18/06/2015 General Studies (Prelims) Paper­ 1998

General Studies (Prelims)

Paper­ 1998

General Studies (Prelims) Paper­ 1998

October 3, 2014

Q1. Some time back, the Government of India, decided to delicense

‘white goods’ industry. ‘White goods’ include
(a) stainless steel and aluminium utensils
(b) milk and milk products
(c) items purchased for conspicuous consumption
(d) soaps, detergents and other mass consumption goods

Q2. Examine the following three statements:

I. Processed meat is a perishable food.
II. All perishable foods are packed in sealed tins.
III. Sealed tins sometimes do not contain processed meat.
Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above
statements?
(a) Sealed tins always contain perishable food
(b) Processed meat is sometimes not packed in sealed tins
(c) Processed meat is always packed in sealed tins
(d) Non­perishable foods are never packed in sealed tins

Q3. What is the correct sequence of the following Indian states in

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descending order of their length of surface roads per 100 km2 of

their area ?
I. Haryana
II. Maharashtra
III. Punjab
IV. Tamil Nadu
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) IV, II, III, I
(b) IV, III, I, II
(c) III, IV, I, II
(d) III, IV, II, I

Q4. The four railway junctions shown by numerals 1, 2, 3, 4 on the

rough outline map of Gujarat are respectively

(a) Palanpur, Mahesana, Ahmedabad and Vadodara

(b) Mahesana, Surendranagar, Rajkot and Junagarh
(c) Palanpur, Kanda, Bhuj and Okla
(d) Ahmedabad, Vadodara, Bhavnagar and Broach

Q5. The damage to the Spektr Module of the Russian Space Station
Mir was due to
(a) collision with a Soyuz cargo ship
(b) faulty material design of the Spektr Module
(c) explosion inside the space station
(d) collision with an asteroid
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Q6. he meeting of G­15 countries held in Malayasia in 1997 was

attended by
(a) 14 member countries
(b) 15 member countries
(c) 16 member countries
(d) 17 member countries

Q7. Olympics 2000 is to be held in

(a) Johannesberg
(b) Capetown
(c) Rome
(d) Sydney

Q8. The educated middle class in India

(a) opposed the revolt of 1857
(b) supported the revolt of 1857
(c) remained neutral to the revolt of 1857
(d) fought against native rulers

Q9. Which one of the following regions of the world supplies the
maximum of our imported commodities (in terms of rupee value)?
(a) Africa
(b) America
(c) Asia and Oceania
(d) Europe

Q10. The currency of the proposed European Monetary Union will

be
(a) Dollar
(b) Euro
(c) Guilder
(d) Mark
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Q11. Which one of the following was the venue for the preliminary
talks between the Sri Lankan Government and representatives of
Tamil United Liberation Front and other militant groups ?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Colombo
(c) Zirconiun
(d) Chennai

Q12. ‘MERCOSUR’ consists of group of countries of

(a) Africa
(b) Asia
(c) Latin America
(d) South East Asia

Q13. Which one of the following countries has replaced Italy as the
major importer of bauxite from India ?
(a) Canada
(b) Greece
(c) Ukraine
(d) United Arab Emirates

Q14. Lord Mountbatten came to India as Viceroy along with specific

instructions to
(a) balkanize the Indian sub­continent
(b) keep India united if possible
(c) accept Jinnah’s demand for Pakistan
(d) persuade the Congress to accept partition

Q15. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the

states (labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4) of India shown on the map in
descending order in terms of their available ground water resources
for irrigation ?
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(a) 3, 4, 1, 2
(b) 3, 4, 2, 1
(c) 4, 3, 1, 2
(d) 4, 3, 2, 1

Q16. Consider the following statements :

The price of any currency in international market is decided by the
I. World Bank.
II. demand for goods/services provided by the country concerned.
III. stability of the government of the concerned country.
IV. economic potential of the country in Q.
Of these statements :
(a) I, II, III and IV are correct
(b) II and III are correct
(c) III and IV are correct
(d) I and IV are correct

Q17. A consumer is said to be in equilibrium, if

(a) he is able to fulfil his need with a given level of income
(b) he is able to live in full comforts with a given level of income
(c) he can fulfil his needs without consumption of certain items
(d) he is able to locate new sources of income

Q18. Among the Indian states shown labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the

rough outline map given, the correct sequence of descending order
of per cent of scheduled tribe population to their total population is :
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(a) 1, 3, 2, 4
(b) 3, 1, 2, 4
(c) 3, 1, 4, 2
(d) 1, 3, 4, 2

Q19. Which one of the following sets of states stands to benefit the
most from the Konkan Railway ?
(a) Goa, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Kerala
(b) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Kerala
(c) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Goa, Maharashtra
(d) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Tamil Nadu

Q20. The supply­side economics lays greater emphasis on the point

of view of
(a) producer
(b) global economy
(c) consumer
(d) middle­man

Q21. Which one of the following languages belongs to the Austric

group ?
(a) Marathi
(b) Ladakhi
(c) Khasi
(d) Tamil

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Q22. Indonesian forest fire in 1997 was caused by

(a) greenhouse effect
(b) depletion of ozone layer
(c) El Nino effect
(d) None of the above

