Shiv Chhatrapati Shikshan Sanstha, Latur.

CET– CELL
Sections : (A) Physics (B) Chemistry (C) Botany (D) Zoology
Questions : 50 50 50 50
Marks : 180 180 180 180
Roll No.
XII-PCB CW–12 Date : 15 Dec., 2024
0 0 Test Series Time : 3.20 Hours
This is to certify that, the entry of Roll No. has been correctly written and verified.

Candidate's Signature Invigilator's Signature

PHYSICS : Waves, Wave Optics

[SECTION-A] 04. In Young’s double slit experiment, the wavelength
01. The wavefront of a distant source of unknown shape of red light is 7800 A0 and that of blue light is
is approximately 5200A0. The value of n for which nth bright band
1) Spherical 2) Cylindrical due to red light coincides with (n + 1)th bright band
3) Elliptical 4) Plane due to blue light, is
02. Figure shows plane waves refracted from air to 1) 1 2) 2
water using Huygen’s principle a, b, c, d, e are 3) 3 4) 4
lengths on the diagram. The refractive index of 05. In Young’s double slit experiment, the seventh
water w.r.t. air is the ratio maximum with wavelength 1 is at a distance d1
from central maxima and the same maximum
with wavelength 2 is at a distance d2. Then d1/d2
1 2
1) 2 2) 1

 12  22
3) 4)
 22  12
06. In Young’s double-slit experiment, the intensity of
1) a/e 2) b/e
light at a point on the screen where the path
3) b/d 4) d/b
difference is  is K, ( being the wavelength of light
03. Two beams of light having intensities I and 4I
used). The intensity at a point where the path
interfere to produce a fringe pattern on a screen.
difference is /4, will be

The phase difference between the beam is at point 1) K 2) K/4
2
3) K/2 4) Zero
A and 2 at point B. Then find out the difference
between the resultant intensities at A and B.
1) 2I 2) 3I
3) 6I 4) 4I
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07. Yellow light emitted by sodium lamp in Young’s 13. A linear aperture whose width is 0.02 cm is placed
double slit experiment is replaced by mono- immediately in front of a lens of focal length 60
chromatic blue light of the same intensity cm. The aperture is illuminated normally by a
1) Fringe width will decrease parallel beam of wavelength 5 × 10–5 cm. The
2) Fringe width will increase distance of the first dark band of the diffraction
3) Fringe width will remain unchanged pattern from the centre of the screen is
4) Fringes will become less intense. 1) 0.10 cm 2) 0.25 cm
08. The distance between two coherent sources is 0.1 3) 0.20 cm 4) 0.15 cm
mm. The fringe-width on a screen 1.2 m away from 14. A parallel beam of fast moving electrons is incident
the source is 6.0 mm. The wavelength of light used normally on a narrow slit. A fluorescent screen is
is placed at a large distance from the slit. If the speed
of the electrons is increased, which of the following
1) 4000 A0 2) 5000 A0
statements is correct?
3) 6000 A0 4) 7200 A0
1) The angular width of central maximum will
09. If the distance between the first maxima and fifth
be unaffacted
minima of a double slit pattern is 7 mm and the
2) Diffraction pattern is not observed on the
slits are separated by 0.15 mm with the screen 50
screen in the case of electrons
cm from the slits, then wavelength of the light is
3) The angular width of the central maximum
1) 600 nm 2) 525 nm
of the diffraction pattern will increase
3) 467 nm 4) 420 nm 4) The angular width of the centra maximum
10. An YDSE is performed with bi-chromatic light will decrease
(5500A0 and 6000 A0) for d = 2mm and D = 1m. 15. Suppose  is the polarisation angel for a transparent
Distance of first complete maxima from the central medium and the speed of light in that medium is
maxima on the screen, is . Then accoding to Brewster law
1) 1.1 mm 2) 2.2 mm

3) 3.3 mm 4) 4.4 mm 1)   cot 1   2)   cos 1 
c
11. A Young’s double slit experiment is performed
using monochromatic light of wavelength . The 3)   sin 1 () 4)   cosec 1 ( )
intensity of light at a point on the screen, where 16. If light beam is incident at polarising angle (56.30)
the path difference is , is K units. The intensity of on air-glass interface, then what is the angel of
 refraction in glass?
light at a point where the path difference is is 1) 900 2) 146.3 0
6
3) 33.7 0 4) 56.3 0
nK
given by , where n is an integer. The value of n 17. Assertion : In Young’s double slit experiment
12
interference pattern disappears when one of the
is _____
slits is closed.
1) 9 2) 7
Reason : Interference occurs due to superim-
3) 5 4) 3
position of light wave from two coherent sources
12. In a double slit experiment arrangement.
1) Both Assertion & Reason are true &
Interference fringes of width 1.0 mm are observed
the Reason is a correct explanation of the
when light of wavelength 5000 A0 is used. Keeping
Assertion.
the setup unaltered, if the source is replaced by
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
another of wavelength 6000 A0, the fringe width
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
will be
Assertion.
1) 0.5 mm 2) 1.0 mm
3) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
3) 1.2 mm 4) 1.5 mm
4) Both Assertion & Reason are false.
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18. When the angle of incidence on a material is 600, 22. Two sound waves, each of amplitude A and
the reflected light is completely polarized. The frequency  superpose at a point with phase
velocity of the refracted ray inside the material is 
(in ms–1) difference of . The amplitude and frequency of
2
 3  8 the resultant wave are respectively
1) 3 × 108 2)    10
 2 A  A
1) , 2) ,
3) 3  10 8
4) 0.5 × 108 2 2 2
19. Sound waves of wavelength  travelling in a 
3) 2A , 4) 2A,
medium with a speed of v m/s enter into another 2
medium where its speed in 2v m/s. Wavelength of 23. A chord attached about an end to a vibrating fork
sound waves in the second medium. divided it into 6 loops, when its tension si 36 N.
 The tension at which it will vibrate in 4 loops is
1)  2) 1) 24 N 2) 36 N
2
3) 2 4) 4 3) 64 N 4) 81 N
20. Which of the following statements are true for wave 24. A plane progressive wave of frequency 50 Hz,
motion? travelling along positive x-axis is represented as
1) Mechanical transverse waves can propagate y = (5 × 10–5 m) sin(100 t) at x = 0, wave speed is
through all mediums. 300 m/s. Maximum difference in displacement at
2) Longitudinal waves can propagate through x = 0, and x = – 3m, is
solids only 1) 5 × 10–5 m 2) 2.5 × 10–5 m
3) Mechanical transverse waves can propagate 3) 5 × 10–4 m 4) 10–4 m
through solids only 25. The intensity of sound increases at night due to
4) Longitudinal waves can propagate through 1) Increase in air density
vacuum. 2) Decrease in air density
21. A certain transverse sinsoidal wave of wavelength 3) Low temperature
20 cm is moving in the positive x direction. The 4) None
transverse velocity of the particle at x = 0 as a 26. Two tuning forks A and B, produce nots of
function of time is shown the amplitude of the frequencies 258 Hz and 262 Hz. An unknown note
motion is sounded with A produces certain beats. When the
same note is sounded with B, the beat frequency
gets doubled. The unknown frequency is
1) 250 Hz 2) 252 Hz
3) 254 Hz 4) 245 Hz
27. Beats are produced by two waves given by y1 = a
sin 2000 t and y2 = a sin 2008 t. The number of
beats heard per second
1) Zero 2) One
5  3) Four 4) Eight
1) cm 2) cm
 2 28. A string has tension T for tripling the frequency
10 the tension in the string will be
3) cm 4) 2 cm
 T
1) 3T 2)
9
T
3) 4) 9T
3
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29. Two strings of copper are stretched to the same 35. Beats are produced by frequencies f1 and f2 (f1 > f2).
tension. If their cross-section area are in the ratio The duration of time between two successive
1 : 4, then the respective wave velocities will be maxima or minima is equal to
1) 4:1 2) 2:1 1 2
3) 1:2 4) 1:4 1) f1  f2 2) f1  f2
30. Sound waves of wavelength greater than that of
audible sound are called 2 1
3) f1  f2 4) f1  f2
1) Seismic waves
2) Sonic waves [SECTION-B]
3) Ultrasonic waves 36. Three waves of equal frequency having amplitudes
4) Infrasonic waves 10 m, 4 m, 7 m arrive at a given point with
31. A progressive wave moving along x axis is successive phase difference of /2, the amplitude
2 the resulting wave in m is given by
represented by y  A sin  (Vt  x)  . The 1) 4 2) 5
 
