​ What is the term given to any information about the patient’s health status, treatment, or

payment for health care?

A. Private Health Plan
B. Protected Health Information Correct
C. Diagnosis
D. Demographics
​ Which of the following is true of phlebotomy?
A. Phlebotomy equipment has not changed since the original phlebotomists.
B. Phlebotomy is an ancient profession dating back at least 3500 years.
Correct
C. Phlebotomists today draw blood from patients for the same reasons as
ancient phlebotomists.
D. Phlebotomy is a new profession arising during World War II.
​ A successful quality healthcare professional is one who
A. waits for problems to arise versus before they arise.
B. doesn’t get bogged down in the details.
C. exhibits emotional stability. Correct
D. maintains professional aloofness.
​ A duty associated with routine blood collection includes
A. performing complex point-of-care testing.
B. transporting sample to laboratory. Correct
C. ordering tests for patients.
D. setting HIPAA regulations for phlebotomy.
​ Which of the following professionals performs a variety of tasks related to specimen
preparation in the clinical laboratory?
A. Accessioner Correct
B. Laboratory assistant
C. Medical assistant
D. Medical technologist
​ After becoming certified, what is a requirement to maintain that certification?
A. Participate in continuing education programs. Correct
B. Complete a minimum of 500 sticks each year.
C. Take a bi-annual national certification examination.
D. Take an annual phlebotomy course.
​ What does the term phlebotomy actually mean?
A. Incision of a vein Correct
 B. Testing of blood
C. Removal of a vein
D. Withdrawal of red blood cells
​ A phlebotomist must ensure that the patient understands and agrees that his or her
blood is going to be drawn. What is the name of this process?
A. Informed consent Correct
B. Confidentiality
C. Privacy
D. Legality
​ Which of the following terms is evidence that an individual has demonstrated
proficiency in a particular area of practice?
A. Certification Correct
B. Accreditation Incorrect
C. Standardization
D. Approval
​ You have entered a patient’s room and explained that you need to draw blood, and the
patient repeatedly refuses. What should you do?
A. Take the request form back to the laboratory after you have finished
drawing your other patients.
B. Notify the patient’s physician according to the institution’s written policies.
Correct
C. Call for another phlebotomist to help you to convince the patient.
D. Attempt to draw it anyhow because the physician ordered the test.
​ The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 regulates which of the
following areas?
A. Informing patients of intended procedures
B. Health insurance transfers on changing jobs
C. Phlebotomy training
D. Privacy of health information Correct
​ The term informed consent means
A. a patient must be informed of all intended treatments and risks before the
treatment is performed. Correct
B. as long as the patient is informed, he or she cannot refuse a treatment.
C. a patient must inform the physicians concerning what procedures they
need.
D. a nurse informed by the phlebotomist can overrule a patient’s refusal.
​ Which of the following acronyms is not a certification agency for phlebotomists?
A. NAACLS Correct
 B. ASCP
C. ASPT
D. AMT
​ Fiscal services is responsible for:
A. cleaning and maintenance.
B. performing tests.
C. diagnosis and treatment of the patient.
D. admitting, medical records, and billing. Correct
​ In addition to the laboratory, the following department may draw arterial blood gases:
A. physical therapy
B. occupational therapy Incorrect
C. respiratory therapy Correct
D. radiology
​ The following department uses radioisotopes to perform tests:
A. respiratory therapy.
B. cytogenetics.
C. nuclear medicine. Correct
D. hematology.
​ The analytic tool used to identify cell markers in HIV patients is:
A. a syringe.
B. a flow cytometer. Correct
C. an electrolyte.
D. a C&S test. Incorrect
​ The clinical laboratory is typically under the direction of a:
A. pathologist. Correct
B. phlebotomist.
C. pharmacist. Incorrect
D. medical assistant.
​ A CBC is performed in the ____ department.
A. chemistry Incorrect
B. urinalysis
C. serology
D. hematology Correct
​ aPTT testing monitors:
A. chemotherapy
B. physical therapy
C. heparin therapy Correct
 D. warfarin/ coumadin therapy.
​ The type of chemistry test associated with drug analysis is known as:
A. immunology.
B. cardiology.
C. toxicology. Correct
D. electrophoresis.
​ The _____ department identifies pathogenic microorganisms in patient samples.
A. virology
B. microbiology Correct
C. mycology
D. parasitology
​ A C&S test is analyzed in the ______ department.
A. microbiology. Correct
B. chemistry. Incorrect
C. hematology.
D. urinalysis.
​ Occult blood testing is performed on:
A. plasma. Incorrect
B. feces. Correct
C. serum.
D. cerebrospinal fluid.
​ When patients donate their blood for use during their own surgery, this is known as:
A. autologous donation Correct
B. platelet donation.
C. cryoprecipitate donation.
D. fresh frozen plasma donation.
​ Independent laboratories that analyze samples from other healthcare facilities are known as:
A. physician office laboratories. Incorrect
B. urgent care centers.
C. New Choice Correct
D. waived laboratories.
​ CLSI standards are determined and set by
A. volunteer members globally. Correct
B. TJC and CAP inspectors.
C. accreditation agency professionals.
D. pathologists and physicians.
​ What is another name for a reference laboratory?
 A. In-Patient laboratory
B. Private testing laboratory Correct
C. Collection laboratory
D. Physician’s office laboratory
​ The role of Clinical & Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) is to
A. set standards for laboratories to ensure accurate patient results. Correct
B. accredit laboratories.
C. work with CAP to accredit laboratories and hospitals.
​ What is an example of a clerical task?
A. Patient preparation for a UA
B. Obtaining a sample
C. Transporting a specimen
D. Patient registration Correct
​ Which section within the chemistry laboratory identifies unknown drugs within specimens?
A. Electrophoresis
B. Toxicology Correct
C. Endocrinology
D. Immunochemistry
​ Which department within the laboratory performs complete blood counts (CBCs)?
A. Chemistry
B. Microbiology
C. Hematology Correct
D. Immunohematology
​ What are the proteins that help fight infection by binding to surface molecules of the infective
agent?
A. Antibody Correct
B. Agglutinin
C. Antigen Incorrect
D. Aerobe
​ How often do Joint Commission laboratories need to be inspected and accredited?
A. Annually
B. Every 5 years
C. Monthly
D. Every 2 years Correct
​ In addition to the clinical laboratory, which professional service in a hospital may perform
arterial blood gases?
A. Respiratory therapy Correct
 B. Radiology
C. Nuclear medicine
D. Occupational therapy
​ Which of the following agencies provides proficiency testing of unknown samples to
laboratories?
A. CLSI
B. TJC
C. CAP Correct
D. CLIA
​ OSHA stands for:
A. Occupational Standards in Health Associations.
B. Outline of Safety Hazards and Accidents.
C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration. Correct
D. Occupational Standards and Health Administration.
​ When mixing acids and water, you should:
A. add acid to water. Correct
B. add water to acid.
C. never mix acids and water together. Incorrect
D. add equal amounts in an empty container.
​ Chemicals should be:
A. stored above eye level.
B. labeled properly. Correct
C. cleaned up using soap and water.
D. disposed of in the sink.
​ The first action to take in the event of a fire is to:
A. call the fire department.
B. close the windows and doors.
C. remove patients from danger. Correct
D. pull the fire alarm. Incorrect
​ In the event of electric shock, the first thing you should do is:
A. call 911.
B. attempt to turn off the electrical equipment. Correct
C. break contact between the source and the victim. Incorrect
D. start CPR.
​ Class C fires involve:
A. wood.
B. grease or oil.
 C. flammable materials.
D. electrical equipment. Correct
​ Which of the following does the NFPA symbol not warn about?
A. Protective equipment Correct
B. Fire
C. Chemical stability
D. Health Incorrect
​ The first thing to do when giving CPR to a victim is:
A. clear the airway. Incorrect
B. place the victim on a firm, flat surface.
C. begin mouth-to-mouth ventilation.
D. determine whether the victim is conscious. Correct
​ Safety equipment in the laboratory may include:
A. personal protective equipment.
B. an emergency shower.
C. an eyewash station.
D. all of these. Correct
​ An SDS provides information on:
A. sharps. Incorrect
B. patients.
C. chemicals. Correct
D. office procedures.
​ Reaction to latex products may include:
A. irritant contact dermatitis. Incorrect
B. allergic contact dermatitis.
C. anaphylaxis.
D. New Choice Correct
​ The yellow diamond in the NFPA label indicates:
A. health hazards.
B. flammability.
C. reactivity warning. Correct
D. other.
​ What does the red area on the following label represent?

A. Radioactivity
B. Health hazards
C. Flammability Correct
D. Reactivity
​ Which government agency is responsible for laboratory workplace safety?
A. FDA
B. OSHA Correct
C. MSDS
D. CLIA
​ A wet floor is which type of safety hazard?
