Part One: Multiple Choice Questions (50 questions, 70 marks)

Note: Encircle the most appropriate answer

Q1. All of the following statements about the mechanism of action of

Clozapine are true, except:

a. The blockade of dopamine2-receptors is strong.

b. The blockade of serotonin-receptors is strong.

c. It causes blockade of acetylcholine and alpha1-receptors.

d. It causes blockade of histamine receptors.

e. It causes less extra pyramidal adverse effects.

Q2. All of the following statements about the clinical uses of

Conventional neuroleptic agents are true, except:

a. Tourestte's syndrome.

b. Dementia.

c. Used alone as first choice for the treatment of manic compulsive illness.

d. Delusion disorders.

e. Relieve symptoms of Huntington's syndrome.

Q3. All of the following statements about the adverse effects of Phenytoin
are true, except:

a. Gingival hyperplasia.

b. It causes bleeding tendency in newborn babies.

c. It causes hirsutism especially in young women.

d. It causes rickets and osteomalacia due to interference with vitamin D

metabolism.

e. It causes nystagmus at low therapeutic drug level.

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Q4. With regard to Tetracyclines, all the followings are true, except:

a. It act on the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosomes.

b. Doxycycline is useful in eradicating meningiococcal carrier state.

c. All crosses the placental barrier.

d. Doxycycline is a member of the long- acting tetracyclines.

e. Doxycycline can be used in treating infections in renally compromised

patients.

Q5. With regard to Clindamycin, all the followings are true, except:

a. It binds to the 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosomes.

b. Its antibacterial spectrum is almost similar to that of erythromycin.

c. It is effective against anaerobic bacteria.

d. It should not be used with aminoglycosides or cephalosporins.

e. It is effective in staphococcol bone and joint infections.

Q6. With regard to Quinolones, all the followings are true ,except:

a. They are bactericidal agents.

b. The volume of distribution of quinolones is high .

c. Several intracellular bacteria are inhibited by fluoroquinolones.

d. They have poor absorption after oral administration.

e. Quinolones concentration in the CSF are lower than in the serum.

Q7. With regard to INH, all the followings are true, except:

a. It is introduced in 1952.

b. It is the most active drug for the treatment of tuberculosis.

c. It is unable to penetrate into phagocytic cells.

d. Diabetic patients taking it should monitor their blood glucose level.

e. It act by inhibiting synthesis of mycolic acid in the bacterial cell wall.

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Q8. With regard to Aminoglycosides, all the followings are true, except:

a. All are water soluble drugs.

b. They act by binding to the 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosomes.

c. Amikacin and netilmicin are not affected by bacterial inactivating enzymes.

d. They have poor activity when given alone against streptococcal infection.

e. Gentamicin, framycetin and neomycin can be applied topically.

Q9. With regard to Aminoglycosides, all the followings are true, except:

a. Kanamycin can cause vestibular toxicity more than cochlear toxicity.

b. They can cause N-M blockade that can be reversed by neostigmine.

c. Patients with ascites or pleural effusion were more liable to nephrotoxicity

d. They can cause peripheral neuropathy.

e. The cochlear toxicity manifested as headache followed by acute stage

toxicity and then chronic stage toxicity.

Q10. With regard to Metronidazole, all the followings are true, except:

a. It is a bacteriostatic drug.

b. Act by binding to DNA and prevent nucleic acid formation.

c. Well-absorbed after oral or rectal administration.

d. It should not be used in therapy of lung abscess.

e. It is effective in therapy of pseudomembraneous colitis.

Q11. With regard to Amphotericin-B, all the followings are true, except:

a. Well absorbed orally.

b. It is effective for fungal infection of the GIT.

c. Highly bound to plasma protein.

d. Metabolized in the liver.

e. t½ up to 15 days.

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Q12. With regard to Fluconazole, all the followings are tru,e except:

a. Completely absorbed from GIT.

b. Bioavailability is not affected by food.

c. Well-penetration through blood-brain barrier.

d. Excreted mainly by the liver.

e. It is the drug of choice for cryptococcal meningitis.

Q13. With regard to Anti-TB therapy, all the followings are true, except:

a. Rifampicin bactericidal efficacy is about that of INH.

b. Rifampicin have a wide penetration to tissues.

c. Rifampicin can made oral hormonal contraceptive pills less effective.

d. Pyrazinamide act by inhibiting mycolic acid synthesis.

e. Pyrazinamide can cause hyperuricemia by increasing uric acid production.

Q14.All of the following statements regarding Ampicillin are true, except:

a. It causes pseudomembranous colitis.

b. Eradicates most strains of MRSA.

c. Its antibacterial activity is enhanced by addition of sulbactam.

d. It is not completely absorbed.

e. None of the above.

Q15. Which one of the following drugs is gastric acid resistant?

a. Penicillin G.

b. Penicillin V.

c. Ureidopenicillins.

d. Procaine penicillin.

e. All of the above.