wavelength at which the maximum particle velocity 3) 6 4) 7
is 3 times the wave velocity is 37. If the ratio of the intensity of two coherent sources
is 4 then the visibility [(Imax – Imin)/(Imax + Imin)] of
A 2A
1) 2) fringe is
3 3
1) 4 2) 4/5
3 2 3) 6 4) 7
3) A 4) A
4 3 38. In Young’s double-slit experiment, the intensity at
32. A wave motion is described by y(x, t) = a sin (kx – a point is (1/4) of the maximum intensity. Angular
t) then, the ratio of the maximum particle velocity position of this point is
to the wave velocity is 1) sin–1(/d) 2) sin–1(/2d)
 3) sin (/3d)
–1 4) sin–1(/4d)
1) KA 2)
K 39. In YDSE the wavelength used is 600 nm. A
d x transparent slice of thickness 36 m is placed in
3) 4) the path of one wave. The central fringe shifts to
K 1
33. The phase difference between two corks A and B 30th bright fringe from the centre then find the
on the water wave is refractive index of the slice
1) 1.5 2) 1.8
3) 2.0 4) None
40. In YDSE, Bichromatic light of wavelength 1 = 6000 A0
and 2 = 7000 A0 is used. Find for the bright fringe
minimum order of 1 which overlapped with 2
1) Zero 2) 3
1) 7th bright fringe of 1 is overlapped with 6th
3) 6 4) 7
bright fringe of 2.
34. Two mechanical waves y1 = 2 sin2 (50t – 2x) and
2) 4th bright fringe of 1 is overlapped with 3rd
y2 = 4 sin 2(ax + 100t) propagate in a medium
bright fringe of 2.
with same speed. Choose the correct statement
3) 4th bright fringe of 1 is overlapped with 2nd
1) The ratio of their intensities is 1 : 16
bright fringe of 2.
2) The ratio of their intensities is 1 : 4
4) None of these
3) The value of ‘a’ is 3 units
4) The value of ‘a’ is 2 units

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41. In a YDSE apparatus, d = 2 mm,  = 600 mm, D = 1m. 45. A string of length L is stretched by L/20 and speed
The slits individually produce same intensity on the of transverse wave along it is v. The speed of wave
screen. Find the position of point from central when it is stretched by L/10 will be : (assume that
bright where intensity is 3/4 times of the maximum Hooke’s law is applicable)
intensity on screen v
1) 0.01 mm 2) 13 × 10–4 mm 1) 2v 2)
2
3) 0.05 mm 4) 1.5 × 10–4 mm
3) 2v 4) 4v
42. In a single slit diffraction pattern the first minima
46. Velocity of sound in a gaseous medium is 330 ms–1.
is observed at an angle of 450. When light of
If the pressure is increased by 4 times without
wavelength 6000 A0 is incident on the slit. The
change in volume, the velocity of sound in the gas
second maxima is observed at an angle of
is
2 2 1 1) 330 ms–1 2) 660 ms–1
1) sin 1   2) sin 1  
 5  2
  3) 156 ms–1 4) 990 ms–1
47. Temperature at which the speed of sound in air
3  5 
3) sin  
1
4) sin 1   becomes doubled its value at 00C is
4 2 2
1) 1092 0 C 2) 819 0 C
43. The length of the wire shown in fig. between the 3) 819 K 4) 546 0 C
pulley and fixed support is 1.5 m and mass is 12.0 48. In 1m long open pipe, what is the harmonic of
g the frequency of vibration with which the wire resonance obtained with a tuning fork of frequency
vibrate in two loops leaving the middle point of 480 Hz
the wire between the pulleys at rest is 1) First 2) Second
3) Third 4) Fourth
1) 100 Hz 49. If 1, 2 and 3 are the wavelengths of the waves
2) 300 Hz giving resonance with the fundamental, first and
3) 1000 Hz second overtones respectively of a closed organ
4) 700 Hz pipe. Then, the ratio fo wavelengths 1, 2, 3 is
44. A uniform rope of length 10 m and mass 15 kg 1) 1:3:5 2) 1:2:3
hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of 1 1
3) 5:3:1 4) 1: :
mass 5 kg is attached to the free end of teh rope. A 3 5
transverse g pulse of wavelength 0.08 m is 50. The displacement-time graph for two sound waves
produced at the lower end of the rope. The A and B are shown in the figure, then the ratio of
wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the top of their intensities IA/IB is equal to
the rope will be