A. Biological
B. Sharps
C. Chemical
D. Physical Correct
​ Written information about a chemical, its hazards, and procedures for clean-up and first aid
are available in which of the following documents?
A. Safety Data Sheet (SDS) Correct
B. Chemical label
C. OSHA regulations
D. NFPA diamond-shaped label
​ Which type of hazard is indicated by the following label?

A. Flammable
B. Reactivity Incorrect
C. Radioactive Correct
D. Biological
​ Infectious agents such as bacteria and viruses represent which type of safety hazard?
A. Chemical
B. Flammable
C. Biological Correct
D. Physical
​ Which term refers to a rapid, severe, life-threatening immune reaction?
A. Allergic contact dermatitis
B. Anaphylaxis Correct
C. Irritant contact dermatitis
D. Sensitivity
​ Needles and lancets are which type of safety hazard?
A. Physical
B. Electrical
C. Biological
D. Sharps Correct
​ Which of the following is the first action you should take if you splash a chemical in your eye?
A. Flush the eyes for 15 minutes at an eyewash station Correct
B. Go to the emergency department
C. Clean-up the spill on the laboratory counter or floor
D. Report the incident to your supervisor
​ Which of the following is the first action you should take if you have been stuck with a used
needle that has been in contact with blood?
A. Report the injury to your supervisor.
B. Call 911.
C. Flood the exposed area with water. Correct
 D. Seek medical attention.
​ Which of the following would not be considered a pathogen?
A. Bacteria
B. Viruses
C. Fungi
D. Vectors Correct
​ Varicella-zoster is the cause of:
A. syphilis.
B. chickenpox. Correct
C. malaria.
D. hepatitis.
​ HIV is the causative agent of:
A. gonorrhea.
B. food poisoning.
C. AIDS. Correct
D. hepatitis B.
​ Vectors include:
A. doorknobs.
B. medical instruments.
C. needles.
D. New Choice Correct
​ Some types of Escherichia coli are normal flora of the:
A. urinary tract.
B. respiratory tract.
C. colon. Correct
D. circulatory system.
​ The most important way to stop the spread of infection is through:
A. isolation procedures.
B. Standard Precautions.
C. hand hygiene. Correct
D. PPE.
​ In putting on PPE, the first article that is put on is the:
A. mask.
B. face shield.
C. gown. Correct
D. pair of gloves.
​ Which of the following is not an OSHA standard?
 A. All biohazard material must be labeled.
B. Employees must practice Standard Precautions.
C. Employers must have written airborne pathogen exposure control plans in the
workplace. Correct
D. Employers must provide their employees with immunization against HBV free of
charge.
​ Although Standard Precautions apply to all potentially infectious situations, TBPs are chosen
based on:
A. whether isolation is used.
B. the potential means of transmission of the disease or condition. Correct
C. airborne transmission.
D. the risk to the healthcare worker from accidental needle sticks.
​ Ten percent bleach used as a cleaning agent should be made fresh every:
A. week.
B. 3 hours.
C. day. Correct
D. 6 hours.
​ The continious links in the chain of infection are, in order:
A. means of transmission, susceptible host, and source.
B. source, means of transmission, and susceptible host. Correct
C. susceptible host, source, and means of transmission.
D. none of these.
​ The purpose of a protective environment for highly immunosuppressed patients is to:
A. New Choice Correct
B. protect the public from disease.
C. prevent transmission of infection from the patient. Incorrect
D. protect the patient from spores in the environment.
​ What is the term for invasion and growth of a disease-causing microorganism in the human
body?
A. Fomite
B. Infection Correct
C. Pathogen
D. Reservoir
​ What is the term for an object that is contaminated by bacteria?
A. Fomite Correct
B. Host
C. Portal of entry
 D. Reservoir
​ A reservoir is
A. a contaminated piece of equipment.
B. an airborne droplet.
C. a person who carries a disease agent but is not sick. Correct
D. a vector.
​ What is the term for infections contracted by patients during hospitalization?
A. Healthcare-associated Correct
B. Chains of infections
C. Nontransmitted infections Incorrect
D. Colonization
​ HEPA (high-efficiency particulate air) filters can help to prevent which type of disease
transmission?
A. Airborne Correct
B. Common vehicle
C. Contact
D. Vector
​ The pathogen West Nile virus is carried by mosquitoes. What type of transmission is this?
A. Airborne
B. Common vehicle
C. Contact
D. Vector Correct
​ The most frequent and important transmission route for infections contracted by hospitalized
patients is
A. airborne.
B. common vehicle.
C. contact. Correct
D. vector.
​ The transmission route of an infection acquired by ingestion of contaminated food is
A. airborne.
B. common vehicle. Correct
C. contact.
D. vector.
​ What is the single most important means of preventing the spread of infection?
A. Wearing gloves
B. Wearing a mask
C. Hand washing Correct
 D. Isolation of infectious patients
​ Which of the following acronyms/mnemonics refers to barriers used to protect skin, mucous
membranes, and clothing from infectious agents?
A. CDC
B. MRSA
C. PPE Correct
D. VRE
​ Hepato refers to the:
A. liver. Correct
B. kidney.
C. heart.
D. blood.
​ Cyan- refers to
A. red
B. yellow
C. black
D. blue Correct
​ Hemi- means
A. many
B. half Correct
C. whole
D. two
​ -tomy means
A. study of.
B. to cut. Correct
C. shape or form.
D. opening.
​ Anti- means
A. between.
B. among.
C. against. Correct
D. for.
​ Leuko- refers to
A. red.
B. yellow.
C. blue.
D. white. Correct
​ -emia means
A. blood condition. Correct
B. tumor.
C. opening.
D. paralysis.
​ Pulmon refers to the
A. liver
B. lung Correct
C. colon
D. heart
​ Thromb refers to
A. hemolysis
B. clotting Correct
C. lymphostasis
D. tumor
​ Derm refers to
A. death
B. bone
C. skin Correct
D. blood
​ Nephro refers to
A. vein
B. kidney Correct
C. brain
D. lung
​ Cardio refers to
A. heart Correct
B. bone
C. liver
D. skin
​ Heme refers to
A. clot
B. vessel
C. blood Correct
D. joint
​ Erythro refers to
A. black
 B. cell
C. white
D. New Choice Correct
​ Poly- refers to
A. few
B. after
C. inside
D. many Correct
​ -logy refers to
A. form
B. tumor
C. to cut
D. to study Correct
​ -ectomy refers to
A. inflammation
B. surgical removal Correct
C. cut
D. opening
​ Inter- refers to
A. between Correct
B. above
C. within
D. below
​ Intra- refers to
A. same
B. many
C. after
D. within Correct
​ -oma refers to
A. cut
B. tumor Correct
C. disease
D. control
​ -stomy refers to
A. opening Correct
B. cut
C. study
 D. disease
​ Phlebo- refers to
A. capillary
B. artery
C. vein Correct
D. cut
​ Which suffix means “blood condition”?
A. -ectomy
B. -itis
C. -pathy
D. -emia Correct
​ What is the meaning of the root word phleb?
A. Needle
B. Cutting
C. Injecting
D. Vein Correct
​ Which prefix means “decreased”?
A. Anti-
B. Intra-
C. Hyper-
D. Hypo- Correct
​ Which prefix means “black”?
A. Melano- Correct
B. Cyan-
C. Rube-
D. Albi-
​ Which root means “kidney”?
A. Hepat
B. Pneu
C. Nephr Correct
D. Necr
​ What is the medical term for “white blood cell”?
A. Thrombocyte
B. Erythrocyte
C. Cyanosis
D. Leukocyte Correct
​ Which abbreviation means “immediately”?
 A. ER
B. STAT Correct
C. NPO
D. ASAP
​ What does the abbreviation “PRN” mean?
A. As needed (as required) Correct
B. Every night
C. Private duty nurse
D. As soon as possible
​ Which prefix means “blue”?
A. Cyan- Correct
B. Rube-
C. Albi-
D. Melano-
​ What prefix means “increased”?
A. Neo-
B. Dys-
C. Hypo-
D. Hyper- Correct
​ The term to define the overall well-being of the body is
A. hemolysis
B. hemostasis
C. homeostasis Correct
D. hematopoiesis
​ The functional unit of the nervous systems is:
A. nephron.
B. neuron. Correct
C. neoplasm.
D. nurcleus.
​ ATP is found in which part of the cell?
A. Mitochondria Correct
B. Cytoplasm
C. Nucleus
D. Plasma membrane
​ Which type of muscle tissue is involved in hemostasis?
A. Skeletal
B. Smooth Correct
 C. Epithelial
D. Striated
​ Blood is considered which type of tissue?
A. Nerve
B. Connective Correct
C. Muscle
D. Epithelial
​ In which system does hematopoiesis occur?
A. Skeletal Correct
B. Nervous
C. Muscular
D. Digestive
​ Which is not a laboratory test that assesses for muscle disorders?
