AP JCJ MODEL TEST 3/2025 (IPC, CrPC, IEA)

1. The term “illegal” is defined under which section of IPC ( )

a. Section 40
b. Section 41
c. Section 42
d. Section 43
2. Under IPC, which of the following is NOT considered a "public servant" ( )
a. A judge
b. A police officer
c. A lawyer
d. A government employee
3. The landmark judgment pertaining to ban on sale or easy availability of acid is ( )
a. Laxmi v UOI
b. Gulab sahiblal sheik v State of Maharashtra
c. Parivartan Kendra v UOI
d. Ravinder singh v State of Haryana
4. The term "Good faith" in IPC means ( )
a. Doing an act honestly regardless of due care
b. Doing an act with due care and attention
c. Doing an act for public benefit
d. Doing an act based on religious belief
5. Abetting the commission of suicide is dealt under ( )
a. Section 306 of IPC
b. Section 307 of IPC
c. Section 308 of IPC
d. Section 309 of IPC
6. The maxim “de minimis non curat lex” is connected with which provision of IPC ( )
a. Section 95
b. Section 96
c. Section 92
d. Section 93
7. Section 81 of IPC deals with ( )
a. Act likely to cause harm, done without criminal intent
b. Act done by a child under 7 years of age
c. Right of private defence
d. Attempt to commit suicide
8. The defence of "unsoundness of mind" is provided under ( )
a. Section 84
b. Section 85
c. Section 86
 d. Section 87
9. Every offence under IPC shall be understood subject to the general exceptions chapter is
mentioned in which section of IPC ( )
a. Section 6
b. Section 7
c. Section 5
d. Section 8
10. Culpable homicide is not murder when ( )
a. The offender had no knowledge of consequences
b. The act was done without intention
c. The death was caused due to grave and sudden provocation
d. The act was accidental
11. Dowry death is punishable under which section ( )
a. Section 302
b. Section 304B
c. Section 306
d. Section 498A
12. Kidnapping from lawful guardianship is dealt under which section of IPC ( )
a. Section 359
b. Section 360
c. Section 361
d. Section 362
13. The offense of robbery includes elements of ( )
a. Theft only
b. Extortion only
c. Either theft or extortion
d. Cheating
14. Nipun Saxena v Union of India is a landmark judgment pertaining to ( )
a. Section 228 of IPC
b. Section 228-A of IPC
c. Section 228-B of IPC
d. None of the above
15. According to section 406 of IPC, Punishment for Criminal breach of trust shall be ( )
a. Imprisonment upto three years or with fine or with both
b. Imprisonment upto three years and with fine
c. Imprisonment upto two years or with fine or with both
d. Imprisonment upto two years and fine upto ten thousand rupees
16. How many types of punishments are prescribed under IPC ( )
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
 d. 6
17. To constitute criminal conspiracy, there must be ( )
a. An agreement between two or more persons
b. A written contract
c. An actual commission of offense
d. A police complaint
18. According to section 465 of IPC, the punishment for committing forgery shall be ( )
a. Imprisonment up to one year or with fine or with both
b. Imprisonment up to two years or with fine or with both
c. Imprisonment up to one year and fine
d. Imprisonment up to two years and fine
19. Which section of IPC deals with cruelty by husband or relatives of husband ( )
a. Section 304B
b. Section 306
c. Section 498A
d. Section 375
20. Intercourse by a man with his wife during separation is dealt under ( )
a. Section 376 A of IPC
b. Section 376 B of IPC
c. Section 376 C of IPC
d. Section 376 D of IPC
21. The right to private defence is available with respect to ( )
a. Harm to body
b. Harm to immovable property
c. Harm to movable property
d. All of the above
22. The act of a child under ___ years of age is not an offence ( )
a. 5
b. 7
c. 14
d. 18
23. A makes an attempt to steal some jewels by breaking open a box, but finds no jewels
inside the box after it is opened. Which is the provision of law, which he may be held
guilty ( )
a. Section 511 IPC
b. Section 420 IPC
c. Section 379 IPC
d. None of the above
24. The statement ‘words referring to acts does not include illegal omission’ is ( )
a. True
b. False
 c. Partially true
d. None of the above
25. A law which is applicable to a particular subject is known as ( )
a. General law
b. Local law
c. Special law
d. Universal law
26. Whoever commits forgery of a document for the purpose of cheating is liable for
punishment under ( )
a. Section 465 IPC
b. Section 466 IPC
c. Section 467 IPC
d. Section 468 IPC
27. A finds gold ring, not knowing to whom it belongs. He sells it immediately without
attempting to discover the owner. Now he is guilty of an offence of ( )
