?

Name “Primary Health Care” (PHC), when, where and at what level was received:
+International Conference of the World Health Organization (WHO), w. Almaty, s.
1978.
-World Conference of Doctors, sh. Havana, Cuba, p. 1990.
-World Congress of Physicians, Ch. Geneva, p. 2005.
- International conference of organizers and statisticians, sh. Beijing, China,
1985.
?From the listed medical institutions, indicate the institution providing primary
health care (PHC):
-City Sanitary and Epidemiological Center (regional). +Health House
- Central regional hospital.
-Surgical department of the Central Regional Hospital.

?Which of the following concepts refers to low-cost technologies for the activities
of a first-level medical institution:
- Immediate diagnosis of heart disease.
- Emergency assistance in case of an accident.
+Day hospital.
- Providing blood and other fast-acting medications.

? One family doctor is responsible (total number of adults and children):

-1200 people;
-1500 people;
+1200-1500 people; -1000 people.
?The family doctor's patients are: - All adult population;
-Adults, excluding pregnant women;
+The entire population, regardless of gender and age; -Adults and teenagers.

?Family Medicine Specialists: - Wellness Center Director.

- Deputy director of the health center.
+ Family doctor,
-family medicine nurse;
- Wrong answer.

?The areas of interest of a family doctor include:

-Condition of the patient's skin and hair.
- Quickly determine the patient's visual function.
+Everything is listed.
-Breast examination.
?Primary prevention goals:
-Search for scientific information.
-Development of mathematical statistics.
+Simple randomized trials.
- Reviews of professional literature.

?Primary prevention goals:

- Detection of diseases at an early stage.
-Reducing the level of symptoms of the disease.
-There is no right answer.
+Preventing or reducing the level of morbidity in the population.

?Health stabilization and its tasks:

-Prevention (prevention).
- Joint impact with the environment.
-Healthy lifestyle.
+ All answers are correct.
?List the risk factors for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD):
- Frequent acute respiratory viral infections (ARVI)
+Smoking
- Age
- gender
?List the risk factors for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD):
- Frequent acute respiratory viral infections (SARS)
- Age
+ Professional dust or activity
- gender

?List the main symptoms that suggest a diagnosis of COPD:

+Chronic cough
- Low-grade fever of a constant nature
-increased blood pressure
- headache
?List the main symptoms that suggest a diagnosis of COPD:
- headache
- Low-grade fever of a constant nature
-increased blood pressure
+shortness of breath
?Which of the following diseases is characterized by the reversible nature of
bronchial obstruction syndrome:
+Bronchial asthma
-Pulmonary embolism
-COPD
- Pneumonia

?Which of the following diseases is characterized by the reversible nature of

bronchial obstruction syndrome:
+ Cardiac asthma
-Pulmonary embolism
-COPD
- Pneumonia

?Which provisions regarding COPD are correct:

- Characterized by reversible obstruction
+Progressive disease
- Attacks of suffocation
- all answers are correct

?Which provisions regarding COPD are correct:

- Characterized by reversible obstruction..
+Having a cough with sputum for at least 3 months a year for 2 years or more.
- Attacks of suffocation.
- all answers are correct

?COPD can be diagnosed if the following signs are present:

+ Prolonged cough.
- Decrease in forced expiratory volume in the 1st second by more than 70% of the
proper volume.
- Reversibility of obstruction more than 15%.
- all answers are correct

?COPD can be diagnosed if the following signs are present:

- Decrease in forced expiratory volume in the 1st second by more than 70% of the
proper volume.
+ shortness of breath
- Reversibility of obstruction more than 15%.
- all answers are correct
? What is true regarding changes in respiratory function in COPD:
- Increase in residual lung volume
- Increasing lung capacity
- Decrease in residual lung volume
+Decreased lung capacity

? What is true regarding changes in respiratory function in COPD:

+Decreased maximum flow velocity at the level of the middle bronchi
- Increasing lung capacity
- Decrease in residual lung volume
- Increase in residual lung volume

?Differential diagnosis of COPD includes the following diseases:

-pericarditis
-myocardial infarction
+ Lung cancer
- SARS, influenza condition

?Differential diagnosis of COPD includes the following diseases:

-pericarditis
-myocardial infarction
+Bronchiectasis
- SARS, influenza condition

? Characteristic clinical symptoms of bronchitis type of obstruction:

- Shortness of breath
- Cough with copious sputum production
-Patients are obese
+ that's right

?Indications for hospitalization for COPD are:

+ Inability to stop an exacerbation with the initially used medications.
- Increase in body temperature to 37.5°C
- Dry cough lasting more than 4 weeks
-everything is wrong

?Indications for hospitalization for COPD are:

+ First-time arrhythmia.
- Increase in body temperature to 37.5°C
- Dry cough lasting more than 4 weeks
-everything is wrong
?Indications for hospitalization for COPD are:
- Dry cough lasting more than 4 weeks
- Increase in body temperature to 37.5°C
+ Significant increase in symptom intensity.
-everything is wrong.

?Activities included in the clinical examination of patients with COPD:

- Examination by specialists: phthisiatrician, oncologist – once a year.
+ Examination by specialists: otolaryngologist, dentist – once a year.
- Sputum culture.
-Spirography with drug tests - 2 times a year.

