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Mock 7

The document is a mock examination paper for General Studies, consisting of 53 objective-type questions covering various topics such as Indian history, geography, economics, and the Constitution. Each question includes multiple-choice answers, and the paper is designed for a duration of 2 hours with a maximum score of 200 marks. It serves as a preparatory tool for candidates appearing for the Odisha Public Service Commission (OPSC) exams.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
42 views20 pages

Mock 7

The document is a mock examination paper for General Studies, consisting of 53 objective-type questions covering various topics such as Indian history, geography, economics, and the Constitution. Each question includes multiple-choice answers, and the paper is designed for a duration of 2 hours with a maximum score of 200 marks. It serves as a preparatory tool for candidates appearing for the Odisha Public Service Commission (OPSC) exams.

Uploaded by

rspal9689
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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ODISHA VIDYA ACADEMY

OPSC OMAS GS MOCK-7


GENERAL STUDIES
Time Duration : 2 Hour

OBJECTIVE TYPE [ Marks:0X0 = 0]

Question No: 1
Which of the following nation has parliamentary government but is not republic?
(a) India (b) U.K (c) China (d) Nepal
Question No: 2
Who is famous as ‘Deenbandhu’?
(a) Vinoba Bhave (b) C.F. Andrewz (c) A.O. Hume (d) Veer Savarkar
Question No: 3
Who among the following believed in Blood and Iron policy?
(a) Aibak (b) Balban (c) Razia (d) Itlutmish
Question No: 4
Lenin introduced New Economic Policy in the year
(a) 1917 (b) 1919 (c) 1921 (d) 1924
Question No: 5
Rashtriya Swayam Sewak Sangh was established in:
(a) Vijaydashmi-1925 A.D (b) Vijaydashmi-1930 A.D
(c) Deepawali-1942 A.D (d) Deepawali -1947A.D.
Question No: 6
Who among the following is regarded as War God in Rigveda?
(a) Agni (b) Indra
(c) Surya (d) Varuna
Question No: 7
When was Tashkent Agreement concluded?
(a) 1962 (b) 1964 (c) 1966 (d) 1968
Question No: 8
Which were the three Presidency Towns in British India?
(a) Calcutta, Delhi, (b) Delhi, Bombay, (c) Calcutta, (d) Calcutta, Bombay, Madras
Bombay Madras Delhi, Madras
Question No: 9
The Great Economic Depression took place in:
(a) America (b) Russia
(c) France (d) England
Question No: 10
The largest number of Rigvedic hymns are devoted to :
(a) Agni (b) Indra
(c) Rudra (d) Vishnu
Question No: 11
Which authority has the power to suspend fundamental rights in India?
(a) Supreme Court (b) Parliament
(c) Prime Minister (d) President
Question No: 12
Among the following ideals and philosophy, identify those enshrined in the Preamble to the
Constitution of India:
1. Sovereign democratic republic
2. Socialism and secularism
3. Capitalism and free trade
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only
Question No: 13
The term ‘state’ has been defined in which of the following articles of Indian Constitution?
(a) Article 1 (b) Article 8
(c) Article 10 (d) Article 12
Question No: 14
Ashoka was the son of
(a) Chandragupta (b) Brihadratha
(c) Bindusar (d) Ramagupta
Question No: 15
Which Chief Justice of India has acted as the Acting President of India?
(a) T. S. Thakur (b) Mohammad Hidayatullah
(c) Ranganath Mishra (d) Mizra Hameedullah Beg
Question No: 16
Education is considered under which list of Indian Constitution?
(a) Union List (b) State List
(c) Concurrent List (d) Residuary list
Question No: 17
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Constituent Assembly (Chairman)
Committee)
A. Steering Committee 1. Sardar Vallabhbai Patel
B. Fundamental Rights Sub- Committee 2. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
C. Union Constitution Committee 3. J.B. Kripalani
