. . .

• Test ID : 926 • FST : 26

DURATION : 200 Minutes DATE : 08-Dec.-2024 MARKS : 720

Topic Covered
Physics : FULL SYLLABUS
Chemistry : FULL SYLLABUS
Biology : FULL SYLLABUS

(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.)
Please read the instructions carefully :
• The Test pattern of NEET (UG)-2024 comprises of two Sections.
Each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15 questions, out
of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions.
The pattern for the NEET (UG)-2024 Examination for admission in the Session 2024-25 is as follows:

• The important points to note:

I. Each question carries 04 (four) marks and, for each correct answer candidate will get 04 (four) marks.
II. For each incorrect answer, 01(one) mark will be deducted from the total score.
III. To answer a question, the candidate has to find, for each question, the correct answer/ best option.
IV. However, after the process of the challenge of key, if more than one option is found to be correct then all/any one
of the multiple correct/best options marked will be given four marks (+4).
• Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1).
• Unanswered/Unattempted questions will be given no marks. In case, a question is dropped/ ignored, all
candidates will be given four marks (+4) irrespective of the fact whether the question has been attempted or not
attempted by the candidate.

Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _____________________________________________________________

Candidate ID : _________________________________________________________________________________
Candidate Signature : _____________________________ Invigilator's Signature : _______________________
 . . .
All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024

TOPIC : FULL SYLLABUS

-A SECTION-A
35 Attempt All 35 Questions
1. 1. A person weighing 50 kg takes in 1500 k Cal diet
per day. If this energy were to be used in heating
the body of person without any losses, then the
rise in his temperature is

( = 0.83 cal g–1C–1)? (specific heat of human body = 0.83 cal g–1 C–1 )?

(1) 30o C (1) 30o C

(2) 48o C (2) 48o C

(3) 40.16o C (3) 40.16o C

(4) 36.14o C (4) 36.14o C

2. P-V P,y- 2. In a P-V diagram for an ideal gas (where P is

V,x- along the y-axis and V is along the x-axis), the
value of the ratio; slope of the adiabatic curve/
slope of the isothermal curve at any point will
be : (where symbols have their usual meaning)
(1) 1 (1) 1
(2) Cp / Cv (2) Cp / Cv
(3) 2 (3) 2
(4) Cv / Cp (4) Cv / Cp

3. SHM 4 cm 3. The amplitude of a particle executing SHM is

16 cm/sec 4 cm. At the mean position the speed of the
particle is 16 cm/sec. The distance of the particle
8 3 cm/s from the mean position at which the sped of the
particle becomes 8 3 cm/s, will be
(1) 2 3 cm
(1) 2 3 cm
(2) 3 cm (2) 3 cm
(3) 1 cm (3) 1 cm

(4) 2 cm (4) 2 cm

4. 4. Two identical but separate strings, with the same

tension, carry sinusoidal waves with the same
A B frequency. Wave A has a amplitude that is twice
B that of wave B and transmits energy at rate that
is ........ that of wave B.

(1) vk/kh (1) half

(2) nqxuh (2) twice

(3) ,d pkSFkkbZ (3) one-fourth

(4) pkj xquk (4) four times

NLI / 3
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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024
5. o
100 C 5 0C o
6 5. 5 gm of steam at 100oC is passed into 6 gm of
ice at 0oC. If the latent heats of steam and ice in
540 80 cal per gm are 540 and 80 respectively, then the
final temperature is :

(1) 0oC (1) 0oC

(2) 100oC (2) 100oC

(3) 50oC (3) 50oC

(4) 30oC (4) 30oC

6. 5s 6. The amplitude of a damped oscillator decreases

0.9 to 0.9 times its original magnitude in 5s. In
10s  another 10s it will decrase to  times its original
 magnitude, where  equals
(1) 0.7 (1) 0.7
(2) 0.81 (2) 0.81
(3) 0.729 (3) 0.729
(4) 0.6 (4) 0.6
7. a, b, c d 7. In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d
1%, 2%, 3% 4% are measured with percentage error 1%, 2%, 3%
P and 4% respectively. Quantity P is calculated as
3 2
ab a 3b2
P= , P (%) follows P = , % error in P is :
cd cd

(1) 4%
(1) 4%
(2) 14%
(2) 14%
(3) 10% (3) 10%

(4) 7% (4) 7%
8. 8. A body is projected vertically upward with speed
40 m/s. The distance travellel by body in the last
second of upward journey is [take g = 10 m/sec2
[g = 10 m/sec2 and neglect effect of air resistance] :
]
(1) 5.0 m
(1) 5.0 m
(2) 10.0 m
(2) 10.0 m
(3) 12.5 m
(3) 12.5 m
(4) 20.0 m (4) 20.0 m

9. (24t2 – 8t) 9. A variable force (24t2 – 8t) Newton is acting on a

particle. The impulse imparted to it in first two
second will be :

(1) 12 kg-m/s (1) 12 kg-m/s

(2) 24 kg-m/s (2) 24 kg-m/s

(3) 36 kg-m/s (3) 36 kg-m/s

(4) 48 kg-m/s (4) 48 kg-m/s

NLI / 4
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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024
10. 10. In the arrangement shown, the 2 kg block is held
to keep the system at rest. The string and pulley
are ideal. When the 2 kg block is set free, by
what amount the tension in the string changes?
[g = 10 m/s2] [g = 10 m/s2]

(1) 12 N dh o`f) (1) Increase of 12 N

(2) 12 N dh deh (2) Decrease of 12 N

(3) 18 N dh o`f) (3) Increase of 18 N

(4) 18 N dh deh (4) Decrease of 18 N

11. A B 11. A body A experiences perfectly elastic collision

with a stationary body B. If after collision the
A B bodies fly apart in the opposite direction with
equal speeds, the mass ratio of A and B are :

(1) 1/5 (1) 1/5

(2) 1/4 (2) 1/4

(3) 1/3 (3) 1/3

(4) 1/3 (4) 1/3

12. 12. A person, with outstretched arms, is spinning

on a rotating stool. He suddenly brings his arms
K down to his sides. Which of the following is true
L about system kinetic energy K and angular
momentum L?

(1) K o L nksuksa c<+sxsa (1) Both K and L increase.

(2) K o L nksuksa vifjofrZr jgsxsa (2) Both K and L rem,ain unchanged.

(3) K fu;r ijUrq L c<+sxk (3) K remains constant, L increases.

(4) K c<+sxk ysfdu L fu;r jgsxk (4) K increases but L remains constant.

13. 13. Pressure inside two soap bubbles is 1.01 and

1.02 atomsphere. Ratio between their volume
is :
(1) 102 : 101
(1) 102 : 101
(2) (102)3 : (101)3
(2) (102)3 : (101)3
(3) 8 : 1
(3) 8 : 1
(4) 2 : 1 (4) 2 : 1
NLI / 5
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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024
14. 14. The main scale of a Vernier calliper reads in
mm and its Vernier is divided into 10 divisions
which coincide with 9 divisions of the main scale.
(x/10) The reading for the situation is found to be
mm x fig (1) V.S. (x/10) mm. Find the value of x. In fig (1) 8th div.
fig (2) V.S. of V.S. coincides with M.S.D. & in fig. (2) 6th div.
of V.S. coincides with M.S.D.

(1) 104 (1) 104

(2) 108 (2) 108
(3) 114 (3) 114
(4) 118 (4) 118
15. 15. From the top of a tower 19.6 m high, a ball is
thrown horizontally. If the line joining the point
of projection to the point where it hits the ground
45o makes and angle of 45o with the horizontal, then
the initial velocity of the ball is :
(1) 9.8 ms –1 (1) 9.8 ms –1
(2) 4.9 ms –1 (2) 4.9 ms –1
(3) 14.7 ms –1 (3) 14.7 ms –1
(4) 2.8 ms –1 (4) 2.8 ms –1
16. 16. A tube has two different areas of cross section
8 mm 2 mm having diameter of 8 mm and 2 mm as shown in
0.25 ms–1 figure. The range of water falling on horizontal
surface, if piston is moving with a constant
velocity of 0.25 m s –1 is (h = 1.25 m and
(h = 1.25 m g = 10 ms–2)
g = 10 ms–2 )

(1) 1 m
(1) 1 m
(2) 2 m (2) 2 m
(3) 3 m (3) 3 m
(4) 4 m (4) 4 m

NLI / 6
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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024

17. 900N 17. The force between two points charges in air is
50% 900 N. If the distance between them is increased
by 50%, then the force is
(1) 400 N
(1) 400 N
(2) 200 N
(2) 200 N
(3) 300 N (3) 300 N
(4) 600 N (4) 600 N
18. Q1 Q2 18. Two identical small conducting spheres carry
Q1 >> Q2 d charge of Q1 and Q2 with Q1 >> Q2. The charges
are d distance apart. The force they exert on one
F1
another is F1. The spheres are made to touch one
another and then separated to same distance of
F2 F1/F2 apart. The force they exert on one another now is
F2. Then F1/F2 is :
4Q1
(1) 4Q1
Q2 (1) Q2
Q1
(2) 4Q Q1
2 (2) 4Q
2

4Q 2 4Q 2
(3) Q1 (3) Q1
Q2 Q2
(4) 4Q (4) 4Q
1
1

19. A B AB 19. Two particles A and B are connected by a rigid

rod AB. The rod slides along perpendicular rails
as shown here. The velocity of A to the right is
A, 10 m/s 10 m/s. What is the velocity of B when angle
B = 60o: = 60o :

B
B



O A
O A
(1) 9.8 m/s
(1) 9.8 m/s
(2) 10 m/s (2) 10 m/s
(3) 5.8 m/s (3) 5.8 m/s
(4) 17.3 m/s. (4) 17.3 m/s.
20. nth e– 20. The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron moving
rÅ in the nth Bohr orbit of radius r Å will be :
(1) nr Å (1) nr Å
n n
(2) Å (2) Å
r r
2r 2r
(3) Å (3) Å
n n
(4) 2n Å (4) 2n Å
NLI / 7
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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024
21. 50% 21. If the energy of a particle is reduced to half then
% the percentage increase in the de-Broglie
wavelength is about :
(1) 41%
(1) 41%
(2) 50%
(2) 50%
(3) 29%
(3) 29%
(4) 100% (4) 100%
22. f1 f2 22. Two identical photo cathodes receives lights of
v1 v2 frequencies f 1 and f 2 . If the velocity of the
photoelectrons (of mass m) coming out are
respectively v1 and v2, then:
2h
(1) v1  v 2  (f1  f2 )
2 2

m 2h
(1) v1  v 2  (f1  f2 )
2 2

m
1/ 2
 2h 
(2) v1  v 2   (f1  f2 )
1/ 2
 2h 
m  (2) v1  v 2   (f1  f2 )
m 

2h
(3) v1  v 2  (f1  f2 )
2 2
2h
(3) v1  v 2  (f1  f2 )
2 2
m
m
1/ 2
 2h   2h 
1/ 2
(4) v1  v 2   (f1  f2 ) (4) v1  v 2   (f1  f2 )
 m  m 

23. (q) (t) 23. A charge (q) and time (t) related as q = 3t2 – 2t + 4.
q = 3t2 – 2t + 4. Find ratio of instantaneous and average electric
t=2 : current at time t = 2 sec :

(1) 5 : 6 (1) 5 : 6
(2) 6 : 5 (2) 6 : 5
(3) 5 : 2 (3) 5 : 2

(4) bueas ls dksbZ ugha (4) None of these

24. A B Ea 24. The binding energies of the atoms of elements A

Eb B and B are Ea and Eb respectively. Three atoms of
A the elements B fuse to give one atom of element
E Ea, Eb E A. This fusion process is accompained by release
of energy E. Then Ea, Eb and E are related to each
other as :
(1) Ea + E = 3Eb
(1) Ea + E = 3Eb
(2) Ea = 3Eb
(2) Ea = 3Eb
(3) Ea – E = 3Eb (3) Ea – E = 3Eb

(4) Ea + 3Eb + E = 0 (4) Ea + 3Eb + E = 0

NLI / 8
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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024

25. (3) (Q) 25. Graph between capacity (3) and storing charge
(Q) for a capacitor will be :

C C C C

(1) (2) (1) (2)

Q Q Q Q

C C C C

(3) (4) (3) (4)

Q Q Q Q

26. n 26. n equal capacitors are in series their net capacity

is C1. Now capacitors are connected in parallel,
C1 C2
C2
C2 the net capacity becomes C2. If  64 then n
 64 n C1
C1
is :
(1) 9 (1) 9
(2) 4 (2) 4
(3) 12 (3) 12
(4) 8. (4) 8.
27. 27. The angular momentum of an electron in a
hydrogen atom is proportional to :

(1) 1/ r (1) 1/ r
(2) 1/r (2) 1/r

(3) r (3) r
2
(4) r 2
(4) r
28. r 28. A hollow charged metal sphere has a radius r. If
3r the potential difference between its surface and
a point at distance 3r from the centre is V, the
V 3r
electric intensity at distance 3r from the centre
is :
V
(1) V
6r (1)
6r