a. Cheating
b. Theft
c. Criminal breach of trust
d. Dishonest misappropriation of property
28. How many kinds of hurt are designated as “Grevious” ( )
a. 6
b. 7
c. 8
d. 9
29. Voyeurism is defined under which section of IPC ( )
a. Section 354
b. Section 354A
c. Section 354B
d. Section 354C
30. The word ‘animal’ is defined under ( )
a. Section 45 IPC
b. Section 46 IPC
c. Section 47 IPC
d. Section 48 IPC
31. Section 305 of IPC deals with ( )
a. Attempt to commit culpable homicide
b. Abetment of suicide
c. Abetment of suicide of child or insane person
d. None of the above
32. ‘Wrongful gain’ and ‘Wrongful loss’ are defined under ( )
a. Section 22 IPC
 b. Section 23 IPC
c. Section 24 IPC
d. Section 25 IPC
33. Robbery is dacoity when the minimum number of persons involved is ( )
a. 10
b. 5
c. 3
d. 2
34. The guidelines regarding the arrest in cognizable offences punishable upto 7 years were
issued by the supreme court in ( )
a. Sania v Ram Singh
b. Jaikumar v State of Tamilnadu
c. Arnesh Kumar v State of Bihar
d. Sekar v State
35. Section 162 CrPc is not applicable to which sections of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ( )
a. Section 32(1) and Section 27
b. Section 33 and Section 27
c. Section 32 and Section 29
d. Section 32(1) and Section 23
36. When a wife is not entitled to claim maintenance or interim maintenance and expenses
of proceedings from her husband under section 125 CrPC ( )
a. If she is living in adultery
b. If she refuses to live with her husband without sufficient reason
c. If they are living separately by mutual consent
d. All of the above
37. An order passed under section 144 of CrPC generally remains in force for ( )
a. One month
b. Two months
c. Three months
d. Six months
38. Which section enables the Magistrate to direct search in his presence ( )
a. Section 113 of CrPC
b. Section 223 of CrPC
c. Section 323 of CrPC
d. Section 103 of CrPC
39. Can a warrant be issued in lieu of or in addition to summons ( )
a. Yes, under section 87 of CrPC
b. Yes, under section 88 of CrPC
c. Yes, under section 86 of CrPC
d. No
40. According to section 173(1) CrPC, every investigation shall be completed ( )
 a. Without unnecessary delay
b. Within sixty days
c. Within ninety days
d. Within three months
41. Section 127 CrPC deals with ( )
a. Place of proceedings relating to maintenance
b. Alteration in allowance
c. Enforcement of order of maintenance
d. None of the above
42. Under section 406 CrPC, Supreme Court has power to transfer criminal cases and
appeals in the ends of justice. Such transfer cannot be made ( )
a. Suo motu
b. On the application of attorney general
c. On the application of party interested
d. None of the above
43. An order passed under section 106 CrPC may remain in force for ( )
a. Not exceeding one year
b. Not exceeding two years
c. Not exceeding three years
d. There is no such time limit
44. A warrant shall remain in force until it is ( )
a. Cancelled by the court which issued it
b. Executed
c. Either (a) or (b)
d. None of the above
45. Section 395 CrPC deals with ( )
a. Appeal
b. Review
c. Reference
d. Revision
46. Which section enables the Magistrate to committal proceedings, if he finds after
commencement of inquiry or trial that such case should be committed ( )
a. Section 322 of CrPC
b. Section 323 of CrPC
c. Section 324 of CrPC
d. Section 326 of CrPC
47. An advocate who is accused ( )
I. Of a criminal offence is entitled to conduct his own defence
II. Of a criminal offence is not entitled to conduct his own defence
III. With others of a criminal offence is not entitled to appear at the trial as counsel for
his co-accused
 IV. With others of a criminal offence is entitled to appear at the trial as counsel for his co-
accused
a. I and III
b. I and IV
c. II and III
d. II and IV
48. An Executive Magistrate is empowered to grant remand under section 167 of Cr.P.C for
a maximum period of ( )
a. 15 days
b. 7 days
c. 30 days
d. 90 days
49. As per the guidelines laid down in Rajnesh v Neha case, the maintenance shall be paid
from ( )
a. The date of the application of maintenance
b. The date when the cause of action arouse
c. The date when the order is passed
d. At the discretion of the court
50. Delay in despatching the FIR to the Magistrate under section 157 of Cr PC ( )
a. Shall always throw out the prosecution case in its entirety
b. Shall never be a circumstance providing a legitimate basis for suspecting the FIR
c. May or may not be a circumstance providing a legitimate basis for suspecting the
FIR depending on the facts and circumstance brought on record
d. Either (b) or (c).
