MCQs for UNIT-1 AND 2 LAW-

MCQs with Answers (Part 1)

1. The tenure of the Council of Ministers lasts:
o (A) As long as it enjoys the support of the electorate
o (B) As long as it enjoys the support of the majority of the members of the
Parliament ✅
o (C) Six years
o (D) Five years and As long as it enjoys the support of the majority of the
members of the Parliament
2. Which one of the following is the popularly elected House of the Parliament?
o (A) Lok Sabha ✅
o (B) Rajya Sabha
o (C) Lok Sabha as well as Rajya Sabha
o (D) None of the options
3. The seat of a Member of Parliament can be declared vacant if he absents himself
from the House without permission for a period of:
o (A) 60 days ✅
o (B) Two years
o (C) Six months
o (D) One year
4. The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is:
o (A) 250 ✅
o (B) 245
o (C) 240
o (D) 200
5. In order to be elected a member of the Council of States, a person must not be
less than:
o (A) 30 years ✅
o (B) 25 years
o (C) 21 years
o (D) 35 years
6. The Estimates Committee of the Parliament consists of members of only:
o (A) Rajya Sabha
o (B) Lok Sabha ✅
o (C) Both the Houses
o (D) None of the above
7. The Governor of a State is appointed by:
o (A) The Prime Minister
o (B) The President
o (C) The President on the recommendation of the Central Council of Ministers
headed by the Prime Minister ✅
o (D) The President on the advice of the Chief Minister of the State
8. Who is empowered to suspend the operation of the Fundamental Rights?
o (A) Supreme Court
o (B) President ✅
o (C) The Cabinet
o (D) Parliament
9. The normal term of the Governor’s office:
o (A) Depends on the tenure of the State Legislature
o (B) Is 3 years
o (C) Is 4 years
o (D) Is 5 years ✅
10. The President can dissolve Lok Sabha at the advice/request of whom before the
completion of the tenure?
 (A) At the written request of the members
 (B) At the advice of the Prime Minister ✅
 (C) At the written request of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
 (D) At the advice of the Vice-President
11. The minimum age limit for a Governor is:
 (A) 30 years
 (B) 32 years
 (C) 35 years ✅
 (D) 45 years
12. President of India can be impeached for:
 (A) Violation of the Constitution of India ✅
 (B) Violation of International Obligation
 (C) Violation of Legal Rights
 (D) All of the options
13. Which one of the following is NOT a qualification for election as President?
 (A) He must have completed the age of 35 years
 (B) He must be qualified for election as a member of the House of People
 (C) He must not be more than the age of 65 years ✅
 (D) He must not be an acting minister either for the Union or for any state ✅
14. The Governor of a State is appointed by the President on the advice of the:
 (A) Prime Minister ✅
 (B) Vice-President
 (C) Chief Minister
 (D) Chief Justice
15. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to the structure of the
Union Government?
 (A) It is Unitary
 (B) It is Federal
 (C) It is Federal in peace times and Unitary in Emergencies ✅
 (D) It is Unitary in peace times and Federal in Emergencies
16. What is the age at which an Indian can become a candidate for Presidentship?
 (A) 45
 (B) 65
 (C) 60
 (D) 35 ✅
17. Who appoints the Prime Minister of India?
 (A) Lok Sabha
 (B) President ✅
 (C) Parliament
  (D) Citizens of India
18. In India, a citizen who has attained the age of has a right to vote irrespective of
religion, race, caste, color, creed, sex, place of birth, etc.:
 (A) 21 years
 (B) 20 years
 (C) 18 years ✅
 (D) 18 years for girls and 21 years for boys
19. Chief Minister of a State is responsible to:
 (A) Prime Minister
 (B) Rajya Sabha
 (C) Legislative Assembly ✅
 (D) Governor
20. The Governor of a State is:
 (A) Head of State for which he is appointed as Governor ✅
 (B) Head of Government
 (C) President's agent
 (D) Non-political figure

MCQs with Answers (Part 2)

21. Judicial Review function of the Supreme Court means the power to:
 (A) Review the functioning of the judiciary in the country
 (B) Undertake periodic review of the Constitution
 (C) Examine the constitutional validity of the laws ✅
 (D) None of the options
22. The Chief Justice and other Judges of the High Court are appointed by the:
 (A) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
 (B) Chief Minister of the concerned state
 (C) Governor of the concerned state
 (D) President ✅
23. Which is the highest court of appeal in India?
 (A) Supreme Court ✅
 (B) President
 (C) High Court
 (D) Privy Council
24. Formally, all the executive powers of the Union Government are vested in:
 (A) The President of India ✅
 (B) The Cabinet Ministers only
 (C) The Prime Minister of India
 (D) The Union Council of Ministers
25. Indian Constitution provides for a ______ system.
 (A) Presidential
 (B) Unicameral
 (C) Parliamentary ✅
 (D) Unitary
26. Which of the following is NOT a prescribed qualification for appointment as a
Judge of the Supreme Court?