1) 1:4 2) 1 : 16
3) 1:2 4) 1:1

1) 0.008 m 2) 0.00 4
3) 0.16 m 4) 0m

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 CHEMISTRY : Chemical Kinetics, P-block (15 to 18)
[SECTION-A] 56. Under certain conditions the reaction of CO with
51. Rate of formation of SO3 in the following reaction NO2 to give CO2 and NO results in the rate law;
 2SO 3 is 100g min–1. Hence, rate
2SO 2  O 2  rate = k[CO][NO2]
What are the units for the rate constant, k?
of disappearance of O2 is
1) 50 g min–1 2) 40 g min–1 1) mol  L1  min 1 2) mol 2  L2  min 1
3) 200 g min–1 4) 20 g min–1 3) L  mol 1  min 1 4) L2  mol 2  min 1
52. The rate of a reaction is expressed as follows 57. For the reaction
1  d[C]  1  d[D]  1  d[A]   d[B]  2H 2 (g)  2NO(g)  N 2 (g)  2H 2 O(g)
         Rate = k[H2][NO]2. At a given temperature, what
2  dt  3  dt  4  dt   dt 
is the effect on the reaction rate if the concentration
The reaction is
of H2 is doubled and the concentration of NO is
1) 4A  B 
 2C  3D halved?
2) B  3D 
 4A  2C 1) The reaction rate is halved
2) The reaction rate is unchanged
3) 4A  2B 
 2C  3D 3) The reaction rate is doubled
1 4) The reaction rate increases eifhtfold
4) B    D 
 4A  3
2
  58. 3A 
B C
53. For a reaction pA + qB 
 products, the rate law It would be a zero order reaction when
expression si r = [A]l [B]m, then 1) The rate of reaction is proportional to square
1) (p + l) < (l + m) of concentration of A
2) (p + q) > (l + m) 2) The rate of reaction remains same at any
3) (p + q) may or may not be equal to (l + m) concentration of A
4) (p + q) = (l + m) 3) The rate remains unchanged at any
54. The rate law for a certain reaction is found to be concentration of B and C
Rate = k[A] [B]2 4) The rate of reaction doubles if concentration
How will the rate of this reaction compare if the of B is increased to double
concentration of A is doubled and the concentration 59. A reaction of first-order completed 90% in 90
of B is halved? The rate will minutes, hence, it is completed 50% in
1) remain the same approximately
2) be double the original rate 1) 50 min 2) 54 min
3) be triple the original rate 3) 27 min 4) 62 min
4) be one-half the original rate 60. T50 (Half-life period) of first-order reaction is 10
55. Use the data to determine the orders of A and B in minutes. Starting with 10 mol L–1, rate after 20
minute is
the reaction; A  B 
 products
1) 0.0693 mol L–1 min–1
2) 0.0693 × 2.5 mol L–1 min–1
3) 0.0693 × 5 mol L–1 min–1
4) 0.0693 × 10 mol L–1 min–1

1) Rate = k[A] [B] 2) Rate = k[A]2 [B]

3) Rate = k[A] [B]2 4) Rate = k[A]2 [B]2
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61. A(g) 
 B(g)  C(g) 67. The rate constant, the activation energy and the
frequency factor of a chemical reaction at 250C are
d[A] 3 × 10–4 s–1, 104.4 kJ mol–1 and 6.0 × 1014 s–1
  k[A]
dt respectivley
At the start, pressure is 100 mm and after 10 min,
pressure is 120 mm. Hence, rate constant (min–1) the value of the rate constant as T 
 is
is 1) 2.0 × 1018 s–1 2) 6.0 × 1014 s–1
2.303 120 2.303 100 3) Infinite 4) 3.6 × 1030 s–1
1) log 2) log
10 100 10 20 68. For a reaction X 
 Y , heat of reaction is + a kJ,
2.303 100 2.303 100 potential energy of reactant X is + b kJ and energy
3) log 4) log
10 80 10 120 of activation is + c kJ. The energy of product Y in
62. A certain zero order reaction has k = 0.025 Ms–1 kJ is
for the disappearance of A. What will be the 1) (a + b) 2) (b – a)
concentration of A after 15 seconds if the initial 3) (b + c) 4) (b + c) – a
concentration is 0.50 M? 69. Assertion (A): 1st ionisation enthalpy of pnictogen
1) 0.50 M 2) 0.375 M element is higher than chalocogen element
3) 0.125 M 4) 0.060 M Reason (R): Extra half filled electron configuration
k 1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (A) is
63. The reaction A   Products, is zero order while
not the correct explanation of (A)
k
the reaction B   Products, is 1st order. For what 2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
initial concentration of A the half lives of the two 3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
reactions are equal? 4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
1) 2M 2) ln 2 M correct explanation of (A)
3) 2 log 2 M 4) 2 ln 2 M 70. Select the false statement among the following is
64. For a zero order reaction and a Ist order reaction 1) Nitrogen can not from pentvalency with
half life are in ratio of 4 : 1. Calculate ratio of time halogen
taken to complete 87.5% reaction for zero order: 2) H3PO2 and H3PO3 has P-H bond
first order reaction respectively 3) As2O3 and Sb2O3 are amphoteric oxide
1) 7:3 2) 3:7 4) N2O3 and P2O3 are amphoteric oxide
3) 4:1 4) 5:3 71. Select the correct statement
65. A first order reaction has a rate constant of 0.0541 s–1 1) M.P. : N < P < Sb < As
at 250C. What is the half-life for this reaction? 2) B.P. : N < P < As < Sb
1) 18.5 s 2) 12.8 s 3) EN : N > P > As > Sb
3) 0.0781 s 4) 0.0375 s 4) Reducing nature : AsH3 < PH3 < NH3
66. At 373 K, a gaseous reaction A 
 2B  C is 72. The incorrect order is
1) Thermal stability : NH3 > PH3 > AsH3
found to be of first order. Starting with pure A, the
2) Reducing nature : AsH3 > PH3 > NH3
total pressure at the end of 10 min. was 176 mm
3) Basic nature : ASH3 < PH3 < NH3
and after a long time when A was completely
4) Bond angle : NH3 < PH3 < AsH3
dissociated, it was 270 mm. The pressure of A at
73. The oxyacid of phasphorus has P-P bond
the end of 10 minutes was
1) H 4P 2O 6 2) H3PO4
1) 94 mm 2) 47 mm
3) H4P2O 5 4) H 4P 2O 7
3) 40 mm 4) 90 mm

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74. Which of the following are not correct 82. Weak reducing agent is
1) cyclic SO3 posses six p  d bonds 1) F– 2) Cl–
2) Boiling point 16th group elements hydride 3) Br– 4) I–
H2O is higher than H2S 83. Statement-I : The melting point of following
3) H2S and H2O are gas hydrides of group 16th elements increasisng order
4) 1 and 2 H2S < H2Se < H2Te < H2O
75. The one posses high electron gain enthalpy Statement-II : The melting point of H2O is higher
1) S 2) Se due to intermolecular H-bonding
3) Te 4) O 1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
76. The correct order of decreasisng bond angle in 2) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is
following species are incorrect
3) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is
1) H 2O > H 2S  H 2Se  H 2Te
correct
2) H 2S< H 2Se  H 2 Te <H 2 O 4) Both statement I and statement II are correct
84. In which of the following arrangements the given
3) H 2Te  H 2Se  H 2S <H 2O
squence is not stricity according to the property
4) H 2Te > H 2Se  H 2S <H 2 O indicated against it
77. Which is correct statement 1) O < Te < Se < S – electron gain enthalpy
1) Se2Cl2 undergoes disproportionation reaction 2) SiO2 > P2O5 > SO3 – Acidic oxide
2) SF4 posses sp3d with sea-saw geometry 3) O > S > Se > Te – ionisation energy
3) SF6 is thermally stable 4) O < S < Se < Te – density
4) All of these 85. Which of the following oxoacids have both S-S
78. The order of negative electron gain enthalpy of bonds
halogens is 1) H 2S2O3 & H 2S2 O 7
1) F > Cl > Br > I 2) I > Br > Cl > F 2) H 2S2O 4 & H 2S2O 6
3) Cl > Br > F > I 4) Cl > F > Br > I 3) H 2S2O 6 & H 2SO 4
79. Which among the following is most acidic oxide 4) H 2S2O 8 & H 2SO 4
1) SO 2 2) VO
3) Cr 2O 3 4) SO 3 [SECTION-B]
80. Which statement is correct about halogens? 86. The reaction mechanism for the reaction P 
R
1) They are all diatomic and form univalent ions
is as follows
2) They are all capable of exhibiting several