A. AST
B. Troponin
C. C&S Correct
D. Myoglobin
​ Which is not a laboratory test that assesses for disorders of the integumentary system?
A. C&S
B. KOH prep
C. BUN Correct
D. Skin biopsy
​ Hepatitis involves the
A. heart
B. liver Correct
C. brain
D. ovaries
​ Which laboratory test is not useful in the assessment of liver problems?
A. AST
B. GGT
C. ALP
D. All are important Correct
​ _________ promotes the breakdown of glycogen back to glucose.
A. Insulin
B. Glycagon Correct
C. Thymosin
D. Calcitonin
​ Pancreatitis can be screened for by performing which laboratory test?
A. Amylase Correct
B. CSF
C. Myoglobin
D. Occult blood
​ The functional unit of the kidney is known as the
A. neuron
B. medulla
C. thalamus
D. nephron Correct
​ Microbiology may perform the following laboratory test for urologic disorders:
A. BUN
B. PPD
C. C&S Correct
D. FBS
​ ABGs typically test for
A. digestive disorders Incorrect
B. urinary disorders
C. respiratory disorders Correct
D. muscular disorders
​ The hormone that regulates the amount of calcium and phosphorus in the circulation is:
A. insulin
B. thymosin
C. oxytocin
D. New Choice Correct
​ Which hormone regulates water reabsorption by the kidney?
A. ACTH
B. TSH
C. ADH Correct
D. MSH
​ The hormone that can be detected by early pregnancy tests is:
A. hCG. Correct
B. ADH.
C. GH.
D. MSH.
​ Thyroxine is otherwise known as:
A. T4 Correct
 B. T3
C. TSH
D. T1
​ Hormones are produced by which body system?
A. Integumentary
B. Endocrine Correct
C. DIgestive
D. Respiratory
​ What is the term for a vertical plane dividing the body into right and left sides?
A. Frontal
B. Transverse
C. Sagittal Correct
D. Thoracic
​ The term for a movement that bends a joint:
A. Lateral
B. Extension
C. Flexion Correct
D. Medial
​ Bone is formed by which cells?
A. Lymphoblasts
B. Osteoclasts
C. Myeloblasts
D. Osteoblasts Correct
​ Which anatomic term refers to a person lying on his or her back?
A. Inferior
B. Supine Correct
C. Prone
D. Superior
​ The part of the cell contains most of the DNA:
A. Nucleus Correct
B. Cytoplasm
C. Mitochondria
D. Plasma membrane
​ Muscles attach to bones via which structures?
A. Ligaments
B. Membranes
C. Tendons Correct
 D. Cartilage
​ The body cavity that contains the spleen:
A. Spinal
B. Thoracic
C. Pelvic
D. Abdominal Correct
​ Another name for nonstriated involuntary muscle:
A. Cardiac muscle
B. Skeletal muscle
C. Tissue
D. Smooth muscle Correct
​ Striated involuntary muscle is also known as
A. skeletal muscle.
B. tissue.
C. cardiac muscle. Correct
D. smooth muscle.
​ What are the smallest living units in the body?
A. Cells Correct
B. Organs
C. Systems
D. Tissues
​ In the circulatory system, gas exchange occurs in the:
A. capillaries. Correct
B. veins.
C. arteries.
D. venules.
​ Which blood vessels are a single cell in thicknes?
A. Capillaries Correct
B. Veins
C. Arteries
D. Aterioles
​ Veins and arteries are composed of how many layers?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3 Correct
D. 4
​ A characteristic of arteries is:
 A. they are composed of single layer of endothelial cells.
B. they have a thick muscle layer lining the lumen. Correct
C. they have valves along the lumen.
D. they carry blood toward the heart.
​ An average adult has _____ L of blood.
A. 1 to 2
B. 3 to 4
C. 5 to 6 Correct
D. 7 to 8
​ Plasma constitutes ____% of total blood volume.
A. 45
B. 55 Correct
C. 80
D. New 92
​ Another name for a WBC is:
A. luekocyte. Correct
B. reticulocyte.
C. erthrocyte.
D. electrolyte.
​ The main function of leukocytes is to:
A. transport hemoglobin
B. transport lipids
C. protect the body against infection Correct
D. recycle RBCs
​ Which leukocyte is known as a phagocyte?
A. Lymphocyte
B. Neutrophil Correct
C. Eosinophil
D. Basophil
​ Platelets remain in the circulation for
A. 2 to 5 days.
B. 9 to 12 days. Correct
C. 10 to 20 days.
D. 1 month.
​ Which cellular component is responsible for the transport of hemoglobin?
A. WBCs
B. RBCs Correct
 C. Electrolytes
D. Plasma
​ Which laboratory test does not assist in diagnosing HIV infection?
A. Western blot
B. T-cell count
C. aPTT Correct
D. Anti-HIV antibody
​ A group of inherited disorders marked by increased bleeding times is known as:
A. anemias
B. luekemias
C. polycythemias
D. hemophilias Correct
​ Which organ is not included in the lymphatic system?
A. Liver Correct
B. Spleen
C. Thymus
D. Tonsils
​ Helper T cells are needed to make
A. antigens
B. antibodies Correct
C. cytokines
D. interleukins
​ A nonspecific defense against infectious agents:
A. T-cells
B. Intact skin Correct
C. B-cells
D. Interferon
​ How much water is found in plasma?
A. 25%
B. 55%
C. 10%
D. 90% Correct
​ The process by which blood vessels repair after injury:
A. Thrombophlebitis
B. Inflammation
C. Autoimmunity
D. Hemostasis Correct
​ Which muscle contracts to push blood through the circulatory system?
A. Biceps brachii
B. Triceps brachii
C. Endometrium
D. Myocardium Correct
​ Antigens identified to determine organ transplant compatibility:
A. Interleukins
B. CD4
C. HLA Correct
D. PMN
​ Cells that produce antibodies and are often found in increased numbers in the presence of
viral infection:
A. Monocytes
B. Lymphocytes Correct
C. Neutrophils
D. Erythrocytes
​ The pulmonary circulation carries blood between which two organs?
A. Lungs and brain
B. Heart and lungs Correct
C. Heart and all other body tissues
D. Lungs and all other body tissues
​ Which of the following is a nonspecific immune response?
A. Production of antibodies
B. Inflammation Correct
C. Activation of T-cells
D. Production of memory cells
​ The cephalic, basilic, and median cubital veins are all located in the
A. antecubital fossa of the arm. Correct
B. radial surface of the wrist.
C. anterior surface of the hand.
D. capillary beds of the hand. Incorrect
​ What substance is produced when blood is collected in a tube, allowed to clot, and then
centrifuged?
A. Platelets
B. Serum Correct
C. Plasma
D. Antibodies
​ Which of these practices is NOT recommended during specimen transport?
A. Placing the sample in a leak-proof bag
B. Carrying the specimen upright
C. Carrying the specimen at a 45-degree angle Correct
D. Labeling samples from outside the hospital with a biohazard symbol.
​ Cold agglutinins and cryofibrinogen samples should be
A. chilled before collection.
B. transported on ice to the laboratory.
C. warmed before collection and transported warmed. Correct
D. transported at room temperature.
​ Infant bilirubins are transported:
A. on ice.
B. in amber-colored microtubes. Correct
C. in a heel-warmer packet.
D. without special transport measures.
​ Once a cap is removed from a blood tube, the pH:
A. may decrease
B. may increase Correct
C. will not change
D. becomes alkaline.
​ Which of the following can be centrifuged immediately after collection?
A. Serum separator tubes
B. Clot tubes
C. Thrombin tubes
D. Sodium citrate tubes Correct
​ Which of the following specimens would not be rejected?
A. A CBC collected in a lithium heparin tube
B. An EDTA tube used for a chemistry test
C. A sodium level collected in a sodium heparin tube
D. A cold agglutinin sample transported in a heel-warmer packet. Correct
​ Complete blood clotting may take ____ at room temperature.
A. 10 to 15 minutes.
B. 20 to 30 minutes.
C. 30 to 45 minutes. Correct
D. 1 hour
​ The major risk of stopper removal is
A. glycolysis
 B. hemolysis
C. aerosol Correct
D. clotting
​ Which of the following is used to identify a patient specimen in the laboratory?
A. Name of the collector of the specimen
B. Accession number Correct
C. Specimen type
D. Name of the person depositing specimen in the laboratory
​ Before dividing a 24-hour urine sample into aliquots, what must be done with the sample
first?
A. Mix it and then divide into aliquots as needed.
B. Measure and record the volume of the sample. Correct
C. Add anticoagulant to the container.
D. Place it in the refrigerator for 1 hour.
​ Whole blood specimens collected in EDTA are stable for how long?
A. 24 hours Correct
B. 1 hour
C. 48 hours
D. 12 hours
​ Which of the following tests is most affected by glycolysis in the tube after collection?
A. Glucose Correct
B. Hemoglobin
C. Potassium
D. APTT
​ According to CLSI, what is the maximum amount of time that may be allowed to elapse
between collection of a blood sample and separation of cells from plasma or serum?
