Cambridge International AS & A Level

CHEMISTRY 9701/31
Paper 3 Advanced Practical Skills 1 May/June 2023
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

Published

This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.

Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2023 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components.

This document consists of 11 printed pages.

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9701/31 Cambridge International AS & A Level – Mark Scheme May/June 2023
PUBLISHED
Generic Marking Principles

These general marking principles must be applied by all examiners when marking candidate answers. They should be applied alongside the
specific content of the mark scheme or generic level descriptors for a question. Each question paper and mark scheme will also comply with these
marking principles.

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 1:

Marks must be awarded in line with:

 the specific content of the mark scheme or the generic level descriptors for the question
 the specific skills defined in the mark scheme or in the generic level descriptors for the question
 the standard of response required by a candidate as exemplified by the standardisation scripts.

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 2:

Marks awarded are always whole marks (not half marks, or other fractions).

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 3:

Marks must be awarded positively:

 marks are awarded for correct/valid answers, as defined in the mark scheme. However, credit is given for valid answers which go beyond
the scope of the syllabus and mark scheme, referring to your Team Leader as appropriate
 marks are awarded when candidates clearly demonstrate what they know and can do
 marks are not deducted for errors
 marks are not deducted for omissions
 answers should only be judged on the quality of spelling, punctuation and grammar when these features are specifically assessed by the
question as indicated by the mark scheme. The meaning, however, should be unambiguous.

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 4:

Rules must be applied consistently, e.g. in situations where candidates have not followed instructions or in the application of generic level
descriptors.

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GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 5:

Marks should be awarded using the full range of marks defined in the mark scheme for the question (however; the use of the full mark range may
be limited according to the quality of the candidate responses seen).

GENERIC MARKING PRINCIPLE 6:

Marks awarded are based solely on the requirements as defined in the mark scheme. Marks should not be awarded with grade thresholds or
grade descriptors in mind.

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Science-Specific Marking Principles

1 Examiners should consider the context and scientific use of any keywords when awarding marks. Although keywords may be present, marks
should not be awarded if the keywords are used incorrectly.

2 The examiner should not choose between contradictory statements given in the same question part, and credit should not be awarded for
any correct statement that is contradicted within the same question part. Wrong science that is irrelevant to the question should be ignored.

3 Although spellings do not have to be correct, spellings of syllabus terms must allow for clear and unambiguous separation from other
syllabus terms with which they may be confused (e.g. ethane / ethene, glucagon / glycogen, refraction / reflection).

4 The error carried forward (ecf) principle should be applied, where appropriate. If an incorrect answer is subsequently used in a scientifically
correct way, the candidate should be awarded these subsequent marking points. Further guidance will be included in the mark scheme
where necessary and any exceptions to this general principle will be noted.

5 ‘List rule’ guidance

For questions that require n responses (e.g. State two reasons …):

 The response should be read as continuous prose, even when numbered answer spaces are provided.
 Any response marked ignore in the mark scheme should not count towards n.
 Incorrect responses should not be awarded credit but will still count towards n.
 Read the entire response to check for any responses that contradict those that would otherwise be credited. Credit should not be
awarded for any responses that are contradicted within the rest of the response. Where two responses contradict one another, this
should be treated as a single incorrect response.
 Non-contradictory responses after the first n responses may be ignored even if they include incorrect science.

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6 Calculation specific guidance

Correct answers to calculations should be given full credit even if there is no working or incorrect working, unless the question states ‘show
your working’.

For questions in which the number of significant figures required is not stated, credit should be awarded for correct answers when rounded
by the examiner to the number of significant figures given in the mark scheme. This may not apply to measured values.

For answers given in standard form (e.g. a  10n) in which the convention of restricting the value of the coefficient (a) to a value between 1
and 10 is not followed, credit may still be awarded if the answer can be converted to the answer given in the mark scheme.

Unless a separate mark is given for a unit, a missing or incorrect unit will normally mean that the final calculation mark is not awarded.
Exceptions to this general principle will be noted in the mark scheme.

7 Guidance for chemical equations

Multiples / fractions of coefficients used in chemical equations are acceptable unless stated otherwise in the mark scheme.

State symbols given in an equation should be ignored unless asked for in the question or stated otherwise in the mark scheme.