P 
1k

 2Q (fast) ; 2Q  P 
k3
 R(slow) the rate
oxidation states k2

3) They are all diatomic and from divalent ions law for the net reaction (P 
 R) is
4) They can mutually displace each other from
1) k1 [P] [Q] 2) k1k2 [P]
the solution of their compounds with metals
81. The shape and hybridisation of some xenon k1k 3 [P]2
3) 4) k1k3[P][R]
oxyfluorides are given below. Which of these is k2
incorrect ?
1) XeOF2 – Bent T – shaped and sp3d
2) XeOF4 – Square pyramidal and sp3d2
3) XeO2F2 – See - saw and sp3d
4) XeO3F2 – Square planar and sp3

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87. For a reaction A  B , Ea = 10 kJ mol–1, H = 5 kJ 89. A reaction is 50% complete in 2 hours and 75%
mol–1. Thus, potential energy profile for this complete in 4 hours. the order of reaction is
reaction is 1) 1 2) 2
3) 3 4) 0
90. According to Arrhenius equation rate constant k
 Ea / RT
is equal to Ae . Which of the following options
1) 1
represents the graph of ln k vs ?
T

1) 2)

2)

3) 4)

3) 91. What names apply to chemical species correspond-

ing to locations 1 and 2 on this reaction coordinate
diagram?

4)

88. Statement-1 : A catalyst provides an alternative path

to the reaction in which conversion of reactants
Location-1 Location-2
into products take place quickly
1) activated complex activated complex
Statement-2 : The catalyst forms an activated
2) reaction intermediate activated complex
complex of lower potential energy, with the
3) activated complex reaction intermediate
reactants by which more number of molecules are
4) reaction intermediate reaction intermediate
able to cross the barrier per unit of time.
92. Which is the correct exponential form of the
1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Arrhenius equation?
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
1) Ea  Ae  k / RT 2) Ea  Ae  k / RT
Statement-1.
2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True, 3) k  Ae  RT / Ea 4) k  Ae  Ea / RT
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for 93. Which among the following is amphoteric oxide
Statement-1. 1) SO 2 2) Al2O3
3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False. 3) Cr 2O 7 4) Both (b) and (c)
4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

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94. In group 15, the melting points of the elements 98. Which of the following lanthanide ion is
1) increase regularly on moving down the group paramagnetic?
2) decrease regulay on moving down the group 1) Ce4+ 2) Yb2+
3) first decrease upto As and then increase to Bi 3) Lu3+ 4) Eu2+
4) first increase forn N to as and then decrease 99. The correct configuration of f-block elements is
to Bi 1) (n – 2)f1–14(n – 1)d0–1ns2
95. Hydrolysis of which of the following is the example 2) (n – 1)f1–14(n – 1)d0–1ns2
of redox reaction ? 3) (n – 3)f1–14(n – 2)d0–1(n – 1)s2
1) XeF2 2) XeF4 4) (n – 2)f0–1(n – 1)d0–1ns2
3) XeF6 4) 1 and 2 100. Gadolinium belongs to 4f series. Its atomic number
96. Which of the noble gases is most reactive is 64. which of the following is the correct electronic
1) Xe 2) He configuration of gadolinium?
3) Ne 4) Kr 1) [Xe]4f75d16s2 2) [Xe]4f65d26s2
97. The correct order of ionic radii of Ce, La, pm and 3) [Xe]4f86d2 4) [Xe]4f95s1
Yb in +3 oxidation state is
1) La3+ < Pm3+ < Ce3+ < Yb3+
2) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < Ce3+ < La3+
3) La3+ < Ce3+ < Pm3+ < Yb3+
4) Yb3+ < Ce3+ < Pm3+ < La3+

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 BOTANY : Principles of biotechnology, Biotechnology & its applications
[SECTION-A] 106. How many of the following statement are not true?
101. After completion of biosynthetic stage, the product I. DNA being a hydrophobic molecule cannot
has to be subjected through a series of processes pass through cell membranes.
before it is ready to marketing as a finished product. II. Agrobacterium tumefaciens delivers a piece of
This series of processes is called DNA known as ‘Z-DNA’ in the Ti-plasmid
1) Upstream processing which transforms normal plant cells into
2) Downstream processing tumour cells.
3) Elution III. Retrovirus are used as cloning vectors in
4) Insertional inactivation animal.
102. As per EFB, “Biotechnology is the integration of IV. In genetic engineering, DNA from different
_______ and organisms, cells, parts thereof, and sources are cut with the same restriction
______ for products and services”. Fill in the blanks enzymes so that both DNA fragments have
with appropriate option. same kind of sticky ends.
1) Neutral science; molecular analogues V. Micro-injection method is mainly used for
2) Applied science; structural analogues animal cells
3) Natural science; molecular analogues VI. Disarmed pathogen is allowed to infect cell
4) Natural science; structural analogues to transfer rDNA into host.
103. Read the following statements and opt for the 1) 02
appropriate conclusion. 2) 01
Statement-I: Sexual reproduction has more 3) 03
advantages over asexual reproduction. 4) No statement is wrong
Statement-II: Sexual reproduction preserves 107. For selectable marker.
genetic information, whereas asexual reproduction I. It helps to select the host cells which contain
permits variation. the vector and eliminate thetransformants.
1) Statement I is true. II. Selection is more cumbersome when vector
2) Statement II is true. consist one antibiotic gene and one enzyme
3) Both the statements are true. coding gene as selectable markers
4) Neither of the statements is true. Which of the statements given above are correct?
104. Consider the following statement about PCR 1) Statement I is true.
I. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is a 2) Statement II is true.
technique of synthesizing multiple copies 3) Both the statements are true.
of the desired gene in vitro 4) Neither of the statements is true.
II. This technique was developed by Kary Mullis 108. Following enzymes/chemical/technique are used
in 1981 in the process of gel electrophoresis
III. A single PCR amplification cycle involves I. Sample DNA is cut into fragments
three basic steps; renaturation, annealing and II. Use of restriction endonucleases
extension III. Agarose gel
Which of the statement given above are correct? IV. Ethidium bromide
1) I and II 2) I and III V. UV-radiation
3) II and III 4) Only I VI. Elution
105. Which amongst the following refers to the Mark the correct sequence of their use
‘recombinant DNA’? 1) I, II, III, VI, V and IV
1) Host DNA + fragment of foreign DNA 2) II, I, III, IV, V & VI
2) Host DNA + selectable marker 3) II, I, III, VI, V & IV
3) Host DNA + Taq Polymerase 4) I, II, IV, V, VI and III
4) Host DNA + E.coli