V V
(2) (2)
4r 4r

V V
(3) (3)
3r 3r

V V
(4) (4)
2r 2r

NLI / 9
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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024
29. q a 29. Seven charges each of magnitude q is placed at
the seven corners of a cube of side 'a'. Then
electric field intensity at the centre of cube is given
by:
q q
(1) 4 a2 (1) 4 a2
 

q q
(2) 2 a2 (2) 2 a2
 

3q 3q
(3) 4 a2 (3) 4 a2
 

q q
(4) 3 a2 (4) 3 a2
 

30. RLC 30. Which one of the following is not the expression
for quality factor for resonance in series RLC ac
circuit :
L
(1)
0 0L
R (1)
R
1 1
(2) (2)
0RC 0RC

VL VL
(3) V (3) V
R R

VL VL
(4) V (4) V
C C
     
31. A.(B × C) 31. A.(B × C) is equal in magnitude to :
     
(1) A,B,C ls cus f=Hkqt dk {ks=Qy (1) area of triangle formed by A,B,C
     
(2) A,B,C ls cus lekarj "kVQyd dk lEiw.kZ i`"B (2) surface area of parallelpipe formed by A,B,C
     
(3) A,B,C ls cus lekarj "kVQyd dk vk;ru (3) volume of parallelopipe formed by A,B,C
     
(4) (B C) dk A ij iz{ksi (4) projection of (B C) on A
32. 'A' 5 32. 5 metal plates of area 'A' are arranged vertically
as shown in figure. Plate 2 and 4 are connected
2 4
to positive terminal, and 1, 3, 5 are connected to
1, 3, 5 A B negative terminal. Equivalent capacitance
between A and B is :

1 1

d d
2 2

d/2 d/2
3 3

d d 4
4

d d
5 5

3 0A 4 0A 3 0A 4 0A
(1) (2) (1) (2)
d d d d

5 0A 6 0A 5 0A 6 0A
(3) (4) (3) (4)
d d d d
NLI / 10
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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024
33. A 33. In the circuit shown in the figure, if the potential
B at point A is taken to be zero, the potential at point
B is :

R1 1A D 2A 2V
R1 1A D 2A 2V
B
1A 1A B
1A 1A
R2 2 2A
R2 2 2A

A
1A C 2A A
1V 1A C 2A
1V
(1) +1V (1) +1V
(2) –1V (2) –1V
(3) +2V (3) +2V
(4) –2V (4) –2V
34. PQRS 34. A closed loop PQRS carrying a current is placed
PS, SR RQ in a uniform magnetic field. If the magnetic forces
on segments PS, SR and RQ are F1, F2 and F3
F1, F 2 F3
resoectively and are in the plane of the paper and
QP along the direaction shown, the force on the
segment QP is :

Q Q

P P

F1 F3 F1 F3

S R S R
F2 F2

2
(1) bF  F1 g 2
 F2 2 (1) bF
3  F1 g  F2 2
3

(2) F3 – F1 – F2 (2) F3 – F1 – F2
(3) F3 – F1 – F2 (3) F3 – F1 – F2
2
(4) bF3  F1 g  F2 2 (4) bF  F1 g 2
 F2 2
3

35. 2 35. The refractive index of the material of a prism is

30° 2 and the angle of the prism is 30°. One of the
two refracting surfaces of the prism is made a
mirror inwards, by silver coating. A beam of
monochromatic light entering the prism from the
other face will retrace its path (after reflection from
the silvered surface) if angle of incidence on the
prism is :

(1) 'kwU; (1) zero

(2) 60o (2) 60o
(3) 30o (3) 30o
(4) 45o. (4) 45o.
NLI / 11
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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024

-B SECTION - B

15 15 This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can

choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these 15
10 10 questions. In case if candidate attempts more than
10 questions, first 10 attempted questions will be
10 considered for marking.

36. 36. Which statement is true :

A: Statement A : Blood is more viscous than water

d Fku B : (/ ) 0oC Statement B : Relative viscosity of blood (/water)

37oC remains constant between 0oC and 37oC.

(1) nksuksa vlR; gS (1) Both are false

(2) A lR; gS, B vlR; gS (2) A is true, B is false

(3) B lR; gS, A vlR; gS (3) B is true, A is false

(4) nksuksa lR; gS (4) Both are true.

37. 37. Which of the following does not follow Hooke's

law in any range of strain :

(1) rU; Bksl (1) dueticle solids

(2) Hkaxqj Bksl (2) brittle solids

(3) izR;kLFkryd ¼bykLVksej½ Bksl (3) elastomer solids

(4) lHkh rhuksa gqd ds fu;e dk ikyu djrs gS (4) all 3 obey hooke's law

38. i 38. A long thick metallic cylinder of radius R has a

current of i ampere uniformly distributed over its
r circular cross section. Then, magnetic induction
B away from the axis at a distance r from the axis
varies as shown in :
B B
B B

(1) (2)
(1) (2)
r r
0,0 R 0,0 R r r
0,0 R 0,0 R

B B B B

(3) (4) (3) (4)

r r r r
0,0 R 0,0 R 0,0 R 0,0 R

NLI / 12
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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024
39. X, Y 39. Two circular coil X and Y having equal number of
turns carry equal currents in the same sense and
subtend same solid angle at point O. If the smaller
Y X
coil X is midway between O and Y, then if we
O BY BX represent the magnetic induction due to the bigger
coil Y at O , By and that due to smaller coil X at O
as BX, then :
d
Y d
X Y
X
r
O r
2r O
2r
d/2
d/2

By 1 By
 1 By 1 By
(1)
Bx 4
(2)
Bx (1)  (2) 1
Bx 4 Bx
By 1 By By 1 By
(3)  (4) 2  2
Bx 2 Bx (3) (4)
Bx 2 Bx
40. 40. A cube made of wires of equal length is connected
L to a battery as shown in figure. The side of cube is
L. The magnetic field at the centre of the cube is :

L L

+ — + —

12  0 l 6 0 l 12  0 l 6 0 l
(1) (2) (1) (2)
2  L 2  L 2  L 2  L

0 l 0 l
(3) Zero (4) 6 (3) Zero (4) 6
L L
41. I1 = 1A, I2 = 2A, I3 = 3A, I4 = 1A, 41. Six wires of current I1 = 1A, I2 =2A, I3 = 3A, I4 = 1A,
I5 = 4A I6 = 5A, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 I5 = 4A and I6 = 5A, cut the page perpendicularly
  at points 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6. The value of line
 
6 B.d :

integral of B around the dotted closed path (i.e.
 
 B.d ) is :
1 x4
x 6
2 x 5 1 x4
3 x 6
2 x 5
3
(1) 'kwU;
(2) 40 Wb m–1 (1) Zero
(2) 40 Wb m–1
(3) 20 Wb m–1
(3) 20 Wb m–1
(4) 0 Wb m–1 (4) 0 Wb m–1
NLI / 13
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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024
42. Si Cu 200 K 42. Si and Cu are cooled to a temperature of 200 K ,
then resistivity :

(1) Si ds fy, c<+rh gS rFkk Cu ds fy, ?kVrh gS (1) For Si increases and for Cu decreases

(2) Cu ds fy, ?kVrh gS rFkk Cu ds fy, c<+rh gS (2) For Cu increases and for Si decrease

(3) nksuksa ds fy, ?kVrh gS Si vkSj Cu (3) Decreases for both Si and Cu

(4) nksuksa ds fy, c<+rh gS Si vkSj Cu (4) Increases for both Si and Cu.
43. 43. Which is correct relationship :

(1) ne.nh = ni3 (1) ne.nh = ni3

ne ne
ni2 (2) n ni2
(2) n h
h

(3) nenh = ni2 (3) nenh = ni2

(4) ne. nh2 = ni2 (4) ne. nh2 = ni2

4 3 4 3
44. 44. Refractive indices of water and glass are and
3 2 3 2
respecitvely. A ray of light travelling in water is
incident on the water glass interface at 30o. The
30o
angle of refraction is :
(1) sin–1(8/18)
(1) sin–1 (8/18)
(2) sin–1(4/3)
(2) sin–1 (4/3)
(3) sin–1 (3/2) (3) sin–1(3/2)
(4) sin–1(18/8) (4) sin–1(18/8)
45. 45. When an object is kept at a distance of 30 cm
from a concave mirror, the image is formed at a
distance of 10 cm. If the object is moved with a
9 ms–1
speed of 9 ms–1, the speed with which image moves is
(1) 10 m s–1
(1) 10 m s–1
(2) 1 m s–1 (2) 1 m s–1
(3) 9 m s–1 (3) 9 m s–1
(4) 0.9 m s–1 (4) 0.9 m s–1
46. 46. The output of the given logic gate is :

(1) A + B (2) A (1) A + B (2) A

(3) 1 (4) 0 (3) 1 (4) 0

NLI / 14
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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024
47. 47. A 100 mH coil carries a current of 1 ampere. Energy
stored in its magnetic field is
(1) 0.5 J (1) 0.5 J
(2) 1.0 J (2) 1.0 J
(3) 0.05 J (3) 0.05 J
(4) 0.1 J (4) 0.1 J
48. 48. The Maxwell's equation
   d       d   
 B .dl   0  I  0  E.ds 
 dt   B .dl   0  I  0  E.ds 
 dt 

is a statement of
(1) QSjkMs dk fu;e (1) Faraday's Law
(2) ,sfEi;j dk fu;e (2) Ampere's Law
(3) ,sfEi;j dk la'kksf/kr fu;e (3) Modified Ampere's Law
(4) pqEcdRo dk xkSl dk fu;e (4) Gauss' Law of Magnetism

49. -I 49. Statement-1 : Diffraction is a sure indication of

wave nature.
Statement -2: Only transverse waves can be
- II diffracted.
(1) Both statements I and II are incorrect
(1) nksuksa dFku I ,oa II vlR; gS
(2) Statement I is correct and statement II is
(2) dFku I lR; gS ij dFku II vlR; gS incorrect

(3) dFku II lR; gS ij dFku I vlR; gS (3) Statement II is correct and statement I is
incorrect
(4) nksuksa dFku I ,oa II lR; gS (4) Both Statements I and II are correct
50. 50. The gravitational potential at the centre of a
–15 J/kg uniform solid sphere is –15 J/kg. What will be
potential at the surface of this sphere
(1) –15 J/kg
(1) –15 J/kg
(2) –10 J/kg
(2) –10 J/kg
(3) 0 J/kg
(3) 0 J/kg
(4) –5 J/kg (4) –5 J/kg

NLI / 15
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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024

TOPIC : FULL SYLLABUS

Atomic Masses : H=1, He=4, C=12, N=14, O=16, Na=23, Mg=24, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5,
K=39, Ca=40, Fe=56, Cu=63.5, Br=80, Ag=108, I=127, Ba=137, Au=197, Pb=207

-A SECTION-A

Attempt All 35 Questions

51. STP 51. On carrying out the electrolysis of acidified water,

22.4 L the volume of hydrogen liberated at STP condition
is 22.4 L. The volume of oxygen liberated is

(1) 22.4 L (1) 22.4 L

(2) 44.8 L (2) 44.8 L

(3) 11.2L (3) 11.2L

(4) 2.24 L (4) 2.24 L

52. 52. Given below are two statements:

I: Statement I:
foVkfeu D dh deh ls gksus okyk jksx vkfLVh;ks eysf'k;k Deficiency disease of vitamin D is osteomalacia.
II : Statement II :
Xywdkst dks HI, ds lkFk yEcs le; rd xeZ djus ij n- On prolonged heating with HI, glucose forms n-Hexane.
gsDlsu curk gSA
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa xyr gSA (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) dFku I lgh gS ysfdu dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(3) dFku I xyr gS ysfdu dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(4) I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lgh gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

53. 53. The correct order of electron affinity is :

(1) Be < B < C < N (1) Be < B < C < N

(2) Be < N < B < C (2) Be < N < B < C

(3) N < Be < C < B (3) N < Be < C < B

(4) N < C < B < Be (4) N < C < B < Be

54. 2s - 2s, 2p - 2p 2p - 2s 54. The strength of bonds by 2s - 2s, 2p - 2p and 2p - 2s

overlapping has the order:

(1) s - s > p - p > s - p (1) s - s > p - p > s - p

(2) s - s > p - s > p - p (2) s - s > p - s > p - p
(3) p - p > s - p > s - s
(3) p - p > s - p > s - s
(4) p - p > s - s > p - s
(4) p - p > s - s > p - s

NLI / 16
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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024
55. 55. How many electrons are involved in the following
balance redox reaction :

Cr2O72– + Fe2+ + C2O42–  Cr3+ + Fe3+ + CO2 Cr2O72– + Fe2+ + C2O42–  Cr3+ + Fe3+ + CO2

(1) 3 (2) 4 (1) 3 (2) 4

(3) 6 (4) 5 (3) 6 (4) 5

56. Which of the following reactions does not yield
56.
an amine :
(1) R – X + NH3 
(1) R – X + NH3 
Na
Na (2) R – CH = NOH + [H]
(2) R – CH = NOH + [H] C2H5OH
C2H5OH

H
H (3) R – CN + H2O
(3) R – CN + H2O

LiAlH4
LiAlH4 (4) R – CONH2 + 4[H]
(4) R – CONH2 + 4[H]

57. 5M 500 ml 1500 mL 57. If 500 mL of a 5M solution is diluted to 1500 mL,

what will be the molarity of the solution obtained?