Q23. Match the following research institutes A, B, C and D with their

respective location labelled as 1 to 6 in the given rough outline map

A. Central Drug Research Institute

B. National Atlas and Thematic Mapping Organisation
C. National Institute of Ocean Technology
D. Temperate Forest Research Centre
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes:
(a) A­4, B­3, C­2, D­6
(b) A­4, B­5, C­1, D­6
(c) A­2, B­3, C­4, D­5
(d) A­1, B­6, C­2, D­3

Q24. Bharat Ratna was awarded in 1997 to

(a) Dr. Homi Bhabha (Posthumous)
(b) Former President R. Venkataraman
(c) Satyajit Ray (Posthumous)
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(d) Dr. Abdul Kalam

Q25. Which of the following statements are true about the Indian­
born woman astronaut Kalpana Chawla ?
I. She was born in Kamal.
II. She flew on board the shuttle flight STS­87.
III. She was trained at the Kennedy Space Centre.
IV. She did a space­walk to retrieve the Spartan Satellite.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I, II and III
(d) I, II and IV

Q26. Assertion (A):

The Gandhara School of art bears the mark of Hellenistic influence.
Reason (R):
Hinayana form was influenced by that art.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

Q27. Assertion (A):

At first the Turkish administration in India was essentially military.
Reason (R):
The country was parcelled out as ‘Iqtas’ among leading military
leaders.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
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Q28. Assertion (A):

According to Asoka’s edicts social harmony among the people was
more important than religious devotion.
Reason (R):
He spread ideas of equity instead of promotion of religion.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

Q29. Assertion (A):

The Khilafat movement did bring the urban Muslims into the fold of
the National Movement.
Reason (R):
There was a predominant element of anti­imperialism in both the
National and Khilafat Movements.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

Q30. Assertion (A):

Partition of Bengal in 1905 brought to an end the Moderates’ role in
the Indian freedom movement.
Reason (R):
The Surat session of Indian National Congress separated the
Extremists from the Moderates.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

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Q31. Assertion (A):

The first ever Bill to make primary education compulsory in India
was rejected in 1911.
Reason (R):
Discontent would have increased if every cultivator could read.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

Q32. Assertion (A):

The Congress rejected the Cripps proposals.
Reason (R):
The Cripps Mission consisted solely of whites.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

Q33. Assertion (A):

The United States of America has threatened to ask the World
Trade Organisation (WTO) to apply sanctions against the
developing countries for the non­observance of ILO conventions.
Reason (R):
The United States of America itself has adopted and implemented
those ILO conventions.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

Q34. Assertion (A):

During the reign of Shahjahan, Dara Sikoh was sent on expedition to
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Balkha, Badakh­shan and Qandahar.

Reason (R):
The expedition sent by Shahjahan to the Middle­East was a
marvellous success.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

Q35. Assertion (A):

Gandhi stopped the Non­Co­operation Movement in 1922.
Reason (R):
Violence at Chauri­Chaura led him to stop the movement.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

Q36. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?

I. Lothal : Ancient dockyard
II. Sarnath : First Sermon of Buddha
III. Rajgir : Lion capital of Asoka
IV. Nalanda : Great seat of Buddhist learning
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes :
(a) I, II, III and IV
(b) III and IV
(c) I, II and IV
(d) I and II

Q37. Which one of the following pairs of cities has recently been
connected through a 6­lane express way ?
(a) Ahmedabad : Vadodara
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(b) Dhaka : Chittagong

(c) Islamabad : Lahore
(d) Mumbai : Pune

Q38. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists :
List I List II
I. Ringgit (A) Indonesia
II. Baht (B) South Korea
III. Rupiah (C) Thailand
IV. Won (D) Malayasia

Codes:
(a) I­A, II­C, III­D, IV­B
(b) I­D, II­C, III­A, IV­B
(c) I­A, II­B, III­D, IV­C
(d) I­D, II­B, III­A, IV­C

Q39. Consider the following statements :

Ahadis were those troopers who
I. offered their services singly.
II. did not attach themselves to any chief.
III. had the emperor as their immediate colonel.
IV. attached themselves to Mirzas.
Of these statements :
(a) I, III and IV are correct
(b) I, II and III are correct
(c) II and III are correct
(d) I and IV are correct

Q40. When the Indian Muslim League was inducted into the interim
government in 1946, Liyaqat Ali Khan was assigned the portfolio of
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(a) Foreign affairs

(b) Home
(c) Finance
(d) Defence

Q41. Which one of the following ancient Indian records is the

earliest royal order to preserve foodgrains to be utilised during the
crises in the country ?
(a) Sohagaura Copper­plate
(b) Rummindei pillar­edict of Asoka
(c) Prayaga­Prasasti
(d) Mehrauli Pillar inscription of Chandra

Q42. According to Meadows (1972), if the present trends in world

population, industrialisation, pollution, food production and resource
depletion continue unchanged, the “Limits to Growth” on our planet
will be reached in the next
(a) 50 years
(b) 100 years
(c) 150 years
(d) 200 years

Q43. Human Poverty Index was introduced in the Human

Development Report of the year
(a) 1994
(b) 1995
(c) 1996
(d) 1997

Q44. Consider the following :

I. Tughlaquabad Fort.
II. Lodi Garden.
III. Qutub Minar.
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IV. Fatehpur Sikri.