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109. Identify the palindromic sequence from the 115. Restriction enzymes belong to a larger class of
following. enzyme called
1) TTGCAA 1) Retronuclease 2) Nucleases
AACGTT 3) Exonuclease 4) bioenzymes
2) CCTGG 116. Which one is associated with downstream
GGACC processing?
3) GAATCC A. Separation B. Purification
CTTAGG C. DNA isolation D. Gene expression
4) CGATA 1) A, B 2) B, C
GCTAC 3) C, D 4) All the above
110. Amplification of desired DNA in vitro does not 117. Which of the following is not correct about pBR322
requires vector?
1) DNA fragments to be amplified 1) It was constructed by using DNA derived-
2) Primers from naturally occurring plasmids of E coli.
3) Deoxyribonucleotides and DNA polymerase 2) It has two drug resistance genes-tet R and
4) Helicase & SSB Proteins ampR
111. Which of the following statement is true for the 3) It was developed by Bolivar and Rodriguez
given sentence: 4) Selectable markers present in it can differen-
tiate recombinants from non-recombinants
When ampicillin-resistant cells are spread on agar
on the basis of their inability to produce
plates containing ampicillin, ________ .
colour in the presence of chromogenic
I. All cells will die.
substrate
II. Only transformants will grow.
118. How many DNA fragments will be obtained on
III. Untransformed recipient cells will die.
the digestion of linear DNA and circular DNA with
IV. Untransformed recipient cells will grow and
a single type of restriction enzyme having six
transformants will die.
recognition sites on both DNAs respectively?
1) Only statement II
1) 6&6 2) 6&7
2) Only statement IV
3) 7&6 4) 7&7
3) Both statements II and III
119. Match the following
4) None of the statements
Column-I Column-II
112. Assertion: Ligases are required in recombinant
a. Agarose i) Sticky ends
DNA technology.
b. Overhanging stretches ii) Sea weeds
Reason: Sticky ends of DNA fragments can be c. Cells bombarded with iii) Bioreactor
joined together using DNA ligase. tungsten
1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason d. Sampling ports,impeller iv) Gene gun
is the correct explanation of assertion. a b c d
2) Both assertion and reason are true but 1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
reason is not the correct explanation of 2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
assertion. 3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
3) Assertion is true but reason is false. 4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
4) Both assertion and reason are false. 120. Match the following
113. Which of the following is a mismatch? Column-I Column-II
1) Vector DNA - Plasmid A. First recombinant i. 1983
2) Foreign DNA - Gene of interest DNA was synthesized
3) Sticky ends - Hydrogen bonds B. First recombinant drug ii. 1972
4) Selectable marker - BamH I (humulin) was produced
114. The vector DNA is used to- C. First transgenic cow iii. 1990
1) Cut the alien DNA at specific locations D. First clinical gene therapy iv. 1997
2) Transfer the alien DNA into host organism 1) A–i, B–ii, C–iv, D–iii
3) Join the cut DNA molecules 2) A–ii, B–i, C–iv, D–iii
4) identify DNA with desirable genes 3) A–ii, B–iii, C–iv, D–i
4) A–iv, B–i, C–iii, D–ii
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121. At present, about ______ recombinant therapeutics 127. Rosie is a transgenic cow kown to produce a type
are approved for human use all over the world. of milk which has all the following characteristics
1) 12 2) 30 except
3) 20 4) 9 1) Protein content of 2.4gm/litre
122. The law regarding “Exploitation of bio-resources 2) Human -lactalbumin
of India without proper authorization or adequate 3) More balanced diet than normal milk for
compensation” comes under: babies
1) First amendment of Indian Patents Bill 4) Rich in beneficial lipids
2) Indian Bio-piracy Act 128. Bt cotton is not
3) Second amendment of Indian Patents Bill 1) A GM plant
4) Second amendment of Indian Bio-patents Bill 2) Insect resistant
123. Consider the following statements about transgenic 3) A bacterial gene expressing system
plants- 4) Resistant to all pesticides
I. Transgenic tobacco plants developed against 129. Which property of transgenic animals is used in
root knot disease contains a gene from a chemical safety testing?
bacterium, Bacillus thuringiensis 1) Insensitivity to toxic substances
II. cry gene produces an insecticidal protein 2) Sensitivity to toxic substance
which damages the epithelial lining ofmidgut 3 Resistance to toxic substance
of insects and kills it (insect) 4) Both 1 and 3
III. The corn plants having cryIIAb gene 130. How was the ‘new’ variety of Indian Basmati
produces their own insecticide against corn developed by the American company?
borer. 1) Indian variety was continuously self-pollinated
Which of the statements given above are not 2) Indian variety was crossed with pure-dwarf
correct? varieties.
1) I and II 2) Only III 3) Indian Variety was crossed with pure-tall
3) II and III 4) Only I variety.
124. Genetic modification has 4) Indian variety was crossed with semi-dwarf
I. Reduced reliance on chemical pesticides varieties.
II. Reduced post-harvest losses 131. Read the following statements and chose the
III. Reduced efficiency of minerals used by the appropriate option.
plants Statement-I: The applications of biotechnology
IV. Crops more sensitive to abiotic stress include recombinant therapeutics.
V. Enhanced nutritional value of the food Statement-II: Recombinant therapeutics is based
Which of the statements given above are correct? on production of biopharmaceuticals using natural
1) I, II, III and IV 2) I, II, III and V capabilities of organisms only
3) I, II and V 4) III and IV 1) Statement I is true
125. In a recent war between two countries, one of them 2) Statement II is true
intend to use multidrug resistant bacteria as a 3) Both the statements are true
bioweapon. According to you, this can be a violation 4) Neither of the statements is true
of 132. Match the following column I with column II
1) Bio-ethics Column-I Column-II
2) Bio-patent A) Gene therapy 1) Effort to fix defected gene
3) Bio-piracy B) Humulin 2) A DNA or RNA tagged
4) Exploitation of bio-resources with a radioactive molecule
126. Identify the odd term with respsect to modern C) Probe 3) Diagnostic test for AIDS
diagnostic tools. D) ELISA 4) Diabetes
1) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) A B C D
2) Enzyme linked immunosorbant assay 1) 1 4 2 3
(ELISA) 2) 4 1 2 3
3) Recombinant DNA technology 3) 1 4 3 2
4) Serum analysis 4) 3 1 4 2
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133. Correct chronological order of the steps occurring 138. Assertion: Some nations are developing laws to
during gene therapy are prevent unauthorized exploitation of their bio-
I. Lymphocytes are obtained from the patients resources.
II. Lymphocytes are transferred to the culture Reason: Growing realization of injustice and benefit
dishes sharing between developing and developed
III. Lymphocytes are transfected with the countries are making developing countries aware
normal ADA genes about biopiracy.
IV. The transfected cell are returned to the 1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
patients is the correct explanation of assertion.
The chronological order should be 2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason
1) I, II, III and IV 2) II, I, III and IV is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
3) I, III, II and IV 4) III, II, IV and I
4) Both assertion and reason are false.
134. Which one of the following statement is not
139. Fill up the blanks and select the correct option
considered as the role of Genetic Engineering
i. EcoRI cuts the DNA between bases _____
Approval committee (GEAC)?
only when the sequence _____ is present in
1) It will make decision regarding the validity
the DNA duplex
of GM research
ii. Disruption of the cell membranes can
2) It will commercialize the genetically modified
be achieved by treating the bacterial cells
crops and help companies to collect more plants cells and fungal cells with enzymes
revenue respectively _____ , _____ and _____ .
3) It will make the safety of introducing GM iii. Since DNA has a _____ charge, it moves
organism for public services towards the _____ of the electrophoretic
4) More than one option is correct chamber
135. The trigger for activation of toxin of Bacillus 1) i– G and A, GAATTC
thuringiensis is ii–endonuclease, chitinase, cellulase
1) Acidic pH of stomach iii–negative, anode
2) High temperature 2) i–G and A, GAATTC
3) Alkaline pH of gut ii–lysosome, cellulase, cellulase
4) Mechanical action in the insect gut iii–positive, cathode
3) i– G and A, GAATTC
[SECTION-B] ii–lysozyme, cellulase, chitinase
136. A incorrect pair of characteristic of molecular probe iii–negative, anode
is 4) i– G and A, GAATTC
I. A single-stranded DNA or RNA tagged with ii–lysozyme, cellulase, chitinase
a radioactive molecule iii–positive, cathode
II. A double-stranded DNA tagged with a 140. Two enzymes responsible for restricting the growth
radioactive molecule of bacteriophages in E.coli were isolated. One was
III. Complementary to part of desired gene methylase and other was restriction endonuclease.
IV. Non complementary RNA What is the significance of methylase?
1) Protection of host DNA from the action of
Which of the above statements are correct?
restriction endonuclease by adding methyl
1) I and II 2) I and III
group to one or two bases usually with in
3) II and IV 4) III and IV
the sequence recognized by restriction
137. Transgenic plants carry desirable traits like
enzyme
1) Resistance to abiotic stresses
2) Able to ligate the two cohesive ends of DNA
2) Insect resistance
molecule
3) Pest resistance
3) Able to remove the methyl group and hence,
4) More than one option is correct prevent the action of restriction endonuclease
on host DNA
4) Able to cut the DNA of bacteriophage at
specific sites