D. Provincial Constitution Committee 4. Jawaharlal Nehru
(a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 (b) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
(c) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1 (d) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
Question No: 18
In the reference of Right to Information 2005, which of the following institution and its highest
information official is not correctly matched?
Institution
A. Supreme Court
B. Union Public Service Commission
C. Lok Sabha
D. State’s High court
Competent Official
(a) The Chief Justice of India (b) The chairman, Union Public Service
Commission
(c) The Speaker, Lok Sabha (d) The Chief Justice of High Court
Question No: 19
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) U.P. and Bihar have bicameral legislature. (b) U.P. and Haryana have bicameral
legislature.
(c) Bihar and Assam have bicameral Legislature (d) Bihar and Punjab and bicameral
Legislature.
Question No: 20
Which one of the following statements reflects the republic character of Indian democracy?
(a) Written Constitution (b) No State religion
(c) Devolution of power to local Government (d) Elected President and directly or
institutions indirectly elected Parliament
Question No: 21
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Under the provisions of Article 200 of the Constitution of India the Governor of a state may
1. Withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the state legislature.
2. Reserve the Bill passed by the state legislature for consideration of the President.
3. Return the Bill other than a money Bill, for reconsideration of the legislature.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above
Question No: 22
Which rights are not given to foreigners?
(a) Economic Rights (b) Social Rights
(c) Political Rights (d) Civil Rights
Question No: 23
Which of the following words were added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in
1976?
1. SOCIALIST
2. REPUBLIC
3. SECULAR
4. FERATERNITY
5. UNITY & INTEGRITY
(a) 1, 3 and 5 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 4 and 5 (d) 2, 4 and 5
Question No: 24
Who is the Chief Commander of Indian Army?
(a) Prime Minister (b) Defense Minister
(c) President (d) Vice President
Question No: 25
Which of the following fundamental rights has been given to Indian citizen only
(a) Equality before law (b) Freedom of speech
(c) Life and personal liberty (d) Freedom of religion
Question No: 26
List-I List-II
A. Monetarism 1. R.F. Khan
B. Employment
Multiplier 2. T.Haavelmo
C. Multiplier effect
Of balanced budget 3. John Muth
D. Rational
expectation hypothesis 4. Milton Friedman
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 1 3 4 2 (d) 3 2 1 4
Question No: 27
In India the first effort to measure poverty was done by
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji (b) D.T.Lakdawala
(c) Prof. Robbins (d) Prof. Keynes
Question No: 28
Maruti views Tata Motors as a prominent competitor but does not view Volvo as a competitor. This
type of competition in the market is known as
(a) Product competition (b) Product flow competition
(c) Cost control competition (d) None of these
Question No: 29
When economic development takes place
(a) Specialisation increases (b) Commercialisation decreases
(c) Market imperfection increases (d) None of the above
Question No: 30
Who among of the following is appointed as the President of ASSOCHAM.
(a) R. Shiv Kumar (b) Sandeep jajodia
(c) Rana Kapoor (d) Sunil Kanoria
Question No: 31
European Union decided to enforce European Stability Mechanism (ESM). ESM is a system to
achieve/ safeguard.
(a) financial stability (b) political stability
(c) free access to oil reserves in UAE and (d) free access to uranium reserves in Libya
Kuwait
Question No: 32