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Question Answer Marks

1(a) I Single table to show results for five experiments (volume of FA 1, volume of water, time and rate) 8

II Appropriate headings and units for recorded data given

Volume units for headings: / cm3 or (cm3) or in cm3
Time units for headings: / s or (s) or in seconds
Rate units for headings: / s–1 or (s−1) or per second
OR units of cm3, s or s–1 against each entry

III All times recorded to nearest second

AND all volumes given to 2 dp with the final digit being 0 or 5 cm3

IV Three additional volumes chosen with intervals not less than 5 cm3
AND all volumes of FA 1 not less than 15.00 cm3

V In all additional experiments water is added to make a total of 40.00 cm3

VI All rates correctly calculated using 1000 / time

All recorded to minimum of two significant figures or integer value AND from at least three experiments

Accuracy marks
Time for 20.00 cm3 of FA 1
Calculate ratio: to two decimal places
Time for 40.00 cm3 of FA 1

VII Award for ratio 1.70–2.40

VIII Award for ratio 1.90–2.20

1(b) I Rate on y-axis and volume of FA 1 on x-axis with unambiguous labels or units 4

II Linear scales (starting at 0,0) chosen so that the graph occupies at least half the available length for both axes

III Five recorded points plotted correctly

IV Draws a line of best fit straight line or smooth curve

AND anomalous point(s), if any, should be ringed

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Question Answer Marks

1(c) Yes / directly proportional and as straight line through / close to origin 1
OR no / not directly proportional and line not through origin / curve

1(d) M1 Line drawn at 12.50 cm3 and line drawn across to rate axis 2
OR marks on rate and volume axes within half a small square

M2 Time correctly calculated from candidate’s rate

1(e) M1 Solution is less deep / shallower 2

M2 Time would be longer because of the need to have more S / solid to obscure insert owtte

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Question Answer Marks

2(a) I Unambiguous headings and units covering all entries 5

 (mass of) container + solid FA 3 / FA 4
 (mass of) container (+ residue)
 initial thermometer reading / temperature
 lowest / highest reading / temperature
 mass solid (used / added) / FA 3 / FA 4
 change in temperature / T
Units: / g, (g), in g and / °C, (°C), in °C

II All four balance readings to the same number of decimal places (2 or 3)

AND thermometer readings to .0 °C or.5 °C
AND written in the table / results space

III Correctly calculates for both experiments

 mass solid
 change in temperature

Accuracy marks
Correct all temperatures to nearest .5 °C. Calculate T for supervisor and for candidate.
T = initial temperature – lowest / highest temperature in table
Calculate the difference, between supervisor and candidate values

IV Award if ⩽ 1.0 °C for experiment 1

V Award if ⩽ 1.0 °C for experiment 2

2(b)(i) Correctly calculates Q = mcT for both experiments 1

= 25  4.18  T
AND answers to 2–4 significant figures

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Question Answer Marks

2(b)(ii) M1 Correctly calculates Mr for each: 3

246.4 AND 120.4

M2 Shows correct working (may be in more than 1 step)

(b)(i) expt 1 246.4

mass FA 3  1000

AND

(b)(i) expt 2  120.4

mass FA 4  1000

M3 Shows correct sign for both values of H

AND answers from attempted calculation to 2–4 significant figures

2(b)(iii) M1 Shows attempt at use of Hess’ law / energy level diagram / reverse equation (H =H1 – H2) 2
M2 Correct answer to 2–4 significant figures with appropriate sign

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Question Answer Marks

FA 5 is ZnSO4•7H2O and FA 6 is CuCO3

3(a)(i) M1 Test for water 4

Heat solid sample of FA 5
AND either (gentle heating) solution / liquid formed or solid / FA 5 dissolves / melts
or observes condensation / steam produced

M2 Add water / make a solution

M3 Test for magnesium

Add (aqueous) sodium hydroxide AND white ppt soluble in excess
OR add (aqueous) ammonia AND white ppt soluble in excess

M4 Test for sulfate

Add (aqueous) barium chloride / nitrate AND white ppt insoluble in hydrochloric / nitric acid
OR KMnO4 is not decolourised owtte

3(a)(ii) 1
yes no

FA 5 contains magnesium ions

FA 5 contains sulfate ions

FA 5 contains water of crystallisation

3(b)(i) green (solid) * 2

(goes) black (solid) *
condensation *
gas / carbon dioxide tested with limewater * gives white ppt *