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141. In a genetic engineering experiment, restriction 146. When a recombinant DNA bearing gene for
enzymes can be isolated from _______ and used resistance to antibiotic kanamyc in is transferred
for_________ to E.coli cells, the host cells gets transformed into
1) Bacteria &Bacterial DNA only kanamycin resistance cells. E.coli cells are plated
2) Eukaryotic cell & Bacterial DNA only an agar plates containing kanamycin and only
3) Bacteria &Any DNA fragment some cells with kanamycin resistance grew. The
4) Viruses &Eukaryotic DNA only kanamycin resistant gene in this case is called as
142. Genes for antibiotic resistance are located in bacteria 1) Selectable marker for recombination
over a 2) Selectable marker for transformation
1) Genomic DNA 2) Plasmid 3) Selectable marker for recombination&
3) RNA 4) cell membrane transformation
143. Match the column and opt for the appropriate 4) Can not be predicted
answer. 147. Eli Lilly, an American company prepared two DNA
Column-I Column-II sequences corresponding to A and B Chains of
a. Gene gun i) 3-galactosidase human insulin and introduced them in plasmids
b. Fungus ii) Biolistics of E.colito produce insulin chains. Chains A and B
c. Chloramphenicol iii) Chitinase were produced separately, extracted and combined
d. Insertionalinactivation iv) Antibiotic by creating:
a b c d 1) Peptide bonds 2) Ionic bonds
3) H-bonds 4) Disulphide bonds
1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
148. The properties of ideal cloning vector are
2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
1) Low molecular weight, unique cleavage site
3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
for the activity of restriction enzymes
4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
2) High molecular weight, single site for
144. Match the following
restriction enzyme
List-I List-II List-III
3) Low molecular weight, many sites for single
a) PCR i) Specific base I. Taq polymerase
restriction enzyme
sequence
4) High molecular weight, many sites single for
b) Down stream ii) Inheritable II. Ampicillin restriction enzymes
processing gene resistance gene 149. The detection of clone having mutated gene can
c) Restrictionend- iii) Amplification III. E. coli be done by which of the following technique?
onuclease of DNA 1) Plating technique
d) Selectable iv) Transformation IV. Quality control 2) Autoradiography
Marker & non 3) PCR
transformation 4) All of the above
v) Product V. Ori 150. Which of the following correctly defines a
separation & transgenic animal?
purification 1) An animal which has foreign DNA and RNA
The correct match is in some of its cells because of an injection of
a b c d DNA and RNA into the nucleus of the zygote
1) iii, I v, IV ii, V i, III from which it is developed.
2) i, IV iv, I ii, V iii, I 2) An animal which has foreign DNA in all its
3) iii, I v, IV i, III iv, II cells because of an injection of DNA into the
4) iii, I iv, I i, III ii, V nucleus of the zygote from which it is
145. If 5 DNA molecules are taken into PCR machine developed.
and programmed for 60 Minutes. What would be 3) An animal which has foreign DNA in some of
final number of DNA copies produced after PCR. its cells because of an injection of DNA into the
(1 PCR cycle takes 05 minute to complete) nuclei of some of the cells of the blastocyst
1) 102400 2) 20480 4) An animal which has foreign DNA in all its
3) 204800 4) 10240 cells because of an injection of DNA into the
nuclei of some of the cells in adulthood.
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 ZOOLOGY : Organisms & Populations
[SECTION-A] 158. The tiger census in our national parks and tiger
151. Camouflage is: reserves is often based on
1) Cryptic coloration 1) Pug marks 2) Club count
2) Aposematic coloration 3) Area allocation 4) Collar position
3) Incidental coloration 159. Assertion (A) : The number of fish caught per trap
is not a good measure of its total population density
4) Dispersive coloration
in the lake
152. Nicotine, caffeine, quinine and opium produced
Reason (R) : For ecological investigations, it is
by plants are actually:
obligatory to count every individual in a population
1) Primary metabolites needed in reproduction
to estimate population density
2) Secondary metabolites needed for growth 1) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
3) Alkaloids that are present in seeds 2) Both A and R are false
4) Defenses against grazers and browsers 3) Both A and R are true and R explains A
153. When Darwin spoke of the struggle for existence, 4) A is true but R is false
he was convinced that a potent force in organic 160. If a new habitat is just being colonized, which of
evolution is: the following is most likely to contribute to an
1) Intraspecific competition increase in the population density?
2) Interspecific competition 1) Birth rate 2) Death rate
3) Intraspecific mutualism 3) Immigration 4) Emigration
4) Interspecific mutualism 161. In the formula for exponnential growth (dN/dt =
154. In 2005, for each of the 14 million people present rN), what does ‘r’ stand for?
in a country, 0.028 were born and 0.008 died during 1) The carrying capacity of the environment
the year. Using the exponential equation, the 2) The change in time
number of people present in 2015 is predicted as: 3) The number of individuals in the population
4) The intrinsic rate of natural increase of the
1) 25 million 2) 17 million
population
3) 20 million 4) 18 million
162. A population has more young individuals
155. For the purpose of ecological studies, the term
compared to older individuals. What would be the
population is applicable to individuals reproducing
status of the population after some years?
1) Asexually 2) Sexually 1) It will decline
3) Both 1 and 2 4) Neither 1 nor 2 2) It will stabilize
156. Assertion (A) : Population ecology links ecology 3) It will increase
to population genetics and evolution 4) It will first decline and then stabilize
Reason (R) : It is at the population level that natural 163. Assertion (A) : The logistic growth model is more
selection operates to evolve the desired traits. realistic for most animal populations in nature
1) Both A and R are true and R explains A Reason (R) : Resources for growth for most animal
2) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A populations are finite and become limiting sooner
3) A is true but R is false or later in the nature
4) A is false but R is true 1) A is true but R is false
157. In an area, there are 200 carrot grass plants but 2) Both A and R are true and R explains A
only a single huge banyan tree with a large canopy 3) A is false but R is true
I. The ecological role of the banyan tree in this 4) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
community is negligible when compared to 164. As a part of their reproductive strategy, pelagic
fishes
that of carrot grass
1) Produce a large number of small-sized
II. In this community, the percent cover or
offspring
biomass is a more meaningful measure of
2) Produce a small number of small-sized
population size
offspring
1) Only I is correct 3) Produce a large number of large-sized
2) Only II is correct offspring
3) Both I and II are correct 4) Produce a small number of large-sized
4) Both I and II are incorrect offspring
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165. Darwinian fitness is represented by 172. The monarch butterfly acquires distasteful toxin
1) Low r value 2) High r value during:
3) High K value 4) Low K value 1) Caterpillar stage by feeding on a poisonous
166. Assertion (A) : In every species, there are trade- weed
offs between survival and reproductive traits. 2) Caterpillar stage by feeding on sap of a grass
Reason (R) : Natural selection favors traits that 3) Adult stage by feeding on nectar of a
improve an organism’s chances of survival and flowering plant
reproductive success. 4) Adult stage by feeding on latex of deadly
1) Both A and R are true and R explains A night shade plant
2) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A 173. Consider the given statements regarding competi-
3) A is true but R is false tion amongst organisms:
4) Both A and R are false I. Only related species can compete for the
167. Identify the CORRECT statements: same resource
I. Pacific salmon and bamboo breed many II. Competition occurs only when the resources
times during their lifetimes. are limiting
II. Birds and mammals breed many times The correct statement/s is/are:
during their lifetimes and produce a small 1) I alone 2) II alone
number of large-sized offspring. 3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
III. Oysters and pelagic fishes produce a large 174. Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos islands became
number of small-sized offspring. extinct within a decade after goats were introduced
1) Only I and II 2) Only I and III on the island due to:
3) Only II and III 4) I, II and III 1) Habitat fragmentation
168. A population interaction where one species is 2) Better browsing efficiency of goats
harmed whereas the other is unaffected is called 3) Predator of goat attacking tortoise
as: 4) Virus of goats parasitizing tortoise
1) Mutualism 2) Competition 175. Competitive Exclusion Principle” may be true if:
3) Predation 4) Amensalism 1) The competing species are equally capable
169. In broad ecological context, all the following would 176. 2) Resource partitioning occurs
be considered examples of predation except: 3) There is only intraspecific competition
1) Tiger eating deer 4) Resources are limiting
2) Sparrow eating seed 176. To get pollinated by a bee, the Mediterranean
3) Cow eating herbs Orchid, Ophrys, employs:
4) Earthworm feeding on detritus 1) Sexual deceit
170. Predators do not: 2) Pseudo-copulation
1) act as ‘conduits’ for energy transfer across 3) Reward in the form of nectar
trophic levels 4) Place for laying eggs
2) keep prey populations under control 177. One mechanism that promotes co-existence rather
3) over-exploit their prey than exclusion amongst competing species is:
4) help in maintaining species diversity in a 1) Periodic migration
community 2) Hibernation and aestivation
171. When certain exotic species are introduced into a 3) Resource partitioning
geographical area, they become invasive mainly 4) Reproductive isolation
because: 178. MacArthur showed that five closely related species
1) The invaded land has unlimited resources for of warblers living on the same tree were able to
the introduced species avoid competition and co-exist due to:
2) The invaded land does not have its natural 1) Behavioral differences in their foraging
predator activities.
3) The population of the introduced species in 2) Pre-zygotic reproductive isolation mechanisms
the invaded land is very low 3) Physiological differences in acclimatization
4) Introduced species do not face any 4) Gene differentiation
competition in the introduced land
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179. The human liver fluke depends on two [SECTION-B]
intermediate hosts that are: 186. Identify the CORRECT statements about
1) A crustacean and a fish symbiotic relationships:
2) A snail and a fish I. In a parasitic relationship, one organism is
3) An echinoderm and a fish harmed and the other is benefited.
4) Fishes of two different species II. Coevolution is a feature of many symbiotic
180. Cuckoos laying their eggs in the nests of crow is an relationships.
example of III. A relationship that appears to be commen-
1) Ectoparasitism 2) Endopararsitism salism may in fact be mutualistic or parasitic.
3) Hyperparasitism 4) Brood parasitism IV. The most efficient type of parasite is one that
181. An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango
kills its host.
branch is an example of
1) I, II and III only
1) Ectoparasitism 2) Endopararsitism
2) I, III and IV only
3) Commensalism 4) Mutualism
3) II, III and IV only
182. All the following relations are examples of
4) I, II, III and IV
commensalism except:
187. Resource partitioning is:
1) Sea anemone and clown fish
1) Competitive exclusion results in the success
2) Cattlg egret and grazing cattle
3) Barnacles growing on the back of whale of the superior species.
4) Cuscuta growing on hedge plants 2) Slight variations in niches allow similar
183. Assertion (A): Plant-animal interactions often species to coexist.
involve co-evolution of the mutualists. 3) Two species can coevolve to share the same
Reason (R): The mutually beneficial system should niche.
be safeguarded against ‘cheaters’. 4) Differential resource utilization results in a
1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not decrease in species diversity
explain (A). 188. Identify the INCORRECT statement regarding
2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) correcdy population interactions:
explains (A). 1) An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango
3) (A) is true but (R) is false. branch is an example of commensalism
4) (A) is false but (R) is true. 2) A given fig species can only be pollinated by
184. Lichens represent an intimate mutualistic its partner wasp
relationship between a fungus and: 3) Biological pest control methods are largely
1) An algae based on predation
2) A cyanobacterium 4) Most parasites do not harm or reduce the
3) A brown alga fitness of their hosts
4) Either 1 or 2 189. Match the following
185. Consider the following statements: Column-I Column-II
I. When certain exotic species are introduced A. Mutualism P. Beneficial to A, no
into a geographical area, they become effect for B
invasive because the invaded land does not B. Competition q. Beneficial to both A
have its natural predators.
and B
II. Competition is best defined as a process in
C. Parasitism r. Beneficial to A and
which the fitness of one species is signifi-
inhibitory to B
cantly lower in the presence of another
D. Predation s. Beneficial to A and
species.
harmful to B
III. Biological control methods adopted in
E. Commensalism t. Harmful to both A
agricultural pest control are based on the
and B
ability of the predator to regulate the prey
population. 1) A-t, B-s, C-p, D-q, E-r
Which of the above statements are true? 2) A-q, B-t, C-s, D-r, E-p
1) I and II only 2) I and III only 3) A-p, B-r, C-q, D-t, E-s
3) II and III only 4) I, II, and III 4) A-s, B-q, C-t, D-p, E-r