In case of Small Finance banks (SFB) , the loan size and investment limit exposure to single
(a) 15 per cent of total advances (b) 10 per cent of capital funds
(c) 15 per cent of capital funds (d) 10 per cent of total advances
Question No: 33
Assertion (A): The R.B.I lends money to commercial banks in the events of any shortfall of funds.
Reason (R) : The R.B.I controls the supply of money through reverse repo rate.
Select the correct option from the given alternatives.
A. A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
B. R is correct and A is wrong
C. Both A and R are wrong
D. A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D
Question No: 34
GDP is the total volume of ____________ produced during an accounting year in a country.
(a) all goods and services (b) all final goods and services
(c) all intermediate goods and services (d) all intermediate and final goods and services
Question No: 35
Which of the following activity is not related to the primary sector?
(a) Forestry (b) Animal Husbandry
(c) Mining and quarrying (d) Tourism
Question No: 36
Which of the following would cause the aggregate demand curve to shift to the right?
(a) an increase in purchase by the federal (b) an increase in real interest rates
government
(c) an appreciation of the American dollar (d) a decrease in the money supply
Question No: 37
Form of Human Resources is
(a) Machine (b) Money (c) Raw Material (d) Teacher
Question No: 38
Demand for a commodity refers to
(a) Desire for that commodity (b) Need for that commodity
(c) Quantity demand for the commodity (d) Quantity demanded at certain price
during any particular period of time
Question No: 39
In the context of the affairs of which of the following is the phrase ‘Special Safeguard Mechanisms”
mentioned in the news frequently?
(a) United Nations Environment Programme (b) World Trade Organization
(c) ASEAN- India Free Trade Agreement (d) G-20 Summits
Question No: 40
Read the following statements carefully:
1. In public sector of India there are basic and heavy industries.
2. All industries of public sector are profit oriented.
3. Jobs are secured in the industries of public sector.
Answer on the basis of following codes:
(a) 1 and 2 are true (b) 1 and 3 are true
(c) 2 and 3 are true (d) 1, 2 and 3 are true
Question No: 41
Match list ‘A’ with the list ‘B’ and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
List ‘A’ List ‘B’
A. Vitasta 1. Ravi
B. Asikni 2. Chenab
C. Parushni 3. Jhelam
D. Satudri 4. Beas
E. Vipasa 5. Sutlej
(a) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-5, E-4 (b) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-5, E-2
(c) A-5, B-4, C-2, D-3, E-1 (d) A-3, B-2, C-5, D-1, E-4
Question No: 42
Who formed the Swaraj Party
(a) Jawaharalal Nehru and Mahatma (b) Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose
Gandhi
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru and Motilal Nehru (d) Motilal Nehru and C.R. Dass
Question No: 43
Who led the Scholar’s Revolt?
(a) Pham Boi Chau (b) Phan Chu Trinh
(c) The official at the imperial court (d) The people of Mekong Delta
Question No: 44
Name the site which has revealed the earliest evidence of settled life?
(a) Harappa (b) Mohenjodaro
(c) Kalibangan (d) Mehargarh
Question No: 45
Who is the author of Jane Eyre?
(a) Jane Austen (b) Charlotte Bronte
(c) William Hogarta (d) Samuel Richardson
Question No: 46
Non-Co-Operation movement continued till…………..
(a) 1920-22 (b) 1925-26 (c) 1918-20 (d) 1927-29
Question No: 47
The economy of Rigvedic time was :
(a) Urban (b) Rural
(c) Mixed (d) None of these
Question No: 48
A statue of bearded man was found at
(a) Harappa (b) Mohenjodaro
(c) Chanhudaro (d) Dholavira
Question No: 49
When did Dandi March Start?
(a) 12th April, 1930 (b) 12th March, 1931 (c) th
12 March (d) 12th April, 1931
1930
ODISHA VIDYA ACADEMY