The correct chronological order in which they were built is :
(a) III, I, IV, II
(b) III, I, II, IV
(c) I, III, II, IV
(d) I, III, IV, II

Q45. The concept of Eight­fold path forms the theme of

(a) Dipavamsa
(b) Divyavadana
(c) Mahaparinibban Sutta
(d) Dharma Chakara Pravartana Sutta

Q46. The recent Land Mines Conference to sign the historic treaty
was held in the Capital city of
(a) Canada
(b) Japan
(c) Sweden
(d) Zimbabwe

Q47. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?

I. Dow Jones : New York
II. Hang Seng : Seoul
III. FTSE ­ 100 : London
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) I, II and III
(b) II and III
(c) I and II
(d) I and III

Q48. The Indian National Congress agreed in 1947 to the partition of

the country mainly because
(a) the principle of two­Nation theory was then acceptable to them
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(b) it was imposed by the British Government and the Congress was
helpless in this regard
(c) they wanted to avoid large­scale communal riots
(d) India would have otherwise lost the opportunity to attain freedom

Q49. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists :
List I List II
I. 1556 (A) Battle of Haldi Ghati
II. 1600 (B) Nadir Shah’s capture of Delhi
III. 1686 (C) Death of Shivaji
IV. 1739 (D) Grant of Charter to East India Company
(E) Accession of Akbar

Codes:
(a) I­C, II­D, III­B, IV­A
(b) I­E, II­D, III­C, IV­B
(c) I­E, II­B, III­A, IV­D
(d) I­A, II­E, III­C, IV­B

Q50. Match rivers labelled A, B, C and D on the given map with their
names given in the list and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the list:

1. St. Lawrence
2. Orinoco
3. Mackenzie
4. Amazon
5. Yukon

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Codes:
(a) A­4, B­3, C­2, D­1
(b) A­5, B­3, C­1, D­2
(c) A­5, B­4, C­1, D­3
(d) A­3, B­1, C­4, D­2

Q51. At the time of India’s Independence, Mahatma Gandhi was

(a) a member of Congress Working Committee
(b) not a member of the Congress
(c) the President of the Congress
(d) the General Secretary of the Congress

Q52. The economist who was associated with the WTO draft
document is
(a) A.K. Sen
(b) T.N. Srinivasan
(c) J.N. Bhagwati
(d) Avinash Dixit

Q53. In the given map, the shaded part represents Akbar’s empire
at a certain juncture: ‘A’ stands for an independent country and ‘B’
marks the site of a city. Which one of the following alternatives gives
all correct information ?

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(a) Akbar in 1557 : (A) Golkunda (B) Lahore

(b) Akbar in 1557 : (A) Khandesh (B) Multan
(c) Akbar in 1605 : (A) Gondwana (B) Multan
(d) Akbar in 1605 : (A) Gondwana (B) Lahore

Q54. Estuaries possess distinct blooms of excessive growth of a

pigmented dinoflagellates. These blooms are called
(a) red tides
(b) sea tides
(c) black tides
(d) sea flowers

Q55. Consider the following climatic conditions (northern

hemisphere) :
Temperature Rainfall
°C cm
January 3.9 4.7
February 4.4 5.7
March 8.3 8.2
April 14.4 9.2
May 20.0 9.2
June 23.3 17.7
July 27.8 14.5

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August 27.8 14.0

September 22.3 12.7
October 18.3 7.0
November 12.2 5.0
December 6.7 3.5

These are most likely to be found in the natural regions of

(a) China type
(b) Equatorial type
(c) Hot desert type
(d) Monsoon type

Q56. The number of economically active women (excluding students

and those doing domestic duties in their homes) as a percentage of
all women of working age (generally those aged 15­64 years) was
the highest in 1996 in
(a) USA
(b) China
(c) Russia
(d) S. Korea

Q57. When there is noon at G. M .T. meridian people on another

place of the Earth are taking their 6 o’clock morning tea. The
longitude of the place is
(a) 17° 30’ E
(b) 7° 30’ W
(c) 172° 30’ E
(d) 90° W

Q58. The given map relates to

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(a) Kaniska at the time of his death

(b) Samudragupta after the close of his South Indian campaign
(c) Asoka towards close of his reign
(d) Empire of Thaneswar on the eve of Harsha’s accession

Q59. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of

India contains provisions regarding Anti­Defection Act?
(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule

Q60. Many of the Greeks, Kushanas and Shakas embraced

Buddhism rather than Hinduism because
(a) Buddhism was in the ascendant at that time
(b) they had renounced the policy of war and violence
(c) caste­ridden Hinduism did not attract them
(d) Buddhism provided easier access to Indian society

Q61. The satellites of which one of the following countries have

helped in the preparation of a detailed and complete map of
Antarctica ?
(a) Canada
(b) France
(c) Russia

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(d) USA

Q62. The Indian parliamentary system is different from the British

parliamentary system in that India has
(a) both a real and a nominal executive
(b) a system of collective responsibility
(c) bicameral legislature
(d) the system of judicial review