A. 2 hours Correct
B. 30 minutes
C. 12 hours
D. 24 hours
​ What specimen would not meet requirements and is likely to be rejected from the laboratory?
A. A urine specimen for C&S collected in a clean container Correct
B. Sending a light blue tube with 1 part additive and 9 parts blood
C. Specimen for cold agglutinin testing maintained in a warm environment
D. Collecting a CBC in an EDTA tube
​ The phlebotomist had difficulty getting an EDTA tube for a CBC and sed rate. Two underfilled
tubes were collected. The phlebotomist should
 A. reject at bedside and redraw the patient. Correct
B. mix the two tube volumes to get one full tube.
C. take to the lab to see if they QNS the specimens.
D. perform a dermal puncture.
​ Which of the following problems with a blood sample may be caused by extremes of
temperature?
A. Glycolysis
B. Hemoconcentration
C. Hemolysis Correct
D. Clotting
​ What notation is used to indicate that the sample volume is insufficient for testing?
A. VIS
B. QNS Correct
C. EDTA
D. IFT
​ Which of the following is the term for the metabolic breakdown of sugar within cells?
A. Glucolysis
B. Glycolysis Correct
C. Glycosuria
D. Glucagon
​ How many times should tubes with additives be inverted after collection?
A. 1–5
B. 5–10 Correct
C. 10–15
D. None
​ The percentage of packed RBCs in a volume of blood is known as the
A. Hgb.
B. RBC count.
C. packed cell volume. Correct
D. erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
​ A handheld Hgb analyzer gives a readout whose unites are in :
A. grams per milliliter
B. grams per deciliter Correct
C. kilograms per liter
D. kilograms per milliliter
​ What POC test can be used to monitor heparin therapy?
A. PT or APTT Incorrect
 B. ACT or APTT Correct
C. ACT or PT
D. PT or TT
​ What test can provide valuable information regarding whether a patient has experienced a
myocardial infarction?
A. Hgb
B. Cholesterol
C. Cardiac TnT and TnI Correct
D. Glucose
​ What test can be used to screen for colon cancer?
A. Hgb
B. Glucose
C. Cholesterol
D. Occult blood Correct
​ Determination of hCG is used to evaluate
A. liver disease.
B. anemia.
C. urinary tract infection.
D. pregnancy. Correct
​ What type of specimen is used for the occult blood test?
A. Blood
B. Urine
C. Feces Correct
D. Saliva
​ What Streptococcus group is detected when performing a rapid strep test on a throat
culture?
A. Group A Correct
B. Group B
C. Group C
D. Group D
​ Before performing the dipstick test for a routine urinalysis, what two pretesting conditions
must be met?
A. Specimen must be at room temperature and well mixed. Correct
B. Specimen must be refrigerated and centrifuged.
C. Specimen must be warmed to body temperature and well mixed.
D. Specimen must be at room temperature and centrifuged.
​ For a POCT program to be successful, which of the following must be incorporated?
 A. Adherence to the manufacturer's instructions
B. Use of quality-assurance and quality-control procedures
C. Proper and adequate training of all personnel
D. All of the above Correct
​ Which of the following is a POCT used to screen for colon cancer and gastric ulcers?
A. Cardiac troponin T
B. PTT
C. Occult blood Correct
D. BNP
​ Coumadin (warfarin) therapy can be monitored using which of the following tests?
A. APTT
B. PT Correct
C. ACT
D. Potassium
​ Most ECGs place how many electrodes on the body?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 10 Correct
​ Which group of Streptococcus bacteria is detected by the rapid strep test?
A. D
B. A Correct
C. C
D. B
​ Which type of sample is used for an occult blood test?
A. Urine
B. Feces Correct
C. Blood
D. Throat swab
​ What is another name for point-of-care testing (POCT)?
A. CLIA testing
B. Reference site testing
C. FDA testing
D. Alternate site testing Correct
​ A complete heartbeat, consisting of depolarization and repolarization, is also known as which
of the following?
A. Cardiac cycle Correct
 B. Conduction cycle
C. Sinoatrial cycle
D. P-wave cycle
​ What is the most common chemistry test performed via POCT?
A. Glucose Correct
B. Sodium
C. CBC
D. Potassium
​ Which of the following agencies decides whether a given test is CLIA-waived?
A. AMA
B. CLIA
C. FDA Correct
D. OSHA
​ Which of the following procedures is important when drawing blood at a patient’s home and
is not necessary in a hospital building?
A. Make sure the patient has stopped bleeding before leaving.
B. Ensure that the materials used during the procedure are properly removed and
disposed of. Incorrect
C. Carry a cell phone for emergencies. Correct
D. Be sure the patient is sitting or reclining in a safe position.
​ What organization mandates QA programs?
A. Occupational Safety and Health Administration
B. National Phlebotomy Association
C. American Society for Clinical Pathology
D. The Joint Commission Correct
​ If there is a question concerning the principle behind a particular specimen collection, consult
the:
A. QC Logbook
B. floor book
C. policy manual
D. procedure manual Correct
​ If a phlebotomist wants to know the turn-around time for a specific procedure, it can be found
in the ____?
A. policy manual
B. patient's chart
C. directory of services Correct
D. PHysician's Desk Reference
​ Which of the following compares previous patient data with current data?
A. Postanalytic variables
B. Delta check Correct
C. Accession numbers
D. Collection logbook
​ Fasting specimens should be collected:
A. 24 hours after the fast.
B. 2 hours after waking up.
C. 8 to 12 hours after eating. Correct
D. anytime after midnight.
​ The phlebotomist usually does not have complete control over which of the following
variables?
A. Collection equipment
B. Patient preparation Correct
C. Specimen collection
D. Specimen labeling
​ No more than ____ should elapse between the time a specimen is collected and the time
serum or plasma is separated from formed elements.
A. 30 minutes
B. 1 hour
C. 2 hours Correct
D. 3 hours
​ ____ refers to a set of policies and procedures designed to ensure the delivery of consistent,
high-quality patient care and specimen analysis.
A. New Choice Correct
B. QA Incorrect
C. QC
D. TQM
​ The phlebotomist is most responsible for controlling:
A. analytic variables.
B. postanalytic variables. Incorrect
C. TQM.
D. pre-analytic variables. Correct
​ How often should centrifuges be calibrated?
A. Every year Incorrect
B. Every month
C. Every week
 D. Every 3 months Correct
​ Represents the major goal of total quality management (TQM) programs:
A. CQI Correct
B. QP
C. QA
D. QC
​ Values for which of the following are higher in patients living at high altitudes?
A. BUN and creatinine
B. Cholesterol and triglycerides
C. Sodium and potassium
D. Hematocrit and hemoglobin Correct
​ Document containing information about laboratory schedules, patient preparation, and
specimen handling:
A. Directory of services Correct
B. QA manual
C. Procedure manual
D. Delta check
​ How often should refrigerator and freezer temperatures be recorded?
A. Monthly
B. Daily Correct
C. Weekly
D. Hourly
​ A phlebotomist is most responsible for controlling for which of the following types of variables
in test results?
A. Postanalytic
B. Quality monitors
C. Preanalytic Correct
D. Analytic
​ A blood sample collected from a nonfasting patient may result in a plasma characteristic that
is called what?
A. Icteric
B. Lipemia Correct
C. Polycythemia
D. Hemolysis
​ Values for which of the following are higher in infants than adults?
A. RBC and WBC counts Correct
B. Electrolytes
 C. Cholesterol and triglycerides
D. Thyroid hormones
​ The organization that mandates quality assurance programs:
A. ASCP
B. Joint Commission Correct
C. AMA
D. OSHA
​ Quantitative methods used to monitor the quality of procedures to ensure accurate test
results:
A. QA
B. QC Correct
C. TQM
D. CQI
​ Administrative agencies, such as OSHA create which type of law?
A. Statutory
B. Administrative
Correct
C. Federal
D. Case
​ The principal defense against a malpractice suit is to
A. show burden of proof
B. reach an out-of-court settlement
C. deny liability
D. Show that the standard of care was followed
Correct
​ The failure to perform an action consistent with the accepted standard of care is
A. dereliction
B. assault
C. malpractice
D. negligence
Correct
​ The phlebotomist has a legal responsibility to do which of the following?
A. Maintain the integrity of the doctor-patient relationship
B. Maintain patient confidentiality
C. Follow the standard of care
D. All of the above
Correct
​ Medical information that is linked to a specific patient is called
 A. confidentially protected information
B. Protected health information
Correct
C. private health information
D. protected confidential information
​ The four elements of negligence are
A. malpractice, tort, liability, and negligence
B. duty, dereliction, injury, and direct cause
Correct
C. injury, direct cause, privacy, and tort
D. confidentiality, litigation, contract, and felony
​ Which of the following is not found in The Patient Care Partnership?