(1) 1.5 M
(1) 1.5 M
(2) 1.66 M
(2) 1.66 M
(3) 0.017M
(3) 0.017M
(4) 1.59 M.
(4) 1.59 M.
58. Al2O3, SiO2, P2O5 SO3 58. Among Al2O3, SiO2, P2O5 and SO3 the correct order
of acid strength is :

(1) Al2O3 < SiO2 < SO3 < P2O5 (1) Al2O3 < SiO2 < SO3 < P2O5

(2) SiO2 < SO3 < AlP3 < P2O5 (2) SiO2 < SO3 < AlP3 < P2O5

(3) SO3 < P2O5 < SiO2 < Al2O3 (3) SO3 < P2O5 < SiO2 < Al2O3

(4) Al2O3 < SiO2 < P2O5 < SO3 (4) Al2O3 < SiO2 < P2O5 < SO3

59. M(OH)x Ksp 4×10-9 10-3 M 59. M(OH)x has a Ksp of 4×10-9 and its solubility is 10-3
x M. The value of x is :

(1) 4 (1) 4

(2) 1 (2) 1

(3) 3 (3) 3

(4) 2 (4) 2

60. P 60. Oxidation number of P in pyrophosphoric acid is:

(1) +5
(1) +5
(2) +2
(2) +2
(3) +3
(3) +3
(4) +6
(4) +6
NLI / 17
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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024
61. 61. Conversion of benzene diazonium chloride to
chloro benzene is an example of which of the
following reactions :
(1) Dykblsu (1) Claisen
(2) fQMyØkW¶V (2) Friedel-craft
(3) lsUMes;j (3) Sandmeyer
(4) oqV~tZ (4) Wurtz

62. 62. Which of the statements about solutions of

electrolytes is not correct?
(1) foy;u dh pkydrk vk;uks ds vkdkj ij fuHkZj djrh (1) Conductivity of solution depends upon size of ions
gSA
(2) Conductivity depends upon viscocity of
(2) pkydrk ';kurk ij fuHkZj djrh gSA
(3) pkydrk foy;u esa mifLFkr vk;uks ds foy;u ij (3) Conductivity does not depend upon solvation of ions
fuHkZj ugh djrh gSA present in solution.

(4) foy;u dh pkydrk rkieku ds lkFk c<+rh gSA (4) Conductivity of solution increases with temperature.

63. A + 2B  C 5 A 8 63. For reaction A + 2B  C. The amount of product

B formed by starting the reaction with 5 mole A and
8 mole B is:

(1) 5 (1) 5

(2) 4 (2) 4

(3) 3 (3) 3
(4) 6 (4) 6
64. IUPAC 64. IUPAC nomenclature of the given compound is

Br Br
NO2 NO2

CH3 CH3

(1) 4-czkseks-1-esfFky-3-ukbVªkc
s Us thu (1) 4-Bromo-l-methyl-3-nitrobenzene

(2) 1-czkseks-4-esfFky-2-ukbVªkc
s Us thu (2) 1-Bromo-4-methyl-2-nitrobenzene

(3) 1-czkseks-4-esfFky-6-ukbVªkc
s Us thu (3) 1-Bromo-4-methyl-6-nitrobenzene

(4) 2-czkseks-5-esfFky-1-ukbVªkc
s Us thu (4) 2-Bromo-5-methyl-1-nitrobenzene

65. 65. The most stable ion is :

(1) [Fe(OH)3]3– (1) [Fe(OH)3]3–

(2) [Fe(Cl)6]3– (2) [Fe(Cl)6]3–

(3) [Fe(CN)6]3– (3) [Fe(CN)6]3–

(4) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (4) [Fe(H2O)6]3+

NLI / 18
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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024
66. IUPAC 66. The IUPAC name of compound

CH3 CH CH CH C N CH3 CH CH CH C N
| |
Br Br

(1) 1-czke
s ks C;wV-2-bZu-1-ukbVªkby (1) 1-Bromo but-2-ene-1-nitrile
(2) 2-czke
s ks C;wV-3-bZu-1-ukbVªkby (2) 2-Bromo but-3-ene-1-nitrile

(3) 2-czke
s ks isUV-3-bZu-1-ukbVªkby (3) 2-Bromo pent-3-ene-1-nitrile

(4) 1-czkseks isUV-2-bZu lk;ukbM (4) 1-Bromo pent-2-ene cyanide

67. (A) 67. Assertion (A) :

Haloalkanes react with KCN to form alkyl cyanides as
gSyks,sYdsu KCN ds vfHkfØ;k djds eq[; mRikn ds :i esa
a main product while with AgCN form isocyanide as
,Ydkby lk;ukbM cukrs gS tcfd AgCN ds lkFk vfHkfØ;k
the main product.
djds eq[; mRikn ds :i esa vkblkslk;ukbM cukrs gSA
Reason (R) :
(R)
KCN and AgCN both are highly ionic compounds.
KCN vkSj AgCN nksuks mPp vk;fud ;kSfxd gSA
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(1) dFku (A) lR; gS ysfdu dkj.k (R) vlR; gSA (1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(1) dFku (A) vkSj dkj.k (R) nksuks lR; gS vkSj dkj.k (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
(R)] dFku (A) dh lgh O;k[;k ugh gSA correct explanation of (A)
(3) dFku (A) vlR; gS ysfdu dkj.k (R) lR; gSA (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) dFku (A) vkSj dkj.k (R) nksuks lR; gS vkSj dkj.k (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
(R)] dFku (A) dh lgh O;k[;k gSA explanation of (A)
68. 68. Using the data given below find out the strongest
reducing agent :

Eo 1.33V, Eo 1.36V Eo 1.33V, Eo 1.36V

Cr2O7 / Cr 3 Cl2 / Cl Cr2O7 / Cr 3 Cl2 / Cl

Eo 1.51V, Eo 0.74 Eo 1.51V, Eo 0.74

MnO4 / Mn2 Cr 3 / Cr MnO4 / Mn2 Cr 3 / Cr

(1) Cl– (1) Cl–

(2) Cr (2) Cr
+3
(3) Cr (3) Cr+3
(4) Mn+2 (4) Mn+2
69. 69. Intermediate in Reimer-Tiemann reaction is :

–
O
O
–
CHCl2
CHCl2 (1) CCl2 (2)
(1) CCl2 (2)

–
–
O OH
O OH CHO CCl2
CHO CCl2 (3) (4)
(3) (4)

NLI / 19
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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024
70. 70. The order of reactivity of following alcohols with
halogen acid is :

A. CH3CH2–CH2–OH A. CH3CH2–CH2–OH

B. CH3 CH2 CH OH B. CH3 CH2 CH OH

CH3 CH3

CH3 CH3
C. CH3 CH2 C OH C. CH3 CH2 C OH
CH3 CH3

(1) A > B > C (2) C > B > A (1) A > B > C (2) C > B > A

(3) B > A > C (4) A > C > B (3) B > A > C (4) A > C > B

71. CS2 71. The product of reaction of Aniline with bromine

in non polar solvent such as CS2 is :

(1) 2, 4, 6 VªkbZczke
s ks ,uhyhu (1) 2, 4, 6 Tribromo aniline

(2) 2, 4 MkbZczke
s ks ,uhyhu (2) 2, 4 dibromo aniline

(3) 2 czkseks ,uhyhu (3) 2 bromo aniline

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugh (4) None of these

72. 72. Which of the following reaction is friedel craft

alkylation :

Cl
Cl
(1) + Cl2 + HCl
(1) + Cl2 + HCl

CH3
CH3
(2) + CH3Cl + HCl
(2) + CH3Cl + HCl

NO2
NO2
(3) + conc. HNO3 + conc. H2SO4 + H2O
(3) + conc. HNO3 + conc. H2SO4 + H2O

(4) None of these

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugh
uv
uv 73. 3Cl2 Product, Product is :
73. 3Cl2 500 K
500 K

(1) csathu gsDlDyksjkbM (1) Benzene hexachloride

(2) Dyksjkscat
s hu (2) Chlorobenzene

(3) lkbDyksgsDlsu (3) Cyclohexane

(4) dksbZ ugh
(4) None of these

NLI / 20
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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024

CH3 74. Among CH3CH 2CH 2CH 2Br, CH3CH2CHCH3 and

74. CH3CH2CH2CH2Br, CH 3CH2CHCH3 CH3–C–CH3 Br
Br Br CH3
CH3–C–CH3 which has lowest boiling point :
Br
(1) CH3CH2CH2Br
(1) CH3CH2CH2Br
(2) CH 3CH 2CHCH3
(2) CH 3CH 2CHCH3
Br
Br
CH3
CH3
(3) CH3–C–CH3
(3) CH3–C–CH3
Br
Br
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugh (4) None of these

Ethanolic NaCN Reduction Ethanolic NaCN Reduction

75. CH3 CH2 Cl A B 75. CH3 CH2 Cl A B

B B is :

(1) CH3–CH2–CN
(1) CH3–CH2–CN
(2) CH3–CH2–CH3
(2) CH3–CH2–CH3
(3) CH3–CH2–CH2–NH2
(3) CH3–CH2–CH2–NH2
(4) None of these
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugh
N2+Cl– OH
N2+Cl– OH OH
76. + A Cl H2O
OH
76. + A Cl H2O

A is :
A
(1) p-Hydroxybenzene
(1) p-gkbMªkDlh csathu
(2) p-Hydroxyazobenzene
(2) p-gkbMªkDlh,tkscsathu
(3) p-Aminoazobenzene
(3) p-,ehuks,tkscsathu

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugh (4) None of these

77. 77. Glucose on reaction with bromine water gives :

(1) Xywdksfud vEy (1) Gluconic acid

(2) lkbuksgkbMªhu (2) Cyanohydrin

(3) n-gsDlsu (3) n-hexane

(4) dksbZ ugh (4) None of these

NLI / 21
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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024

OH OH
78. NaOH i. CO2 NaOH i. CO2
A B 78. A B
ii. H ii. H

B B is :

ONa COOH ONa COOH

(1) (2) (1) (2)

OH OH
COOH COOH
(3) (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugh (3) (4) None of these

CO, HCl CHO CHO

CO, HCl
79. Anhyd. AlCl3 / CuCl 79. Anhyd. AlCl3 / CuCl

Reaction is :

(1) bVkMZ vfHkfØ;k (1) Etard reaction

(2) xSVjeu dksp vfHkfØ;k (2) Gatterman Koch Reaction

(3) LVhQu vip;u (3) Stephen Reduction

(4) jkstsueq.M vip;u (4) Rosenmund Reduction

HNO3 / H2SO4 HNO3 / H2SO4

80. CHO . 80. CHO 273 283 K Product.
273 283 K

Product is :

O2N O2N
(1) CHO (1) CHO

(2) O2N CHO (2) O2N CHO

(3) CHO (3) CHO

NO2 NO2

(4) dksbZ ugh (4) None of these

81. PKa 81. The PKa of acetic acid and PKb of ammonium
PKb 4.76 4.75 hydroxide are 4.76 and 4.75 respectively the PH
PH of ammonium acetate solution is :

(1) 6.005 (2) 7.005 (1) 6.005 (2) 7.005

(3) 8.005 (4) 9.005 (3) 8.005 (4) 9.005

NLI / 22
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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024
82. 1 bar 82. If water vapour is assumed to be a perfect gas,
1000C 1 molar enthalpy change for vapourisation of 1
41 KJ mol –1
1 bar 1000C mole of water at 1 bar and 1000C is 41 KJ mol–1.
The internal energy change when 1 mole of water
is vapourised at 1 bar pressure and 1000C is :
(1) 37.904 KJ mol–1
(1) 37.904 KJ mol–1
–1
(2) 36.904 KJ mol
(2) 36.904 KJ mol–1
(3) 35.904 KJ mol–1 (3) 35.904 KJ mol–1
(4) 38.904 KJ mol–1 (4) 38.904 KJ mol–1
83. 2s 83. The radial nodes for 2s orbital is :
(1) 2
(1) 2
(2) 0
(2) 0
(3) 1
(3) 1
(4) 3
(4) 3
[R]
84. log o Vs Time 84. For first order reaction, the correct graph for
[R]
[R]o
: log Vs Time is :
[R]

[R]o
log [R]o
[R] log
(1) [R]
(1)
Time
Time

[R]o [R]o
log log
[R]
(2) [R]
(2)
Time
Time

[R]o [R]o
log log
[R] [R]
(3) (3)

Time Time

[R]o [R]o
log log
[R] [R]
(4) (4)

Time Time

NLI / 23
 . . .
All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024
85. [Ni(CO)4] 85. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the
complex [Ni(CO)4] are :
(1) oxZ leryh; T;kferh; o vuqpqacdh; (1) Square planer geometry and paramagnetic
(2) prq"Qydh; T;kferh; o izfrpqacdh; (2) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
(3) oxZ leryh; o izfr pqacdh; (3) Square planer geometry and diamagnetic
(4) prq"Qydh; o vuqpqacdh; (4) Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic
-B SECTION-B
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
choose to attempt any 10 questions out of these 15
questions. In case if candidate attempts more than
10 questions, first 10 attempted questions will be
considered for marking.
86. p-d 86. Which of the following has p-d bonding :
(1) NO3– (1) NO3–
(2) BO33– (2) BO33–
(3) SO32– (3) SO32–
(4) CO32– (4) CO32–
87. 87. Which of the following will favour maximum
formation of product in the reaction,