Q63. The member of Shivaji’s Astha Pradhana who looked after

foreign affairs was
(a) Peshwa
(b) Sachiv
(c) Pandit Rao
(d) Sumant

Q64. Panchayati Raj was first introduced in India in October, 1959 in

(a) Rajasthan
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Kerala
(d) Karnataka

Q65. Some people in Manipur live in houses built on floating islands

of weeds and decaying vegetation held together by suspended silt.
These islands are called
(a) Tipis
(b) Barkhans
(c) Phoomdis
(d) Izba

Q66. The Asokan major rock edicts which tell us about the Sangam
Kingdom include rock edicts
(a) I and X
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(b) I and XI
(c) II and XIII
(d) II and XIV

Q67. Which one of the following east flowing rivers of India has rift
valley due to down warping ?
(a) Damodar
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Sone
(d) Yamuna

Q68. According to the World Development Report, low income

economies are those for which the per capita GNP in 1994 was
(a) US $ 925 or less
(b) US $ 825 or less
(c) US $ 725 or less
(d) US $ 525 or less

Q69. What is the correct sequence of the following events ?

I. Tilak’s Home Rule League
II. Kamagatamaru Incident
III. Mahatma Gandhi’s arrival in India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) I, II, III
(b) III, II, I
(c) II, I, III
(d) II, III, I

Q70. The loss of Qandhar was a big blow to the Mughal empire from
the view point of
(a) natural resources
(b) buffer territory
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(c) communication
(d) strategic stronghold

Q71. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?

I. Mrichchakatikam — Shudraka
II. Buddhacharita — Vasuvandhu
III. Mudrarakshasha — Vishakhadatta
IV. Harshacharita — Banabhatta
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes:
(a) I, II, III and IV
(b) I, III and IV
(c) I and IV
(d) II and III

Q72. Forest areas have been labelled as 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the rough

outline map given:

Among these, those which were threatened in 1997 by a serious

epidemic include
(a) teak forests of 3 and 4
(b) oaks forests of 1 and sal forests of 2
(c) sal forests of 3
(d) sandalwood forests of 4

Q73. Simon Commission of 1927 was boycotted because

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(a) there was no Indian Member in the Commission

(b) it supported the Muslim League
(c) Congress felt that the people of India are entitled to Swaraj
(d) there were differences among the members

Q74. The Indian Muslims, in general, were not attracted to the

Extremist movement because of the
(a) influence of Sir Sayyid Ahmed Khan
(b) anti­Muslim attitude of extremist leaders
(c) indifference shown to Muslim aspirations
(d) Extremists’ policy of harping on Hindu past

Q75. Commercial production of mineral oil has started recently in

which one of the areas of India, labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the rough
map given below :

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Q76. The banks are required to maintain a certain ratio between

their cash in hand and total assets. This is called
(a) SBR (Statutory Bank Ratio)
(b) SLR (Statutory Liquid Ratio)
(c) CBR (Central Bank Reserve)
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(d) CLR (Central Liquid Reserve)

Q77. What is the correct chronological order in which the following

appeared in India ?
I. Gold coins
II. Punch­marked silver coins
III. Iron plough
IV. Urban culture
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) III, IV, I, II
(b) III, IV, II, I
(c) IV, III, I, II
(d) IV, III, II, I

Q78. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists :
List I List II
(Minerals) (Mining area)
I. Graphite (A) Bellary
II. Lead (B) Didwana
III. Salt (C) Rampa
IV. Silver (D) Zawar

Codes:
(a) I­C, II­D, III­A, IV­B
(b) I­A, II­D, III­B, IV­C
(c) I­C, II­A, III­D, IV­B
(d) I­B, II­C, III­A, IV­D

Q79. Which one of the following events, was characterised by

Montague as ‘Preventive Murder’ ?
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(a) Killing of INA activists

(b) Massacre of Jallianwalla Bagh
(c) Shooting of the Mahatma
(d) Shooting of Curzon­Wythe

Q80. Fawazil in the Sultanate period meant

(a) extra payment made to the nobles
(b) revenue assigned in lieu of salary
(c) excess amount paid to the exchequer by the iqtadars
(d) illegal exactions extracted from the peasants

Q81. The discovery of Oak flora in 1966 added a new chapter to the
history of Indian Sericulture. Which one of the following states is the
leading producer of Oak tasar silk ?
(a) Assam
(b) Bihar
(c) Manipur
(d) Orissa

Q82. What is the correct sequence of the following events ?