A. The patient can expect the cheapest care possible
Correct
B. The patient can expect involvement in her or her care
C. The patient can expect high-quality hospital care
D. The patient can expect protection of his or her privacy
​ The phlebotomist's duties and performance level should be outlined in the
A. floor book
B. safety manual
C. OSHA guidelines
D. policies and procedures manual
Correct
​ When a phlebotomist breaches the duty of care to a patient, this is known as
A. direct cause
B. civil action
C. dereliction
Correct
D. assault
​ Which is correct about a phlebotomist and protected health information (PHI)?

A. The phlebotomist may obtain PHI and may disclose it to anyone who works in the
hospital.
B. The phlebotomist may obtain PHI and may disclose it only to certain authorized
individuals.
Correct
C. The phlebotomist may obtain PHI but may not disclose it to any other person.
D. The phlebotomist is never allowed to obtain PHI.
​ A tort comes from a (an)
A. out-of-court settlement.
B. civil action.
Correct
C. public law.
D. criminal action.
Incorrect
​ _____ are the basis for most medical malpractice suits.
A. Unintentional torts
Correct
B. Criminal actions
C. Felonies
D. Misdemeanors
​ Which of the following terms represents the failure to perform an action that is consistent with
the accepted standard of care?
A. Assault
B. Negligence Correct
C. Dereliction
D. Liability
​ What is the legal term for the delivery of substandard care that results in harm to a patient?
A. Duty
B. Damages
C. Liability
D. Malpractice Correct
​ Which of the following is not a penalty for HIPAA violation?
A. Loss of job
B. Liability Correct
C. Prison time terms
D. Monetary fines
​ Which of the following types of law is created by a legislative body?
A. Case law
B. Administrative law
C. Statutory law Correct
D. Public law
​ Which of the following types of law is determined by court decisions through interpretation of
existing law?
A. Statutory law
B. Administrative law
 C. Public law
D. Case law Correct
​ A violation of a private law may lead to which of the following?
A. Criminal action
B. Battery
C. Civil action Correct
D. Assault
​ Which of the following is not considered PHI?
A. Patient payments
B. Patient diagnosis
C. Provider notes
D. Accession number Correct
​ What is the term given to the period of time allowed to file a civil action?
A. File time
B. Duration of action
C. Statute of limitations Correct
D. Allotted law time
​ An unjustifiable attempt to touch another person can lead to what charge?
A. Assault Correct
B. Tort
C. Civil action
D. Battery
​ The intentional touching of another person without consent can lead to what charge?
A. Battery Correct
B. Civil action
C. Assault
D. Tort
​ Which of the following is not an anticoagulant?
A. Polymer gel Correct
B. Sodium heparin
C. Sodium citrate
D. EDTA
​ The most common antiseptic used in routine venipuncture is:
A. povidone-iodine solution.
B. bleach.
C. isopropyl alcohol. Correct
D. chlorhexidine gluconate.
​ How many times may a needle be used before discarding it?
A. 1 Correct
B. 2
C. 3
D. No limit
​ Which of the following indicates the largest-sized needle?
A. 20 gauge
B. 23 gauge
C. 16 gauge Correct
D. 21 gauge
​ Complete clotting of a blood sample in an SST (gold or red-gray) tube takes _______
minutes at room temperature.
A. 10
B. 30 Correct
C. 45
D. 60
​ Serum contains:
A. fibrinogen.
B. clotting factors.
C. plasma.
D. none of the above. Correct
​ Which color-coded tube does not contain any additives?
A. Red, plastic tube
B. Red, glass tube Correct
C. Gold BD Hemogard Closure
D. Royal blue
​ EDTA prevents coagulation in blood tubes by:
A. inactivating thrombin.
B. binding calcium. Correct
C. inactivating thromboplastin.
D. inhibiting glycolysis.
​ Tubes with gray tops are used for:
A. sedimentation rate tests.
B. glucose tolerance tests. Correct
C. coagulation studies.
D. CBC.
​ Tubes with green tops may contain:
 A. sodium citrate.
B. sodium heparin. Correct
C. sodium oxalate.
D. sodium phosphate.
​ The smaller the gauge number, the:
A. larger the lumen diameter. Correct
B. longer the needle.
C. shorter the needle.
D. smaller the lumen diameter.
​ The syringe method of draw is useful because:
A. it allows for control of blood flow.
B. it shows the appearance of blood at the hub.
C. it allows for greater flexibility and less bulk.
D. both an and b above. Correct
​ The additive sodium citrate is used in blood collection to test for:
A. blood alcohol.
B. prothrombin time. Correct
C. lactic acid.
D. lead.
​ The most common gauge used for a routine venipuncture is:
A. 16
B. 21 Correct
C. 25
D. 23
​ Blood banks use a ______ gauge needle to collect blood from donors for transfusions.
A. 16- to 18- Correct
B. 20- to 22-
C. 22- or 23-
D. 23- to 25-
​ Blood collection tubes containing an anticoagulant should be:
A. New Choice Correct
B. shaken aggressively after blood collection.
C. allowed to sit for 30 minutes before centrifugation.
D. centrifuged immediately.
​ Tubes containing the SPS anticoagulant are used for:
A. antibody screen.
B. HLA studies.
 C. nutritional analysis.
D. blood culture analysis. Correct
​ Blood colleceted in lavender-topped tubes is used for which test?
A. FBS
B. CBC Correct
C. Stat potassium
D. Stat chemistry
​ Blood collected in gray-topped tubes is used for which test?
A. FBS Correct
B. CBC
C. Stat potassium
D. Stat chemistry
​ Blood collected in light blue-topped tubes is used for which test?
A. Sedimentation rate
B. Glucose tolerance
C. Toxicology
D. Coagulation Correct
​ Which anticoagulant is used for coagulation studies?
A. SPS
B. Sodium citrate Correct
C. EDTA
D. Heparin
​ Which of the following tubes should be drawn first?
A. Red
B. Light blue Correct
C. Lavender
D. Green
​ For maximum effectiveness, an antiseptic should be left in contact with the skin for how
long?
A. 30–60 seconds Correct
B. 5–15 seconds
C. 15–30 seconds
D. 2 minutes
​ What color vacuum tube should be drawn for trace metal analysis?
A. Yellow
B. Royal blue Correct
C. Red
 D. Pink
​ A substance used to clean surfaces other than living tissue:
A. Bacteriostatic
B. Antiseptic
C. Sepsis
D. Disinfectant Correct
​ Which of the following is the most commonly used antiseptic for routine blood draws?
A. Zephiran chloride
B. Isopropyl alcohol Correct
C. Bleach
D. Betadine
​ Which of the following tubes should be drawn first?
A. Gray
B. Lavender
C. Red Correct
D. Green
​ What color tube should be collected for a CBC?
A. Light blue
B. Green
C. Red
D. Lavender Correct
​ Which anticoagulant is used for blood gas determinations?
A. Sodium citrate
B. SPS
C. EDTA
D. Heparin Correct
​ Shaking a tube rather than gently inverting it can have what effect on the blood?
A. Hemoconcentration
B. Hemolysis Correct
C. Hematoma
D. Hemostasis
​ Which is a purpose of the requisition?
A. Identifying the patient
B. Determining the specimens to be collected
C. Allowing the equipment necessary for the collection to be gathered
D. All of the above Correct
​ Which vein is often the only one that can be palpated in an obese patient?
 A. Median
B. Cephalic Correct
C. Basilic
D. Iliac
​ Upon entering a patient's room, you should first:
A. assemble your equipment.
B. put on your gloves.
C. introduce yourself. Correct
D. identify the patient.
​ Which vein lies close to the brachial artery?
A. Cephalic
B. Median cubital
C. Basilic Correct
D. Iliac
​ At what angle should a venipuncture needle penetrate the skin?
A. 10 to 15 degrees
B. 15 to 30 degrees Correct
C. 30 to 40 degrees
D. 45 degrees
​ Which information must match on the patient's ID band and the requisition?
A. DOB
B. ID number
C. Patient's name
D. All of the above Correct
​ When should the tourniquet be removed from the arm in a venipuncture procedure?
A. After the needle is withdrawn
B. As the needle is withdrawn
C. Before the needle is withdrawn Correct
D. The tourniquet should not be removed
​ Tourniquets should be placed ____ inches above the venipuncture site.
A. 1 to 2
B. 2 to 3
C. 3 to 4 Correct
D. 4 to 5
​ The following can occur if the tourniquet is left on the patient too long:
A. nerve damage
B. hemoconcentration Correct
 C. occluded radial pulse
D. hematoma
​ Hematomas can be caused by:
A. removing the tourniquet after removing the needle. Correct
B. withdrawing the needle before removing the last tube.
C. withdrawing the needle too quickly.
D. removing the tourniquet before removing the needle.
​ An increase in the ratio of formed elements to plasma is called:
A. hemolysis.
B. petechiae.
C. hemoconcentration. Correct
D. hematoma.
​ Small red spots on the skin are referred to as:
A. hemolysis.
B. petechaie. Correct
C. hemoconcentration.
D. hematoma.
​ If you are asked to perform a venipuncture on an inpatient who is not wearing an ID band,
you should?