?Activities included in the clinical examination of patients with COPD:

- Examination by specialists: phthisiatrician, oncologist – once a year.
+Spirography with drug tests - 2 times a year.
- Sputum culture.
-Spirography with drug tests - 2 times a year.

? Main signs of exacerbation of COPD:

- Increasing shortness of breath.
- The appearance of purulent sputum.
- Increased cough.
+ All listed signs.

? Arterial hypertension (AH) is diagnosed when a doctor measures blood pressure

(BP) above:
-130/80 mm Hg.
-135/80 mm Hg.
+140/90 mm Hg.
-150/90 mm Hg.

?List the diseases and conditions that may cause symptomatic hypertension
-Pathology of the kidneys
-Damage to the renal arteries
-Pheochromocytoma
+All of the above
?What medications may be taken cause an increase in blood pressure:
-Centrally acting antitussives
-Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
-Hormonal contraceptives
+All of the above

?How many degrees of risk of developing cardiovascular complications (CVC) of

hypertension are there?
-1st
-2nd
-3rd
+4th

? For stage 1 hypertension, according it is characteristic:

+SBP 140–159 and/or DBP 90–99
-SBP 160–179 and/or DBP 100–109
-SBP 130–139 and/or DBP 85–89
-SBP≥180 and/or DBP≥110

? For stage 3 hypertension, according to characteristic:

-SBP 140–159 and/or DBP 90–99
-SBP 160–179 and/or DBP 100–109
-SBP 130–139 and/or DBP 85–89
+SBP≥180 and/or DBP≥110

? For the treatment of hypertension the following are used:

- Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEI)
- Thiazide diuretics
- Calcium antagonists
+All of the above

? The structure of the SCORE model for assessing cardiovascular mortality (over 10
years) includes:
- Age
- Gender
- Presence or absence of smoking history
+All of the above
?Complications of hypertension are:
- Hypertensive crisis
-Myocardial infarction
-Hemorrhagic stroke
+All of the above

?ACE inhibitors include:

-Moxonidine
-Metoprolol
+Enalapril
-Arifon
? Stage I of hypertension is characterized by:
-Damage to 1–2 target organs
-SBP less than 180 mmHg. Art.
+ No target organ damage
- DBP less than 80 mm Hg. Art.
? Patients at low risk of cardiovascular complications include patients:
-With 3rd degree hypertension
+With 1st degree hypertension without risk factors
-With 1st degree hypertension with metabolic syndrome
-With 1st degree hypertension with diabetes mellitus
? Patients with a very high risk of cardiovascular complications include:
-Patients with SBP more than 180 mmHg. Art.
+Patients with stage III hypertension
-Patients with hypertension and metabolic syndrome
-All of the above are true
?A patient with a combination of hypertension and diabetes mellitus belongs to the
CVS group:
-Low risk
-Medium risk
-High risk
+Very high risk
?The main antihypertensive drugs include:
-β-Blockers -ACEI
-α-Blockers
+Thiazide diuretics
?To diuretics recommended for treatment hypertension include:
-Hypothiazide
-Furosemide
-Thorasemid
+that's right
?When combining chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and hypertension, the use of:
-Calcium antagonists
+Non-selective β-blockers
-ACEI
-Centrally acting drugs

? Most preferred for use in smokers with hypertension:

-β-Blocker
-α-Blockers
+Calcium antagonists
-All of the above
? To neutralize this side effect calcium antagonists, such as swelling of the legs,
it is advisable to combine them with:
+ACEI
-Moxonidine
-Loop diuretics
-β-Blockers
?The most typical side effect for ACE inhibitors is:
effect like:
-Cough with mucopurulent sputum
+Dry cough
-Diarrhea
-ACE inhibitors do not cause side effects
? For the treatment of isolated systolic hypertension in Elderly people preferably
use:
-Moxonidina
-clonidine
+Calcium antagonists
-Loop diuretics
?The most metabolically neutral diuretic is:
- Furosemide
-Hypothiazide at a dose of 50 mg/day
+Indapamide
-Diuretics do not cause metabolic changes
?Which of the following is not typical for angina pectoris of functional class I:

- depression of the ST segment during the VEM test;

+ the occurrence of pain when climbing to the 1st floor;

-no changes in ECG at rest;

- radiating pain to the left shoulder;

?What changes on the ECG reliably indicate coronary insufficiency during a bicycle
ergometry (BEM) test:

-reversal of a negative T wave;

-prolongation of the PQ interval;

+ST segment depression more than 2 mm;

-the appearance of atrial extrasystole;

?What signs are not typical for variant angina:

- transient ST segment elevation on the ECG;
-coronary angiography reveals slightly changed or unaffected coronary arteries in
10% of cases;
- attacks occur more often at night;
+physical activity is poorly tolerated.
?A 57-year-old patient complains that for a year, 1-2 times a month in the morning,
substernal pain of a compressive nature occurs, extending under the left shoulder
blade, which disappears within half an hour after taking nitroglycerin. With Holter
monitoring: at the time of an attack, ST elevation in leads V2-V5 is 8 mm. The next
day - ST on the isoline. What pathology does the patient have:
- stable angina of functional class IV;
- ischemic myocardial dystrophy;
+ variant angina;
- progressive angina.
?Which of the following types of angina pectoris is an indication for
hospitalization:
-new-onset angina pectoris;
-rapidly progressive angina;
-frequent angina pectoris between exertion and rest;
+all of the above.
? If an acute attack of pain occurs in the epigastric region and behind the sternum
in middle-aged men, the examination should begin with:
- probing the stomach;
- fluoroscopy of the gastrointestinal tract;
+ECG;
-gastroduodenoscopy;
? The following statements regarding silent myocardial ischemia are correct,
except:
+ most often detected in persons with an established diagnosis of coronary artery
disease;
-the principles of treatment are the same as for typical angina;
-the prognosis is the same as for the painful form of IHD;
-the diagnosis is based on ECG changes;
?A 46-year-old patient began to experience attacks of chest pain at night, during
which a transient rise in the ST segment was recorded on the ECG. Probable
diagnosis:
+ Prinzmetal’s angina;
-repeated myocardial infarction;
-development of post-infarction aneurysm;
-thromboembolism of the branches of the pulmonary artery.
? A patient with acute myocardial infarction (day 1) developed an attack of
palpitations, accompanied by severe weakness and a drop in blood pressure. On the
ECG: the P wave is not detected, the QRS is widened (>0.12 s) and deformed, the
number of ventricular contractions is 150 per minute. Your diagnosis:
- paroxysm of atrial fibrillation;
+ventricular paroxysmal tachycardia;
-atrial flutter;
-supraventricular paroxysmal tachycardia.
?A 48-year-old patient was admitted to the clinic due to acute transmural
anteroseptal myocardial infarction. Shortness of breath, tachypnea, and a decrease
in blood pressure to 100/70 mm Hg appeared. Art., tachycardia up to 120 per minute.
Moist rales appeared in the lower parts of the lungs. In the 3rd-4th intercostal
space along the left edge of the sternum, an intense systolic murmur with a gallop
rhythm began to be heard. Blood oxygen saturation in the right ventricle is
increased. Most likely diagnosis:
- rupture of the outer wall of the ventricle;
-pulmonary embolism;
+rupture of the interventricular septum;
-epistenocardial pericarditis.
? In which ECG leads is a posterolateral infarction detected:
-AVL, V5-V6;
- 2, 3 standard, AVF;
-V1-V3;
+2, 3 standard, AVF, V5-V6;
?A 52-year-old patient with acute anterior myocardial infarction experienced an
attack of suffocation. On examination: diffuse cyanosis, a large number of moist
rales of various sizes in the lungs. Heart rate - 100 beats/min. Blood pressure -
120/100 mm Hg. Art. What complication is most likely:
-cardiogenic shock;
-pulmonary embolism;
+pulmonary edema;
-rupture of the interventricular septum;
? Which sign does not correspond to the diagnosis: hypertension, stage 1. in a 35
year old patient:
-no changes in the fundus of the eye;
-glomerular filtration 80 ml/min;
+the R wave in V5-V6 is 32 mm;
-rapid normalization of blood pressure;
?In what disease is arterial hypertension of paroxysmal type observed:
-aldosteroma;
-periarteritis nodosa;
+pheochromocytoma;
-Itsenko-Cushing syndrome;
? What is the cause of arterial hypertension in a patient with the following
clinical signs: sudden appearance of headache against the background of a sharp
increase in blood pressure, accompanied by nausea, tachycardia, pallor of the skin,
after an attack - polyuria:
-Conn's syndrome;
-Itsenko-Cushing syndrome;
-menopausal syndrome;
+pheochromocytoma;
?Complete AV block is characterized by all signs except one:
-pulse rate - 36 per minute;
-correct rhythm;
+increased heart rate during physical activity;
-increase in systolic blood pressure;
? A 42-year-old patient suffering from mitral heart disease, after suffering from a
sore throat, developed frequent atrial extrasystoles, felt by the patient as
unpleasant “thrusts” in the chest. What threatens this rhythm disturbance:
-development of circulatory failure;
+the appearance of atrial fibrillation;
-the occurrence of paroxysmal tachycardia;
-the appearance of coronary insufficiency;
?The cause of atrial fibrillation can be all of the following diseases, except:
+neurocirculatory asthenia;
-rheumatism;
-IHD;
-thyrotoxicosis;
?Detection of a PQ prolongation of 0.28 s on the ECG indicates that the patient
has:
- blockade of sinoatrial conduction;
+ 1st degree atrioventricular conduction block;
-2nd degree atrioventricular conduction block;
-3rd degree atrioventricular conduction block;
?A 52-year-old patient complains of short-term pain in the heart area. Sick for 2
weeks. after acute respiratory infections. The ECG shows a decrease in the ST
segment by 1.5 mm and a negative T wave. ESR is 45 mm/h. Presumable diagnosis:
-menopausal cardiomyopathy;
-IHD;
-Neurocirculatory dystonia (NCD);
+myocarditis;
? A 22-year-old man had a systolic murmur at the base of the heart since childhood.
Blood pressure - 150/100 mm Hg. Art. Chest X-ray: enlarged left ventricle, uneven,
jagged lower edges of ribs 5–7 on both sides. Reduced pulsation in the legs.
Diagnosis:
-stenosis of the aortic mouth;
-atrial septal defect;
+coarctation of the aorta;
-ventricular septal defect;
? An 18-year-old patient was sent for examination by the military registration and
enlistment office. He developed normally. A rough systolic murmur with an epicenter
in the 2nd intercostal space at the right edge of the sternum is determined above
the base of the heart and is carried out to the carotid arteries. The second sound
above the aorta is weakened. Pulse - 64 per minute, rhythmic. Brachial artery blood
pressure - 95/75 mm Hg. art., on the femoral artery blood pressure is 110/90 mm Hg.
Art. Your diagnosis:
+stenosis of the aortic mouth;
-combined heart disease;
-coarctation of the aorta;
-patent ductus arteriosus.
?A 19-year-old patient was sent for examination with a presumptive diagnosis of
mitral heart disease. On examination, a systolic murmur was detected at the apex of
the heart. Which examination method is the most informative to confirm or exclude
the diagnosis of heart disease:
-ECG;
+echocardiography;
-chest X-ray;
-blood test for antistreptococcal antibody titers;
?A 42-year-old patient suffering from mitral heart disease developed atrial
extrasystoles after a sore throat. What threatens this rhythm disturbance:
-development of circulatory failure;
+the appearance of atrial fibrillation;
-the appearance of coronary insufficiency;
-none of the above.