I. The August Offer
II. The I.N.A. trial
III. The Quit India Movement
IV. The Royal Indian Naval Ratings’ Revolt
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) I, III, II, IV
(b) III, I, II, IV
(c) I, III, IV, II
(d) III, I, IV, II

Q83. Nobel Prize in Economics for the year 1997 was awarded for
contribution in the area of
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(a) International Economics

(b) Financial Economics
(c) Public Economics
(d) Development Economics

Q84. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists :
List I List II
(Places) (Industries)
I. Jamnagar (A) Aluminium
II. Hospet (B) Woollen Textile
III. Korba (C) Fertilizers
IV. Haldia (D) Cement
(E) Iron and Steel

Codes:
(a) I­D, II­C, III­A, IV­B
(b) I­B, II­E, III­A, IV­C
(c) I­D, II­E, III­B, IV­A
(d) I­B, II­A, III­D, IV­C

Q85. Which one of the following defines extremist ideology during

the early phase of Indian freedom movement ?
(a) Stimulating the production of indigenous articles by giving them
preference over imported commodities
(b) Obtaining self­government by aggressive means in place of
petitions and constitutional ways
(c) Providing national education according to the requirements of the
country
(d) Organising coups against the British empire through military
revolt

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Q86. In the vicinity of Mumbai, a number of specialised towns have

been developed. Match the lists of specialisation with towns and
select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
(Towns) (Specialisation)
I. Alibag (A) Fishing Centre
II. Balapur (B) Holiday resort
III. Nhava Sheva (C) Petro­chemical complex
IV. Ratnagiri (D) Port

Codes:
(a) I­A, II­C, III­B, IV­D
(b) I­B, II­C, III­D, IV­A
(c) I­C, II­D, III­B, IV­A
(d) I­B, II­A, III­D, IV­C

Q87. The accounting year of the Reserve Bank of India is

(a) April­March
(b) July­June
(c) October­September
(d) January­December

Q88. The Sultan of Delhi who is reputed to have built the biggest
network of canals in India was
(a) Iltutmish
(b) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(c) Feroz Shah Tughlaq
(d) Sikandar Lodi

Q89. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?

I. Theodore Beck : Mohammadan Anglo­Oriental College, Aligarh
II. Ilbert Bill : Ripon
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III. Pherozesha : Indian National Mehta Congress

IV. Badruddin Tyabji : Muslim League
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) I, II, III and IV
(b) II and lV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I, II and III

Q90. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the lists :
List I List II
(Agricultural products) (Foremost producer)
I. Cotton (A) Madhya Pradesh
II. Gram (B) Gujarat
III. Black pepper (C) West Bengal
IV. Pineapple (D) Kerala

Codes:
(a) I­B, II­A, III­D, IV­C
(b) I­B, II­A, III­C, IV­D
(c) I­A, II­B, III­D, IV­C
(d) I­A, II­B, III­C, IV­D

Q91. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of

decreasing order of the given currencies in terms of their value in
Indian Rupees ?
(a) US dollar, Canadian dollar, New Zealand dollar, Hong Kong
dollar
(b) US dollar, New Zealand dollar, Canadian dollar, Hong Kong
dollar
(c) US dollar, Hong Kong dollar, New Zealand dollar, Canadian
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dollar
(d) US dollar, Hong Kong dollar, Canadian dollar, New Zealand
dollar

Q92. ‘Eco mark’ is given to the Indian products that are

(a) pure and unadulterated
(b) rich in proteins
(c) environment friendly
(d) economically viable

Q93. Capital Account Convertibility of the Indian Rupee implies

(a) that the Indian Rupee can be exchanged by the authorised
dealers for travel
(b) that the Indian Rupee can be exchanged for any major currency
for the purpose of trade in goods and services
(c) that the Indian Rupee can be exchanged for any major currency
for the purpose of trading financial assets
(d) None of the above

Q94. What are the official languages of the U.N.O. ?

(a) English, French and Russian
(b) English, French, German and Russian
(c) English, French, Russian, Chinese and Hindi
(d) English, French, Chinese, Russian, Arabian and Spanish

Q95. The rough outline map given shows centres of cement industry
labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4. Match these centres with the following sets of
names :

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Names
(A) Katni
(B) Tirunelveli
(C) Sikka
(D) Churk
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) A­3, B­4, C­2, D­1
(b) A­2, B­4, C­1, D­3
(c) A­1, B­2, C­4, D­3
(d) A­2, B­3. C­1, D­4

Q 96. “The Congress is tottering to its fall and one of my great

ambitions while in India, is to assist it to a peaceful demise.” This
statement is attributed to
(a) Lord Dufferin
(b) Lord Curzon
(c) Lord Lytton
(d) None of the above

Q97. Economic Survey in India is published officially, every year by

the
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Planning Commission of India
(c) Ministry of Finance, Government of India
(d) Ministry of Industries, Government of India

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Q98. Which one of the following ports shown on the rough outline
map of India is a riverine port ?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Q99. Who was the leader of the Ghaddar Party?

(a) Bhagat Singh
(b) Lala Hardayal
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(d) V. D. Savarkar

Q100. Which of the following Parties were not a part of the United
Front which was in power during ‘96­97’ ?
I. Bahujan Samaj Party
II. Samata Party
III. Haryana Vikas Party
IV. Asom Gana Parishad
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes :
(a) I, II, III and IV
(b) I, II and III

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(c) III and IV

(d) I and II

Q101. World Environment Conference to discuss global warming

was held in 1997 in
(a) Stockholm
(b) Rio de janeiro
(c) Paris
(d) Kyoto

Q102. The water pollution in river is measured by the dissolved

amount of
(a) Chlorine
(b) Ozone
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Oxygen

Q103. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
I. Potassium bromide (A) Fertiliser
II. Potassium nitrate (B) Photography
III. Potassium sulphate (C) Bakery
IV. Mono­potassium tartarate (D) Gunpowder

Codes:
(a) I­B, II­D, III­A, IV­C
(b) I­B, II­D, III­C, IV­A
(c) I­D, II­B, III­C, IV­A
(d) I­D, II­B, III­A, IV­C

Q104. Which one of the following elements is essential for the

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construction of nuclear reactors ?