OPSC OMAS GS MOCK-7


GENERAL STUDIES
Maximum Marks : 200 Time Duration : 2 Hour

OBJECTIVE TYPE [ Marks:0X0 = 0]

Question No: 50
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List – I List – II
A. Tropical forest 1. Sundarbans
B. Conifer forest 2. Himachal Pradesh
C. Mangroves 3. Rajasthan
D. Deciduous forest 4. Silent Valley
(a) A B C D (b) A B C D
1 2 4 3 2 1 4 3
(c) A B C D (d) A B C D
1 4 2 3 4 2 1 3
Question No: 51
Durand Line is the boundary between
(a) India and Pakistan (b) India and China
(c) Pakistan and Afghanistan (d) India and Afghanistan
Question No: 52
How much is the mass of the moon when compared with that of the earth?
(a) 1/49 (b) 1/81
(c) 1/51 (d) 1/8
Question No: 53
Which of the following concepts form basis for the Plate Tectonic Theory? Use the codes given
below to select the correct answer:
1. Continental drift
2. Isostasy
3. Paleomagnetism
4. Pole wandering
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
Question No: 54
When following fissures in the rocks, its both parts slide in front and one part slides over the other,
the resulting feature is
(a) Lateral fault (b) Step fault
(c) Reverse fault (d) Normal fault
Question No: 55
Which river flows through a narrow valley between the Vindhya and Satpura ranges?
(a) Narmada (b) Tapti
(c) Both of these (d) None of these
Question No: 56
Which one of the following does not implement the Self-Help groups (SHGs) Bank Linkage
programme?
(a) Janshree Bima Yojana 2000 (b) National Rural Health Mission
(c) MGNREGA 2003 (d) Arm Admi Bima Yojana 2007
Question No: 57
Which one among the following is not a programme under RIDF?
(a) Rural Water Supply (b) Rural Roads
(c) Rural Electrification (d) Rural Industries
Question No: 58
When was the National Programme of Nutritional Support to Primary Education was launched in
the year 2000?
(a) 1995 (b) 2004
(c) 2007 (d) 2010
Question No: 59
Which one of the following manufacturers is engaged in upgradation of the Swedish 155-mm Bofors
Howitzer under the project ‘Dhanush’?
(a) Bharat Electronics Limited (b) Ordnance Factory Board
(c) Bharat Dynamics Limited (d) Mishra Dhatu Nigam
Question No: 60
It is possible to produce algae-based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing
countries in promoting the industry?
1. Production of algae based biofuels is possible in seas only and not on continents.
2. Setting up and engineering the algae based biofuel production requires high level of expertise/
technology until the construction is completed.
3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large scale facilities which may
raise ecological and social concerns.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Question No: 61
Upper part of sea/aquatic ecosystem contains
(a) plankton (b) nekton
(c) plankton and nekton (d) benthos
Question No: 62
The cycling of elements in an eco-system is called
(a) Chemical cycles (b) Biogeochemical cycles
(c) Geological cycles (d) Geochemical cycles
Question No: 63
‘Konkan Railways’ stretches along the
(a) Northern plains (b) East Coast
(c) West Coast (d) Great Indian desert
Question No: 64
What percent of area in the plain should be under forest?
(a) 21% (b) 25%
(c) 17% (d) 33%
Question No: 65
Which one of the following is not helpful in maintaining ecological stability?
(a) Ecosystem complexity (b) Ecosystem diversity
(c) Ecosystem uniformity (d) Homeostatic mechanism
Question No: 66
In the communities found deep in the ocean off the shore of Japan, bacteria have special enzymes
that allow them to form organic matter by chemosynthesis. These communities frequently have
worms, clams, shrimp and many other organisms clustered together. These communities nestle
around hydrothermal vents where super heated water, spring form the bottom of the ocean. In
hydrothermal vent communities, we would not expect to find:
(a) carbon compounds (b) chemosynthesis
(c) chlorophyll (d) producers
Question No: 67
Which of the following types of natural hazards have the highest potential to cause damage to
humans ?
(a) Earthquakes (b) Forest fires
(c) Volcanic eruptions (d) Droughts and Floods
Question No: 68
‘Fly ash’ produced in thermal power plants is an ecofriendly resource for use in:
(a) agriculture as micro-nutrient
(b) wasteland development
(c) dam and water holding structures
(d) brick industry
Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
(a) (a), (b) and (d) only (b) (b), (c) and (d) only
(c) (a), (c) and (d) only (d) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Question No: 69
Which one of the following is not related to water pollution?
(a) Eutrophication (b) Nitrification
(c) Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) (d) Oil slicks
Question No: 70
Which of the following is a source of emissions leading to the eventual formation of surface ozone as
a pollutant ?
(a) Transport sector (b) Refrigeration and Airconditioning
(c) Wetlands (d) Fertilizers
Question No: 71
Which of the following fuels would produce minimum environmental pollution?
(a) Hydrogen (b) Diesel
(c) Kerosene (d) Coal
Question No: 72
Which one of the following is important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity ?
(a) Biosphere Reserves (b) Botanical Gardens
(c) National Parks (d) Wildlife Sanctuaries
Question No: 73
The loss of biodiversity is due to
(a) the destruction of natural habitats of (b) environmental pollution
organisms
(c) destruction of forests (d) all the above
Question No: 74
Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be