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190. Column-I Column-II 195. Match List I with List II:
(Population interaction) (Examples) List-I List-II
A. Mutualism 1. Siberian birds (Interacting Species) (Name of Interaction)
B. Commensalism 2. Balanus and a) A leopard and a lion i) Competition
Chthamalus
in a forest/grassland
C. Parasitism 3. Sparrow and any
b) A cuckoo laying egg ii) Brood parasitism
seed
in a crow’s nest
D. Competition 4. Epiphyte on a
c) Fungi and root of a iii) Mutualism
mango branch
higher plant in
E. Predation 5. Orchid Ophrys and
Mycorrhizae
bee
d) A cattle egret and cattle iv) Commensalism
1) A-1, B-5, C-4, D-3, E-2
2) A-2, B-1, C-5, D-4, E-3 in a field
3) A-5, B-4, C-1, D-2, E-3 1) a–(i), b–(ii), c–(iv), d–(iii)
4) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-5, E-4 2) a–(iii), b–(iv), c–(i), d–(ii)
191. Match the following 3) a–(ii), b–(iii), c–(i), d–(iv)
Column-I Column-II 4) a–(i), b–(ii), c–(iii), d–(iv)
a. Allen’s rule i. Kangaroo rat 196. Match List I with List II.
b. Physiological adaptation ii. Desert lizard List-I List-II
c. Behaviroul adaptation iii. Marine fish depth a) Logistic growth i) Unlimited resource
d. Biochemical adaptation iv. Polar seal availability condition
1) a–iv, b–ii, c–iii, d–i 2) a–iv, b–i, c–iii, d–ii b) Exponential growth ii) Limited resource
3) a–iv, b–i, c–ii, d–iii 4) a–iv, b–iii, c–ii, d–i availability condition
192. While explaining interspecific interaction of c) Expanding age iii) The percent
population, (+) sign is assigned for beneficial pyramid individuals of pre-
interaction, (–) sign is assigned for detrimental reproductive age are
interaction, and (0) for neutral interaction. Which largest followed by
of the following, interactions can be assigned (+) reproductive and
for one species and (–) for another species involved post-reproductive
in the interaction? age groups
1) Commensalism 2) Competition d) Stable age pyramid iv) The percent
3) Predation 4) Amensalism individuals of pre-
193. If ‘8’ Drosophila in a laboratory population of ‘80’ reproductive and
died during a week, the death rate in the population reproductive age
is individuals per Drosophila per week
group are same
1) 1.0 2) Zero
1) a–(ii), b–(iii), c–(i), d–(iv)
3) 0.1 4) 10
2) a–(ii), b–(iv), c–(i), d–(iii)
194. Given below are two statements:
3) a–(ii), b–(iv), c–(iii), d–(i)
Statement-I: Gause’s ‘Competitive Exclusion
4) a–(ii), b–(i), c–(iii), d–(iv)
Principle’ states that two closely related species
197. A population X was reported with following data:
competing for the same resources cannot co-exist
A. Number of pre-reproductive individuals =
indefinitely, and the competitively inferior one will
be eliminated eventually. 18,960
Statement-II: In general, carnivores are more B. Number of reproduction individuals =
adversely affected by competition than herbivores. 11,500
In the light of the above statements, C. Number of post-reproductive individuals =
Choose the correct answer from the options given 9745
below: Which of the following conclusions can be
1) Both statement I and statement II are false. withdrawn from the above data?
2) Statement I is correct, but statement II is false. 1) Above population will decline with time
3) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is 2) This is a stable population
true. 3) This population will keep on growing
4) Both statement I and statement II are true. 4) Such population shows U-shaped pyramid
SCSS CW-12 Page 19
198. Each organism has invariably defined range of 200. Which of the following is not an attribute of a
conditions taht it can tolerate, resources it utilizes, population?
and a distinct functional role in teh ecological 1) Sex ratio 2) Natality
system. All these together comprises its 3) Mortality 4) Species interaction
1) Habitat 2) Niche
3) Ecosystem 4) Biome
199. Predation, parasitism, and commensalism share
which common characteristic?
1) Both the interacting species are benefitted
2) Interacting species live closely together
3) one of the species is benefitted while other is
harmed
4) Both the species belong to the same
taxonomic group