A2(g) + B2(g)  X2(g), H = –X KJ A2(g) + B2(g)  X2(g), H = –X KJ

(1) mPp rki o mPp nkc (1) High temperature and high pressure

(2) de rki o de nkc (2) Low temperture and low pressure

(3) de rki o mPp nkc (3) Low temperature and high pressure

(4) mPp rki o de nkc (4) High temperature and low pressure

88. I II 88. Match the formulas of oxides given in column I

with the type of oxide given in column II and mark
the correct option :

I II Column I Column II

A. Pb3O4 i. A. Pb3O4 i. Neutral oxide

B. N2O ii. B. N2O ii. Acidic oxide

C. Mn2O7 iii. C. Mn2O7 iii. Basic oxide

D. Bi2O3 iv. D. Bi2O3 iv. Mixed oxide

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv (1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

(2) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii (2) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii

(3) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i (3) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i

(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii (4) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii

NLI / 24
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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024
89. (A) 89. Hydrocarbon (A) react with bromine by
substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by
wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous
(A) hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon
atom (A)
(1) CH3–CH3
(1) CH3–CH3
(2) CH2=CH2
(2) CH2=CH2
(3) CH CH
(3) CH CH
(4) CH4
(4) CH4
90. 0.15 g 90. In carius method of estimation of halogen 0.15 g
0.12 g AgBr Br of an organic compound gave 0.12 g of AgBr. The
percentage of Bromine in the compound is :

(1) 34.04 % (1) 34.04 %

(2) 30.04 % (2) 30.04 %

(3) 35.04 % (3) 35.04 %

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugh (4) None of these

91. 91. Salicylic acid when treated with zinc power gives:

(1) Phenol
(1) fQukWy
(2) Salicyaldehyde
(2) lSfylSYMhgkbM
(3) Benzoic acid
(3) csUtksbd vEy
(4) csUthu (4) Benzene

92. +3 Ce, La, Pm Yb 92. The correct order of ionic radii of Ce, La, Pm and
Yb in +3 oxidation state is :

(1) La3+ < Pm3+ < Ce3+ < Yb3+ (1) La3+ < Pm3+ < Ce3+ < Yb3+

(2) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < Ce3+ < La3+ (2) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < Ce3+ < La3+

(3) La3+ < Ce3+ < Pm3+ < Yb3+ (3) La3+ < Ce3+ < Pm3+ < Yb3+

(4) Yb3+ < Ce3+ < Pm3+ < La3+ (4) Yb3+ < Ce3+ < Pm3+ < La3+

93. 93. What is responsible for optical activity in

: enantiomers :

(1) v.kqvksa dh le:irk] niZ.k Nfo;ksa dh vfrlaons u'khyrk (1) Symmetry of molecule, superimposability of mirror
images.
(2) v.kq dh fo"kerk dsoy
(2) Asymmetry of molecules only
(3) niZ.k Nfo;ksa dh xSj&vfrlaons u'khyrk
(3) Non superimposability of mirror images alone
(4) v.kq dh fo"kerk vkSj niZ.k Nfo;ksa dh xSj & (4) Asymmetry of molecule, non superimposability of
lqijbEiksftfcfyVh mirror images
NLI / 25
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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024
94. 94. Which statement is incorrect :
(1) iryh ijr o.kZys[ku] vf/k'kks"k.k o.kZys[ku dk ,d (1) Thin layer chromatography is type of adsorption
izdkj gSA chromatography
(2) flfydk tsy ;k ,syqfeuk dks vf/k'kks"kd dh rjg
(2) Silica gel or alumina use as a adsorbent in TLC
iz;ksx djrs gS] iryh ijr o.kZys[ku esaA
(3) In differential extraction, compound extract on the
(3) foHksnh fu"d"kZ.k esa] ;kSfxdks dks foys;rk ds vUrj ds
basis of difference in solubility
vk/kkj ij i`Fkd djrs gSA
(4) lYQkbM yo.k dk lksfM;e fu"d"kZ] ySM ,lhVsV ls (4) Sodium extract of sulphide salt give yellow ppt
fØ;k djds ihyk vo{ksi nsrk gSA after reaction with lead acetate

95. C3H6 95. The total number of structural isomers (acyclic and
cyclic) possible for the molecular formula, C3H6
are :
(1) 1
(1) 1
(2) 2 (2) 2
(3) 3 (3) 3
(4) 4 (4) 4
96. 96. Arrange the electrons represented by the following
sets of quantum numbers in the decreasing order
of energy:
i. n=4, l=2, m=–1, s=+1/2
i. n=4, l=2, m=–1, s=+1/2
ii. n=4, l=0, m=0, s=+1/2
ii. n=4, l=0, m=0, s=+1/2
iii. n=3, l=2, m=+1, s=+1/2
iii. n=3, l=2, m=+1, s=+1/2
iv n=3, l=1, m=0, s=+1/2
iv n=3, l=1, m=0, s=+1/2
(1) 4d > 3d > 4s > 3p
(1) 4d > 3d > 4s > 3p
(2) 3p > 4s > 3d > 4d
(2) 3p > 4s > 3d > 4d
(3) 4s > 4d > 3p > 3d (3) 4s > 4d > 3p > 3d
(4) 3p > 3d > 4s > 4d (4) 3p > 3d > 4s > 4d
97. 97. Which of the following has unpaired electon in
the antibonding molecular orbital :

(1) O2 (1) O2

(2) N2 (2) N2

(3) C2 (3) C2

(4) B2 (4) B2

98. X+YZ+A+q 98. A reaction X + Y  Z + A + q is found to have a

positive entropy change, the reaction will be :

(1) mPp rki ij laHko (1) Possible at high temperature

(2) fuEu rki ij laHko (2) Possible only at low temperature

(3) fdlh rki ij laHko ugh (3) Not possible at any temperature

(4) gj rki ij laHko (4) Possible at any temperature

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99. AB 99. For a reaction AB, the rate expression is given
K[A]n A by rate = K[A]n. If the graph between concentration
n of A vs time is given by the value of n will be :
(1) 0 (1) 0
(2) 1
(2) 1
[A] [A]
1
(3) 1 1
2 (3) 1
2
Time Time
(4) 2
(4) 2
100. CH3 Mg X CH3C–C : 100. The treatment of CH3MgX with CH3C–C produces:
(1) CH3–CH=CH2 (1) CH3–CH=CH2

(2) CH3C C–CH3 (2) CH3C C–CH3

H H H H
| | | |
(3) CH3 C C CH3 (3) CH3 C C CH3

(4) CH4 (4) CH4

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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024

TOPIC : FULL SYLLABUS

-A PART-1 (SECTION-A)

35 Attempt All 35 Questions

101. 101. Select the dioecious animal

C C
B B
A A

F F
D E D E
(1) ik¡p (2) rhu (1) Five (2) Three

(3) pkj (4) ,d (3) Four (4) One

102. 102. Select the correct statement for supar class pisces
a. dkWfUMªDFkht esa DySlij uj esa mifLFkr gS a. In chondrichthyes claspers are present in male
b. vkWLVhDFkht esa ,;j CySMj mRiykou dks fu;fU=r b. Air bladder regulates buoyancy in osteichtyes
djrk gSA
c. Heart is usually two chambered but three
c. ân; izk;% nks d{kh; ysfdu es<+d esa rhu d{kh; gksrk chambered in frog
gSA
d. Members of pisces are called true fish
d. ihlst dh lnL; lR; eNfy;k¡ dgykrh gSA
(1) a, b, d (2) dsoy a, b (1) a, b, d (2) Only a, b

(3) a, b, c (4) lHkh (3) a, b, c (4) All

103. (A) 103. Given below are two statements , one is labelled
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R)
(R).
(A) : Assertion (A):
Dykl Lru/kkjh ds lnL; cgqr gh lhfer oklLFkku esa ik;s The members of class mammalia are found in a very
tkrs gSA limited habitats.
(R) : Reason (R) :
The members of class mammalia are found in polar ice
Dykl Lru/kkjh ds lnL; /kzqoh; B.Ms Hkkx] jsfxLrku] ioZrks]a caps, deserts, mountains, forest, grassland and dark
taxy] ?kkl ds eSnku vkSj va/ksjh xqQk esa ik;s tkrs gSA caves.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(1) nksuks A vkSj R lgh gS vkSj R, A dk lgh O;k[;ku ugh
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
djrk gSA correct explanation of (A)
(2) A lgh gS ijUr R lgh ugha gS (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) A lgh ugha gS ijUr R lgh gS (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) nksuksa A vkSj R lgh gS vkSj R, A dh lgh O;k[;k (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
djrk gSA explanation of (A)
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104. 104. Select the correct statements for mesoglea
a. ;g vfoHksfnr Lrj gSA a. It is undifferentiated layer
b. ;g ,DVksMeZ vkSj ,.MksMeZ ds chp mifLFkr gksrk gS b. It is present between ectoderm and endoderm

c. ;g Qkbye IySVhgSfYeUFkht dk y{k.k gSA c. It is the feature of phylum platyhelminthese

d. ;g Qkbye flysuVªsVk dk y{k.k gSA d. It is the feature of phylum coelenterata

(1) a, b, c (1) a, b, c

(2) a, b, d (2) a, b, d

(3) dsoy a, b (3) Only a, b

(4) dsoy a, d (4) Only a, d

105. _________ 105. In plants_________a slender lateral branch arises

from the base of the main axis and after growing
aerially for some time arch downwards to touch
the ground
Fill in the blank in given sentence
(1) fifLV;k (1) Pistia
(2) dsyk vkSj vukukl (2) Banana and pineapple

(3) iksnhuk vkSj pesyh (3) Mint and Jasmine

(4) vkbdksfuZ;k (4) Eichhornia

106. 106. Select the correct statement for sunflower

a. ;g ,LVsjl s h QSfeyh dk lnL; gS a. It is the member of asteraceae family

b. chtk.Mklu v.Mk'k; ds vk/kkj ij gksrk gS vkSj blesa b. The placenta develops at the base of ovary and a
dsoy ,d chtk.M gksrk gSA single ovule is attached to it
c. ,d vdsyh iRrh izR;sd xkaB ij ,dkUrj :i esa yxh c. A single leaf arise at each node in alternate manner
jgrh gSA d. Ovary inferior
d. v/kksorhZ v.Mk'k;
(1) All
(1) lHkh
(2) Only a, b, c
(2) dsoy a, b, c
(3) Only b, c, d
(3) dsoy b, c, d
(4) Only a, c, d
(4) dsoy a, c, d
107. Select the correct match for five kingdoms
107.
Characters Plantae Animalia

(A) iks"k.k dh fof/k Loiks"kh fo"keiks"kh (A) Mode of nutrition Autotrophic Heterotrophic

(B) dsUnzd f>Yyh mifLFkr mifLFkr (B) Nuclear memrbane Present Present

(C) dksf'kdk fHkRrh mifLFkr vuqifLFkr (C) Cell wall Present Absent

(D) dksf'kdk dk izdkj ;qdSfj;ksVhd ;qdSfj;ksfVd (D) Cell type Eukaryotic Eukaryotic

(1) lHkh (1) All

(2) dsoy A, B, C (2) Only A, B, C

(3) dsoy B, C, D (3) Only B, C, D

(4) dsoy A, C, D (4) Only A, C, D

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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024
108. 108. In the given diagram Select the organism in which
true nucleus or nuclear membrane present