Two marks for 4 or 5 points

One mark for 2 or 3 points

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Question Answer Marks

3(b)(ii) 2
test observations

Test 1 fizz / bubbles / effervescence *

Hydrochloric acid use limewater *
blue solution * (formed)

Test 2 (pale) blue ppt *

Ammonia (dissolves in excess) to dark / deep blue solution (as final observation) *

Two marks for 4 or 5 points

One mark for 2 or 3 points

3(b)(iii) cation: copper(II) / Cu2+ AND anion: carbonate / CO32− 1

3(b)(iv) Cu2+(aq) + 2OH–(aq) → Cu(OH)2(s) OR M2+(aq) + 2OH–(aq) → M(OH)2(s) 2

Use of OH– scores one mark

Complete correct equation scores two marks

© UCLES 2023 Page 11 of 11

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 2

1 Element X has six more protons than element Y.

Which statement must be correct?

A Atoms of element Y are smaller than atoms of element X.

B Element X has a full shell of electrons.
C Element X and element Y are in the same group.
D Element X and element Y are in the same period.

2 Which statement explains why calcium has a higher melting point than barium?

A Calcium cations are smaller than barium cations and have a stronger attraction to the
delocalisedelectrons.
B The structure of calcium is partly giant molecular.
C Therearemoredelocalisedelectronsincalciumthaninbariumasithasalowerionisation
energy.
D There is greater repulsion between barium atoms as they have more complete electron
shellsthancalciumatoms.

3 Three statements about potassium and chlorine and their ions are listed.

1 The atomic radius of a potassium atom is greater than the atomic radius of a chlorine
atom.
2 The first ionisation energy of potassium is greater than the first ionisation energy of
chlorine.
3 The ionic radius of a potassium ion is greater than the ionic radius of a chloride ion.

Which statements are correct?

A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 3 D 2 and 3

4 For which equilibrium do both of the equilibrium constants Kc and Kp have no units?

A H2(g) + I2(g)
2HI(g)

B N2(g) + 3H2(g)
2NH3(g)

C N2O4(g)
2NO2(g)

D SO2(g) + O2(g)
SO3(g)

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–1
5 Calciumcarbide,CaC2,reactswithwater,asshown.Thedatabelowtheequationshow,inkJmol ,
thestandardenthalpiesofformationofthecompoundsinvolved.

CaC2(s) + H2O(l) → CaO(s) + C2H2(g)

–60 –286 –635 +228

What is the standard enthalpy change of the reaction shown?

–1
A –753 kJ mol
–1
B –61 kJ mol
–1
C +61 kJ mol
–1
D +753 kJ mol

6 Inthesodiumchloridelatticethenumberofchlorideionsthatsurroundeachsodiumioniscalled
thecoordinationnumberofthesodiumions.

Whatarethecoordinationnumbersofthesodiumionsandthechlorideionsinthesodiumchloride
lattice?

coordination number coordination number

of sodium ions of chloride ions

A 4 6
B 6 4
C 6 6
D 8 6

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 4

7 Histidine is an amino acid.

histidine

H H 2 H
1 H N O
C
H
N C C C C
3
C N H H O H

What are the approximate bond angles 1, 2, and 3?

1 2 3

A 109.5° 107° 90°

B 120° 107° 109.5°
C 120° 120° 90°
D 120° 120° 109.5°

8 The Contact process takes place at a pressure between 100 000 Pa and 200 000 Pa. A catalyst is
used.

Which statement is correct?

A A V2O5 catalyst is added to increase the equilibrium yield of the reaction.

B Changes in pressure have no effect on the position of equilibrium.
C The equilibrium yield of the reaction is very high under the conditions used.
D An iron catalyst is added to increase the rate of reaction.

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 5

9 Bromine reacts with aqueous sodium hydroxide at 25 °C.

reaction 1 Br2(aq) + 2NaOH(aq) → NaBr(aq) + NaOBr(aq) + H2O(l)

The NaOBr formed is unstable at 25 °C and reacts further.

reaction 2 3NaOBr(aq) → 2NaBr(aq) + NaBrO3(aq)

Which reactions are disproportionations?