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Q16. Which one of the following drugs is precipitated with calcium in both
lung and kidney of the term and premature neonates?

a. Cefamandole.
b. Cefoperazone.
c. Ceftriaxone.
d. Cefotaxime.
e. Cefixime.

Q17. Which one of the followings is a prophylactic agent that appear to

stabilize mast cell ?

a. Aminophylline
b. Epinephrine
c. Ipratropium
d. Prednisone
e. Cromolyn

Q18.Which one of the following drugs is a very Long acting beta2-

selective agonist used for prolonged prophylaxis of asthma ?

a. Aminophylline
b. Cromolyn
c. Epinephrine
d. Salmeterol
e. Zileuton

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Q19. A 30- years old male patient who is HIV +ve ,his treatment
involve a 3-drug antiviral regimen (zidovudine, didanosine, &ritonavir)
with ketoconazol for oral candidiasis. Preliminary diagnosis is made of
acute pancreatitis ,if this diagnosis is true ,the drug most likely to be
responsible is:

a. Didanosine

b. ketoconazole

c. Saquinavir

d. Zidovudine

e. Ritonavir

Q20. A 27-year-old nursing mother is diagnosed as suffering from

genital herpes. She has a history of this viral infection previously
responded to a drug used topically, which of the following drugs is most
likely to be prescribed at this time ?

a. Acyclovir

b. Amantadine

c. Foscarnet

d. Ritonavir

e. Trifluridine

Q21. Hypokalemia is a well known adverse reaction of the following

diuretics except:

a. Furosemide.
b. Indapamide.
c. Chlorthalidone.
d. Amiloride.
e. Bendrofluazide.

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Q22.The most commonly prescribed diuretic drug in hepatic ascites is:

a. Hydrochlorothiazide.
b. Ethacrynic acid.
c. Spironolactone.
d. Acetazolamide.
e. Indapamide.

Q23.Which one of the following diuretics can increase the renal calcium
loss?

a. Amiloride.
b. Hydrochlorothiazide.
c. Furosemide.
d. Indapamide.
e. b &d.
Q24.All the following statements concerning antimicrobial drugs are
correct except:

a. An antibiotic is a naturally produced substance.

b. Bactericidal antimicrobials are always superior to Bacteriostatic drugs.
c. Combinations can be used to minimize resistance.
d. Resistance to antimicrobials can be mediated by transmission of gens.
e. Resistance can be limited by minimizing the use of new drugs.

Q25.The most commonly encountered adverse reaction to Erythromycin

estolate is:

a. Hypersensitivity reaction.
b. Cholestatic hepatitis.
c. Gastro-intestinal upset.
d. Blood dyscrasia.
e. Cardiac arrhythmia.

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Q26.All the following statements concerning Telithromycin are correct
except:

a. It is a semi-synthetic drug.
b. It can be used for treatment of bacterial sinusitis and acute exacerbation
of chronic bronchitis.
c. It binds to 50s ribosomal subunit.
d. Liver damage is a well documented adverse reaction of the drug.
e. It's relatively long half life permits once daily dosing.

Q27. Which one of the following adrenergic drug is an Indirect-acting ?

a. Pargyline.
b. Epinephrine.
c. Ephedrin.
d. Terbutaline.
e. a & b.

Q28. The following clinical uses are related to Alpha-1adrenergic

receptor activation, except:

a. Hemostasis.

b. Nasal decongestion.

c. Blood pressure elevation.

d. Miosis.

e. Adjunct to local anesthesia.

Q29. All of the following drugs can cause Dependence, except:

a. Morphine.

b. Amphetamine.

c. Diazepam.

d. Cocaine.

e. Valsartan.

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Q30. Which one of the following Antihistamines is a second generation
one?

a. Fexofenadine.

b. Diphenhydramine.

c. Cyclizine.

d. Cyproheptadine.

e. a & b.

Q31. Which one of the following drugs is Serotonine-receptor

antagonist?

a. Ketanserine.

b. Aliskirine.

c. Chlorpheniramine.

d. Diphenhydramine.

e. a & c.

Q32. All of the following statements regarding Desferrioxamine are true,

except:

a. Useful in acute iron poisoning treatment.

b. Too rapid infusion can result in hypotension.
c. Anaphylactic reaction is an uncommon adverse effect.
d. Chronic use can cause epilepsy.
e. It is preferable for long term thalassemia treatment.

Q33. Which one of the following drugs can result in Folate deficiency?

a. Carbamazipine .

b. Cisplatine.

c. Pyrimethamine.

d. Carbidopa.

e. a &b .

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Q34. The following statements regarding Warfarine are incorrect,
except:

a. Bleeding duodenal ulcer is an absolute contraindication to its use.

b. Ciprofloxacine may decrease anticoagulant function of warfarine.

c. Rifampicine may increase anticoagulant function of warfarine.

d. Skeletal abnormality of embryo may be seen if it is given late in the

pregnancy.

e. Phytate diet may increase the need of warfarine.