51. Under section 159 of Cr PC, the Magistrate has the power to ( )
a. Direct-investigation by the police
b. Depute any Magistrate subordinate to him to hold a preliminary inquiry
c. Either (a) or (b)
d. Only (b) and not (a)
52. The power to direct investigation under section 156(3) of Cr PC can be exercised by ( )
a. Any Magistrate
b. A Session Judge
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Either (a) or (b)
53. Which Section of Cr. PC. States that warrant issued by a Magistrate may be executed at
any place in India ( )
a. Section 57 Cr. PC.
b. Section 67 Cr. P.C.
c. Section 77 Cr. P.C.
d. Section 87 Cr. P.C.
54. Which of the following deals with the summary procedure for punishment for non-
attendance by a witness in obedience to summons ( )
a. Section 339 CrPC
b. Section 287 CrPC
c. Section 388 CrPC
d. Section 350 CrPC
55. Under CrPC, the power of revision is conferred on ( )
a. The High Court
b. The Sessions Court
c. The High Court as well as the Sessions Court
d. None of the above
56. Which section deals with the powers to summon material witnesses, or examine person
present, recall and re-examine any such person ( )
a. Section 310
b. Section 311
c. Section 312
d. Section 313
57. A petition for dispensing with the personal attendance of the accused may be filed
during enquiry or trial under ___ of CrPC ( )
a. Section 317
b. Section 318
c. Section 206
d. Section 207
58. Which of the following deals with Cancellation of bond and bailbond under CrPC ( )
a. Section 446
b. Section 449
c. Section 446A
d. Section 500
59. Power to quash FIR under section 482 of CrPC can be exercised by ( )
a. Judicial Magistrate of First Class
b. Court of Sessions
c. High Court
d. (b) and (c)
60. A person accused of an offence may apply for a plea bargaining in ( )
a. In the court in which his case is pending trial
b. In any court
c. In the High Court
d. In the police station
61. Section 41B of Cr. P.C. states that the memorandum of arrest under shall be ( )
a. attested by at least one witness, who is a member of the family of the person arrested
or a respectable member of the locality where the arrest is made
 b. countersigned by the person arrested
c. either (A) and (B)
d. both (A) and (B)
62. No woman shall be arrested after sunset and before sunrise and where such exceptional
circumstances to arrest exist, the woman police officer shall obtain prior permission of ( )
a. District Magistrate
b. Superintendent of Police
c. Judicial Magistrate of First Class
d. Sessions Judge
63. Section 164A of CrPC deals with ( )
a. Medical examination of victim of rape
b. Examination of accused of rape by doctor
c. Examination of arrested person by medical officer
d. None of the above
64. Which section of CrPC provides a person can be added as an accused when his role
surfaces during the course of evidence ( )
a. Section 319
b. Section 219
c. Section 183
d. Section 366
65. No police officer shall detain a person arrested in custody without a warrant for a period
exceeding ___ hours, exclusive of the time necessary for the journey from the place of
arrest to the Court of the Magistrate, other than by a special order of Magistrate ( )
a. 12 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 36 hours
d. 48 hours
66. A statement given before the police under section 161 of CrPC is ( )
a. Admissible in evidence
b. Inadmissible in evidence
c. Admissible in part
d. None of the above
67. According to section 2(x) of CrPC, a warrant case is – a case relating to an offence
punishable with death or imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term exceeding ( )
a. 3 years
b. 2 years
c. 1 year
d. 5 years but not less than 2 years
68. The guidelines regarding the arrest of judicial officers by the police were issued by the
Supreme court in ( )
a. Joginder kumar v State of UP
 b. MC Abraham v State of Maharashtra
c. DK Basu v Sate of West Bengal
d. Delhi Judicial Services Association v Sate of Gujarat
69. Admission is defined under which section of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ( )
a. Section 16
b. Section 17
c. Section 18
d. Section 19
70. Facts admitted ( )
a. Need to be proved
b. Should only be proved
c. Need not be proved
d. Should not be proved
71. Which section of Indian Evidence Act,1872 protects communication during marriage ( )
a. Section 122
b. Section 123
c. Section 124
d. Section 125
72. Conditions when hearsay evidence may be admissible ( )
a. When contemporaneous
b. When there is no interval enabling fabrication
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
73. The rule of Resgestae is applicable to ( )
a. Civil cases only
b. Criminal cases only
c. Civil as well as criminal cases
d. None of the above
74. Under section 60 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872, Oral evidence in all cases must be ( )
a. Inculpatory
b. Exculpatory
c. Direct
d. Circumstantial
75. An admission constitutes ( )
a. Substantive piece of evidence
b. Corroborative piece of evidence
c. Conclusive proof
d. None of the above
76. According to Sec. 138 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the order of examination shall be ( )
a. No particular order is necessary
b. Examination-in chief, cross-examination, re-examination
 c. Examination-in chief, re-examination, cross-examination
d. Re-examination, examination-in chief, cross-examination
77. As per the provisions of Indian Evidence Act, 1872, ( )
I. An inscription on a metal plate is a document
II. An inscription on a stone is a document
a. Both I and II are wrong
b. Both I and II are correct
c. Only I is correct
d. Only II is correct
78. Who can record a dying declaration ( )
a. Magistrate concerned