 (A) He should have worked as a Judge of a High Court for a minimum period of five
years
 (B) He should not be more than 55 years of age ✅
 (C) He should have worked as an advocate in any High Court for a minimum period
of ten years
 (D) He should be an eminent jurist in the opinion of the President
27. If the Parliament passes a law which is against the Constitution, it can be
declared as unconstitutional by the:
 (A) Election Commission
 (B) Chief Justice of India
 (C) President
 (D) Supreme Court ✅
28. The final authority to interpret the Constitution is:
 (A) Parliament
 (B) Supreme Court ✅
 (C) Attorney General
 (D) High Court
29. When a President is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution, the
charges shall be preferred by___________ of Parliament.
 (A) Lok Sabha
 (B) Rajya Sabha
 (C) Either House ✅
 (D) None of them
30. Judges of High Courts are appointed by the:
 (A) President ✅
 (B) Governor
 (C) Chief Justice of India
 (D) Prime Minister on the advice of the Council of Ministers
31. When the President is unable to discharge his functions owing to absence, illness,
or any other cause, ______________ shall discharge his functions until the date
on which the President resumes his duties.
 (A) Speaker
 (B) Vice President ✅
 (C) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
 (D) Prime Minister
32. Who administers the oath of office to the President?
 (A) The Prime Minister
 (B) The Vice-President
 (C) The Chief Election Commissioner
 (D) The Chief Justice of India ✅
33. The President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college consisting
of:
 (A) The elected members of both Houses of Parliament
 (B) The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States
 (C) The members of State Legislative Assemblies, Councils, and all MPs
 (D) Both (A) and (B) ✅
34. If the President wants to resign, he has to address the letter of resignation to the:
 (A) Prime Minister
 (B) Vice-President ✅
 (C) Speaker
 (D) Chief Justice of India
35. How many members of Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President of India?
 (A) 2
 (B) 12 ✅
 (C) 10
 (D) 15
36. The Parliament of India consists of:
 (A) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
 (B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and President ✅
 (C) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, President, and Prime Minister
 (D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and Council of Ministers
37. Which of the following is NOT a qualification for being a member of
Parliament?
 (A) Must be a graduate with 55% of marks ✅
 (B) Must be an Indian citizen
 (C) Must be a minimum of 25 years of age
 (D) Must not hold any office of profit
38. Which of the following is a mandatory qualification for being a member of the
House of People (Lok Sabha)?
 (A) Must be a graduate with 55% of marks
 (B) Must be 25 years of age ✅
 (C) Must hold an office of profit
 (D) None of the options
39. Which of the following is a ground of disqualification for a member of
Parliament?
 (A) If he defects and commits an offense under the anti-defection law ✅
 (B) If he acquires shares in a private company
 (C) If he earns money from selling books
 (D) None of the options
40. Which of the following is NOT a ground for disqualifying a member of
Parliament?
  (A) If he is convicted and sentenced for 10 years of imprisonment
 (B) If he holds an office of profit
 (C) If he voluntarily gives up the citizenship of India
 (D) If he earns money from selling books ✅
41. In case of disqualification of a member of Parliament, the President shall consult
whom?