?Which parameter is the first to respond to the functional inferiority of the left
ventricle:
-peripheral vascular resistance;
+level of “wedge” pressure in the pulmonary artery;
-radiological signs of stagnation;
-all of the above.
?Which of the following seafood contains a large amount of cholesterol:
+shrimp;
-mackerel;
-trout; -tuna.
?List the diagnostic methods that allow you to objectively identify chronic heart
failure (CHF):
- electrocardiography
-electrophysiological study
+ echocardiography
-ultrasound examination
?5-year survival rate for CHF:
+ below 50%
- above 50%
- about 30%
- about 20%
?With CHF II functional class (FC), the patient can pass within six minutestest:
-more than 551 m
+ 301–425 m
-151–300 m
-less than 150 m
?List angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs) that have proven their
ability to prevent the development of CHF and/or successfully treat patients with
CHF:
-enalapril
-captopril
-fosinopril
+all listed
?Do diuretics reduce the number of hospitalizations in patients with CHF?
- when prescribing loading doses once every 3–4 days
- when prescribing loading doses once every 5–7 days
+ with a daily maintenance dose
- when prescribing loading doses, their impact on quality negative life
?Name ACE inhibitors that have two routes of elimination (kidneys and
gastrointestinal tract):
-enalapril
- captopril
+fosinopril
- perindopril
?At what minimum level of systolic blood pressure (SBP) can be prescribed ACEI?
+ at a SBP level>85 mmHg. Art.
- at a SBP level>90 mmHg. Art.
-at a SBP level>95 mmHg. Art.
-at a SBP level>100 mmHg. Art.
?In the absence of contraindications, ACEIs are indicated:
+ all patients with circulatory failure
- only for patients with hypertension
- patients with hypertension and diabetes mellitus
- patients with coronary heart disease
?Which β-blockers (BABs) are recommended for the treatment of CHF:
+atenolol;
-bisoprolol;
-verapamil;
-carvedilol;
?Beta blockers for CHF should be used:
-in all patients with CHF who have no contraindications
+only in patients with initial tachycardia
-only in patients with ejection fraction (EF) more than 40%
-all of the above are true
?Treatment with diuretics for CHF begins:
-with initial signs of CHF
+ with clinical signs of stagnation (II A stage, II FC)
-diuretics are prescribed in the absence of clinical signs of CHF, 2–3 times a week
-that's right
?Which drug will you start diuretic treatment for CHF?
-furosemide
-ethacrynic acid
-torasemide
+hypothiazide
?Negative properties of diuretics:
-activation of vasoactive hormones
-development of electrolyte disturbances
-heart rhythm disturbances
+all of the above
? List the indications for hospitalization:
-progressive heart failure (HF)
-the impossibility of carrying out treatment in outpatient settings conditions
-the occurrence of acute coronary insufficiency
+all of the above
?Can patients with CHF drink alcohol?
- alcohol consumption is prohibited for all patients
+ alcohol is prohibited for alcoholic cardiomyopathy
- consumption of up to 40 ml/day of ethanol is allowed
-that's right
?Which of the following medicinal drugs used for CHF are not classified as main?
-ACEI
- BAB
-angiotensin II receptor antagonists
+ statins

?What are the approximate time frames?

