, đĩa CD tự chạy.
- Mở đầu và kết thúc phần nghe có tín hiệu nhạc, hướng dẫn chi tiết đã có trong bài nghe.
PART 1. Questions 1-5 (1.0 pt)
Listen to Katy talking about her friends to her American cousin. What are their favorite
free-time activities? Number (0) is an example.
0. Henry E A. cinema
1. Sarah B. basketball
2. Michelle C. reading
3. Tony D. fishing
4. Mike E. music
5. Ellen F. parties
PART 2. Questions 1- 8 (1.6 pts)
For each question, circle the correct answer A, B or C.
1. Who will meet the woman?
A. the woman's father B. the man's brother C. a friend from work
2. Where will they meet?
A. at the airport B. at the bus stop C. at the railway station
3. The person is very ______________.
A. tall B. short C. old
4. He has ______________ hair.
A. black B. red C. brown
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5. He's pretty ______________.
A. fat B. thin C. obese
6. The man wears ______________.
A. black shoes B. blue shirts C. a white cap
7. What color are his shoes?
A. red B. brown C. white
8. The man's name is ______________.
A. Mike B. Marshall C. Matthew
PART 3. Questions 1-7 (1.4 pts)
You will hear some information from a cinema. Listen and complete questions 1-7.
CINEMA
Name of the cinema: North London Arts Cinema
Next week’s film: (1) ______________ Meeting
Open: (2) ______________ days a week
From: (3) ______________ to Thursday
Times: (4) ______________
Student ticket costs: (5) £ ______________
Nearest car park: (6) ______________ Street
Phone: (7) ______________ to 4.30p.m to get further information
B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (6.0 points)
I. Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions. (2.0 pts)
1. I like to read “ Hoa hoc tro” very much. It’s my ___________ magazine.
A. favorite B. like C. life D. nice
2. He gave a bunch of flowers to ___________ mother on her birthday.
A. him’s B. he’s C. him D. his
3. Of the two sisters, Hoa is ___________ .
A. good B. the better C. gooder D. the best
4. There is ___________ in the middle of the living room.
A. small table B. a round small table
C. a small round table D. round table
5. Many people want to buy a robot ___________ it’s convenient.
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A. because B. although C. but D. because of
6. Ha Noi is located in ___________ centre of Northern Vietnam.
A. a B. the C. an D. x
7. You can give your old clothes to the people_________________.
A. needed B. to need C. need D. in need
8. ___________ homework does he have every day?- He has a lot of homework.
A. How much B. How many C. What D. Why
9. Tony: “Thanks for the nice gift!” Linda: “___________.”
A. Say that again B. You’re welcomed
C. I’m glad you like it D. Yes, please
10. We like the people there because they are ___________.
A. unfriendly B. friendly C. friends D. friendship
II. Give the correct tense of the verbs in brackets to complete the following sentences. (2.0 pts)
1. There (be) ___________________ a cat and two birds in the tree.
2. Reading books (help) ___________________ us improve our knowledge.
3. (not make) ___________________ noise in the library.
4. I hope you (feel) ___________________ better soon.
5. Look! Someone (climb) ___________________ up the tree.
6. She’d like (become) ___________________ a famous writer in the future.
7. Where ___________________ you (go) ___________________ last summer?
8. Her new school (have) ___________________ a large playground.
9. If he (not study) ___________________ hard, he will fail the exam.
10. Children shouldn’t (watch) ___________________ too much TV.
III. Supply the correct form of the words in brackets. (1.0 pt)
1. Students often do a lot of different ___________________ at recess. ACT
2. Will you live in a ___________________ area in the future? MOUNTAIN
3. Mr.Hai always ___________________ carefully. DRIVER
4. We shouldn’t eat junk food because it is ___________________. HEALTH
5. My uncle is a famous ___________________. MUSIC
IV. Complete the following sentences with suitable prepositions. (1.0pt)
1. I can’t choose _________________ the blue shirt and the white one.
2. Her grandmother’s birthday is _________________ the fifth of December.
3. Remember to turn _________________ the lights before going to bed.
4. They often decorate their houses _________________ a lot of flowers at Tet.
5. Are you interested _________________ watching cartoons?
C. READING (5 points)
I. Fill in each numbered blank of the following passage with ONE suitable word. (2.0 pts)
QUANG BA FLOWER MARKET
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If you are a flower lover, you must know about the Quang Ba Flower Market. It is
considered one of the biggest night flower markets in Tay Ho District, Hanoi. Flowers here are
transported from all over the capital neighborhoods such (1) _____________ Dong Anh, Tay
Tuu, Gia Lam. Therefore, visitors will be fascinated by the stalls of various kinds of colorful
(2)_____________. The market is often busiest at night from 1 to 3 a.m. when Hanoi has already
sunk into sleep. Although the market takes place at an extraordinary time, many people still flock
there to buy flowers or (3) _____________ photos, especially on Tet, Teachers' Day, Women's
Day, etc.
Besides, the market is also famous for reasonable prices. Coming to Quang Ba Flower
Market, you can easily buy your (4) _____________ flowers at a lower price than in other flower
shops or from vendors on Hanoi streets.
Therefore, it is not an exaggeration to say that Quang Ba Flower Market is (5)
_____________ of the must-try experiences in Hanoi.
Adapted from Bài tập Tiếng Anh 6
II. Read the passage and choose the best word (A, B, C or D) to put in each space (2.0 pts)
I live in a small village called Hen field. There (1) _____________ about 500 people here.