SCSS CW-12 Page 20

NEET-2024 KEY TO THE QUESTION BOOKLET 15-12-2024

XII-PCB-(T.S.)-CW-12
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY
1 4 14 4 27 3 40 1 51 4 64 1 77 4 90 1
2 3 15 1 28 4 41 3 52 2 65 2 78 4 91 2
3 4 16 3 29 2 42 4 53 3 66 2 79 4 92 4
4 2 17 1 30 4 43 1 54 4 67 2 80 1 93 2
5 1 18 3 31 4 44 3 55 2 68 1 81 4 94 4
6 3 19 3 32 1 45 3 56 3 69 4 82 1 95 4
7 1 20 3 33 4 46 2 57 1 70 4 83 4 96 1
8 2 21 3 34 1 47 2 58 2 71 3 84 2 97 2
9 1 22 4 35 4 48 3 59 3 72 4 85 2 98 4
10 3 23 4 36 2 49 4 60 2 73 1 86 3 99 1
11 1 24 4 37 2 50 4 61 3 74 3 87 2 100 1
12 3 25 1 38 3 62 3 75 1 88 1
13 4 26 3 39 1 63 4 76 1 89 1

NEET-2024 KEY TO THE QUESTION BOOKLET 15-12-2024

XII-PCB-(T.S.)-CW-12
BOTANY ZOOLOGY
101 2 114 2 127 4 140 1 151 1 164 1 177 3 190 3
102 3 115 2 128 4 141 3 152 4 165 2 178 1 191 3
103 1 116 1 129 2 142 2 153 2 166 1 179 2 192 3
104 4 117 4 130 4 143 2 154 2 167 3 180 4 193 3
105 1 118 3 131 1 144 3 155 3 168 4 181 3 194 2
106 1 119 4 132 1 145 2 156 1 169 4 182 4 195 4
107 4 120 2 133 1 146 2 157 2 170 3 183 2 196 4
108 2 121 2 134 2 147 4 158 1 171 2 184 4 197 3
109 1 122 3 135 3 148 1 159 2 172 1 185 4 198 2
110 4 123 4 136 3 149 2 160 3 173 4 186 1 199 2
111 3 124 3 137 4 150 2 161 4 174 2 187 2 200 4
112 1 125 1 138 1 162 3 175 4 188 4
113 4 126 4 139 3 163 2 176 1 189 2