disability of patients with CHF II FC
- from 10 to 14 days
+from 3 to 4 weeks
-up to 2 months
-the ability to work is lost partially or completely, the disability group is
determined
?Are patients with CHF subject to dispensary observation?
-yes, within a year after diagnosis
-yes, within 5 years
+ yes, all the time
-that's right
?How often should patients with CHF be monitored?
- once a month
+ once every 3 months
-once every six months
-that's right
?What drug would you add to a patient with symptoms of CHF II FC according to NYHA
(New York Heart Association) and ejection fraction (EF) of the left ventricle (LV)
35% in addition to
ACE inhibitors and beta blockers?
- digoxin
+ spironolactone
-indapamide
-trimetazidine
?A patient with NYHA class III CHF and LVEF 30% have type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Heart rate – 72 beats/min, blood pressure – 105/60 mm Hg. Art. List the medications
that may be recommended for his treatment:
-BAB
-ACEI
- aldosterone antagonists
+all of the above
?What drugs are recommended for all patients with symptoms of CHF II–IV NYHA class
and EF LV no more than 35% in addition to ACE inhibitors and beta blockers with to
reduce the risk of hospitalization for?
+ long-acting nitrates
- spironolactone
- vitamin C
- vitamin B
?Is coronary bypass surgery indicated for patients with angina pectoris and 23-
vessel coronary disease with LVEF not more than 35%?
-not shown
- shown to everyone
+ indicated for patients with good functional status and a life expectancy of more
than of the year
-that's right
?Patient with CHF and severe aortic stenosis has a high risk of surgery.He is
recommended:
- drug treatment
- medicinal and sanatorium-resort treatment
+ transcatheter aortic valve replacement
-heart transplant
?Diarrhea is a common symptom with:
- duodenal ulcer;
+chronic pancreatitis;
- cholelithiasis;
-tumors of the distal colon.
?Constipation is typical for:
- chronic gastritis with reduced secretory function;
-diseases of the operated stomach;
-chronic enteritis;
+duodenal ulcer;
?Grayish-yellow color of stool occurs:
- when the flow of bile into the intestines stops;
-due to bilirubin in infants;
-due to bilirubin with hypermotility of the small intestine;
+ for pancreatitis;
?Recurrent cramping pain predominantly in the left quadrant of the abdomen, the
release of a large amount of mucus during an attack of pain with an unchanged
intestinal mucosa are characteristic of:
- chronic colitis;
-chronic enteritis;
+ irritable bowel;
- nonspecific ulcerative colitis;
?Which type of jaundice from the following is not accompanied by unconjugated
hyperbilirubinemia:
+parenchymal;
-hemolytic;
-Gilbert's syndrome;
-Crigler-Noyard syndrome.
?Which of the following changes in the biochemical blood test are characteristic of
obstructive jaundice:
-unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, increased levels of ALT, AST;
- conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, a sharp increase in the level of ALT, AST,
cholesterol;
+ conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, increased alkaline phosphatase levels;
- unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia;
?Point out a symptom that is not typical for fermentative dyspepsia:
- bloating and distension of the abdomen;
+ worse after protein foods;
-cramping pain, decreasing after passing gas or stool;
-diarrhea.

?Which anemia is not typical for chronic enteritis:

- iron deficiency;
- B12-deficient; + hemolytic.
-that's right
?Underweight is typical for:
+ chronic enteritis;
- chronic colitis.
-anemia
-pneumonia

?Which method is the most informative in the diagnosis of chronic colitis:

- irigography;
- enzyme research;
+colonoscopy;
- duodenography in conditions of hypotension.
?Black-brown, dense feces:
+ typical for a meat diet;
- appears after eating blueberries, black currants;
-appears when taking carbolene, bismuth;
-appears with necrosis of the right colon;
?Liquid stool with dense pieces, coagulated mucus, blood and pus is characteristic
of:
- irritable bowel syndrome;
+ necrotic-ulcerative process in the recto-sigmoid region;
- allergic colitis;
- enteritis with accelerated peristalsis;
?Hemolytic jaundice manifests itself:
- conjugated bilirubinemia and increased levels of ALT, AST, LDH;
-unconjugated bilirubinemia and increased levels of ALT, AST, LDH;
+ unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia;
-conjugated hyperbilirubinemia;
?Parenchymal jaundice is not observed in:
- viral hepatitis;
-livercancer;
+ Minkowski-Shoffar disease;
-liver cirrhosis;
?What biochemical indicators indicate the presence of cholestasis syndrome:
-dysproteinemia, changes in thymol and sublimate tests;
+ increased levels of bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase, hypercholesterolemia;
-increased levels of ALT, AST, LDH4, LDH5; -increasing amylase levels.
?The first laboratory detectable disorder in patients with viral hepatitis is:
+hypertransaminasemia;
- hyperbilirubinemia;
-bilirubinuria;
-increased alkaline phosphatase levels;
?Which of the following symptoms is the main clinical sign of cholestasis:
-"liver" palms;
+skin itch;
-spider veins;
-asthenization.
?The absorption of iron in the intestine occurs most intensively from:
+ meat products and liver;
-fruit;
-apples;
-carrots;
?Decreased synthetic function of the liver is manifested:
- hypoalbuminemia;
-hypoprothrombinemia;
+ hypocholesterolemia;
-haptoglobulinemia;
?The abundance of glassy mucus in the stool is characteristic of:
+ irritable bowel syndrome;
- necrotic-ulcerative process in the recto-sigmoid region;
-allergic colitis;
-enteritis with accelerated peristalsis;
?Indications for performing an ultrasound of the abdominal organs are:
- suspicion of the presence of space-occupying formations in the abdominal cavity;
+ performing fine needle aspiration biopsy.
- suspicion of ascites;
- assessment of vascularization of liver tumors;
?Indications for X-ray contrast examination of the esophagus, stomach and duodenum
are:
- dysphagia;
-heartburn;
-chest pain;
+vomit;
?The disadvantages of X-ray contrast examination of the esophagus, stomach and
duodenum are:
- risk of aspiration;
+poor detail of the mucous membrane;
- impossibility of biopsy;
- low sensitivity in detecting early cancer;
?Zenker diverticula have a characteristic localization in:
+ posterior wall of the pharynx and esophagus;
-middle third of the esophagus;
-lower third of the esophagus;
- abdominal part of the esophagus;
?Burning pain at the base of the xiphoid process with irradiation to the heart
area, which occurs and intensifies half an hour after eating, with physical
activity and bending the body, does not stop completely when taking algeldrate +
magnesium hydroxide, belching of air, attacks of suffocation, and cough are also
noted. A barium X-ray shows reflux of the contrast material from the stomach into
the esophagus. All this allows us to suspect:
+ axial hiatal hernia and reflux esophagitis;
- esophageal carcinoma;
- bronchial asthma;
-chronic gastritis;
?Acute catarrhal esophagitis can give:
- acute bleeding;
+microbleeding (diapedetic);
- perforation;
- stenoses;
?The most common early complications of peptic ulcers are:
+bleeding;
- stenoses;
- malignancy;
- penetration;
?Esophagospasm is characterized by:
+ dysphagia inconsistent with liquid food;
- pain behind the sternum with excitement;
-regurgitation;
-burning behind the sternum;
?Patient A., 56 years old, was admitted with complaints of pain in the right
hypochondrium, nausea and a feeling of bitterness in the mouth in the morning,
moderate itching of the skin. History of cholecystectomy for calculous
cholecystitis. Pain in the right hypochondrium lasts from several hours to 2 days
and recurs several times a month. Recently, the patient began to experience attacks
of pain in the right hypochondrium. On examination - increased nutrition, icterus
of the sclera and skin, body temperature 37.5°C. Heart sounds are muffled, pulse is
82/min, rhythmic, blood pressure is 135/80 mm Hg. Art. The liver protrudes from
under the edge of the costal arch by 4 cm and is painful on palpation. Preliminary
diagnosis in this case:
- chronic hepatitis;
- chronic recurrent pancreatitis;
+ cholangitis.
- cancer of the head of the pancreas;
?The hypokinetic form of gallbladder dyskinesia is characterized by:
- frequent combination with duodenal ulcer and gastroduodenitis;
- X-ray examination reveals an elongated gallbladder and slower emptying;
- aching and bursting pain in the right hypochondrium with irradiation to the right
scapula and collarbone;
+ dyspeptic disorders;
?A 2-year-old child complains of diarrhea for 7 days. There is no blood in the
stool. Objectively: The child is restless. We are painfully irritable. Sunken eyes.
Drinks greedily, thirst. The skin fold straightens out slowly. Classify these
conditions according to IMCI://
-severe dehydration
+moderate dehydration
-no dehydration
-severe prolonged diarrhea
?A mother and a 6-month-old child came to see a general practitioner with
complaints of loose stools for 3 days. Upon examination, the child is inhibited,
his reactions are sluggish, his eyes are sunken, he drinks reluctantly, the skin
fold straightens out very slowly. There is no blood in the stool. How do you
classify the disease?
+severe dehydration
-moderate dehydration
-no dehydration
-severe prolonged diarrhea
?When performing oral rehydration according to plan B, a child at the age of 12
months experiences a single vomiting. Doctor's tactics:
+wait 10 minutes and continue OP, but slower
-stop OR, switch to intravenous administration of solutions
-continue OR immediately after vomiting, but more slowly
-increase fluid volume by 100 ml and continue rehydration at a faster pace
?When performing oral rehydration according to plan B, a child at the age of 12
months experiences uncontrollable vomiting. Doctor's tactics:
-wait 10 minutes and continue OP, but slower
+stop OR, switch to intravenous administration of solutions
-continue OR immediately after vomiting, but more slowly
-increase fluid volume by 100 ml and continue rehydration at a faster pace
?The most physiological method of rehydration is:
-intravenous fluid administration
-fluid administration using a nasogastric tube
+oral
-rectal
?A mother with a child aged 10 months, body weight 8 kg, consulted a family doctor.
The reason for contacting is diarrhea for 15 days. Upon examination, the child’s
condition is satisfactory, calm, drinks willingly, but there is no thirst, the skin
fold straightens immediately. How would you classify this condition under IMCI?
-severe dehydration
-moderate dehydration
-no dehydration
+persistent diarrhea
?When treating diarrhea at home using Plan A, the amount of additional fluid that
should be given to a child at 12 months of age is determined by:
-10-20 ml after each loose stool
-30-40 ml after each loose stool
+50-100 ml after each loose stool
-100-200 ml after each loose stool
?When treating diarrhea at home using Plan A, the amount of additional fluid that
should be given to a child aged 3 years is determined by:
-10-20 ml after each loose stool
-30-40 ml after each loose stool
-50-100 ml after each loose stool
+100-200 ml after each loose stool
?A 6-month-old child is receiving treatment under Plan A - home treatment for
diarrhea. What nutritional recommendations would you give to the child's mother?
-Breastfeed your baby strictly according to the clock with a mandatory night break
+breastfeed your baby often and for longer at each feeding
-breastfeed your baby often, but reduce the time of each breastfeed
-keep the same feeding regimen, but with a mandatory night break
?Patient Jeri, 6 months, baby weight 8 kg, temperature 38 degrees. Jeri 's mother
said that the child had a cough for 2 days, suckled willingly, there was no
vomiting or convulsions. Upon examination, the child is conscious, reacts to
examination by screaming, the respiratory rate at rest is 58, there are no chest
indrawings. How do you classify a child's IMCI condition?
-severe pneumonia or very serious illness
+pneumonia
-no pneumonia, cough or cold
-no pneumonia, asthmatic breathing
?Danger signs when assessing a patient’s condition according to IMCI include all of
the following, except:
-labored breathing
-central cyanosis
-signs of shock
+signs of severe rickets
?When outpatiently treating a child with acute respiratory infection, it is
necessary to monitor for the appearance of all of the following danger signs,
except:
-breathing becomes groaning
-breathing becomes grunting
+dizziness noted
-temperature persists or becomes high
?Child, 4 months old, the general practitioner classified the child’s condition as
severe pneumonia. Choose the right tactical solution:
-immediately refer for inpatient treatment
+give the first dose of antibiotic and immediately refer for inpatient treatment
-give the first dose of antibiotic to treat pneumonia and schedule a follow-up
appointment the next day
-give the first dose of antibiotic to treat pneumonia and schedule a follow-up
appointment in 2 days
?Which group will include children who have functional abnormalities, with initial
changes in physical, neuropsychic development, who are often ill, but do not have
chronic diseases?
-first health group
+second health group
-third health group
-fourth health group
?Characteristic of rickets:
+metabolic acidosis
-respiratory acidosis
-alkalosis
-that's right
?In the initial period of rickets in the blood it is noted:
-hypocalcemia
-hypophosphatemia
-hypercalcemia
+ increased alkaline phosphatase activity
?To prevent rickets, vitamin D is prescribed:
-from birth
-from 6 months
+from 1 month
-over 1 year
?Name the prophylactic dose of vitamin D for rickets:
-50-200 IU
+ 400-500 IU
-1500 IU
-2000-5000IU
?The therapeutic dose of vitamin D for rickets is:
-500IU
+2000-5000IU
-1000ME
-10000-15000IU
?Prevention of rickets includes the following measures:
+ massage, gymnastics, aqueous solution of vitamin D3 500-1000 IU daily
-aqueous solution of vitamin D3 500 IU every other day
-aqueous solution of vitamin D3 2-3 thousand IU daily
-that's right
? For rickets during the peak period, the following therapeutic measures are
indicated:
-aqueous solution of vitamin D3 500-1000 IU daily
-citrate mixture 1 tsp. 3 times a day
-aqueous solution of vitamin D3 500 IU every other day
+aqueous solution of vitamin D3 2-5 thousand IU daily, massage, gymnastics
?Breast-feeding how many times in the first month.
- 5 times a day
- 6 times a day
- 8 times a day
+ at the request of the child
? When will the milk teeth be seen in many children.
+ 5-9 months
- 4-6 months
- 8-12 months
- after 12 months
?The child moves his arms and legs in a few months.
-1 monthly
+ 4 months
- 2 months
- 3 months
? In a few months, the child is able to support the stomach and back.
- 4 months
+ 5 months
- 6 months
- 7 months
? For the first time after birth, the baby is put on the mother's breast for some
time.
+ immediately after birth
- from the first hour
- first 12 hours
- the first day
?When does real milk come out?
+ The beginning of the 3rd week after birth
- end of 1 month after birth
- end of 1 week after birth
- from 4-5 days after birth
? What other products are given as first food for a healthy child.
- curd
+ artificial milk
- chat
- egg yolk
?At the request of a citizen working in medicine, an unusable form will be issued.
+ may be specified
- may not be specified
- maybe in some important cases
- at the request of a medical officer
?What age is considered fertile (reproductive) in women.
-20-40 years old
+15-49 years old
-V. 25-50 years old
-45-55 years old
?During pregnancy, a woman is examined several times at the health center:
- 3 times
-5 times
- 6 times
+ 8 times
? In the case of preeclampsia, what emergency measures should be taken:
- measure blood pressure
- with antihypertensive drugs
+ a pregnant woman should be hospitalized immediately
- answer home
? What indicator of hemoglobin in pregnant women confirms the diagnosis of anemia:
- 140 g/l
- 130 g/l
+ less than 110 g/l
- 120 g/l
? When is folic acid prescribed to a pregnant woman:
+ in the pre-pregnancy period and the first 12 weeks of pregnancy.
-8 weeks of pregnancy.
-20 weeks of pregnancy.
-32 weeks of pregnancy.