 (A) Prime Minister
 (B) Council of Ministers
 (C) Chief Justice of India
 (D) Election Commission of India ✅
42. The ordinance may be promulgated by the President of India when:
 (A) The National Emergency is in force
 (B) There is armed rebellion
 (C) The Houses of Parliament are not in session ✅
 (D) None of the options
43. The President of India can do what under his pardoning power?
 (A) Pardon
 (B) Remit any sentence
 (C) Commute any sentence
 (D) All of the options ✅
44. Who is the ex-officio chairman of the Council of State (Rajya Sabha)?
 (A) President of India
 (B) Vice-President of India ✅
 (C) Prime Minister
 (D) Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
45. The Indian President is:
 (A) Head of the State ✅
 (B) Head of the Government
 (C) De facto Head of the Parliament
 (D) De facto Head of the Coast Guard
MCQs with Answers (Part 3)
46. Which of the following statements about the office of the Governor is true?
 (A) The Governor is the Vice-Chancellor of all State Universities
 (B) The Governor can impose a National Emergency
 (C) The Governor can issue a pardon
 (D) None of the options ✅
47. Which of the following statements about the office of the Governor is true?
 (A) The Governor must be a minimum of 65 years of age
 (B) The Governor can be impeached by Parliament
 (C) The Governor may be transferred or removed by the President ✅
 (D) The Governor needs to be a PhD holder
48. How many Presidents have been impeached in India?
 (A) 1
 (B) 2
 (C) 3
 (D) 0 ✅
49. How many Judges of the Supreme Court of India have been impeached?
 (A) 1 ✅
 (B) 2
 (C) 3
 (D) 0
50. Who was the first President of India?
 (A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
 (B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad ✅
 (C) V.V. Giri
 (D) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
51. What is the strength of the Supreme Court of India?
 (A) 30 Judges and 1 Chief Justice ✅
 (B) 29 Judges and 1 Chief Justice
 (C) 6 Judges and 1 Chief Justice
 (D) 127 Judges and 1 Chief Justice
52. Who is the current (48th) Chief Justice of India?
 (A) N.V. Ramana ✅
 (B) Ranjan Gogoi
 (C) Dipak Misra
 (D) J.S. Khehar
53. The Directive Principles contrast from the Fundamental Rights in which of the
following aspects?
 (A) Courts cannot enforce Directives and neither do the directives grant any rights to
individuals
 (B) The Directives require implementation by legislation, and unless a law is passed,
neither the state nor an individual can enforce them
 (C) Directives aren’t automatically implemented and need a law for that purpose
 (D) All of the above ✅
54. Article 38 in Part IV of the Indian Constitution mentions which of the following
kinds of justice?
 (A) Social ✅
 (B) Utilitarian
 (C) Both (A) and (B)
 (D) None of these
55. According to Article 39 of the Indian Constitution, the State shall direct its policy
towards securing:
 (A) Citizens, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means of
livelihood
 (B) There is equal pay for equal work for men and women
 (C) The ownership and control of material resources of the community are so
distributed as best to serve the common good
 (D) All of the above ✅
56. Which of the following directives has been given by the Supreme Court for the
welfare of children according to clauses (e), (f) of Article 39?
 (A) Children should not be employed in hazardous jobs like factories producing
matchboxes and fireworks
 (B) Positive steps should be taken for the welfare of such children and improving their
quality of life
 (C) The employer of children below 14 years must comply with child labor laws
regarding compensation, employment of their parents/guardians, and education
 (D) All of the above ✅
57. ‘Right to work, to education, and to public assistance in certain cases’ is an
essence of which of the following Articles?
 (A) Article 41 ✅
 (B) Article 44
 (C) Article 37
 (D) Article 24
58. ‘Uniform Civil Code for the citizens’ is mentioned in which of the following
Articles?
 (A) Article 43
 (B) Article 44 ✅
 (C) Article 45
 (D) Article 49
59. According to Article 47 of the Indian Constitution, it is the duty of the state to
raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public
health. Which of the following statements regarding public health is correct?
 (A) Article 47 makes improvement of public health a primary duty of the State ✅
 (B) The local authority should approach the State Government for financial aid if
needed
 (C) Both (A) and (B)
 (D) None of the above
60. Which of the following Articles is associated with Fundamental Duties?
 (A) Article 50
 (B) Article 51
 (C) Article 49
 (D) Article 51A ✅
61. Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by which of the following
Amendment Acts?
 (A) 40th Amendment Act
 (B) 42nd Amendment Act ✅
 (C) 48th Amendment Act
  (D) 44th Amendment Act
62. The right to constitutional remedies for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights
is given in:
 (A) Article 13
 (B) Article 14
 (C) Article 19
 (D) Article 32 ✅
63. The Right to Freedom of Religion is included in:
 (A) Articles 25 to 27
 (B) Articles 25 to 28 ✅
 (C) Articles 26 to 29
 (D) Articles 22 to 28
64. The concept of Directive Principles has been borrowed from:
 (A) Irish Constitution ✅
 (B) Canadian Constitution
 (C) Russian Constitution
 (D) American Constitution
65. The Fundamental Rights are included in:
 (A) The original Constitution ✅
 (B) The 42nd Amendment
 (C) The 44th Amendment
 (D) Parliament in 1952

MCQs with Answers (Part 4)

66. Freedom of Residence under Article 19 of the Indian Constitution is available in
which of the following clauses?