A. identify the patient by asking his or her name, and perform the venipuncture.
B. ask the patient's nurse to attach a new ID band before proceeding. Correct
C. notify the physician.
D. refuse to perform the venipuncture.
​ Which vein is the first choice for venipuncture?
A. Basilic
B. Median cubital Correct
C. Cephalic
D. Iliac
​ When performing a butterfly draw using a hand vein, you should:
A. Place the tourniquet on the patient's arm above the antecubital fossa.
B. Place the tourniquet on the patient's arm below the antecubital fossa.
C. Place the tourniquet on the patient's wrist. Correct
D. A tourniquet is not required.
​ During the venipuncture procedure, the tourniquet should stay on no longer than:
A. 30 seconds.
B. 45 seconds.
C. 1 minute. Correct
 D. 2 minutes.
​ Hemoconcentration can occur in which of the following situations?
A. The tourniquet was too loose.
B. The tourniquet was removed before withdrawing the needle.
C. Pressure was not applied after withdrawal of the needle.
D. The tourniquet was left on for 2 minutes. Correct
​ If the number on the requisition does not match the arm band, what should you do?
A. Contact the patient’s nurse to attach a proper ID wristband to the patient. Correct
B. Collect the blood and then clear up the discrepancy with the patient’s nurse.
C. Ask the patient to state his name, and, if it matches the requisition, draw the blood.
D. Return to the laboratory and tell your supervisor.
​ What is the single most important step of the blood collection procedure?
A. Application of the tourniquet
B. Selection of the proper tubes
C. Appropriate vein selection
D. Patient identification Correct
​ How should blood be transferred from a syringe to a vacuum tube?
A. Using the needle that was used to draw the blood, insert the needle into the stopper
on the vacuum tube.
B. Put a cap on the syringe and transfer it to the laboratory instead of putting in a
vacuum tube.
C. Remove the needle and remove the tube stopper. Expel blood from the syringe into
the tube.
D. Activate the safety device on the needle, remove, and attach a needless transfer
device to the syringe. Correct
​ If a blood test requires a fasting specimen, what is the best way to verify that the patient is
fasting?
A. Ask the nurse if the patient ate breakfast.
B. Assume the patient is fasting.
C. Ask the ward clerk whether the patient is fasting.
D. Ask the patient when the last time was that he had anything to eat or drink. Correct
​ Before drawing blood in an inpatient setting, information found on the requisition form should
be matched against which of the following?
A. Information on the door of the patient’s room
B. Information obtained from the nurse
C. The patient’s wristband Correct
D. The patient’s chart
​ CLSI approved sites for venipuncture include all of the following except
A. palmer side of wrist or forearm. Correct
B. cephalic.
C. median cubital.
D. dorsal hand veins.
​ While having a blood sample collected, the patient complains of pain and tingling in the
fingers. What is the likely cause?
A. The tourniquet was placed too far from the collection site.
B. The tourniquet is too loose.
C. The tourniquet is too tight or has been on too long. Correct
D. The tourniquet was removed too soon.
​ What is true in the event that Medicare rejects a reimbursement claim and an ABN was not
signed by the patient?
A. The institution can ask the patient to sign an ABN.
B. The institution can bill the patient.
C. The patient must send payment for the service to the insurance company.
D. The service will remain unpaid. Correct
​ What is the abbreviation for the form that indicates a service may not be covered and
requires a signature by Medicare patients?
A. CMS Incorrect
B. PHI
C. ABN Correct
D. ABG
​ Capillary collections are performed on:
A. capillaries. Correct
B. veins.
C. arteries.
D. arterioles.
​ Which of the following has a higher value in a capillary sample as opposed to a venous
serum sample?
A. Potassium.
B. Calcium.
C. Total protein.
D. Hemoglobin. Correct
​ Good candidates for dermal collection include patients who:
A. require frequent collection.
B. are obese.
 C. are severely dehydrated.
D. All of the above.
E. a and b only. Correct
​ Capillary collection may be appropriate in geriatric patients because:
A. tourniquets are hard to place in this patient group.
B. their veins tend to be small and fragile. Correct
C. most geriatric patients require only one blood test.
D. they are likely to be obese.
​ An infant heel-warming device should be applied for approximately:
A. 1 to 2 minutes.
B. 8 to 10 minutes.
C. 30 seconds.
D. 3 to 5 minutes. Correct
​ The depth of a heel puncture should not be more than:
A. 3.0 mm.
B. 2.0 mm. Correct
C. 2.0 cm.
D. 1.5 cm.
​ Which finger is most widely used for capillary collection?
A. Thumb (first digit)
B. Index (second digit)
C. Ring (fourth digit) Correct
D. Pinky (fifth digit)
​ In performing a dermal puncture, the puncture should be:
A. aligned with the whorls of the finger print.
B. perpendicular to the whorls of the fingerprint. Correct
C. on the edge of the finger.
D. on the tip of the finger.
​ The location for heel sticks in the:
A. center of the plantar surface.
B. medial or lateral borders of the plantar surface. Correct
C. posterior surface.
D. arch.
​ Which sample(s) is/are collected first in a capillary collection?
A. Platelet counts
B. Complete blood counts
C. Chemistry tests
 D. All of the above
E. a and b only Correct
​ Which medication does not interfere with the BT test?
A. Salicylates
B. Ibuprofen
C. Aspirin
D. All of these interfere with the test Correct
​ At what level does the blood pressure cuff remain during a BT test?
A. 20mm Hg
B. 10mm Hg
C. 50mm Hg
D. 40mm Hg Correct
​ How frequently is the blood wicked during a BT test?
A. Every 5 seconds
B. Every 10 seconds
C. Every 30 seconds Correct
D. Every 45 seconds
​ Which of the following is the preferred collection site for laboratory testing of a patient at high
risk for venous thrombosis?
A. Dermal puncture Correct
B. Arterial sample
C. Hand vein with butterfly needle and syringe
D. Routine venipuncture of median cubital vein
​ What is another name for a dermal puncture?
A. Microspecimen
B. skin puncture Correct
C. Venipuncture
D. Arterial stick
​ Microcollection tubes
A. cannot be used for BURPP collections.
B. contain no anticoagulant.
C. are used to collect serum, plasma, or whole blood specimens. Correct
D. are only used for heel punctures. Incorrect
​ When performing a bleeding time test, the blood pressure cuff should be inflated to
A. 40 mm Hg. Correct
B. 10 mm Hg.
C. 70 mm Hg.
 D. 100 mm Hg.
​ What is the preferred method of blood collection in newborns and infants?
A. Routine venipuncture of median cubital vein
B. Dermal puncture Correct
C. Arterial sample
D. Hand vein with butterfly needle and syringe
​ Which of the following is a part of proper technique when performing a bleeding time test?
A. Press the cutting device on the arm until the skin indents slightly.
B. Record the time when blood is no longer absorbed by the filter paper. Correct
C. Touch the incision with filter paper every 30 seconds to blot blood.
D. Start the timing after the first drop of blood forms on the incision.
​ Which of the following would be interpreted as a normal bleeding time?
A. 12 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 6 minutes Correct
D. 1 minute
​ Drawing excessive amounts of blood from a patient puts them at risk for what type of
anemia?
A. Iatrogenic Correct
B. Sickle cell
C. Aplastic
D. Pernicious
​ Which of the following over-the-counter medications is known to increase bleeding times?
A. Tums
B. Aspirin Correct
C. Benadryl
D. Tylenol
​ Which screening test measures the overall integrity of primary hemostasis?
A. APTT
B. PT
C. FDP
D. Bleeding time Correct
​ If a stat test is ordered and the patient is not in his or her room, you should:
A. wait in the patient's room until he or she returns.
B. leave the request at the nurse's station for the nurse to perform the draw.
C. locate the patient. Correct
D. postpone the collection.
​ Which laboratory department may require special patient ID?
A. Microbiology
B. Chemistry
C. Hematology
D. Blood bank Correct
​ Collapsed veins can be caused by:
A. too large a needle for the vein.
B. too much vacuum asserted on the vessel.
C. the plunger being pulled too quickly.
D. all of the above. Correct
​ When an artery is inadvertently stuck during collection, which of the following statements is
not true?
A. The sample should be labeled as usual. Correct
B. The blood may be bright red.
C. The blood may spurt or pulse into the tube.
D. Pressure should be applied for 10 minutes.
​ Which of the following could be a cause of hemolysis?
A. Vigorously mixing the tubes. Correct
B. Allowing the blood to run down the side of a tube when using a syringe to fill the
tube.