A both reaction 1 and reaction 2

B neither reaction 1 nor reaction 2
C reaction 1 only
D reaction 2 only

10 Which statement is correct?

35
A The relative atomic mass of a Cl atom is 35.5.
B The relative formula mass of CaCO3 is 100.1.
24
C The relative isotopic mass of a Mg atom is 24.3.
D The relative molecular mass of O2 is 16.0.

11 Iodine and propanone react according to the following equation.

I2(aq) + CH3COCH3(aq) → CH3COCH2I(aq) + HI(aq)

If the concentration of propanone is increased, keeping the total reaction volume constant, the
initial rate of the reaction also increases.

What could be the reason for this?

A A greater proportion of collisions are successful at the higher concentration.

B The particles are further apart at the higher concentration.
C The particles have more energy at the higher concentration.
D There are more collisions per second between particles at the higher concentration.

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 6

12 Four successive ionisation energies (IE) of element E are shown.

Element E is in Period 3 of the Periodic Table.

fifth IE sixth IE seventh IE eighth IE

–1 –1 –1 –1
/ kJ mol / kJ mol / kJ mol / kJ mol

16 000 20 000 24 000 29 000

In which group of the Periodic Table is E?

A 14 B 15 C 16 D 17

13 In this question you should assume that the gas formed behaves as an ideal gas.
3 –3
A 1.7 g sample of Mg reacts with 50.0 cm of 2.2 mol dm HCl at 303 K and 110 400 Pa.

Which volume of gas is produced, measured under these conditions?

3 3 3 3
A 1.3 dm B 1.6 dm C 2.5 dm D 5.0 dm

14 Chlorine dioxide, Cl O2, reacts with aqueous sodium hydroxide to produce water and a mixture of
two sodium salts, NaCl O2 and NaCl O3.

What is the mole ratio of NaCl O2 to NaCl O3 in the product mixture?

A 1:2 B 3:5 C 1:1 D 5:3

15 The temperature of a sample of an inert gas is increased.

What effect does this have on the number of molecules with the most probable energy and on the
number of molecules with higher energy?

number of molecules with the number of molecules with

most probable energy higher energy

A decreases decreases
B decreases increases
C increases decreases
D increases increases

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 7

16 For which compound is there the greatest percentage loss of mass on strong heating?

A anhydrous calcium carbonate

B anhydrous calcium nitrate
C anhydrous magnesium carbonate
D anhydrous magnesium nitrate

17 The solids sodium chloride and sodium iodide both react with concentrated sulfuric acid at room
temperature.

With NaCl , the products are NaHSO4 and HCl .

With NaI, the products are NaHSO4, HI, I2, SO2, H2O, S and H2S.

What is the explanation for this difference in products?

A Chloride ions will displace iodine from the solution.

B Hydrogen chloride is more volatile than hydrogen iodide.
C Iodide ions are better reducing agents than chloride ions.
D Sulfuric acid is able to act as a dehydrating agent with NaI.

18 SiO2 has a melting point of 1713 °C. It reacts with hot NaOH(aq) to form sodium silicate, Na2SiO3,
and water.

No reaction occurs when SiO2 is added to hot H2SO4(aq).

What can be deduced from this information?

chemical structure
behaviour of SiO2 of SiO2

A amphoteric giant
B amphoteric simple
C acidic giant
D acidic simple

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 8

19 Element X has the second largest atomic radius in its period. An atom of X has three occupied
electron shells only.

The oxide of X is shaken with water.

What could be the pH of the resulting solution?

A 5 B 7 C 9 D 14

20 Which emission from an internal combustion engine contributes to the erosion of marble statues?

A carbon monoxide
B nitrogen
C nitrogen dioxide
D unburnt hydrocarbons

21 The diagram shows the melting points of eight elements with consecutive atomic numbers.

Which element could be sodium?

D
melting
point / K
C
A

B
atomic number

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 9

22 The boiling points of Br2, ICl and IBr are given in the table.

Br2 ICl IBr

boiling point / °C 59 97 116

Which row explains:

• whytheboilingpointofIClisgreaterthanBr2
• whytheboilingpointofIBrisgreaterthanICl ?

boiling point of ICl is boiling point of IBr is

greater than Br2 greater than ICl

A ICl has stronger instantaneous IBr has stronger instantaneous

dipole-induced dipoles dipole-induced dipoles
B ICl has permanent dipoles IBr has stronger instantaneous
dipole-induced dipoles
C ICl has stronger instantaneous IBr has stronger
dipole-induced dipoles permanent dipoles
D ICl has permanent dipoles IBr has stronger
permanent dipoles

2+ 2+
23 A solution contains both Mg (aq) and Sr (aq) at the same concentration.