? Why is aspirin prescribed to a pregnant woman?

+Prevention of pre/eclampsia in high risk group.
-Prevention of the birth of a child with congenital heart defects.
- Prevention of birth defects of the central nervous system
- It's all right.
?Forms the basis of a healthy diet:
-Plant food.
+Consumption of food from milk and products prepared from milk.
-Consumption of meat food.
-Consumption of food from fat, which is very high in calories.
?All harmful production factors are divided into groups:
-Mechanical.
- Physical.
+Chemical.
-Biological.
?Industrial dust can cause the following situations:
+ All answers.
- Dermatitis, conjunctivitis.
-Rhinitis, pharyngitis, lung swelling.
- Bronchitis, asthma.
?Goals of primary prevention activities:
-Search for scientific information.
-Development of mathematical statistics.
+Simple randomized trials.
- Reviews of professional literature.
? Reproductive health in
- state of physical and mental well-being.
- satisfactory opportunities and safety of life in men
- satisfying and safe life opportunities for women
+ state of physical, mental and social well-being in all cases related to the
reproductive system, throughout the life cycle.
? The concept of reproductive protection includes:
-organization of family planning services,
-prevention of unwanted pregnancy, reduction of miscarriage,
-ensuring mother's safety, as well as reducing the level of diseases and death of
mother and child,
+ all answers are correct
?Antinatal control during physiological pregnancy is carried out by:
+specialists of family medicine
-midwife
-obstetrician gynecologist
- all answers are correct
?Antenatal care This care before birth includes:
-learning, counseling,
-screening, diagnosis,
-treatment and prevention of diseases and injuries,
+ all answers are correct
?What topics are discussed and consulted with a pregnant woman:
-dangerous signs during pregnancy, pregnant woman's nutrition, pregnant woman's
hygiene;
- preparation for childbirth and training of the partner, the life of women during
pregnancy,
-breastfeeding, contraception after birth,
+ all answers are correct
?Danger signs during pregnancy:
-headache, pain in the stomach,
-high temperature
-bleeding and discharge of water around the baby
+ all answers are correct
? List of documents and accessories that a pregnant woman should have with her:
-identity card, exchange form
-baby clothes: wraps, jacket, hat, socks, warm blanket, diapers;
-clothes for mother, diapers and hygiene packages, light food
+ all answers are correct