C. Drawing blood too slowly into a syringe.
D. Using a needle larger than 23 gauge.
​ Reasons for specimen recollection include all of the following except:
A. incomplete drying of the antispetic.
B. using the wrong antiseptic.
C. prolonged bleeding after needle withdrawal. Correct
D. contamination by powder from gloves.
​ To avoid reflux of an anticoagulant, you should do all of the following except:
A. keep the patient's arm elevated above the heart.
Correct
B. allow the tube to fill from the bottom up.
C. remove the last tube from the needle before removing the tourniquet.
D. remove the last tube from the needle before removing the needle.
​ Conditions that may alter the quality of a specimen or cause harm to the patient during a
blood draw include the following:
A. edematous tissue.
B. mastectomies.
C. hematomas.
 D. all of the above. Correct
​ Povidone-iodine is not recommended for:
A. blood alcohol draws.
B. dermal punctures. Incorrect
C. blood gas draws. Correct
D. blood cultures.
​ Hemolysis is:
A. the flow of blood from the collection tube back into the needle and the patient's vein.
B. alteration in the ratio of the elements in the blood.
C. lack of lymph fluid movement.
D. destruction of blood cells. Correct
​ Which test result is not affected by patient position?
A. Albumin
B. Blood alcohol Correct
C. Cholesterol
D. Enzymes
​ Lymphostasis is:
A. the flow of blood from the collection tube back into the needle and the patient's vein.
B. alteration in the ratio of elements in the blood.
C. lack of lymph fluid movement. Correct
D. destruction of blood cells.
​ To enhance vein prominence, you can:
A. elevate the arm in an upward position.
B. tap the antecubital area with your index and middle finger. Incorrect
C. squeeze the patient's wrists.
D. apply a moist warm cloth to the area. Correct
​ Hemoconcentration is:
A. the flow of blood from the collection tube back into the needle and the patient's vein.
B. alteration in the ratio of elements in the blood. Correct
C. lack of lymph fluid movement.
D. destruction of blood cells.
​ Collections for which department require a special patient identification system in addition to
the hospital ID bracelet?
A. Hematology
B. Chemistry
C. Coagulation
D. Blood bank Correct
​ The emergency department has requested that blood alcohol level be drawn on a patient.
What is the proper way to obtain the specimen?
A. Clean the site with Betadine (povidone-iodine) and perform a routine venipuncture.
Correct
B. Use alcohol to clean the site and perform a dermal puncture.
C. Clean the site with alcohol and perform a routine venipuncture.
D. Call the laboratory to get a phlebotomist who is experienced in drawing from
arteries.
​ What is the medical term for fainting?
A. Syncope Correct
B. Emesis
C. Lymphostasis
D. Hematoma
​ If an IV is in place and there are no other accessible sites, where should the blood specimen
be collected?
A. Distal to the IV Correct
B. Above the IV
C. Proximal to the IV
D. From the IV port
​ Which antiseptic is not recommended for children under the age of 2?
A. All of the options
Correct
B. 70% isopropyl alcohol
C. Benzalkonium chloride
D. Povidone-iodine Incorrect
​ Which of the following is not a preanalytical variable?
A. Pregnancy
B. Reporting of test result Correct
C. Exercise
D. Medications
​ A large amount of bleeding into the tissues surrounding a puncture site (i.e., in a patient who
takes anticoagulant medication) can cause what condition?
A. Nerve damage
B. Infection
C. Vein collapse Incorrect
D. Compartment syndrome Correct
​ Timed specimens are useful in monitoring
A. cardiac enzymes. Correct
 B. basal status.
C. viral loads.
D. patient locations.
​ Basal state
A. allows for variations in body’s normal fluctuations.
B. is not affected by caffeine or nicotine.
C. refers to body’s state after 8 to 12 hours of fasting. Correct
D. occurs within 1 hour of eating a meal.
​ What is the term used to describe a vein that is hardened due to repeated venipunctures,
chemotherapy, or disease?
A. Sclerosed Correct
B. Occluded
C. Edematous
D. Blocked
​ Which of the following is incorrect?
A. Newborns have a higher proportion of RBCs than adults.
B. More blood may be needed from newborns to provide enough serum or plasma for
testing.
C. Newborns have a higher proportion of plasma than adults. Correct
D. Newborns and infants are more susceptible to infection than adults. Incorrect
​ Crying causes an increase in:
A. bilirubin.
B. platelet count.
C. WBC count. Correct
D. creatinine.
​ Which gauge needle is bet to use for a draw on a child younger than 2 years?
A. 18
B. 21
C. 23 Correct
D. 28
​ Jaundice means:
A. yellowing of the skin. Correct
B. bruising of the skin.
C. swelling of the skin.
D. none of the above.
​ Which laboratory test assays jaundice?
A. Glucose
 B. Electrolytes
C. Bilirubin Correct
D. Complete blood count
​ Neonatal screening tests for which disorders are mandated by the United States?
A. PKU and hyperthyroidism
B. PKU and hypothyroidism Correct
C. PKU and sickle cell anemia
D. PKU and vitamin D deficiency
​ Samples for PKU testing are typically collected:
A. in a micro-collection container.
B. in a collection tube.
C. on special filter paper. Correct
D. in a micropipet.
​ Which of the following occurs as we grow older?
A. The layers of the skin become more elastic.
B. Hematomas are more likely. Correct
C. Arteries move farther from the surface of the skin.
D. Blood vessels widen because of atherosclerosis.
​ Which of the following is not a VAD?
A. CVC
B. IV
C. PICC
D. EMLA Correct
​ Blood should never be collected from the arm of a patient containing?
A. an AV shunt. Correct
B. an IV.
C. an arterial line.
D. a CVC.
​ Dermal punctures in pediatric patients are preferred for ____ testing.
A. cross-match
B. blood culture Incorrect
C. PKU Correct
D. serum
​ When warming an infant's heel for a dermal puncture, the heel should be warmed for:
A. 30 seconds
B. 1 to 2 minutes
C. 3 to 5 minutes Correct
 D. 6 to 8 minutes
​ Which is not a type of CVC?
A. Groshong
B. Triple lumen
C. Broviac
D. Fistula Correct
​ An arm containing ____ is never used for phlebotomy procedures?
A. a heparin lock
B. an arterial line
C. a fistula Correct
D. an implanted port
​ Only specially trained personnel acting on a physicians's order are allowed to collect
specimens from:
A. geriatric patients.
B. VADs. Correct
C. newborns.
D. mentally impaired patients.
​ An arm containing ____ is never used for phlebotomy procedures?
A. a heparin lock
B. an arterial line
C. an implanted port
D. a fistula Correct
​ Which is not a type of CVC?
A. Triple lumen
B. Groshong
C. Fistula Correct
D. Broviac
​ The following specimens are always collected by a physician, except for the:
A. synovial fluid.
B. amniotic fluid.
C. CSF.
D. urine specimen. Correct
​ In an arterial collection, the needle should be inserted at a ___ degree angle.
A. 90
B. 30
C. 70
D. 45 Correct
​ A typical needle gauge for ABG collection is:
A. 16
B. 20 Incorrect
C. 18
D. 22 Correct
​ If lidocaine is injected before an arterial blood collection, wait ___ minutes for the anesthetic
to begin working.
A. 1 to 2 Correct
B. 3 to 4
C. 4 to 5
D. 2 to 3
​ Hyperglycemia means:
A. decreased hemoglobin.
B. decreased glucose.
C. increased hemoglobin.
D. increased glucose. Correct
​ The test used to dianose whooping cough, croup, and pneumonia is the:
A. SE test.
B. NP culture. Correct
C. throat swab. Incorrect
D. urinalysis.
​ Timed specimens are most frequently collected to monitor:
A. cold agglutinins.
B. bilirubin.
C. cryoglobulins.
D. medication levels. Correct
​ Which artery is most frequently used for ABG collection?
A. Dorsalis pedis
B. Femoral
C. Brachial
D. Radial Correct
​ Arterial blood collection monitors all of the following except:
A. ammonia
B. glucose Correct
C. lactic acid
D. blood gases
​ A normal blood pH is:
 A. 7.35 Correct
B. 7.00
C. 7.60
D. 7.75
​ The ABG syringe is coated with:
A. sodium citrate.
B. sodium fluoride.
C. EDTA.
D. heparin. Correct
​ A typical needle gauge for ABG collection is:
A. 16
B. 20
C. 22 Correct
D. 18
​ Which artery is most frequently used for ABG collection?
A. Brachial
B. Femoral
C. Dorsalis pedis
D. Radial Correct
​ Which of the following is not an ABG sampling error?
A. Delivery of an un-iced sample to the laboratory 15 minutes after collection. Incorrect
B. Use of the anticoagulant EDTA.
C. Air bubbles in the syringe.
D. Use of gas-impermeable plastic syringe. Correct
​ The modified Allen test determines:
A. PO2
B. PCO2
C. collateral circulation Correct
D. pH
​ In an arterial collection, the needle should be inserted at a ___ degree angle.