I love it because it is (2) _____________ and life is slow and easy. You (3) _____________ have
to queue in shops or banks. The village is clean. People look after it and (4) _____________ their
rubbish in the streets. The air is also (5) _____________ because there’s not much heavy traffic.
It’s much more (6) _____________ here than in a city. Everyone knows everyone and if someone
(7) _____________ a problem, there are always people who can help. There are
(8)_____________ things I don’t like about Hen field. One thing is that’s not much to do in the
evening. We have not got any cinemas (9) _____________ theatres. Another problem is that
people always talk about each other and everyone knows (10) _____________ everyone else is
doing. But I still prefer village life to life in a big city.
Adapted from https://hoctapsgk.com
1. A. be B. is C. are D. was
2. A. quite B. quiet C. noisy D. noisily
3. A. can’t B. should C. not D. never
4. A. don’t throw B. throw C. not throw D. throwing
5. A. dirty B. not clean C. clean D. nice
6. A. friendly B. unfriendly C. boring D. uninteresting
7. A. have B. are C. has D. get
8. A. much B. a little C. some D. a lot
9. A. and B. or C. but D. because
10. A. who B. where C. how D. why
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III. Choose the best answers (1.0 pt)
WHO WANT TO BE A MILLIONAIRE
One of the most popular quiz programs on television in the world is called Who Wants To
Be A Millionaire? In Britain, the quiz master is Chris Tarrant. He asks the contestants fifteen
questions. The first questions are easy but later they are more difficult. If you can answer the
fourteenth question, you can win £500,000. You can win a million pounds if you can answer the
last question. Of course, the last question is very difficult.
All the questions on Who Wants To Be A Millionaire? are multiple-choice questions. After
you hear the question, you see four answers. Only one answer is correct. You have to choose the
correct answer. If you don't know the answer to a question, there are three ways you can get help:
you can ask the quizmaster to take away two wrong answers: you can ask the studio audience
which answer is right; or you can telephone a friend and ask for help. You can only do these
things once. Very few people win the million pounds. The first person won a millon pounds one
year after the program started.
Today, Who Wants To Be A Millionaire? can be seen in more than 100 countries and is
now the world's most popular quiz program.
Adapted from Bài tập bổ trợ và nâng cao 6
1. Who is Chris Tarrant?
A. The news report in Britain B. The contestant in Britain
C. The quizmaster in Britain D. The winner in Britain
2. How many questions do you have to answer?
A. 14 B. 13 C. 12 D. 15
3. How much do you win for the fourteenth question?
A. 1 million pounds B. £500,000
C. £50,000 D. 1billion pounds
4. Which question is the most difficult?
A. The first question B. The fourteenth question.
C. The fifteenth question. D. The second question.
5. Who can you ask to take away two wrong answers?
A. The studio audience B. A friend
C. A relative D. The quizmaster
6. The word “they” in the third paragraph refer to ______________
A. audience B. questions C. programs D. contestants
7. The word “take away” in the second paragraph is closest meaning to ______________.
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A. answer B. choose C. remove D. telephone
8. How many ways can you get help?
A. 3 B. 2 C. 4 D. 1
9. How many times can you use each way to get help?
A. Once B. Three times C. Twice D. Many times
10. In how many countries can you watch the quiz show?
A. 100 countries B. 10 countries
C. more than 100 countries D. more than 10 countries
D. WRITING (5.0 points)
I. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has the same meaning as the
first sentence, using the cues as the beginning of each sentence. Write your answers in the
spaces provided. (1.6 pts)
1. Our country doesn’t have any deserts.
→ There are ……………………………………………………………………………
2. How about playing volleyball for a change?
→ Shall we …………………………………………………………………………….?
3. It is necessary for him to find a job soon.
→ He must …………………………………………………………………………….
4. No students in his class is cleverer than him.
→ He is ………………………………………………………………………………..
5. It is a good idea to get up early and do exercise.
→ You should …………………………………………………………………………….
6. The bookstore is to the left of her house.
→ Her house …………………………………………………………………………….
7. Study hard and you will get good grades.
→ If …………………………………………………………………………………….
8. Nam goes to school by bike every day.
→ Nam rides …………………………………………………………………………….
II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using
the word given. Do not change the given word. You must use BETWEEN THREE AND
FIVE words, including the word given. Write your answers in the spaces provided. (1.4 pts)
1. If it is not fine this Sunday, we won’t go camping. UNLESS
→ We won’t go camping ……………………………………… this Sunday.
2. How long is the Nile? LENGTH
→ What’s ……………………………………………………. the Nile?
3. This dictionary belongs to me. MINE
→ This……………………………………………………...
4. Remember to lock the door when going out. FORGET
→ Don’t…………………………………………. the door when going out.
5. Students participate in a lot of outdoor activities. TAKE
→ Students ___________________________ a lot of outdoor activities.
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6. Can you show me the way to the bus stop? HOW
→ Can you tell me ………………………………………….the bus stop?
7. My new school is not near my house. FAR
→ My new school …………………………………………… my house.
III. Children today spend a lot of time watching TV. Write a paragraph (120-150 words)
about your TV-viewing habits. (2.0pts)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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_ THE END _
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