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Waec Agric Obj Questions

The document provides free WAEC past questions for Agriculture, including objective questions for both SSCE and GCE. It offers additional paid resources that include answers and explanations, along with access to an online group for further learning. The document contains various questions covering topics such as farming practices, soil management, and crop production.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
201 views69 pages

Waec Agric Obj Questions

The document provides free WAEC past questions for Agriculture, including objective questions for both SSCE and GCE. It offers additional paid resources that include answers and explanations, along with access to an online group for further learning. The document contains various questions covering topics such as farming practices, soil management, and crop production.

Uploaded by

pradoxz55
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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WAEC

AGRIC. objective
Past questions
(PT. 1–7)

For both: SSCE & GCE

NOT FOR SALE


Our WAEC past questions are FREE for your download.

We only charge for our past questions with ANSWERS

& EXPLANATION and after getting it, you also join our

special online group for more WAEC questions and

weekly explanation from seasoned teacher(s).

Click on the link below.

www.examministry.com
WAEC AGRIC. OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (PT.1)

1. Commercial investment 4. The function of the seed-tube of


characterized by _____ a seed drill is to _____

A. use of machines A. transport seeds from the


B. small farm holdings metering device to the furrow
C. low capital investment opener
D. little research activity B. control the rate of placement of
seeds in the soil
2. The most common method of C. cover seeds placed in the soil
acquiring land in West Africa is by D. open the soil for seed placement
_____
5. The machine used for removing
A. mortgage seeds from maize cobs is called a
B. communal ownership _____
C. leasehold
D. inheritance A. mill
B. decorticator
3. The agricultural sector in West C. winnower
Africa is plagued with poverty D. sheller
because _____
6. The appropriate farm tool for
A. cooperative societies lifting tomato seedlings for
B. yields obtained per annum are transplanting is the _____
relatively low
C. farmers have access to credit A. dibber
facilities B. hoe
D. the weather is highly C. hand trowel
predictable D. hand fork
7. It is important to clean and A. rotational grazing
grease plough discs after use to B. monoculture
_____ C. crop rotation
D. mixed farming
A. prevent rusting
B. sharpen the discs 11. Which of the following is NOT
C. reduce friction an effect of over-grazing on soil?
D. reduce the lifespan
A. Improvement of soil structure
8. Wind can be beneficial to crop B. Soil compaction
production because it _____ C. Exposure of soil to erosion
D. Depletion of soil nutrients
A. aids weed seeds dispersal
B. aids pollination of crops 12. The major factor affecting
C. causes lodging of crops distribution of crops in West Africa
D. causes rapid drying of wet soils is _____

9. The method of of surface A. climate


irrigation widely used in rice fields B. soil
is _____ C. topography
D. disease
A. basin irrigation
B. wild flooding 13. Nutrient replenishment in soil
C. furrow irrigation can be enhanced by _____
D. border strip
A. crop removal
10. The practice of growing B. leaching
different crops in sequence on a C. erosion
piece of land is known as _____ D. crop rotation

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14. What is the function of A. Crop rotation and land rotation
nitrosomonas bacteria in the B. Shifting cultivation and land
nitrogen cycle? rotation
C. land rotation and mixed farming
A. Ammonification D. crop rotation and monoculture
B. Nitrification
C. Denitrification 18. Continuous soil tillage could
D. Nitrogen fixation lead to _____

15. A mass of decayed plant and A. increased infiltration of water


animal wastes processed in pits is B. reduced run-off
referred to as _____ C. breakdown of soil structure
D. improved soil texture
A. green manure
B. farmyard manure 19. A bag of fertilizer has a ratio of
C. compost manure 0:10:0 written on it. This means
D. inorganic manure that the fertilizer is a ____

16. A major disadvantage of A. lime fertilizer


monoculture is that _____ B. nitrogenous fertilizer
C. phosphate fertilizer
A. soil texture is destroyed D. potassium fertilizer
B. soil microbes are destroyed
C. diseases and pests build up 20. Theobroma cacao grows best
D. farms cannot be mechanized in the _____

17. Which of the following pairs of A. Sudan savannah zone


farming systems uses bush B. humid rain forest zone
fallowing? C. mangrove swamp forest zone

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D. northern guinea savannah zone 24. The offspring which will result
from a cross between
21. The following plants are forage heterozygous and homozygous
grasses except _____ dominant plants will be _____

A. Pennisetun purpureum A. 100% heterozygous


B. Panicum maximum B. 70% heterozygous
C. Axonopus compressus C. 50% heterozygous
D. Calopogonium mucunoides D. 20% heterozygous

22. Which of the following 25. Calculate the amount of maize


statements about budding is NOT seeds required by a farmer to
true? The resulting crops _____ cultivate 5 hectares of farmland at
the recommended seed rate of
A. can withstand adverse climatic 25kg/hectare.
conditions
B. flower and bear fruit early A. 50kg
C. develop broader leaves for B. 75kg
photosynthesis. C. 100kg
D. are more disease resistant. D. 125kg

23. A farm produce which does 26. Casual organisms of diseases


NOT require fermentation during in crop production do NOT include
processing is _____ _____