Q35. Which one of the following statements regarding uses of

Aminocaproic acid is incorrect?

a. Used after Prostate surgery.

b. Bleeding in the anterior chamber of the eye.

c. Antidote for thrombolytic agents.

d. Orthostatic hypotension is a common adverse effect.

e. Contraindicated in hematuria.

Q36. All of the following statements regarding Sulphonylureas are true,

except:

a. Stimulate insulin release from β-cells of the pancreas.

b. They are not always effective.

c. Their use is associated with weight gain.

d. Glyburide is a first generation agent.

e. They are useful for type П diabetes mellitus.

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Q37. Which one of the following statements regarding Clomifene is true?

a. It is a full agonist at estrogen receptors.

b. It is given in the luteal phase of menstrual cycle.

c. Reversible alopecia is a common adverse effect.

d. Blocks estrogen receptors in the breast.

e. Multiple pregnancies is a rare adverse effect.

Q38. The following adverse effects of Corticosteroids are true, except:

a. Iatrogenic Cushing's syndrome.

b. Osteoporosis.

c. Peptic ulcer disease.

d. Psychosis.

e. Hyperkalemia.

Q39. The following statements regarding Carbimazole are incorrect,

except:

a. Inhibits oxidation and organification of iodine.

b. Preferable during pregenency and breast feeding.

c. Reversible agranulocytosis is not encountered with its use.

d. Clinical improvement is achieved after 1-2 weeks of its use.

e. Can be used as an alternative to radioiodine therapy.

Q40. Which one of the following drugs is a COX-2 inhibitor used for
patients allergic to sulfonamide?

a. Celecoxib.
b. Rofecoxib.
c. Dicolfenac.
d. Ibuprofen.
e. Naproxine.

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Q41. The following antiarrhythmic drugs belong to class I, except:

a. Mexiletine.
b. Propafenone.
c. Disopyramide.
d. Verapamil.
e. Quinidine.

Q42. Which one of the following drugs causes reduction of preload and
afterload?

a. Captopril.
b. Hydralazine.
c. Furosemide.
d. Glyceryl trinitrate.
e. a&c.

Q43. Which one of the following drug combination is contraindicated?

a. Glyceryl trinitrate and Sildenafil.

b. Amoxicillin and Clavulanic acid.
c. Losartan and hydrochlorthiazide.
d. Pyrimethamine and sulfadoxime (Fansidar)
e. a & d.

Q44. All of the following antihypertensive drugs are contraindicated in

patients with bilateral renal artery stenosis, except:

a. Lisinopril.
b. Candesartan.
c. Amlodipine.
d. Aliskirine.
e. Irbesartan.

Q45. Which one of the following drugs can cause Cinchonism?

a. Quinidine.
b. Atenolol.
c. Verapamil.
d. Amiodarone.
e. Flecainide.

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 Q46. Which one of the following drugs need to be tapered gradually?

a. Valsartan.
b. Captopril.
c. Verapamil.
d. Clonidine.
e. Furosemide.

Q47. Which one of the following drugs are preferable in pregnancy-

induced hypertension?

a. Methyldopa.
b. Telmisartan.
c. Enalpril.
d. Atenolol.
e. a &b .

Q48. The following adverse effects are caused by Halothane, except:

a. Hypotension.
b. Respiratory depression.
c. Malignant hypertension.
d. Hepatotoxicity,
e. Photosensitivity.

Q49. The combination of Lidocaine with Adrenaline has the following

advantages, except:

a. Delay systemic absorption.

b. Less amount of lidocaine is needed.
c. Reduce the risk of cardiotoxicity.
d. More active metabolites are formed.
e. Local vasoconstriction.

Q50. Which one of the following drugs is better absorbed with fatty
food:

a. Mefloquine.
b. Atovaquone.
c. Primaquine.
d. Pyrimethamine.
e. a & b.

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Part two: Short Essay Questions (12 questions, 30 marks)
Q1. Mention the mechanism of action & adverse effects of Griseofulvin.

Q2. Mention the clinical uses of Fluoroquinolones.

Q3. Mention the clinical uses of Clindamycin.

Q4.Write the advantages of using combinations in Antibiotic therapy..

Q5. Enumerate drugs effective against Erythrocytic form of malaria.

Q6. Write the mechanism of action of Angiotensin receptor blockers.

Q7. Enumerate the adverse effects of Halothane.

Q8. Enumerate the adverse effects of Heparin.

Q9. Explain why Folic acid supplementation does not provide adequate
treatment of Pernicious anemia?

Q10.Enumerate the side effects of Metformine therapy.

Q11. Write the clinical uses of Progesterone therapy.

Q12. Write the mechanism of action of Organic nitrates.

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