 (A) 19 (1) (e) ✅
 (B) 19 (1) (d)
 (C) 19 (1) (b)
 (D) 19 (1) (c)
67. Directive Principles have been included in the Constitution to achieve the ideals
of:
 (A) Individual liberty
 (B) Political liberty
 (C) Democracy
 (D) Welfare state ✅
68. Under which Articles have the Directive Principles of State Policy been
mentioned in the Constitution?
 (A) Articles 37-50
 (B) Articles 38-51
 (C) Articles 36-51 ✅
 (D) Articles 36-52
69. The Indian Constitution is:
 (A) An unwritten Constitution
 (B) A written Constitution ✅
 (C) Largely based on the Government of India Act, 1935 ✅
 (D) Both (B) and (C)
70. One of the Directive Principles is that the State shall introduce free and
compulsory education for all children up to the age of:
 (A) 10 years
 (B) 6 years
 (C) 14 years ✅
 (D) 18 years
71. The text of the Preamble of the Constitution of India aims to secure:
 (A) Fundamental rights to all individuals
 (B) Fundamental duties to citizens of India
 (C) Dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation ✅
 (D) Security of service to Government Servants
72. At present, there are _______ freedoms under Article 19.
 (A) Seven
 (B) Six ✅
 (C) Eight
 (D) Ten
73. ‘Justice—social, economic, and political’ is enshrined in:
 (A) Fundamental Rights
 (B) Writs issued by the Supreme Court
 (C) Preamble to the Constitution of India ✅
 (D) Directive Principles of State Policy
74. Which one among the following is a fundamental duty of the citizens under the
Constitution of India?
 (A) To provide friendly cooperation to the people of neighboring countries
 (B) To protect monuments of national importance
 (C) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so ✅
 (D) To know more and more about the history of India
75. The Fundamental Rights secured under Article 32 to the individual are:
 (A) Limited to the State action only
 (B) Meant to protect persons against the conduct of private persons
 (C) Meant to protect persons against the action of foreigners
 (D) All of the options ✅
76. The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in which part of the Constitution?
 (A) Part II
 (B) Part III ✅
 (C) Part IV
 (D) Part V
77. How many Fundamental Duties were incorporated in Article 51-A by the 42nd
Amendment Act, 1976?
 (A) Ten ✅
 (B) Nine
 (C) Two
 (D) Twenty
78. Under Article 13(1), pre-Constitution laws:
 (A) Become completely void
 (B) Are not void
 (C) Become void (from the date of the commencement of the Constitution) insofar as
they are inconsistent with the Fundamental Rights ✅
 (D) None of the options
79. Article 13(2):
 (A) Includes law amending the Constitution
 (B) Does not include a law amending the Constitution
 (C) States that the State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the
Fundamental Rights ✅
 (D) None of the options
80. The controversial 42nd Amendment was passed in:
 (A) 1974
 (B) 1976 ✅
 (C) 1978
 (D) 1980
81. Article 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of law to:
 (A) All persons living within the territory of India ✅
 (B) All Indian citizens living in India
 (C) All persons domiciled in India
 (D) None of the options
82. A new Chapter IV-A on Fundamental Duties was inserted in the Indian
Constitution in?
 (A) 1972
 (B) 1976 ✅
 (C) 1980
 (D) 1984
83. Which of the following rights are conferred to Indian citizens under the
protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.?
 (A) Right to assemble peaceably and without arms
 (B) Right to form associations or unions
 (C) Right to move freely throughout the territory of India
 (D) All of them ✅
84. How many times has the President declared a financial emergency in the country
so far?