A. 90 Incorrect
B. 45 Correct
C. 30
D. 70
​ If lidocaine is injected before an arterial blood collection, wait ___ minutes for the anesthetic
to begin working.
A. 1 to 2 Correct
 B. 2 to 3
C. 3 to 4
D. 4 to 5
​ The modified Allen test is performed on the ___ and ____ arteries.
A. ulnar, brachial
B. brachial, radial
C. ulnar, radial Correct
D. radial, femoral
​ WHich of the following is not a complication of ABG collection?
A. Petechiae Correct
B. Arteriospasm
C. Thrombosis
D. Hematoma
​ Which of the following arterial sampling errors lowers pH values?
A. Too little heparin
B. Insufficient mixing
C. Air bubbles in syringe
D. Too much heparin Correct
​ Which test measures the level of bicarbonate in the blood?
A. PCO2
B. H2CO3
C. HCO3– Correct
D. CO2
​ Which anticoagulant is used for arterial blood gas collections?
A. Oxalate
B. Heparin Correct
C. Citrate
D. EDTA
​ How should an arterial blood gas sample in a syringe be mixed?
A. By shaking the syringe vigorously
B. No mixing is necessary.
C. With a magnet and a flea
D. By rolling between the fingers and thumb Correct
​ A blood gas specimen that is not iced must be transported to the laboratory within what time
frame?
A. 5–10 minutes Correct
B. 1 hour
 C. £30 minutes
D. 1–3 minutes
​ What parameter is a measure of the percent of oxygen bound to hemoglobin?
A. pH
B. PO2
C. O2 saturation Correct
D. PCO2
​ What is the normal pH of blood?
A. 7.35–7.45 Correct
B. 6.80–6.90
C. 7.20–7.30
D. 7.55–7.65
​ Which artery is most commonly used for arterial blood gas collection?
A. Radial Correct
B. Ulnar
C. Femoral
D. Brachial
​ What is commonly used to clean the site of an arterial blood draw?
A. Chlorhexidine prep Correct
B. Alcohol or providone-iodine Incorrect
C. Tincture of alcohol
D. Soap and water
​ What is the recommended needle gauge for an arterial puncture?
A. 27 g
B. 25 g
C. 21 g Correct
D. 18 g
​ Timed specimens are most frequently collected to monitor:
A. bilirubin.
B. medication levels. Correct
C. cold agglutinins.
D. cryoglobulins.
​ Hyperglycemia means:
A. decreased glucose.
B. decreased hemoglobin.
C. increased glucose. Correct
D. increased hemoglobin.
​ For a 3-hour OGTT, how many blood samples will be collected?
A. 3
B. 4 Correct
C. 5
D. None of the above
​ Within what time period should a patient drink the glucose solution required for a OGTT?
A. 5 minutes Correct
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 20 minutes
​ BC collection involves:
A. a peak and a trough sample.
B. an aerobic and an anaerobic sample. Correct
C. a chilled sample.
D. an accompanying urine sample.
​ Therapeutic phlebotomies are commonly performed on patients with:
A. hemochromatosis.
B. leukemia.
C. polycythemia.
D. a and c. Correct
​ To collect a cold agglutinin sample:
A. warm the sample tube for 30 minutes before collection. Correct
B. pack the sample tube in ice before collection.
C. wrap the sample in aluminum foil after collection.
D. pakc the sample tube in ice after collection. Incorrect
​ Which specimen requires chilling during transfer to the laboratory?
A. Cryofibrinogen
B. Cryoglobulin Incorrect
C. Ammonia Correct
D. Cold agglutinins
​ When making smears for malaria:
A. prepare two regular smears only.
B. prepare two to three regular smears and one thick smear. Correct
C. prepare one thick smear only.
D. prepare one regular smear and one thick smear. Incorrect
​ It is necessary for a patient to fast for 12 hours before:
A. blood donation.
 B. BC.
C. 3-hour OGTT. Correct
D. therapeutic phlebotomy.
​ Which of the following specimens is not sensitive to light?
A. Vitamin A
B. Lactic acid Correct
C. Beta-carotene
D. Bilirubin
​ After 12 hours of fasting and abstention from strenuous exercise, the body is said to be in
what state?
A. Resting
B. Basal Correct
C. Diurnal
D. Peak
​ When preparing blood smears at what degree should the spreader slide be?
A. 10–15 degrees
B. 60–65 degrees
C. 25–30 degrees Correct
D. 40–45 degrees Incorrect
​ Upon making a regular blood smear, there are many little holes on the smear. What is the
most likely cause?
A. Dirty slide Correct
B. Drop of blood too small
C. Wrong angle of spreader smear
D. Drop of blood too large
​ What is the approximate volume of a unit of donor blood?
A. 1L
B. 750 mL
C. 450 mL Correct
D. 250 mL
​ Which of the following conditions might be treated with a therapeutic phlebotomy?
A. Polycythemia Correct
B. Bacteremia
C. Anemia
D. Thyrotoxicosis
​ Which of the following conditions might be treated with a therapeutic phlebotomy?
A. Toxoplasmosis
 B. Thalassemia
C. Hemophilia
D. Hemochromatosis Correct
​ Which of the following needle gauges would be appropriate for drawing a donor unit?
A. 25
B. 20
C. 16 Correct
D. 22
​ Timed specimens are most likely to be requested for which of the following?
A. Digoxin Correct
B. Albumin
C. Creatinine
D. Bilirubin
​ Most specimens collected for therapeutic drug monitoring are collected in a tube with what
color stopper?
A. Red Correct
B. Blue
C. Lavender
D. Tiger
​ Malaria is diagnosed with regular smears and a thick smear. How is a thick smear prepared?
A. Prepare a thin smear, allow it to dry, then prepare another smear directly on top the
first one.
B. Use a larger drop of blood than a thin smear and spread the drop to the size of a
dime. Correct
C. With a syringe and needle, completely cover half the slide with blood.
D. The same way as a thin smear but with a bigger drop of blood
​ An 8-hour urine specimen is typically collected:
A. in the morning. Correct
B. before going to bed.
C. after a meal.
D. any time during the day.
​ Which urine specimen is most commonly used to determine pregnancy?
A. Random Incorrect
B. Fasting
C. First morning Correct
D. Timed
​ The sweat electrolyte/chloride test is typically used to screen for:
 A. multiple sclerosis.
B. myasthenia gravis.
C. cystic fibrosis. Correct
D. spina bifida.
​ A urine specimen is labeled:
A. before collection.
B. after collection. Correct
C. by the patient.
D. on the lid of the specimen.
​ A catheterized urine sample may be collected:
A. when a midstream clean-catch specimen is not obtainable.
B. when the patient is unable to produce a specimen independently.
C. by the physician, nurse, or medical assistant.
D. all of the above. Correct
​ A 72-hour stool specimen is collected to determine:
A. fat quantities. Incorrect
B. occult blood.
C. protein concentrations.
D. creatine levels. Correct
​ A semen analysis must be:
A. delivered to the laboratory within 30 minutes of collection.
B. kept refrigerated. Incorrect
C. collected in a condom. Correct
D. obtained after a 5-day period of abstinence.
​ The following body fluids are always treated as stat specimens, except for:
A. urine. Incorrect
B. peritoneal fluid.
C. CSF. Correct
D. Synovial fluid.
​ The test used to dianose whooping cough, croup, and pneumonia is the:
A. SE test.
B. NP culture. Correct
C. throat swab. Incorrect
D. urinalysis.
​ The following specimens are always collected by a physician, except for the:
A. amniotic fluid.
B. urine specimen. Correct
 C. synovial fluid.
D. CSF. Incorrect
​ What type of urine testing usually requires a temperature-sensitive strip on the outside of the
container?
A. C&S
B. Pregnancy test
C. Routine
D. Drug test Correct
​ What urine collection technique requires a physician to collect the specimen?
A. Clean catch Incorrect
B. Suprapubic Correct
C. Catheterized
D. First morning
​ What urine collection technique requires a nurse or trained patient care assistant to collect
the specimen?
A. Catheterized Correct
B. Suprapubic Incorrect
C. Clean catch
D. First morning
​ Which organ of the body creates urine?
A. Bladder
B. Liver
C. Kidney Correct
D. Pancreas
​ Which of the following requires a sample of feces?
A. O&P Correct
B. C&S
C. NP
D. CSF
​ Analysis of breath is used to diagnose infections with
A. Gastritis.
B. Amoeba infections. Incorrect
C. H. pylori. Correct
D. Viruses.
​ What type of fecal testing is used to screen for colorectal cancer?
A. O&P
B. Occult blood Correct
 C. Culture
D. Fecal fat
​ Gastric fluid analysis requires a sample of
A. saliva.
B. feces.
C. stomach contents. Correct
D. tissue.
​ Saliva is collected for testing of
A. antibiotic resistance.
B. vitamin A excess.
C. hormone deficiencies. Correct
D. food allergies.