(a) Cobalt
(b) Nickel
(c) Zirconium
(d) Tungsten

Q105. Consider the following statements regarding asteroids :

I. Asteroids are rocky debris of varying sizes orbiting the Sun.
II. Most of the asteroids are small but some have diameter as large
as 1000 km.
III. The orbit of asteroids lies between the orbits of Jupiter and
Saturn.
Of these statements :
(a) I, II and III are correct
(b) II and III are correct
(c) I and II are correct
(d) I and III are correct

Q106. Consider the following statements :

Coke is one of the materials of the charge added to blast furnace for
the production of steel/iron. Its function is to
I. act as a reducing agent.
II. remove silica associated with the iron ore.
III. function as fuel, to supply heat.
IV. act as an oxidizing agent.
Of these statements:
(a) I and II are correct
(b) II and IV are correct
(c) I and III are correct
(d) III and IV are correct

Q107. Which one of the following metals does not form amalgams ?
(a) Zinc
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(b) Copper
(c) Magnesium
(d) Iron

Q108. A fuse is used in main electric supply as a safety device.

Which one of the following statements about the fuse is correct?
(a) It is connected in parallel with the main switch
(b) It is made mainly from silver alloys
(c) It must have a low melting point
(d) It must have a very high resistance

Q109. The correct sequence of different layers of the atmosphere

from the surface of the Earth upwards is
(a) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Ionosphere, Mesosphere
(b) Stratosphere, Troposphere, Ionosphere, Mesosphere
(c) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Ionosphere
(d) Stratosphere, Troposphere, Mesosphere, Ionosphere

Q110. Consumption of fish is considered to be healthy when

compared to flesh of other animals because fish contains
(a) polyunsaturated fatty acids
(b) saturated fatty acids
(c) essential vitamins
(d) more carbohydrates and proteins

Q111. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
(Disease) (Organism)
I. Malaria (A) Fungi
II. Poliomyelitis (B) Bacteria
III. Tuberculosis (C) Virus

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IV. Ringworm (D) Protozoan

Codes:
(a) I­D, II­C, III­B, IV­A
(b) I­D, II­C, III­A, IV­B
(c) I­C, II­D, III­A, IV­B
(d) I­C, II­D, III­B, IV­A

Q112. Haemophilia is a genetic disorder which leads to

(a) decrease in haemoglobin level
(b) rheumatic heart disease
(c) decrease in WBC
(d) non­clotting of blood

Q113. Consider the following statements about acetylene :

I. It is used in welding industry.
II. It is raw material for preparing plastics.
III. It is easily obtained by mixing silicon carbide and water.
Of these statements :
(a) I and II are correct
(b) I and III are correct
(c) II and III are correct
(d) I, II and III are correct

Q114. A ball is dropped from the top of a high building with a

constant acceleration of 9.8 m/s2. What will be its velocity after 3
seconds ?
(a) 9.8 m/s
(b) 19.6 m/s
(c) 29.4 m/s
(d) 39.2 m/s

Q115. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using
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the codes given below the lists :

List I List II
(Special Characteristic) (Name of Planet)
I. Farthest planet from the sun (A) Mercury
II. Largest planet of the solar system (B) Venus
III. Planet second from the Sun in the solar system (C) Jupiter
IV. Planet nearest to the Sun (D) Pluto
(E) Saturn

Codes:
(a) I­B, II­C, III­E, IV­A
(b) I­C, II­E, III­A, IV­B
(c) I­D, II­A, III­B, IV­C
(d) I­D, II­C, III­B, IV­A

Q116. Which one of the following types of micro­organisms is most

widely used in industries ?
(a) Bacteria
(b) Bacteria and fungi
(c) Bacteria and algae
(d) Bacteria, micro­algae and fungi

Q117. Match the names of outstanding Indian scientists given in List

I with area of their specialised work given in List II and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
I. Dr. Raja Ramanna (A) Plant Chemistry
II. Dr. M.S. Swaminathan (B) Nuclear Physics
III. Prof. U.R. Rao (C) Thermodynamics and astrophysics
IV. Prof. Meghnad Saha (D) Space research
(E) Agricultural sciences
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Codes:
(a) I­C, II­E, III­B, IV­A
(b) I­B, II­A, III­D, IV­C
(c) I­B, II­E, III­D, IV­C
(d) I­C, II­A, III­D, IV­B

Q118. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
I. Fruit (A) Ovule
II. Seed (B) Leaf
III. Wood (C) Stem
IV. Starch (D) Ovary

Codes:
(a) I­B, II­A, III­C, IV­D
(b) I­D, II­A, III­C, IV­B
(c) I­B, II­C, III­A, IV­D
(d) I­D, II­C, III­A, IV­B

Q119. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
I. Theory of Mutation (A) Beadk and Tatum
II. Theory of Evolution (B) Jacob and Monod
III. One gene one enzyme hypothesis (C) Darwin
IV. Operon concept (D) De Vries