A C
A C B
B

E
E F
F D
D (1) Four
(1) pkj
(2) Three
(2) rhu
(3) One
(3) ,d
(4) Five
(4) ik¡p
109. Select the correct match
109.
Class Phylum/Division
A. Mammalia Arthropoda
A. Lru/kkjh vkFkzksZiksMk
B. Insecta Angiospermae
B. bUlsDVk ,fUt;ksLiehZ
C. Dicotyledonae Angiospermae
C. MkbZdkVhfyMksuh ,fUt;ksLiehZ
D. Monocotyledonae Gymnosperm
D. eksuksdkWVhfyMksuh ftEuksLieZ
(1) A, B, C
(1) A, B, C
(2) Only C
(2) dsoy C
(3) C, D
(3) C, D
(4) A, C
(4) A, C
110. Select the member of fabaceae family
110.
Marigold, Wheat, Rice, Pea, Soyabean,
Indigofera, China rose, Sesbania, Sunflower,
Cotton, Mustard
(1) ik¡p (1) Five
(2) pkj (2) Four
(3) rhu (3) Three
(4) N% (4) Six
111. 111. Select the correct option for dicot root
a. cgqvkfnnk:d laogu c.My a. Polyarch vascular bundle
b. ewy jkse b. Root hair
c. iSjsudkbek c. Parenchyma
d. dSLisjh iV~Vh d. Casparian strip
e. f}rh;d o`f) e. Secondary growth
(1) dsoy a, b, c (1) Only a, b, c
(2) dsoy a, b, c, e (2) Only a, b, c, e
(3) dsoy b, c, d, e (3) Only b, c, d, e
(4) lHkh (4) All
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112. 112. Select the correct option for cockroach
Total Number
A. yScze + gkbiksQSfjUdl + eSUMhcy =4 A. Labrum + Hypopharynx + Mandible =4
B. yScze + yScze + eSfDlyk =5 B. Labrum + Labium + Maxilla =5
C. eSUMhcy + gkbiksQSfjUdl + ySfc;e =4 C. Mandible + Hypopharynx + Labium =4
D. eSfDlyk + ySfc;e + eSUMhcy =5 D. Maxilla + Labium + Mandible =5
(1) lHkh (1) All
(2) A, B, C (2) A, B, C
(3) A, C, D (3) A, C, D
(4) B, C, D (4) B, C, D
113. 113. Gizzard has outer layer of thick circular muscles
________ and thick inner cuticle forming ________called
teeth
Fill in the blank in given sentence
(1) N% vR;f/kd dkbfVu dh IysV (1) Six highly chitinous plate
(2) nl vR;f/kd dkbfVu dh IysV (2) Ten highly chitinous plate
(3) pkj vR;f/kd dkbfVu dh IysV (3) Four highly chitinous plate
(4) N% vR;f/kd mikfLFk dh IysV (4) Six highly cartilaginous plate
114. 114. Select the correct option for mitochondria and
chloroplast
a. 70S jkbckslkse a. 70S ribosomes
b. dqN RNA v.kq b. Few RNA molecules
c. ,dy pØh; DNA c. Single circular DNA
d. nksgjh f>Yyh ls f?kjk gqvk d. Double membrane bound
e. ATP fuekZ.k e. ATP formation
(1) dsoy a, b, c (1) Only a, b, c
(2) dsoy b, c, d, e (2) Only b, c, d, e
(3) dsoy a, b, d, e (3) Only a, b, d, e
(4) lHkh (4) All
115. 115. Select the correct match
A. fVVªhde ,LVhoe & xsgw¡ & iks,lh A. Triticum aestivum – Wheat – Poaceae
B. vksjkbtk lsVkbok & eDdk & iks,lh B. Oryza sativa – Maize – Poaceae
C. MsyksfuDl jsft;k & xqyeksgj & czslhdslh C. Delonix regia – Gulmohar – Brassicaceae
D. ,jkfdl gkbiksft;k & ew¡xQyh & QScslh D. Arachis hypogea – Groundnut – Fabaceae
(1) A, B, C (1) A, B, C
(2) A, B (2) A, B
(3) A, B, D (3) A, B, D
(4) A, D (4) A, D
116. 116. Actinomorphic flower are present in which family
a. czSlhdslh a. Brassicaceae
b. QScslh b. Fabaceae
c. dEiksftVh c. Compositae
d. ekyoslh d. Malvaceae
(1) a, b, d (1) a, b, d
(2) a, c, d (2) a, c, d
(3) dsoy a, d (3) Only a, d
(4) dsoy c, d (4) Only c, d
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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024
117. 117. What is the range of molecular weights of
biomicromolecules
(1) 18 MkYVu ls 800 MkYVu
(1) 18 Daltons to 800 Daltons
(2) 1000 MkYVu ls 2000 MkYVu
(2) 1000 Daltons to 2000 Daltons
(3) 500 MkYVu ls 2000 MkYVu
(3) 500 Daltons to 2000 Daltons
(4) 2000 MkYVu ls 5000 MkYVu
(4) 2000 Daltons to 5000 Daltons
118.
118. Select the correct match
R
Amino acid R group
A. Xykblhu gkbMªkstu
A. Glycine Hydrogen
B. ,ykuhu ,d feFkkby lewg
B. Alanine A methyl group
C. lsjhu gkbMªkWDlhfeFkkby lewg
C. Serine Hydroxymethyl group
D. ,ykuhu vkblksizksikby lewg D. Alanine Isopropyl group
(1) dsoy A, B, C (1) Only A, B, C
(2) dsoy B, C (2) Only B, C
(3) dsoy A, B, D (3) Only A, B, D
(4) dsoy B, C, D (4) Only B, C, D
119. 119. In which of the following compound nitrogen atom
is present
a. jkbckst a. Ribose
b. yslhFkhu b. Lecithin
c. I;wjhu c. Purine
d. ikWfYefVd vEy d. Palmitic acid
e. ,Mhukbyhd vEy e. Adenylic acid
(1) b, c, e (1) b, c, e
(2) b, c, d, e (2) b, c, d, e
(3) a, b, c, e (3) a, b, c, e

(4) a, b, d, e (4) a, b, d, e

120. -I- ,Utkbeksa dks 6 oxksZ o izR;sd oxZ dks 4&13 120. Statement -I- Enzymes are divided into 6 classes each
mioxksZ esa foHkkftr fd;k x;k gSA ftudk ukedj.k pkj with 4–13 subclasses and named accordingly by a four
vadh; la[;k ij vk/kkfjr gSA digit number.

-II- lgdkjd ,Utkbe dh mRizjs d fØ;k'khyrk gsrq Statement-II- Cofactor play a crucial role in the cata-
fu.kkZ;d Hkwfedk vnk djrs gSA lytic activity of the enzyme.

(1) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa vlR; gSa (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) dFku I lR; gS ysfdu dFku II vlR; gS (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I vlR; gS ysfdu dFku II lR; gS (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lR; gSa (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
121. 121. Select the incorrect match for colourblind
(1) XCY – o.kkZU/k vkneh (1) XCY – colourblind man
(2) X X – okgd vkneh
C
(2) XCX – carrier man
(3) XCXC – o.kkZU/k efgyk (3) XCXC – colourblind women
(4) XY – lkekU; vkneh (4) XY – normal man

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122. 122. Select the correct match
A. fgeksQhfy;k – fyax yXu vizHkkoh A. Haemophilia – Sex linked recessive
B. FkSyslhfe;k – vkuqoaf'kd fodkj B. Thalassemia – Genetic disorder
C. flLVhd Qkbczksfll – es.Msyh;u fodkj C. Cystic fibrosis – Mendelian disorder
D. VuZj flUMªkse – es.Msyh;u fodkj D. Turner syndrome – Mendelian disorder
(1) lHkh (1) All
(2) dsoy A, C (2) Only A, C
(3) A, C, D (3) A, C, D
(4) A, B, C (4) A, B, C
123. 123. Select the correct match for mendel experiment
Dominant Recessive
A. VfeZuy v{kh; A. Terminal Axial
B. xksy >qjhZnkj B. Round Wrinkled
C. yEck ckSuk C. Tall Dwarf
D. Qyh dk gjk jax Qyh dk ihyk jax D. Green colour of pod Yellow colour of pod
(1) A, B, C (1) A, B, C
(2) B, C, D (2) B, C, D
(3) dsoy B, C (3) Only B, C
(4) lHkh (4) All
124. 250 124. If there are 250 snails in a pond, and within a year
their number increases to 2500 by reproduction.
What should be their birth rate per snail per year?
(1) 10
(1) 10
(2) 9
(2) 9
(3) 25 (3) 25

(4) 15 (4) 15

125. : 125. Given below are two statements :

-I- xkWls
^Li/khZ viotZu fu;e^ ;g crykrk gS fd Statement - I : Gause’s competitive exclusion principle
fHkUu lalk/kuksa ds fy, Li/kkZ djus okyh nks fudVre ls states that two closely related species competing for
lecfU/kr tkfr;k¡ vUurdky rd lkFk&lkFk ugha jg different resources can not exist indefinitely.
ldrh A
Statement - II : According to Gause’s principle, during
-II- xkWls fu;e ds vuqlkj Li/kkZ ds nkSjku] ?kfV;k
competition, the inferior will be eliminated. This may
tkWfr vUrr% foyqIr dj nh tk;sxh ;g lR; gks ldrk gSA
be true if resources are limiting.
vxj lalk/ku lhekdkjh gksxsaA
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below

(1) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa vlR; gSa (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(2) dFku I lR; gS ysfdu dFku II vlR; gS (2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(3) dFku I vlR; gS ysfdu dFku II lR; gS (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(4) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lR; gSa (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

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126. (A) 126. Given below are two statements : One is labelled
(R) as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(A) (R).
dkWusy ds ifj"d`r {ks= iz;ksxks us n'kkZ;k fd LdkWVyS.M ds Assertion (A) : Connell's elegant field experiment
pV~Vkuh leqnz rVks ij cM+s vkSj Li/khZ:i ls mRre ckusZdy showed that on the rocky sea, the larger and
dh vUrjTokjh; {ks= esa izeq[krk gS vkSj blus NksVs ckusZdy competitively superior barnacles dominate the intertidal
dks ml {ks= ls fudky fn;kA area and excludes the smaller barnacle from that area.
(R) Reason (R) : Generally herbivores and plants appear
vkerkSj ij ek¡lkgkfj;ksa dh vis{kk 'kkdkgkjh vkSj ikn~i to be more adversely affected by competition than,
vf/kd izfrdwyr% izHkkfor gksrs gSA carnivores.

In the light of the above statements, choose the

correct answer from the options given below

(1) nksuksa A vkSj R lgh gS vkSj R, A dh lgh O;k[;k (1) Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
djrk gSA explanation of (A)

(2) nksuks A vkSj R lgh gS vkSj R, A dk lgh O;k[;ku ugh (2) Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
djrk gSA explanation of (A)

(3) A lgh gS ijUr R lgh ugha gS (3) (A) is True but (R) is False

(4) A lgh ugha gS ijUr R lgh gS (4) (A) is False but (R) is True.

127. 127. These are regarded as major causes of

biodiversity loss:

A. A. Over exploitation

B. B. Co–extinction

C. C. Mutation

D. D. Habitat loss and fragmentation

E. E. Migration

Choose the correct option

(1) dsoy A, B, C vkSj D (1) A, B, C and D only

(2) dsoy A, B vkSj E (2) A, B and E only

(3) dsoy A, B vkSj D (3) A, B and D only

(4) dsoy A, C vkSj D (4) A, C and D only

128. 128. The regions with high level of species richness,

70% high degree of endemism and a loss of 70% of
the species and habitat are identified as

(1) izkd`frd vkj{khfr;k¡ (1) Natural Reserves

(2) ifo= miou (2) Sacred Groves

(3) tSofofo/krk gkV LikWV (3) Biodiversity Hotspots

(4) tSoHkkSxksfyd {ks= (4) Biogeographical Regions

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129. 129. Cryopreservation technique is used for

(1) Protection of environment

(1) okrkoj.k dh lqj{kk
(2) Protection of Biodiversity hotspots
(2) tSofofo/krk gkWVLikWV dh lqj{kk
(3) ;qXedksa dks thfor vkSj mitkÅ voLFkk esa yEch (3) Preservation of gametes in viable and fertile
vof/k ds fy, ijhj{khr djuk condition for a long period.
(4) Lo&LFkkus laj{k.k (4) In - situ conservation
130. (A) 130. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
(R) as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(A) (R)

DNA izo/kZu esa ikWyhejst J`a[kyk vfHkfØ;k dk mi;ksx Assertion (A)

(R) Polymerase chain reaction is used in DNA amplification

Reason (R)
:ikurjtksa dks irk yxkus ds ,fEilhyhu izfrjks/kh thu
dk mi;ksx oj.k ;ksX; fpUgd ds :i esa gksrk gSA The ampicilin resistant gene is used as a selectable
marker to check transformation
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below :
(1) nksuks A vkSj R lgh gS vkSj R, A dk lgh O;k[;ku ugh
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
djrk gSA
correct explanation of (A)
(2) A lgh gS ijUr R lgh ugha gS
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) A lgh ugha gS ijUr R lgh gS
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) nksuksa A vkSj R lgh gS vkSj R, A dh lgh O;k[;k (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
djrk gSA explanation of (A)
131. DNA 131. Main steps in the formation of Recombinant DNA
are given below. Arrange these steps in a correct
sequence.

A. estcku dksf'kdk esa iquZ;ksxt DNA dh izfof"V A. Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host cell

B. izfrcU/ku ,Utkbe ds }kjk fof'k"V LFkyksa ij DNA dks B. Cutting of DNA at specific location by
restriction enzyme
dkVuk
C. Isolation of desired DNA fragment.
C. okafNr DNA [k.M dk foyxu
D. Amplification of gene of interest using PCR
D. PCR ds mi;ksx }kjk :fpdj thu dk izo/kZu
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below
(1) C, B, D, A (1) C, B, D, A
(2) B, D, A, C (2) B, D, A, C
(3) B, C, D, A (3) B, C, D, A
(4) C, A, B, D (4) C, A, B, D
132. ? 132. Which of the following is not a cloning vector?
(1) pBR322 (1) pBR322
(2) izksc (2) Probe
(3) BAC (3) BAC
(4) YAC (4) YAC
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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024
133. PCR 133. Following are the steps involved in the process
A. rkikuq'khyu of PCR.
A. Annealing
B. izo/kZu (fcyh;uksa ckj)
B. Amplification (Billion times)
C. fuf"Ø;dj.k
C. Denaturation
D. Taq ikWyhejst ls mipkfjr vkSj MhvkWDlhU;qfDy;ksVkbM D. Treatment with Taq polymerase and
E. izlkj Deoxynucleotides
PCR E. Extension
Choose the correct sequence of steps of PCR from
the options given below :
(1) C  A  D  E  B
(1) C  A  D  E  B
(2) A  B  E  D  C (2) A  B  E  D  C
(3) A  C  E  D  B (3) A  C  E  D  B
(4) D  B  E  C  A (4) D  B  E  C  A
134. 134. Which of the following are fused in somatic
hybridization involving two varieties of plants?
(1) Somatic embryos
(1) dkf;d Hkzw.k
(2) Protoplasts
(2) izksVksIykLV
(3) Pollens
(3) ijkx
(4) Callus
(4) dSyl
135. Match List I with List II
135. I II
List-I List-II
-I -II
A. -1 antitrypsin I. Cotton bollworm
A. -1 ,UVhfVªIlhu I. dikl eqdqyd`fe
B. Cry IAb II. ADA deficiency
B. Cry IAb II. ADA dh deh
C. Cry IAc III. Emphysema
C. Cry IAc III. ,EQkbflek
D. Enzyme IV. Corn borer
D. ,Utkbe izfrLFkkiu IV. eDdk Nsnd
replacement
fpfdRlk
therapy
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below
below
(1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
-B PART-1 (SECTION-B)
15 15 This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15
10 10
question. In case if candiate attempts more than
10 10 question, first 10 attempted question will be
considered for marking.