its likely consequence/consequences?
1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected.
2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants.
3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Question No: 75
Consider the following statements
1. The Nobel prize awarding ceremony takes place on December 10 of every year.
2. The Nobel prize for Literature was added later on to the other five existing areas- Physics,
chemistry, physiology or Medicine, Peace and Economics.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Question No: 76
Two circular coils having identical turns and radius in the ratio 1 : 3 are joined in series. Find the
ratio of magnetic field at the centres of coils.
(a) (b) (c) (d) 4:1
Question No: 77
Mg+CuO→MgO+Cu
Which of the following is wrong relating to the above reaction?
(a) CuO gets reduced (b) Mg gets oxidized
(c) CuO get oxidized (d) It is a redox reaction
Question No: 78
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
A. Zero mass 1. Positron
B. Fractional charge 2. Neutrino
C. Fractional spin 3. Quark
D. Integral spin 4. Photon
(a) A B C D (b) A B C D
4 3 1 2 3 2 4 1
(c) A B C D (d) A B C D
2 3 4 1 3 2 1 4
Question No: 79
In which phylum nerve cells are found but nerves are absent?
(a) Porifera (b) Coelenterata
(c) Platyhelminthes (d) Nemathelminthes
Question No: 80
Match the items in Column I with Column II.
Column I Column II
(1) Riboflavin (i) Anemia
(2) Folic acid (ii) scurvy
(3) Retinol (iii) Glossitis
(4) Ascorbic acid (iv) Night blindness
Select the correct matching
(a) 1-(iii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(ii) (b) 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)
(c) 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii) (d) 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
Question No: 81
Computer virus is a
(a) fungus (b) bacgterium
(c) IC 7344 (d) software program
Question No: 82
Which one of the following is responsible for the stimulating effect of tea?
(a) Tannin (b) Steroid
(c) Alkaloid (d) Flavonoid
Question No: 83
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Nangal Dam – Satluj River (b) Sardar Sarovar Project – Narmada River
(c) Nagarjun Sagar – Godavari River (d) Hirakund Dam – Mahanadi
Question No: 84
Which one of the following Committee is not connected with Panchayati Raj Institution?
(a) P. V. N. Rao Committee (b) L.M. Singhvi Committee
(c) Ashok Mehta Committee (d) Balwat Rai Mehta Committee
Question No: 85
Which one among the following Committees of the parliament of India has no members of the Rajya
Sabha?
(a) Public Accounts Committee (b) Estimates Committee
(c) Public Undertaking Committee (d) Departmentally Related Standing v on
Finance
Question No: 86
Match the peasant’s revolts of the 19th century with their respective areas.
(a) Kuki revolt 1. Punjab
(b) Kuka revolt 2. Bengal
(c) Pabna Peasant revolt 3. Bihar
(d) Birsa Munda revolt 4. Tripura
Choose your answer with the help of given code:
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 4 1 2 3
Question No: 87
Match the following:
List-I List-II
Author Book
1. Abdul fazl (a) Akbarnama
2. Nizam-ud-Din Ahmad (b) Tabaqat- Akbari
3. Gulbadan Begum (c) Humayun-Naima
4. Jauhar (d) Takzkiratul-Waqiat
Select the correct answer.
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 1 2 4 3 (d) 3 4 2 1
Question No: 88
A bullet is fired vertically up from a 400 m tall tower with a speed 80 m/s. If g is taken as 10 m/s2,
the time taken by the bullet to reach the ground will be
(a) 8s (b) 16 s
(c) 20 s (d) 24 s
Question No: 89
Who declared that his ultimate aim was to wipe ‘every tear from every eye?
(a) Rajendra Prasad (b) Sardar Patel
(c) J.L. Nehru (d) Mahatma Gandhi
Question No: 90
The official currency of the “kingdom of Denmark” is known as
(a) Danish Krona (b) Danish Korana
(c) Danish Kuna (d) Danish Krone
Question No: 91
Which off the following interior layers of the Earth is also called “Nife”?
(a) Crust (b) Mantle
(c) Core (d) Sial
Question No: 92
Which of these Is not a Himachal range?
(a) DhaulaDhar (b) Piranjal Range
(c) Kailash Range (d) Mahabharat Range
Question No: 93
Mauna Loa is an active volcano of
(a) Alaska (b) Hawaii
(c) Italy (d) Japan
Question No: 94
From which language the word ‘Monsoon’ has been derived?
(a) Hindi (b) Arabic
(c) German (d) English
Question No: 95
‘The valley of Flower’ lies in
(a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Uttarakhand
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Kerala
Question No: 96
Sugar Milks of Bihar are principally situated in the district of
(a) Patna and Nalanda (b) Munger and Gaya
(c) West Champaran and East Champaran (d) Katihar and Purnea
Question No: 97
Himalayas have been divided on the basis of regions from west to east. Which is known as
A. The part of Himalayas lying 1. Kumaon Himalayas
between Indus and Sutlej
B. The part of Himalayas lying 2. Punjab Himalays
between Sutlej and Kali
C. The part lying between 3. Nepal Himalayas
Tista and Dihang
D. The part of lying between 4. Assam Himalayas
Kali and Tista
Codes
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 3 2 1 4
Question No: 98
The state with highest population density in India.
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra (d) west Bengal
Question No: 99
Which one of the following describes the Lithosphere?
(a) Upper and lower mantle (b) Crust and upper mantle
(c) Crust and core (d) Mantle and core
ODISHA VIDYA ACADEMY
OPSC OMAS GS MOCK-7
GENERAL STUDIES
Time Duration : 2 Hour