Codes:
(a) I­C, II­D, III­A, IV­B

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(b) I­D, II­C, III­A, IV­B

(c) I­D, II­C, III­B, IV­A
(d) I­C, II­D, III­B, IV­A

Q120. A tree species in Mauritius failed to reproduce because of the

extinction of a fruit­eating bird. Which one of the following was that
bird ?
(a) Dove
(b) Dodo
(c) Condor
(d) Skua

Q121. Which one of the following statements regarding starch and

cellulose is not correct ?
(a) Both of them are of plant origin
(b) Both of them are polymers
(c) Both of them give colour with iodine
(d) Both of them are made up of glucose molecules

Q122. Ergotism is due to consumption of

(a) contaminated grains
(b) rotting vegetables
(c) contaminated water
(d) stale cooked food

Q123. The complete conversion of glucose In the presence of

oxygen into carbon dioxide and water with release of energy is
called
(a) aerobic respiration
(b) anaerobic respiration
(c) glycolysis
(d) hydrolysis

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Q124. The major chemical compound found in human kidney stones

is
(a) Uric acid
(b) Calcium carbonate
(c) Calcium oxalate
(d) Calcium sulphate

Q125. One Astronomical Unit is the average distance between

(a) Earth and the Sun
(b) Earth and the Moon
(c) Jupiter and the Sun
(d) Pluto and the Sun

Q126. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the lists :
List I List II
I. Blue vitriol (A) Sodium bicarbonate
II. Epsom salt (B) Sodium hydroxide
III. Baking soda (C) Magnesium sulphate
IV. Caustic soda (D) Copper sulphate

Codes:
(a) I­C, II­D, III­B, IV­A
(b) I­D, II­C, III­C, IV­A
(c) I­C, II­D, III­A, IV­B
(d) I­D, II­C, III­A, IV­B

Q127. Assertion (A) :

Formic acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid.
Reason (R):
Formic acid is ah organic acid.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

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(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A

(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

Q128. Assertion (A) :

The temperature of a metal wire rises when an electric current is
passed through it.
Reason (R):
Collision of metal atoms with each other releases heat energy.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

Q129. Assertion (A) :

Phenyl is used as a household germicide.
Reason (R):
Phenyl is a phenol derivative and phenol is an effective germicide.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

Q130. Assertion (A) :

Sodium metal is stored under kerosene.
Reason (R):
Metallic sodium melts when exposed to air.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

Q131. The misery index is the sum of a country’s unemployment

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and inflation rate. The higher the index, the more miserable is the
country to live in. The figure given below is the Misery Index for
various countries in Europe :

Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the misery

index given above ?
I. Britain is the most miserable country to live in.
II. The inflation rate in Spain is less than that in Belgium and Britain.
III. Italy and France seem to have almost identical unemployment
rate.
IV. The higher the misery index, the higher the inflation rate.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) I alone
(b) II and III
(c) I, II, III and IV
(d) None of the above

Q132.
Production of Rice and Wheat
(In millions of Tonnes)
Year Rice Wheat Percentage of Wheat to Rice
1950­51 20.58 6.46 31.4
1960­61 34.58 11.00 31.8

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1970­71 42.22 23.83 56.4

1980­81 53.63 36.31 67.7
1990­91 74.29 55.14 74.2
1994­95 81.81 65.77 80.4
1995­96 79.62 62.62 78.6

The above table indicates the performance of India in rice and wheat
production from 1950­51 to 1995­96. Which of the following
conclusions arrived at from the above table would be valid ?
I. Record production of rice as well as wheat has been in 1994­95.
II. The ratio of wheat to rice production seems to have steadily
increased over 16 years.
III. Wheat has not been popular among the Indian population before
1980.
IV. India became self­sufficient in rice and wheat only after 1990.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) I and II
(b) I, II, III and IV
(c) III and IV
(d) None of the above

Q133. LMNOP, is a semi­circle with centre at R and diameter LP,

LSR and RQP are also semi­circles with centres at T and U and
diameters LR = RP = 1/2 LP. The ratio of perimeters of LMNOP and
LSRQP is

(a) 0.75 : 1
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(b) 1 : 1
(c) 1 : 0.75
(d) 1.25 : 1

Q134. A man purchases two clocks A and B at a total cost of Rs.

650. He sells A with 20% profit and B at a loss of 25% and gets the
same selling price for both the clocks. What are the purchasing
prices of A and B respectively ?
(a) Rs. 225; Rs. 425
(b) Rs. 250; Rs. 400
(c) Rs. 275; Rs. 375
(d) Rs. 300; Rs. 350

Q135. If 15 pumps of equal capacity can fill a tank in 7 days, then

how many extra pumps will be required to fill the tank in 5 days?
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 14
(d) 21

Q131. Out of the three annual examinations, each with a total of 500
marks, a student secured average marks of 45% and 55% in the first
and second annual examinations. To have an overall average of
60%, how many marks does the student need to secure in the third
annual examination ?
(a) 450
(b) 400
(c) 350
(d) 300

Q137. Which one of the following satisfies the relationship

Dda:aDD::Rrb:?
(a) D D A
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(b) R R R
(c) b R R
(d) B B r

Q138. A square pond has 2m sides and is 1m deep. If it is to be

enlarged, the depth remaining the same, into a circular pond with
the diagonal of the square as diameter as shown in the figure, then
what would be the volume of earth to be removed?