The solution is divided into two equal portions. Aqueous sodium hydroxide is added dropwise to
one portion. Dilute sulfuric acid is added dropwise to the other portion.

Which row is correct?

precipitate seen first precipitate seen first

when NaOH(aq) is added when H2SO4(aq) is added

A magnesium hydroxide magnesium sulfate

B magnesium hydroxide strontium sulfate
C strontium hydroxide magnesium sulfate
D strontium hydroxide strontium sulfate

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 10

24 Structural isomerism and stereoisomerism should be considered when answering this question.

If a molecule contains two non-identical chiral carbon atoms, four optical isomers exist.

How many isomers are there with:

• molecular formula C7H14O and

• a five-membered ring and
• a tertiary alcohol group?

A 4 B 5 C 9 D 13

25 Which reagent will react with pentan-3-ol to give a mixture of stereoisomers?

A acidified potassium dichromate

B concentrated sulfuric acid
C ethanoic acid in the presence of a little concentrated H2SO4
D hydrogen chloride

26 An organic molecule W contains 3 carbon atoms. It requires 4.5 molecules of oxygen for complete
combustion.

What could W be?

A propane
B propanoic acid
C propanone
D propan-1-ol

27 Which equation represents a reaction that proceeds through initiation, propagation and termination
steps?

A C4H10 + Cl 2 → C4H9Cl + HCl

B C5H11Br + NaOH → C5H11OH + NaBr
C C6H12 + H2O → C6H13OH
D C6H13CHO + HCN → C6H13CH(OH)CN

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 11

28 Structural
isomerism
and
stereoisomerism
should
be
considered
when
answering
this
question.

A
set
of
isomeric
hydrocarbons

• allcontain14.3%bymassofhydrogen
• allreactwithbrominebyaddition,0.280gofeachhydrocarbonreactingwith0.799gof

bromine.

What is the maximum number of isomeric compounds in the set?

A 1 B 3 C 4 D 5

29 Which row describes the solvent used and type of reaction occurring when bromoethane reacts
with NaOH to form ethene?

solvent type of reaction

A ethanol elimination
B ethanol substitution
C water elimination
D water substitution

30 Whichrowdescribesthetypeofreactionthatoccurswhenpropan-1-olreactstoformthenamed
carbon-containingproduct?

carbon-containing product type of reaction

A 1-chloropropane addition to propan-1-ol

B carbon monoxide complete combustion of propan-1-ol
C propene dehydration of propan-1-ol
D propanal reduction of propan-1-ol

31 Which statement describes what happens when 2-chloro-2-methylpropane is warmed with

NaOH(aq)?

A This secondary halogenoalkane reacts by a mixture of an SN1 and an SN2 mechanism.

B This secondary halogenoalkane reacts only by an SN2 mechanism.
C This tertiary halogenoalkane reacts mostly by an SN1 mechanism.
D This tertiary halogenoalkane does not react with hydroxide ions under these conditions.

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 12

32 How many structurally isomeric secondary alcohols are there with the molecular formula C5H12O?

A 1 B 2 C 3 D 4

33 Which reagent:

• canconfirmthepresenceofacarbonylgroupinanorganiccompound
• doesnotdistinguishbetweenaldehydesandketones?

A acidified K2Cr2O7
B 2,4-DNPH reagent
C Fehling’s reagent
D LiAl H4

34 Which compound gives a positive test with alkaline aqueous iodine and does not show optical
isomerism?

A CH3COCH2CH2OH
B CH3CH2CH(OH)CHO
C CH3COCH(OH)CH3
D (CH3)2C(OH)CHO

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35 TwosamplesofcompoundXweretreatedseparatelywithdifferentreagentswhichwereaddedin
excess.

Theproductsofthesetworeactionsareshown.