Answer Key

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

b d b c a b c d

9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16

a b d a b c b c

17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24

a b a d d c a c

25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32

b b a a a d a b

33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

d b d a d d b b

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48

a d c d b a b b

49

c
SOLUTIONS

Question No: 1
U.K
Question No: 2
Veer Savarkar
Question No: 3
Balban
Question No: 4
1921
Question No: 5
Vijaydashmi-1925 A.D
Question No: 6
Indra
Question No: 7
1966
Question No: 8
Calcutta, Bombay, Madras
Question No: 9
America
Question No: 10
Indra
Question No: 11
President
Question No: 12
1 and 2 only
Question No: 13
Article 8
Question No: 14
Bindusar
Question No: 15
Mohammad Hidayatullah
Question No: 16
Concurrent List
Question No: 17
A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
Question No: 18
The chairman, Union Public Service Commission
Question No: 19
U.P. and Bihar have bicameral legislature.
Question No: 20
Elected President and directly or indirectly elected Parliament
Question No: 21
All of the above
Question No: 22
Political Rights
Question No: 23
1, 3 and 5
Question No: 24
President
Question No: 25
Freedom of speech
Question No: 26
4 1 2 3
Question No: 27
Dadabhai Naoroji
Question No: 28
Product competition
Question No: 29
Specialisation increases
Question No: 30
Sunil Kanoria
Question No: 31
financial stability
Question No: 32
10 per cent of capital funds
Question No: 33
D
Question No: 34
all final goods and services
Question No: 35
Tourism
Question No: 36
an increase in purchase by the federal government
Question No: 37
Teacher
Question No: 38
Quantity demanded at certain price during any particular period of time
Question No: 39
World Trade Organization
Question No: 40
1 and 3 are true
Question No: 41
A-3, B-2, C-1, D-5, E-4
Question No: 42
Motilal Nehru and C.R. Dass
Question No: 43
The official at the imperial court
Question No: 44
Mehargarh
Question No: 45
Charlotte Bronte
Question No: 46
1920-22
Question No: 47
Rural
Question No: 48
Mohenjodaro
Question No: 49
12th March 1930
ODISHA VIDYA ACADEMY
OPSC OMAS GS MOCK-7
GENERAL STUDIES
Maximum Marks : 200 Time Duration : 2 Hour

Answer Key

50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57

d c b c c a c d

58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65

a b b a b c d c

66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73

c d d b a a a d

74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81

c a c c a b a d

82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89

c c a b d d c c

90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97

d c c b b b c c

98 99

b b
SOLUTIONS

Question No: 50
A B C D
4 2 1 3
Question No: 51
Pakistan and Afghanistan
Question No: 52
1/81
Question No: 53
1 and 3
Question No: 54
Reverse fault
Question No: 55
Narmada
Question No: 56
MGNREGA 2003
Question No: 57
Rural Industries
Question No: 58
1995
Question No: 59
Ordnance Factory Board
Question No: 60
2 and 3 only
Question No: 61
plankton
Question No: 62
Biogeochemical cycles
Question No: 63
West Coast
Question No: 64
33%
Question No: 65
Ecosystem uniformity
Question No: 66
chlorophyll
Question No: 67
Droughts and Floods
Question No: 68
(a), (b), (c) and (d)
Question No: 69
Nitrification
Question No: 70
Transport sector
Question No: 71
Hydrogen
Question No: 72
Biosphere Reserves
Question No: 73
all the above
Question No: 74
1 and 3 only
Question No: 75
1 only
Question No: 76

Question No: 77
CuO get oxidized
Question No: 78
A B C D
4 3 1 2
Question No: 79
Coelenterata
Question No: 80
1-(iii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(ii)
Question No: 81
software program
Question No: 82
Alkaloid
Question No: 83
Nagarjun Sagar – Godavari River
Question No: 84
P. V. N. Rao Committee
Question No: 85
Estimates Committee
Question No: 86
A B C D
4 1 2 3
Question No: 87
3 4 2 1
Question No: 88
20 s
Question No: 89
J.L. Nehru
Question No: 90
Danish Krone
Question No: 91
Core
Question No: 92
Kailash Range
Question No: 93
Hawaii
Question No: 94
Arabic
Question No: 95
Uttarakhand
Question No: 96
West Champaran and East Champaran
Question No: 97
2 1 4 3
Question No: 98
Uttar Pradesh
Question No: 99
Crust and upper mantle

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