136. 136. Important objective of biotechnology in

agricultures to:
(1) ihM+d izfrjks/kh ikS/kksa dh fdLe dk fuekZ.k (1) produce pest resistant varieties of plant.
(2) ikS/ks esa ukbVªkstu dh ek=k dks c<+kuk (2) increase nitrogen content in plant.
(3) chtks dh la[;k dks de djuk (3) decrease the seed number.
(4) ikS/ks ds Hkkj dks c<+kuk (4) increase the plant weight.

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137. (A) 137. Given below are two statements : One is labelled
(R) as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
(A)
Assertion (A) :
lHkh ekuoh; fØ;kdykiksa ds fy, tks tho/kkfj;ksa ds fy,
Some ethical standards are required to evaluate the
vlqj{kkRed ;k lgk;d gks muesa vkpj.k dh ij[k ds fy,
morality of scientific human activities that might help or
dqN uSfrd ekun.Mksa dh vko';drk gSA
harm living organisms.
(R)
Reason (R) :
vkuqoaf'kd vfHk;kaf=dh laLrqfr lfefr GM vuqla/kku Genetic Engineering Approval Committee make
lecU/kh dk;ksZ dh oS/kkfudrk rFkk tu lsokvksa ds fy, GM decisions regarding the validity of GM research and the
thoksa ds lfUuos'k dh lqj{kk vkfn ds ckjs esa fu.kZ; ysxh safety of introducing GM organisms for public services..
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below
(1) nksuksa A vkSj R lgh gS vkSj R, A dh lgh O;k[;k (1) Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
djrk gSA explanation of (A)
(2) nksuks A vkSj R lgh gS vkSj R, A dk lgh O;k[;ku ugh (2) Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
djrk gSA explanation of (A)

(3) A lgh gS ijUr R lgh ugha gS (3) (A) is True but (R) is False

(4) A lgh ugha gS ijUr R lgh gS (4) (A) is False but (R) is True.
138. Given below are two statement:
138.
Statement I:
-I:
The coagulum is formed of network of threads called
dks,xqye /kkxs ds tky ls curk gSA ftls FkzkEchu dgrs gSA thrombins.

- II : Statement II:
Spleen is the graveyard of erythrocytes.
Iyhgk bfjFkzkslkbV dk dfczLrku gksrk gSA
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA below :
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
139. 139. Following are the stages of pathway for
conduction of an action potential through the heart
A. AV xqPNk A. AV bundle
B. iqjfdUts rUrq B. Purkinje fibres
C. AV uksM C. AV node
D. xqPNk 'kk[kk;sa D. Bundle branches
E. SA uksM E. SA node
Choose the correct sequence of pathway from the
options given below
(1) A-E-C-B-D (1) A-E-C-B-D
(2) B-D-E-C-A (2) B-D-E-C-A
(3) E-A-D-B-C (3) E-A-D-B-C
(4) E-C-A-D-B (4) E-C-A-D-B

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140. 140. Use of an artificial kidney during hemodialysis may
result in
(a) 'kjhj esa ukbVªksthul vif'k"Vks dk tek gksuk (a) Nitrogenous waste build - up in the body
(b) vf/kD; iksVfs 'k;e vk;Ul dk fu"dklu u gksuk (b) Non-elimination of excess potassium ions
(c) tBj vkU=h; iFk ls dSfY'k;e vk;Ul dk vo'kks"k.k (c) Reduced absorption of calcium ions from gastro-
de gksuk intestinal tract
(d) RBC dk fuekZ.k de gksuk (d) Reduced RBC production
(1) (a) vkSj (b) lgh gS (1) (a) and (b) are correct
(2) (b) vkSj (c) lgh gS (2) (b) and (c) are correct
(3) (c) vkSj (d) lgh gS (3) (c) and (d) are correct
(4) (a) vkSj (d) lgh gS (4) (a) and (d) are correct
141. (A) 141. Given below are statements: One is labelled as
(R) Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
(A) Assertion A:
o`Ddd nks izdkj ds gksrs gS % oYdqVh; vkSj tDlVk esM~;y
q jh] Nephrons are of two types: Cortical & Juxta medullary,
oYdqV vkSj esM~;qyk esa budh lkis{khd fLFkfr ds vk/kkj ij based on their relative position in cortex and medulla.
(R) Reason R:
tDlVk esM~;y
q jh o`Ddd esa NksVk gsuys ywi gksrk gS tcfd] Juxta medullary nephrons have short loop of Henle
oYdqVh; o`Ddd esa yEck gsuys ywi gksrk gSA whereas, cortical nephrons have longer loop of Henle.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A lgh gS ijUr R lgh ugha gS (1) A is true but R is false
(2) A lgh ugha gS ijUr R lgh gS (2) A is false but R is true
(3) nksuksa A vkSj R lgh gS vkSj R, A dh lgh O;k[;k (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
djrk gSA explanation of A.
(4) nksuks A vkSj R lgh gS vkSj R, A dk lgh O;k[;ku ugh (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
djrk gSA explanation of A.
142. 142. Which of the following are Autoimmune
disorders?
A. ekbfLFkfu;k xzsfol
A. Myasthenia gravis
B. :esV~okW,M laf/k 'kksFk
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. xkmV
C. Gout
D. is'kh; nq"iks"k.k
D. Muscular dystrophy
E. flLVsfed Y;qil bfjFksesVksll (SLE)
E. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below
(1) dsoy A, B & E (1) A, B & E only
(2) dsoy B, C & E (2) B, C & E only
(3) dsoy C, D & E (3) C, D & E only
(4) dsoy A, B & D (4) A, B & D only
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143. 143. Select the correct statements regarding
mechanism of muscle contraction :
A. bldh 'kq:vkr laosnh rfU=dk dksf'kdk ds tfj, A. It is initiated by a signal sent by CNS via sensory
CNS }kjk ladsr Hksts tkus ls gksrh gS neuron.
B. rfU=dk lapkjh lkdksZysek esa fØ;k foHko iSnk djrk B. Neurotransmitter generates action potential in the
gSA sarcolemma.
C. Ca++ Lrj dh c<+kRs rjh ls ,fDVu rUrq ij Vªki
s ksfuu dh C. Increased Ca++ level leads to the binding of calcium
mi bdkbZ ls dSfY'k;e cU/k cukrk gSA with troponin on actin filaments.
D. ,fDVu ds fy, lfØ; LFky dk <duk fØ;k'khy gks D. Masking of active site for actin is activated.
tkrk gS E. Utilising the energy from ATP hydrolysis to form
E. ATP futZyhdj.k ls ÅtkZ dks mi;ksxhr djds ØkWl cross bridge.
lsrq dk fuekZ.k
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below :
(1) B, C and E only
(1) dsoy B, C vkSj E
(2) C, D and E only
(2) dsoy C, D vkSj E
(3) A and D only
(3) dsoy A vkSj D
(4) B, D and E only
(4) dsoy B, D vkSj E
144. Given below are two statements :
144.
Statement I :
-I:
Parathyroid hormone acts on bones and stimulates the
iSjkFkkbjkbM gkWeksZu vfLFk ij dk;Z djrk gS vkSj vfLFk process of bone resorption.
iqu%'kks"k.k dh izfØ;k mn~nhir djrk gSA
Statement II :
- II :
Parathyroid hormone along with Thyrocalcitonin plays
iSjkFkkbjkbM gkWeksZu FkkbjksdSYlhVksfuu ds lkFk dkcksZgkbMªsV a significant role in carbohydrate metabolism.
mikip; esa egRoiw.kZ Hkwfedk fuHkkrk gSA In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below :
(1) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(2) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA (2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
(3) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
145. 145. Which of the following are NOT under the control
of thyroid hormone?
A. Maintenance of water and electrolyte balance.
A. ty vkSj fo|qr vi?kV~; ds fu;U=.k dk j[kj[kko
B. Regulation of basal metabolic rate
B. vk/kkjh; mikip;h nj dk fu;eu
C. Normal rhythm of sleep-wake cycle
C. lksus tkxus ds pØ dk lkekU; y;
D. Development of immune system
D. izfrj{kk rU= dk fodkl
E. Support the process of RBCs formation
E. RBCs fuekZ.k dh izfØ;k dks lgk;rk nsuk
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) dsoy C vkSj D (1) C and D only
(2) dsoy D vkSj E (2) D and E only
(3) dsoy A vkSj D (3) A and D only
(4) dsoy B vkSj C (4) B and C only

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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024
146. 146. Veneral diseases can spread through:

(a) LVsjkby lqbZ ds mi;ksx ls (a) Using sterile needles

(b) laØfer O;fDr ls jDr ds vk/kku ls (b) Transfusion of blood from infected person

(c) laØfer ekrk ls QhVl dks (c) Infected mother to foetus

(d) Kissing
(d) pqeus ls
(e) Inheritance
(e) oa'kkuqxfr ls
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
(1) dsoy (b), (c) vkSj (d) (1) (b), (c) and (d) only
(2) dsoy (b) vkSj (c) (2) (b) and (c) only
(3) dsoy (a) vkSj (c) (3) (a) and (c) only
(4) dsoy (a), (b) vkSj (c) (4) (a), (b) and (c) only
147. (A) 147. Given below are statements: One is labelled as
(R) Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
(A)
Assertion (A):
fyax fu/kkZj.k ds fy, ,fEu;kslSUVsfll tuu vkSj cky
Amniocentesis for sex determination is one of the
LokLFk lsok dk;ZØe dh ,d j.kuhrh gSA
strategies of Reproductive and Child Health Care
(R) Programme.
dU;k Hkzw.kgR;k ds c<+rs gq, [krjs dks jksdus ds fy, Reason (R):
,fEu;kslSUVsfll ij izfrcU/k yxkuk t:jh gSA Ban on amniocentesis checks increasing menace of
female foeticide.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A lgh gS ijUr R lgh ugha gS
(1) A is true but R is false
(2) A lgh ugha gS ijUr R lgh gS
(2) A is false but R is true
(3) nksuksa A vkSj R lgh gS vkSj R, A dh lgh O;k[;k
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
djrk gSA explanation of A.
(4) nksuks A vkSj R lgh gS vkSj R, A dk lgh O;k[;ku ugh (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
djrk gSA explanation of A
148. 148. A certain plant homozygous for yellow seeds and
red flowers was crossed with a plant homozygous
F1 for green seeds and white flowers. The F1 plants
F1 had yellow seeds and pink flowers. The F1 plants
F2 were selfed to get F 2 progeny. Assuming
independent assortment of the two characters,
F2 how many phenotypic categories are expected
for these characters in the F2 generation?
(1) 9
(1) 9
(2) 16
(2) 16
(3) 4
(3) 4
(4) 6
(4) 6
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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024
149. 149. What is incorrect statement about ecosystem? :
(1) ;g NksVs vkdkj ds rkykc ls ysdj cM+s vkdkj ds leqnz (1) It can vary from small sized pond to large sized
rd gks ldrk gS sea
(2) ;g mRifRr esa ekuo fØ;kdykiksa ls Hkh gks ldrk gS (2) It may be anthropogenic in origin
(3) ;g vLFkk;h vFkok LFkk;h gks ldrk gS (3) It may be temporary or Permanent
(4) blesa ÅtkZ izokg dk dk;Z 'kkfey gSA ysfdu iks"kd (4) It involves the function of flow of energy but
rRoksa dk iquZpØ.k ugha not recycling of nutrients
150. -I -II 150. Match List-I with List-II:
-I -II List-I List-II
A. I. A. Tertiary consumer I. Grass
B. II. B. Secondary consumerII. Lion
C. III. C. Primary consumer III. Wolf
D. IV. D. Primary producer IV. Goat
Choose the correct answer form the options given Choose the correct answer form the options given
below: below:
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
-A PART-2 (SECTION-A)
35 Attempt All 35 Questions
151. 151. Following are the stages of cell division :
A. xSi 2 izkoLFkk A. Gap 2 phase
B. dksf'kdknzO; foHkktu B. Cytokinesis
C. la'ys"k.k izkoLFkk C. Synthesis phase
D. dsjh;ksdkbusfll D. Karyokinesis
E. xSi 1 izkoLFkk E. Gap 1 phase
Choose the correct sequence of stages from the
options given below