OH O
OH
reaction 1
OH O O

O
compound X OH OH
reaction 2

OH

Which reagents could be used for reaction 1 and reaction 2?

reaction 1 reaction 2

A hot acidifiedsodiumdichromate VI  Na
B hot acidifiedsodiumdichromate VI  NaBH4
C Tollens’reagentfollowedbyHCl (aq) Na
D Tollens’reagentfollowedbyHCl (aq) NaBH4

36 Which method could produce butanoic acid?

A an acid–base reaction involving CH3CH2CH2CO2Na

B the hydrolysis of CH3CH2CH2CH2CN
C the acidic hydrolysis of CH3CH2COOCH2CH2CH3
D the oxidation of CH3CH2CH2OH

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 14

37 Which
ester
may
be
hydrolysed
to
produce
two
products,
one
of
which
may
be
reduced
to
the

other?

A CH3CH2CO2CH3
B CH3CH(CH3)CO2CH2CH(CH3)2
C CH3CH2CO2CH(CH3)2
D (CH3)2CHCO2CH(CH3)2

38 Two compounds, X and Y, are mixed and a little concentrated H2SO4 is added.

Ester Z is found in the resulting mixture of products.

ester Z

O
O
O

O O

Which two compounds could be X and Y?

X Y

A CH3CH2OH CH(CO2H)3
B CH3CH2OH CH3CO2CH2CH(OH)CH2OCOCH2CH3
C CH3CO2H CH3CH2CO2CH2CH(OH)CH2OH
D CH3CO2H CH2(OH)CH(OH)CH2(OH)

39 The diagram shows a section of a polymer molecule.

–CH2–CH=CH–CH2–CH2–CH=CH–CH2–

Which monomer will produce this polymer?

A CH2=CH2
B CH3CH=CH2
C CH3CH=CHCH3
D CH2=CH–CH=CH2

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 15

40 There
are
two
naturally
occuring
isotopes
of
bromine.
One
isotope
has
44
neutrons.
The
other

isotope
has
46
neutrons.
12 1
Ignoring
fragments,
how
many
peaks
are
there
in
the
mass
spectrum
of
tribromomethane,
C HBr3?

A 2
B 3
C 4
D 6

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 The Periodic Table of Elements

‹8&/(6
Group
1 2 13 14 15 16 17 18
1 2

H He
hydrogen helium
Key 1.0 4.0
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10

Li Be atomic symbol B C N O F Ne
lithium beryllium name boron carbon nitrogen oxygen fluorine neon
6.9 9.0 relative atomic mass 10.8 12.0 14.0 16.0 19.0 20.2
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
sodium magnesium aluminium silicon phosphorus sulfur chlorine argon
23.0 24.3 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 27.0 28.1 31.0 32.1 35.5 39.9
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36

K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
potassium calcium scandium titanium vanadium chromium manganese iron cobalt nickel copper zinc gallium germanium arsenic selenium bromine krypton
39.1 40.1 45.0 47.9 50.9 52.0 54.9 55.8 58.9 58.7 63.5 65.4 69.7 72.6 74.9 79.0 79.9 83.8
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54


Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
rubidium strontium yttrium zirconium niobium molybdenum technetium ruthenium rhodium palladium silver cadmium indium tin antimony tellurium iodine xenon
85.5 87.6 88.9 91.2 92.9 95.9 – 101.1 102.9 106.4 107.9 112.4 114.8 118.7 121.8 127.6 126.9 131.3

0-
55 56 57–71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
lanthanoids
Cs Ba Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
caesium barium hafnium tantalum tungsten rhenium osmium iridium platinum gold mercury thallium lead bismuth polonium astatine radon
132.9 137.3 178.5 180.9 183.8 186.2 190.2 192.2 195.1 197.0 200.6 204.4 207.2 209.0 – – –
87 88 89–103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118
actinoids
Fr Ra Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Nh Fl Mc Lv Ts Og
francium radium rutherfordium dubnium seaborgium bohrium hassium meitnerium darmstadtium roentgenium copernicium nihonium flerovium moscovium livermorium tennessine oganesson
– – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – –

57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
lanthanoids La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
lanthanum cerium praseodymium neodymium promethium samarium europium gadolinium terbium dysprosium holmium erbium thulium ytterbium lutetium
138.9 140.1 140.9 144.4 – 150.4 152.0 157.3 158.9 162.5 164.9 167.3 168.9 173.1 175.0
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
actinoids Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
actinium thorium protactinium uranium neptunium plutonium americium curium berkelium californium einsteinium fermium mendelevium nobelium lawrencium
– 232.0 231.0 238.0 – – – – – – – – – – –