b. Investigation officer himself
c. Station House Officer
d. Any of the above
79. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872, Burden of proof as to ownership lies on ( )
a. The owner
b. The tenant
c. The person who asserts it
d. All of the above
80. Under Indian Evidence Act, Fact means and includes ( )
a. Anything perceived by the senses
b. State of things capable of being perceived by the senses
c. Mental condition of the person of which a person is conscious
d. All of the above
81. Section 75 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with ( )
a. Primary evidence
b. Secondary evidence
c. Public document
d. Private document
82. Any question suggesting the answer as per section 141 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is ( )
a. Legal question
b. Logical question
c. Leading question
d. Lawful question
83. Test Identification Parade pertains to the field of ( )
a. Investigation
b. Trial
c. Evidence
d. (a) and (c)
84. In which of the following cases, a preliminary enquiry permitted by the supreme court
in the Lalitha Kumari Judgment ( )
 a. Matrimonial disputes of family disputes
b. Commercial offences
c. Medical negligence cases
d. All of the above
85. The relevancy of facts forming part of the same transaction under section 6 of Indian
Evidence Act, 1872 is known as ( )
a. Res ipsa loquitur
b. Resjudicata
c. Ressubjudice
d. Resgestae
86. Which of the following section in Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with expert opinion ( )
a. Section 32
b. Section 43
c. Section 45
d. Section 54
87. Which of the following section of Indian Evidence Act,1872 states that – “No confession
made to a police officer shall be proved against a person accused of any offence” ( )
a. Section 24
b. Section 28
c. Section 19
d. Section 25
88. Section 73A relating to ‘Proof as to verification of digital signature’ was inserted into
Indian Evidence Act,1872 by which of the following Acts ( )
a. Evidence Amendment Act, 2017
b. Right to Information Act, 2005
c. Information Technology Act, 2000
d. Evidence Amendment Act, 2000
89. Secondary evidence of a document under the Indian Evidence Act,1872 means ( )
a. Copy of the document
b. Oral account of the contents of the document
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Only (a) and not (b)
90. Which of the following statements hold true for dying declarations ( )
a. Dying declarations cannot be used as a sole basis of conviction
b. Dying declarations unless corroborated cannot be used as sole basis of conviction
c. Dying declaration which is brief must be discarded
d. When eyewitness affirms that the deceased was not in a fit state to make the
declaration, medical opinion cannot prevail
91. A person summoned to produce a document ( )
a. Does not become a witness in the case unless he is called as a witness
b. Automatically becomes a witness in the case
 c. Automatically becomes an hostile witness in the case
d. Can be cross examined without being called as a witness
92. Which of the following statements hold true for examination in chief of a witness ( )
a. The leading questions can be used
b. It must only relate to relevant facts
c. It must only relate to the fact in question
d. All of these
93. In which of the following section prescribe the method by which handwriting can be
proved ( )
a. Section 45, Indian Evidence Act
b. Section 46, Indian Evidence Act
c. Section 47, Indian Evidence Act
d. both (A) and (B)
94. an accomplice shall be a competent witness against ( )
a. Accused person
b. Himself
c. Prosecution
d. Defence
95. Section 65, Indian Evidence Act with which of the following situation under which
secondary evidence can be given ( )
a. When the original is shown or appears to be in possession and power of the person
against whom the document is sought to be proved
b. When it is in possession or power of any person who is out of reach, or not subject to
the process of the Court
c. When it is in the possession of any person legally bound to produce it, but he fails to
produce it after the notice mentioned in Section 66, Indian Evidence Act is given to
him
d. All of them
96. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with admission by
person from whom interest is derived ( )
a. Section 12
b. Section 16
c. Section 13
d. Section 18
97. Which of the following is true concerning retracted confession ( )
a. It is the law that once a confession is retracted, the Court should presume that it was
tainted and be thrown overboard
b. The retracted confession of co-accused is very weak and if retracted, the same is
admissible against the maker of it
c. The Court is bound to take the factum of retraction of confession
d. Retracted confession must be looked upon with lesser concern
98. The defence of Plea of alibi is dealt under ( )
a. Section 11 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872
b. Section 10 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872
c. Section 13 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872
d. Section 12 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872
99. Documents which are not covered under section 74 of Evidence Act are called ( )
a. Semi-public documents
b. Quasi-public documents
c. Private documents
d. All the above
100. The calling of at least one attesting witness to prove a document under section 68
is not necessary ( )
a. When the document other than a will is registered under the Indian Registration Act,
1908
b. When the document including Will is registered under the Indian Registration Act,
1908
c. When the document irrespective of whether it is a Will, is registered under the
Indian Registration Act, 1908
d. Both (b) & (c) are correct