(1) E-B-D-A-C (2) B-D-E-A-C (1) E-B-D-A-C (2) B-D-E-A-C

(3) E-C-A-D-B (4) C-E-D-A-B
(3) E-C-A-D-B (4) C-E-D-A-B
152. Given below are two statements :
152.
Statement I:
-I:
The cells of the upper layer of the epidermis, cells of
vf/kpeZ dh Åijh lrg dh dksf'kdk;sa] vkgkjuky dh the lining of the guts, and blood cells are being constantly
Hkhrjh lrg dh dksf'kdk;sa ,oa jDr dksf'kdk;sa fujUrj replaced.
izfrLFkkfir gksrh jgrh gSA Statement II :
- II : Meiosis ensures the production of haploid phase in the
life cycle of sexually reproducing organisms whereas
v/Zklw=h foHkktu }kjk vxqf.kr voLFkk mRiUu gksrh gSA ,oa fertilisation restores the diploid phase.
fu"kspu }kjk f}xqf.kr voLFkk iqu%LFkkfir gksrh gSA In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
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153. -I- 153. Statement -I- In prokaryotes, control of the rate of
transcriptional initiation is the predominant site
for control of gene expression.
-II- Statement-II-Regulation of lac operon by repres-
sor is referred to as positive regulation.
(1) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa vlR; gSa (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lR; gS ysfdu dFku II vlR; gS (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I vlR; gS ysfdu dFku II lR; gS (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) dFku I vkSj dFku II nksuksa lR; gSa (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
154. 154. Given below are two statements :
-I: Statement I:
vyQksUlks dksVhZ us viuk oSKkfud thou ljhl`iksa ds Alfonso corti began his scientific career studying the
cardiovascular system of reptiles.
ân&okfgdk rU= ds vè;;u ls izkjEHk fd;k FkkA Statement II :
- II :
Alfonso corti, American Anatomist, was born in 1822.
vyQksUlks dksVhZ] vesfjdu 'kjhj fØ;k oSKkfud dk tUe In the light of the above statements, choose the
1822 esa gqvk FkkA most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA
155. Given below are two statements
155.
Statement I:
-I:
In arithemetic growth, following mitotic cell division,
vadxf.krh; o`f) esa] lelw=h foHkktu ds ckn dsoy ,d only one daughter cell continues to divide while the
iw=h dksf'kdk yxkrkj foHkkftr gksrh jgrh gSA tcfd other differentiates and matures.
nwljh foHksfnr ,oa ifjiDo gksrh jgrh gSA Statement II :
- II : Sigmoid curve is a characteristic of only large size
flXekW;M oØ dsoy cM+s vkdkj ds thoksa dh fof'k"Vrk gS organism growing in a natural environment.
tks LokHkkfod i;kZoj.k esa c<+ jgs gksrs gSA Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
156. 156. Given below are two statements
-I: Statement I:
izkd`frd oj.k ls fodkl vius okLrfod vFkZ esa rc 'kq: Evolution by natural selection, in a true sense would
gqvk gksxk] tc thou ds dksf'kdh; :iksa us viuh mikip;h have started when cellular forms of life with difference
in metabolic capability originated on earth.
{kerkvksa dh fofHkUurk ds dkj.k viuk thou vkjEHk fd;k
Statement II :
gksxk A
When more than one adaptive radiation appeared to
- II :
have occurred in an isolated geographical area
tc ,d ls vf/kd vuqdwyh fofdj.k ,d vyx&Fkyx (representing different habitats), one can call this
HkkSxksfyd {ks= esa ¼HkUu vkoklksa dk izfrfuf/kRo djrs gq,½ convergent evolution.
izdV gksrs gS rks bls vfHklkjh fodkl dgk tkrk gSA Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
NLI / 42
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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024
157. 157. Select the correct match

(A) lkekU; eknk cPpk I 44 AA + XX (A) Normal Female I 44 AA + XX

child
(B) lkekU; uj cPpk II 44AA + XXY
(B) Normal male child II 44AA + XXY
(C) DykbuQsYVj III 44 AA + XY (C) Klinefelters III 44 AA + XY
flUMªkes syndrome
(D) VuZj flUMªkes IV 44 AA + XO (D) Turner syndrome IV 44 AA + XO
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II (4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
158. 158. Select the Incorrect match
(1) MkbZgkbMªksDlh - Xykbdksfyfll (1) Dihydroxyacetone - Glycolysis
,lhVksuQkWLQsV Phosphate
(2) ¶;qesjhd vEy - Xykbdksfyfll (2) Fumaric Acid - Glycolysis
(3) OAA - ØsCl pØ (3) OAA - Krebs cycle
(4) 3-QkLQksfXylhjhd - Xykbdksfyfll (4) 3-Phosphoglyceric - Glycolysis
vEy Acid
159. 159. In human male reproductive system, secretion of
which gland constitute the seminal plasma :
(1) ,d tksM+h 'kqØk'k;] ,d tksM+h izkWLVsV] ,d danew= iFk (1) Paired seminal vesicle, paired prostate, a
xzfUFk bulbourethral gland

(2) ,d tksMh+ 'kqØk'k;] ,d izkWLVsV] ,d dnae= w iFk xzfUFk (2) Paired seminal vesicle, a prostate, a bulbourethral
gland
(3) ,d 'kqØk'k;] ,d tksM+h izkLW VsV] ,d tksM+h danew= iFk
(3) A seminal vesicle, paired prostate, paired
xzfUFk
bulbourethral gland
(4) ,d tksM+h 'kqØk'k;] ,d izkLW VsV] ,d tksM+h danew= iFk
(4) Paired seminal vesicle, a prostate, paired
xzfUFk bulbourethral gland
160. 160. In life cycle of plasmodium the gametocytes are
develop in :
(1) ekuo dh RBC esa (1) RBC of human
(2) ;d`r esa (2) liver
(3) ePNj dh ykj xzfUFk (3) Salivary gland of mosquito
(4) ePNj dh vkek'k; esa (4) Mosquito gut
161. 161. Select the correct statement for gametophyte in
Angiosperm
(1) eknk xSehVksQkbV esa dksf'kdkvksa dh la[;k uj xSehVksQkbV
(1) Number of cells is greater in female gametophyte
ls T;knk gksrh gSA
than male gametophyte
(2) uj xSehVksQkbV esa Liksjksiksysfuu mifLFkr gksrk gS
(2) Sporopollenin is present in male gametophyte
(3) eknk xSehVksQkbV esa QhyhQkWeZ midj.k mifLFkr gksrk
gS (3) Filliform apparatus present in female gametophyte

(4) lHkh (4) All

NLI / 43
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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024
162. 2n 162. Which of the following is not 2n

(1) tkbxksV (1) Zygote

(2) Primary endosperm cell
(2) izkFkfed Hkzw.kiks"k dksf'kdk
(3) Megaspore mother cell
(3) xq:chtk.kq ekr` dksf'kdk
(4) Floral petal
(4) iq"ih; isVYl
163. Given below are two statements :
163.
Statement I:
-I:
Treatment of AIDS with anti-retroviral drugs is only
,UVh fjVªksok;jy MªXl ls ,M~l dk mipkj vkaf'kd :i ls partially effective.
gh izHkkoh gSA Statement II :
- II : There is no time lag between the infection and

laØe.k gksus vkSj ,M~l ds y{k.k izdV gksus ds chp dksbZ appearance of AIDS synptoms.

le; vUrjky ugha gksrk gSA In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

164. 164. Which statement is true

(a) CO2 (a) In blood CO 2 comparatively diffuse easily

because of its high solubility

(b) 18-19% CO2 (b) Approximately 18-19% CO2 is transported by

plasma

(c) CO2 RBCs (c) CO2 diffuses into blood passes into RBCs and

H2 O H2CO3 reacts with H2O to form H2CO3

(d) Chloride ions diffuse from plasma into RBCs

(d) RBCs
to maintain ionic balance

(1) a, b and c
(1) a, b vkSj c
(2) a, c and d
(2) a, c vkSj d
(3) b, c and d
(3) b, c vkSj d
(4) b and d only
(4) b vkSj d dsoy
165. Inspiration can occur if the intra-pulmonary
165. pressure is :
(1) ok;qe.Myh; nkc ls de (1) Less than the atmospheric pressure

(2) ok;qe.Myh; nkc ls T;knk (2) More than the atmospheric pressure
(3) Equal to the atmospheric pressure
(3) ok;qe.Myh; nkc ds cjkcj
(4) Positive pressure in the lungs with respect to
(4) ok;qe.Myh; nkc dh rqyuk esa QsQMs+ esa /kUkkRed nkc atmospheric pressure.
NLI / 44
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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024
166. 166. Given below are two statements
-I: Statement I:

TCA pØ dk izkjEHk ,lhVkby lewg ds vkWDlsyks,lhVhd The TCA cycle starts with the condensation of acetyl
group with oxaloacetic acid and water to yield
vEy rFkk ty ds lkFk la ?kuu ls gksrk gS vkS j oxalosuccinic acid.
vkWDlsykslfDluhd vEy dk fuekZ.k gksrk gSA Statement II :
- II : The metabolic pathway through which the electron
mikip;h iFk ftlds }kjk bysDVªkWu ,d okgd ls vU; passes from one carrier to another is called the electron
transport system.
okgd dh vksj xqtjrk gS bls bysDVªkWu okgd rU= dgrs gSA
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
167. 167. Which of the following is the incorrect match
(1) ABA – cht vadqj.k dks jksdrk gS (1) ABA – Inhibits seed germination
(2) ABA – jU/kzksa dk cUn gksuk (2) ABA – Closure of stomata
(3) Cytokinins – Stress hormone
(3) lkbVksdkbfuUl – ruko gkeksZu
(4) Ethylene – Sprouting of potato
(4) bFkkbfyu – vkyw ds dUnksa dk vadqj.k tubers
168. 168. The matrix of which cell organelle has single
DNA , RNA, 70S circular DNA molecule, a few RNAs, 70S ribosomes
and components required for protein synthesis and
aerobic respiration :
(1) gfjryod (1) Chloroplast
(2) xkWYthdk; (2) Golgi body
(3) ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k (3) Mitochondria
(4) ER (4) ER
169. 169. Tetrad is made up of :
(1) Four homologous chromosomes with four
(1) pkj ØksesfVM~l ds lkFk pkj le:ih Øksekslkse chromatids
(2) nks le:ih Øksekslkse] izR;sd nks ØkseksfVMksa ds lkFk (2) Two homologous chromosomes, each with two
(3) pkj vletkr Øksefs VM chromatids
(3) Four nonhomologous chromatids
(4) pkj vletkr xq.klq= (4) Four nonhomologous chromosomes
170.
170. Given below are two statements
-I: Statement I:
vUrnzZO;h tkfydk ij mifLFkr jkbckslkse }kjk izkVs hu dk A number of proteins synthesised by ribosomes on
la'ys"k.k gksrk gS tks xkWYthdk; ds VªkWUl fljs ls fudyus the endoplasmic reticulum are modified in the cisternae
of the golgi apparatus before they are released from
ds iwoZ blds dq.M esa :ikUrfjr gks tkrs gSA its trans face.
- II :
Statement II :
xkWY thdk; dk eq [ ; dk;Z nz O ; dks la os f "Vr dj The golgi apparatus principally performs the function
vUrj&dksf'kdh y{; rd igq¡pkuk ;k dksf'kdk ds ckgj of packaging materials, to be delivered either to the
lkzo.k djuk gSA intra - cellular targets or secreted outside the cell.
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
NLI / 45
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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024
171. 171. Greater biological diversity of tropics than
temperate region is due to the :
(1) vf/kd ekSleh; ifjorZu okys i;kZoj.k dh mifLFkfr (1) Presence of more seasonal environment
(2) Hkwrdky es ckj&ckj fgeunu dk gksuk (2) Frequent glaciations in the past
(3) Hkwrdky esa vf/kd ekSleh; ifjorZu okys i;kZoj.k rFkk (3) Highly variable climate and availability of less solar
de lw;Z ÅtkZ dh miyC/rk energy in the past
(4) vf/kd lw;ZÅtkZ dh miyC/rk ftlls vf/kd mRikndrk (4) Availability of more solar energy which contributes
gksrh gSA to higher productivity
172. 172. How many statements are correct with reference
(a) ;g ,d izdkj dk ,dfyaxh tho gSA to Cycas

(b) ;g ,d izdkj dk f}fyaxh tho gS (a) It is a type of unisexual organism

(b) It is a type of bisexual organism
(c) ,d izdkj dk ;wdSfj;ksV~l
(c) A type of eukaryotes
(d) ,d izdkj dk cht j[kus okyk ikn~i
(d) A type of seed bearing plant
(e) f}rh;d o`f) ik;h tkrh gS
(e) Secondary growth occurs
(1) rhu
(1) Three
(2) pkj
(2) Four
(3) nks (3) Two
(4) ik¡p (4) Five
173. 173. Select the correct statements for cockroach and
frog:
(a) nksuksa esa o`"k.k dh la[;k leku gS (a) In both the number of testis are same
(b) ân; dh d{kkvksa dh la[;k es<+d esa dkWdjksp ls (b) The chamberes of Heart in frog is greater than
T;knk gksrh gSA cockroach
(c) nksuksa esa fodkl vizR;{k gksrk gS (c) In both development is indirect
(d) nksuksa esa ifjlapj.k rU= [kqys izdkj dk gksrk gS (d) In both Circulatory system is open
(e) dkWdjksp esa mRlthZ vaxksa dh la[;k es<d
+ ls T;knk (e) The number of excretory organ is greater in
gksrh gS cockroach than frog:
(1) a,b,c,d (1) a,b,c,d
(2) dsoy c,e (2) only c,e