(a) (2p ­ 4) m3
(b) (4p ­ 4) m3
(c) (4p ­ 2) m3
(d) (2p ­ 2) m3

Q139. One local and another express train were proceeding in the
same direction on parallel tracks at 29 km/hour and 65 km/hour
respectively. The driver of the former noticed that it took exactly 16
seconds for the faster train to pass by him. What is the length of the
faster train?
(a) 60 m
(b) 120 m
(c) 160 m
(d) 240 m

Q140. A, B, C, D, E and F, not necessarily in that order are sitting on

six chairs regularly placed around a round table. It is observed that
A is between D and F,
C is opposite D,
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and D and E are not on neighbouring chairs.

Which one of the following pairs must be sitting on neighbouring
chairs ?
(a) A and B
(b) C and E
(c) B and F
(d) A and C

Q141. If in a certain code SAND is VDQG and BIRD is ELUG, then

what is the code for LOVE ?
(a) PRYG
(b) ORTG
(c) NPUH
(d) ORYH

Q142. In a family, a couple has a son and a daughter. The age of

the father is three times that of his daughter and the age of the son
is half of his mother. The wife is nine years younger to her husband
and the brother is seven years older than his sister. What is the age
of the mother ?
(a) 40 years
(b) 45 years
(c) 50 years
(d) 60 years

Q143. The missing fraction in the series given below is :

a) 17/40
b) 19/42
c) 20/45

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d) 29/5

Q144. There are 50 students admitted to a nursery class. Some

students can speak only English and some can speak only Hindi. 10
students can speak both English and Hindi. If the number of
students who can speak English is 21, then how many students can
speak Hindi, how many can speak only Hindi and how many can
speak only English ?
(a) 21, 11 and 29 respectively
(b) 28, 18 and 22 respectively
(c) 37, 27 and 13 respectively
(d) 39, 29 and 11 respectively

Q145. An accurate clock shows the time as 3.00. After hour hand
has moved 135°, the time would be
(a) 7.30
(b) 6.30
(c) 8.00
(d) 9.30

Q146. The current price index (base 1960) is nearly 330. This
means that
(a) all items cost 3.3 times more than what they did in 1960
(b) the prices of certain selected items have gone upto 3.3 times
(c) weighted mean of prices of certain items has increased 3.3 times
(d) gold price has gone up 3.3 times

Q147.

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In above set of figures (I) to (IV), some parts are shown to change
their position in a regular direction. Following the same sequence,
which one of the following will appear at the fifth stage?

Q148. Examine the following statements :

I. All members of Mohan’s family are honest.
II. Some members of Mohan’s family are not employed.
III. Some employed persons are not honest.
IV. Some honest persons are not employed.
Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above
statements ?
(a) All members of Mohan’s family are employed
(b) The employed members of Mohan’s family are honest
(c) The honest members of Mohan’s family are not employed
(d) The employed members of Mohan’s family are not honest

Q149. In a dinner party both fish and meat were served. Some took
only fish and some only meat. There were some vegetarians who
did not accept either. The rest accepted both fish and meat. Which
one of the following logic diagrams correctly reflects the above
situation ?

Q150. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are members of a family consisting of

4 adults and 3 children, two of whom, F and G are girls, A and D are
brothers and A is a doctor. E is an engineer married to one of the
brothers and has two children. B is married to D and G is their child.
Who is C ?
(a) G’s brother
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(b) F’s father

(c) E’s daughter
(d) A’s son

Answers ­ 1998 UPSC Civil Services / IAS Preliminary General

Studies
1. C 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. D 8. C 9. D 10. B
11. C 12. C 13. A 14. D 15. D 16. B 17. A 18. B 19. A 20. A
21. D 22. D 23. A 24. D 25. C 26. C 27. A 28. A 29. A 30. D
31. A 32. B 33. A 34. C 35. A 36. C 37. A 38. B 39. B 40. C
41. A 42. B 43. A 44. B 45. D 46. A 47. D 48. C 49. B 50. B
51. B 52. C 53. D 54. A 55. A 56. D 57. D 58. C 59. D 60. D
61. C 62. D 63. D 64. A 65. C 66. C 67. B 68. D 69. D 70. D
71. B 72. C 73. A 74. D 75. A 76. B 77. D 78. B 79. B 80. C
81. A 82. A 83. D 84. B 85. B 86. B 87. B 88. C 89. D 90. A
91. A 92. C 93. B 94. D 95. B 96. B 97. C 98. D 99. B 100.
B
101. 102. 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. 109. 110.
D D A C C C D C C A
111. 112. 113. 114. 115. 116. 117. 118. 119. 120.
A D A C D D C B B B
121. 122. 123. 124. 125. 126. 127. 128. 129. 130.
C A A C A D B C A C
131. 132. 133. 134. 135. 136. 137. 138. 139. 140.
B A B B A B C A C B
141. 142. 143. 144. 145. 146. 147. 148. 149. 150.
D C B D A C C B A D

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