?When observing dangerous symptoms in a pregnant woman, a medical worker should:

+provide first aid and put the woman to bed immediately,
- first aid takes control of the woman,
- provides first aid and allows the woman to go home,
- all answers are wrong
? Reproductive health in
- is the condition that the woman does not have any inflammatory diseases of the
pelvic organs,
- is the condition that the woman does not have any sexually transmitted diseases
- is the condition that the woman does not have any mental illness,
+ state of physical, mental and social well-being in all cases related to the
reproductive system, throughout the life cycle.
? Reproductive health problems are primarily related to:
-inconsistency of requirements, incomplete information and unavailability of
services in the reproductive health system;
-spreading of dangerous forms of sexual behavior and sexually transmitted diseases;
-limitation of choice among girls and women in life;
+ all answers are correct
?Duties of a pregnant woman and her family members:
-pregnant woman should visit the institution for control;
- when changing the place of residence, one must register in the new place,
-A pregnant woman and her family members do not have the right to refuse medical
supervision ("Health Code of Tajikistan, Article 43.1").
+ everything is correct
? Antinatal control based on WHO recommendations includes:
-examination of pregnant women and children;
-events on nutrition;
-prophylactic, supportive measures for widespread physiological symptoms,
+ all answers are correct
?Most common in young children
-infectious form of allergy
+food allergy
-drug allergy
-inhalation allergy
?The manifestation of childhood eczema in children is caused by genetically
determined hyperproduction
-IgA
+IgE

-IgM
-There is no correct answer
?When treating childhood eczema, they will be used last.
-antihistamines
-sedatives
-enzymes and probiotics
+glucocorticoids
?Diathesis characterized by genetically determined disorders of a number of enzymes
involved in purine metabolism and accumulation of uric acid is called
-lymphatic-hypoplastic
+neuro-arthritic
-exudative-catarrhal
-There is no correct answer
?The cause of seizures in spasmophilia is
-hypophosphatemia
+hypocalcemia
-decreased phosphatase activity
-hypercalcemia
?The time of year when spasmophilia is more common is
+spring
-summer
-winter
-autumn
?Spasmophilia occurs
-in newborns
+in infants
-during puberty
-There is no correct answer
?A uniform, significant deficit in weight and height is called
-paratrophy
-malnutrition
+hypostatura
-There is no correct answer
?The subcutaneous fat layer is absent on the abdomen, chest, thinned on the limbs,
preserved on the face with malnutrition
-1st degree
+2 degrees
-3 degrees
-4 degrees
?The volume of nutrition for postnatal malnutrition of the second degree during the
period of determining food tolerance is
-2/3 of the norm
+1/2 normal
-1/3 of the norm
-1/4 of the norm
?The weight deficit in the third degree of postnatal hypotrophy is
-5-8%
-5-15%
-10-20%
+more than 30%
?With 2 degrees of malnutrition, the body weight deficit is
-10-15%
-16-20%
+21-30%
-31-40%
?Paratrophy includes conditions with
-weight deficiency of more than 10%
-excess weight from 5 to 10%
+excess weight from 10 to 20%
-excess weight and height of more than 10%
?Craniotabes is
-late closure of the large fontanel
+softening of the flat bones of the skull
-formation of frontal and parietal tubercles
-saddle nose
?Intrauterine hypotrophy is:
- malnutrition 1 degree
 + fetal malnutrition
- postnatal malnutrition
- paratrophy
?Body weight deficit of more than 30%, impaired thermoregulation, and a sharp lag
in neuropsychic development are typical for a child with:
- paratrophy
- 1st degree malnutrition
- stage II malnutrition
- III degree hypotrophy
?The main criterion for malnutrition is:
+underweight
-stunted growth
-delayed psychophysical development
-all of the above is correct
?The basic principle of treating malnutrition is:
-eliminating the cause
+diet therapy
-organization of daily routine
-all of the above is correct
?Calculation of proteins, fats and carbohydrates for stage I malnutrition is
carried out:
+to actual weight
-at the proper weight
-average body weight
-all of the above are correct
?Calculation of proteins, fats and carbohydrates for II degree malnutrition is
carried out:
+ proteins and carbohydrates – as expected, fats – as actual
-proteins, carbohydrates and fats - as needed
-proteins, fats and carbohydrates for actual
-all of the above are correct
?In case of malnutrition of the third degree in the first 5-7 days, the amount of
nutrition missing in volume is replenished:
+5% glucose solution
-juices
-tea
-all of the above are correct