(3) a,b,e (3) a,b,e

(4) a,c,e (4) a,c,e

174. 174. Second meiotic division of secondary oocyte

results in

(1) nks cjkcj vkdkj ds vksoe (1) Two equal size ovum
(2) nks f}rh; /kzqoh;dk; (2) Two second polar bodies
(3) ,d vksoe vkSj ,d f}rh; /kzqoh;dk; (3) One ovum and one second polar body
(4) ,d vksoe vkSj ,d izFke /kzqoh;dk; (4) One ovum and one first polar body

NLI / 46
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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024
175. 175. Given below are two statements
-I: Statement I:

euq"; dk ân; dsoy midyk] la;ksth vkSj is'kh; Ård Human heart consist of only epithelial, connective, and
dk cuk gksrk gSA muscular tissue
Statement II :
- II :
In connective tissue fiber provide strength, elasticity and
la;ksth Ård esa rUrq 'kfDr] izR;kLFkrk vkSj yphykiu
flexibility
iznku djrs gSA
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II xyr gSA (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) dFku I lgh ijUrq dFku II xyr gSA (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) dFku I xyr gS ijUrq dFku II lgh gSA (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) nksuksa dFku I vkSj dFku II lgh gSA (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
176. 176. The cerebral hemispheres are connected by a
: tract of nerve fibres called
(1) dkiZl Y;qVh;e (1) Corpus luteum
(2) dkiZl dSyksle (2) Corpus callosum
(3) gkbiksFkSysel (3) Hypothalamus
(4) fyEchd yksc (4) Limbic lobe

177. 177. Select the correct statements for Equisetum

a. bDohflVe esa laogu Ård mifLFkr gS a. In Equisetum Vascular tissue is present

b. In Equisetum Rhizome is present
b. bDohflVe esa jkbtkse mifLFkr gS
c. In Equisetum Strobilus or cone is absent
c. bDohflVe esa LVªkfs cykbZ vFkok 'kadq vuqifLFkr gS
d. In Equisetum Sporophyte is dominant stage
d. bDohflVe esa LiksjksiQkbV izHkkoh voLFkk gS
e. In Equisetum True root, stem and leaves
e. bDohflVe esa lR; tM+] ruk vkSj ifRr;k¡ mifLFkr gS are present
(1) a, b, c, e (1) a, b, c, e
(2) dsoy a, b (2) Only a, b
(3) dsoy a, b, d, e (3) Only a, b, d, e
(4) lHkh (4) All
178. 178. In animal cells during which phase the centriole
duplicates in the cytoplasm
(1) G1 izkoLFkk (1) G1 phase
(2) S izkoLFkk (2) S phase
(3) G2 izkoLFkk (3) G2 phase
(4) M izkoLFkk (4) M phase
179. 179. The spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa
by the process called
(1) LifeZvkstsufs ll (1) Spermiogenesis
(2) oh;Zlspu (2) Spermiation
(3) iqVhHkou (3) Encystation
(4) chtk.kqtuu (4) Sporulation
NLI / 47
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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024
180. 180. Select the correct option for given diagram

C C

D D

B B

A A

(1) A – QksVksflLVe I (1) A – Photosystem I

(2) B – bysDVªkWu okgd rU= (2) B – Electron Transport System

(3) C –P680 (3) C–P680

(4) lHkh (4) All
181. 181. In photosynthesis equation what is number of
molecule of water in reactant and product
respectively
(1) 6, 6
(1) 6, 6
(2) 12, 6
(2) 12, 6
(3) 6, 12
(3) 6, 12
(4) 12, 12 (4) 12, 12
182. 182. Select the incorrect option for chloroplast
(1) LVªkes y ySehyh (1) Stromal lamellae
(2) xzkuk (2) Grana
(3) LVªkes k (3) Stroma
(4) fØLVh (4) Cristae
183. 183. Select the correct match :
(A) vkWDlhVksflu I nqX/k dk ckgj fudyuk (A) Oxytocin I Milk ejection
(B) XywdkxkWu II Xykbdksftuksyfs ll (B) Glucagon II Glycogenolysis
(C) bUlqfyu III Xykbdkstsuslhl (C) Insulin III Glycogenesis
(D) ,LVªkt
s u IV eknk ySafxd O;ogkj dk (D) Estrogen IV Regulate Female sexual
fu;eu behaviour

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I (2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV (4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
184. ______ 184. Very similar experiments involving use of
DNA radioactive thymidine to detect distribution of
newly synthesised DNA in the chromosomes was
performed on Vicia faba by_________ :
(1) Vsyj vkSj muds lg;ksfx;ksa us1968 esa (1) Taylor and colleagues in 1968
(2) Vsyj vkSj muds lg;ksfx;ksa us 1958 esa (2) Taylor and colleagues in 1958
(3) Vsyj vkSj muds lg;ksfx;ksa us1965 esa (3) Taylor and colleagues in 1965
(4) eslsYlu vkSj LVkWy us 1958 esa (4) Meselson and stahl in 1958

NLI / 48
 . . .
All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024
185. 185. The sea weeds and few plants existed probably
________ around ________
Fill in the blanks in given sentence

(1) 350 mya (1) 350 mya

(2) 320 mya (2) 320 mya
(3) 500 mya (3) 500 mya
(4) 100 mya (4) 100 mya
-B PART-2 (SECTION-B)
15 15 This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15
10 10 question. In case if candiate attempts more than
10 10 question, first 10 attempted question will be
considered for marking.

186. 186. Select the Incorrect match

(1) cgqHkzw.krk - uhcw (1) Polyembryony - Citrus

(2) ijkxd.k - uj xSehVksQkbV (2) Pollen grain - Male gametophyte

(3) chtk.Mdk; - LiksjksQkbV (3) Nucellus - Sporophyte

(4) v.Mk”k;h xqgk - izkadqj (4) Ovarian cavity - Plumule

187. Select the correct match
187.
(1) Jurrassic - Coenozoic
(1) tqjklhd - flukstksbd
(2) Cretaceous - Coenozoic
(2) fØVs”kh;l - flukstksbd
(3) Devonian - Palaeozoic
(3) fMoksuh;u - isyh;kstksbd
(4) Quaternary - Mesozoic
(4) DokVjujh - ehtkstksbd
188. 188. Select the Incorrect match

(1) ,LdSfjl - vkUrfjd jDrlzko (1) Ascaris - Internal bleeding

(2) Qkbysjh,lhl - vaxksa esa nh?kZdkfyd 'kksFk (2) Filariasis - Chronic Inflammation of

(3) nkn - 'kjhj ds fofHkUu Hkkxksa the organs

ij 'kYdh fo{kfy;k¡ (3) Ring worms - Scaly lesions on various

(4) vehch,fll - fBBqju vkSj izR;sd 3 parts of the body

ls 4 fnu ds vUrjky (4) Amoebiasis - Chill and high fever

ls vkus okys mPp vkorhZ recurring every 3 to 4

days
Toj
189. 189. Select the Incorrect match:
(1) Physical barrier - Mucus coating of the
(1) 'kkjhfjd jks/k - 'olu iFk dks vkLrfjr
epithelium lining
djus okyh ,fiFkhfy;e Respiratory tract
dk 'ys"ek vkysi (2) Physiological - Saliva in the mouth
(2) dkf;Zdh; jks/k - eq¡g esa ykj barrier

(3) dksf'kdh; jks/k - Y;qdkslkbV~l (3) Cellular barrier - Leucocytes

(4) lkbVksdkbu jks/k - Ård esa eSØksQst (4) Cytokine barrier - Macrophage in tissues

NLI / 49
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All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024
190. 190. Select the correct match:
(1) ySDVkscl
s hyl - ,lhVhd vEy (1) Lactobacillus - Acetic acid
(2) OghLdh - vklou ds lkFk (2) Whisky - With Distillation

(3) ch;j - vklou ds lkFk (3) Beer - With Distillation

(4) ¶yksDl - ikni vkSj fo’kk.kq (4) Flocs - Plants and virus

191. 191. Select the plant cells:

(1) -dksf”kdk;sa (1) -cells

(2) cqyhQkeZ dksf”kdk;sa (2) Bulliform cells

(3) lVksZyh dksf”kdk;sa (3) Sertoli cells

(4) yhfMax dksf”kdk;sa (4) Leydig cells

192. 192. Select the incorrect statement for plant tissue/

organ:
(1) f}chti=h iRrh esa Hkj.k Ård i.kZeè;ksrd gksrk gSA (1) Mesophyll is ground tissue in dicot leaf.
(2) f}chti=h tM+ esa cYdqV iryh dksf”kdkfHkRrh okyh
(2) In dicot root the cortex consists of several layers
Ldsysjsudkbek dksf”kdkvksa dh dbZ ijrksa ls feydj
of thin walled sclerenchyma cells with intercellular
cuh gksrh gS ftlesa vUrjdksf”kdh; vodk”k ik;k
spaces.
tkrk gSA
(3) ,dchti=h tM+ esa f}rh;d o`f) ugha gksrh gS (3) Monocot root do not undergo secondary growth

(4) dksbZ ugha (4) None

193. 193. Select the correct statements for Replication:

(1) izfrd`fr;u esa fdlh Hkh rjg dh xyrh ds ifj.kke (1) Any mistake during replication would result into
Lo:i mRifjorZu gksrk gSA mutations.

(2) DNA ij fuHkZj DNA ikWyhejst cgqydu dks dsoy (2) The DNA dependent DNA polymerases catalyse
,d fn”kk 5’  3’ dh vksj mRizsfjr djrk gS polymerisation only in one direction, that is 5’  3’

(3) DNA dh izfrd`fr;u o dksf”kdk foHkktu pØ dkQh (3) The replication of DNA and cell division cycle should
laHkkfor <ax ls gksrh gS be highly co-ordinated.

(4) lHkh (4) All

194. 194. Select the type of enzyme:

(a) izksVh,t (a) Proteases

(b) RNases (b) RNases

(c) DNase (c) DNase

(d) ijeh;st (d) Permease

(e) ySDVkst (e) Lactose

(1) dsoy a,b,c (1) only a,b,c
(2) only a,b,d (2) only a,b,d
(3) a,b,c,d (3) a,b,c,d
(4) a,d,e (4) a,d,e

NLI / 50
 . . .
All India Full Syllabus Test–26 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2025 /08-Dec-2024
195. 195. Select the incorrect match:
(1) AUU - vkblksY;qlhu (1) AUU - Isoleucine
(2) AUC - vkblksY;qlhu (2) AUC - Isoleucine

(3) AGU - lsjhu (3) AGU - Serine

(4) AGA - lsjhu (4) AGA - Serine

196. 196. Select the Analogous organ:

(a) vkWDVksil dh vkSj Lru/kkjh dh vk¡[k (a) Eye of the octopus and mammals

(b) isUxfou vkSj MkWyfQu ds ¶yhij (b) Flippers of penguins and Dolphins

(c) “kdjdUn vkSj vkyw (c) Sweet potato and potato

(d) frryh vkSj i{kh;ks ds ia[k (d) Wings of Butterfly and Birds

(1) dsoy a,b,c (2) dsoy a,c,d (1) only a,b,c (2) only a,c,d

(3) a,b,c,d (4) dsoy a,c (3) a,b,c,d (4) only a,c

197. 197. In sickle cell Anaemia which genotype show the

diseased phenotype:

(1) HbA HbA (2) HbA HbS (1) HbA HbA (2) HbA HbS

(3) HbS HbS (4) lHkh (3) HbS HbS (4) All

198. 198. Which is not involved in Transcription

(a)  dkjd (a)  Factor

(b)  dkjd (b)  Factor

(c) Liykblhax (c) Splicing

(d) tRNA dk vkos'khdj.k (d) Charging of tRNA

(e) t RNA dk vehuks,lkbys'ku (e) Aminoacylation of tRNA

(1) dsoy d (2) d,e (1) only d (2) d,e

(3) a,b,c (4) a,b,c,e (3) a,b,c (4) a,b,c,e

199. "2,4-D" 199. What is “2,4-D”

(1) 2,4 - MkbZ¶yksjksfQukDlh,lhfVd (1) 2,4 - Difluorophenoxyacetic

(2) 2,4 - MkbZDyksjksfQukDlh,lhfVd (2) 2,4 - Dichlorophenoxyacetic

(3) 2,4 - MkbDyksjksfQukby,Ydksgy (3) 2,4 - Dichlorophenylalchohol

(4) 2,4 - MkbZDyksjksfQukDlh,LikjVsV (4) 2,4 - Dichlorophenoxyaspartate

200. 200. Select the incorrect statements for connective

tissue
(1) ,jhvksyj vkSj olh; ,d izdkj ds <hys la;ksth Ård
gS (1) Areolar and adipose are a type of loose connective

(2) lHkh la;ksth Ård esa rUrq vkSj eSfVªDl mifLFkr gksrs tissue

gS (2) In all connective tissue fiber and matrix present

(3) vfLFk oks izeq[k Ård gS tks 'kjhj dks lajpukRed (3) Bone is the main tissues that provides structural
<kapk iznku djrk gS frame to the body
(4) d'ks:dh Hkzw.k esa fo|eku vf/kdka'k mikfLFk;ka] o;Ld (4) Most of the cartilages in vertebrate embryos are
voLFkk esa vfLFk }kjk izfrLFkkfir gks tkrh gS replaced by bones in adults
NLI / 51