 (A) Once
 (B) Twice
 (C) Thrice
 (D) Never ✅
85. Which Article deals with the amendment of the Indian Constitution?
 (A) Article 362
 (B) Article 368 ✅
 (C) Article 367
 (D) Article 363
86. The Preamble is useful in constitutional interpretation because it:
 (A) Uses value-loaded words
 (B) Contains the real objective and philosophy of the Constitution makers ✅
 (C) Is a source of power and limitation
 (D) Gives an exhaustive list of basic features of the Constitution
87. Under which Article can a financial emergency be proclaimed?
 (A) Article 359
 (B) Article 356
 (C) Article 323
 (D) Article 360 ✅
88. The Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens have been enumerated from:
 (A) Articles 12 to 35 ✅
 (B) Articles 13 to 36
 (C) Articles 15 to 39
 (D) Articles 16 to 40
89. Which part of the Indian Constitution reflects Gandhian ideology?
 (A) Fundamental Rights
 (B) Fundamental Duties
 (C) Directive Principles ✅
 (D) Preamble
90. Equal pay for equal work for both men and women has been laid down in the
Indian Constitution as one of the:
 (A) Fundamental Rights
 (B) Fundamental Duties
 (C) Guidelines in the Preamble
 (D) Directive Principles of State Policy ✅

91. To produce the Constitution, the Constituent Assembly took:

 (A) 2 years 11 months and 17 days ✅
 (B) 3 years 10 months and 20 days
 (C) 4 years 11 months and 17 days
 (D) 5 years 6 months and 5 days
92. When a financial emergency is proclaimed:
 (A) Union budget will not be presented
 (B) Salaries and allowances of any class of employees may be reduced ✅
 (C) Repayment of government debts will stop
 (D) Payment of salaries to public servants will be postponed
93. The terms: ‘Secular, Socialist and Integrity’ were added to the Preamble in:
 (A) 1979
 (B) 1977
 (C) 1976 ✅
 (D) 1975
94. Who is the custodian of the Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Indian
Constitution?
 (A) Parliament
 (B) President
 (C) Supreme Court ✅
 (D) All of the options
95. The correct nomenclature of India according to the Preamble is:
 (A) Sovereign, Secular, Democratic Republic
 (B) Sovereign, Democratic Republic
 (C) Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic ✅
 (D) Sovereign Secular Socialist Democracy
96. How many types of Emergencies have been visualized in the Constitution of
India?
 (A) Four
 (B) Three ✅
 (C) One
 (D) Two
97. How long did the Constituent Assembly take to finally pass the Constitution?
 (A) About 6 months in 1949
 (B) About 2 years since Aug 15, 1947
 (C) Exactly a year since Nov 26, 1948
 (D) About 3 years since Dec 9, 1946 ✅
98. Welfare State is well defined in which of the following?
 (A) Indian Preamble
 (B) Directive Principles ✅
 (C) Schedule VII of the Constitution
 (D) Fundamental Rights
99. Which of the following is enforceable in a court of law?
 (A) Fundamental Rights ✅
 (B) Fundamental Duties
 (C) Directive Principles
 (D) Preamble
100. Protection under Article ______ can be claimed by an institution only if it
is established by a religious or linguistic minority.
 (A) 25
 (B) 26
 (C) 29
 (D) 30 ✅
101. The right to move ______ court for the enforcement of Fundamental
Rights is itself a guaranteed Fundamental Right.
 (A) High
 (B) Subordinate
 (C) Quasi-Judicial
 (D) Supreme ✅
102. Assertion: The Preamble of the Constitution starts with "We, the people
of India."
Reason: It implies that the Constitution is created by the entire nation.
 (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A ✅
 (B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
 (C) A is true but R is false
 (D) A is false but R is true
103. Which one of the Directive Principles is Gandhian?
 (A) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
 (B) Organization of village Panchayats as effective units of local self-government ✅
 (C) Protection of workers, especially children
 (D) None of the options
104. Assertion: The Chapter on the Fundamental Rights was framed upon the
model of the American Constitution.
Reason: Fundamental rights are enforceable.
 (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A ✅
 (B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
 (C) A is true but R is false
 (D) A is false but R is true
105. No person can be employed in factories or mines unless he is above the
age of:
 (A) 12 years
 (B) 14 years ✅
 (C) 18 years
 (D) 20 years
106. A Presidential proclamation can remain in force for:
 (A) Three months
 (B) Two months
 (C) Six months ✅
 (D) Till the President revokes it
107. Which portion of the Indian Constitution reflects the mind and ideals of
its framers?
 (A) Preamble ✅
 (B) Fundamental Rights
 (C) Directive Principles
 (D) Emergency Provisions
108. The doctrine of Double Jeopardy is mentioned in Article?
 (A) 20 ✅
 (B) 14
 (C) 15
 (D) 16