A. cocoa beans A. viruses


B. coffee beans B. bacteria
C. cassava tubers C. fungi
D. rice grains D. protozoa

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27. An example of fungal disease A. insect affected crops are
of stored grains is _____ uprooted and burnt
B. rodenticides are applied
A. mould C. nematicides are applied
B. streak D. fertilizers are applied before
C. mosaic planting
D. damping off
31. The average gestation period
28. Cultural control of crop in rabbits is _____
diseases involves the following
practices except _____ A. 21 days
B. 26 days
A. practicing crop rotation C. 31 days
B. planting disease resistant D. 36 days
varieties
C. using insecticides 32. The correct sequence of the
D. fallowing of farmland passage of feed though the
digestive system of a ruminant is
29. Weeds which produce large _____
hollow seeds would most likely be
dispersed by _____ A. reticulum omasum abomasums
rumen
A. wind B. rumen omasum abomasums
B. water reticulum
C. insect C. omasum abomasums rumen
D. explosion reticulum
D. rumen reticulum omasum
30. Control of maize stem borer is abomasums
most effective when _____

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33. The main objective of flushing B. vitamin E
in animal production is to _____ C. vitamin B
D. vitamin A
A. promote muscle development
B. make parturition easier 37. The common name for
C. promote multiple births Andropogon gayanus is _____
D. make the animal lose weight
A. Elephant grass
34. Pigs wallow in muddy pools of B. Northern gamba grass
water primarily to _____ C. Guinea grass
D. Giant star grass
A. ensure adequate exercise
B. obtain forage materials 38. A footbath on a poultry farm
C. dislodge ectoparasites from contains _____
their body
D. lower their body temperature A. herbicides
B. antiseptics
35. Fowls are debeaked in order to C. antibiotics
_____ D. disinfectants

A. reduce feed intake 39. Ectoparasites of cattle do NOT


B. make them grow faster include _____
C. reduce cannibalism
D. check spread of diseases. A. fleas and mites
36. A chicken that pecks at palm B. ticks and mites
fruits could prevent a deficiency of C. lice and termites
_____ D. fleas and ticks

A. vitamin K

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Use the information below to 42. Which of the following factors
answer questions 40 and 41. affect the supply of agricultural
produce?
The following symptoms were
observed in a bull: I. Improvement in
technology
I. watery discharge from eyes and II. Increase in rainfall
nostrils; II. sores in the mouth III. Decrease in temperature
and nostrils; III. excessive saliva IV. Input cost.
with offensive odour; IV. severe
diarrhoea with blood stained A. I and II only
faeces. B. I and III only
C. I. II and III only
40. What disease is the bull D. I, II, III and IV
suffering from?
43. In agricultural production,
A. Foot and mouth farm gate price is mostly enjoyed
B. Brucellosis by _____
C. Tuberculosis
D. Rinderpest A. middlemen.
B. producers.
41. Which of the following C. commodity boards.
measures would best control the D. cooperative societies.
disease?
44. Dissemination of new ideas by
A. Deworming animals agricultural extension workers can
B. Vaccinating animals be effective if they _____
C. Treating animals with antibiotics
D. Dipping animals

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A. work with existing local 47. In hook and line fishing, the
organisations and leaders. bait is fixed onto the _____
B. supply farmers with needed
inputs. A. float.
C. give financial support to B. hook.
farmers. C. line.
D. are politically active. D. pole.

45. Which of the following are 48. Water in a fish pond is made
mass methods of extension? suitable for fish by _____

A. Telephone calls and informal A. fertilization.


contacts B. liming.
B. Letters and newspapers C. manuring.
C. Home visits and demonstrations D. silting.
D. Radio and posters
49. Forest regulations are
46. Calculate the annual formulated in order to encourage
depreciation of a farm machinery _____
with a total depreciation of
D63,000 and a useful life of 5 A. deforestation.
years. B. afforestation.
C. bush burning.
A. D6,300,00 D. taungya farming.
B. D9,450,00
C. D12,600.00 50. Ornamental crops are used for
D. D18,900.00 the following purposes except
_____

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A. landscaping.
B. interior decoration.
C. as symbols of love.
D. as fodder.

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practice group online?

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WAEC AGRIC. OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (PT.2)

1. Which of the animal product is A. Dryer


used in the production of buttons? B. Sheller
C. Mower
A. Skin D. Mistblower
B. Fur
C. Bone 5. A periodic maintenance activity
D. horn carried out on the farm tractor is
_____
2. Subsistence farmers mostly
practice _____ A. Checking of radiator water
B. Checking of tyre pressure
A. Monoculture C. Changing of engine oil
B. Monocropping D. cleaning after use
C. Mixed cropping
D. Crop rotation 6. Farm mechanization does NOT
_____
3. A piece of land is said to be on
lease to a farmer when it is _____ A. Involve the use of motorized
equipment
A. Given as compensation B. Require much capital
B. Purchased on credit C. Promote employment
C. Rented for a period D. Involve the use of heavy
D. Given as a gift machinery

4. Which of the following 7. Which of the following sources


equipment is a farm implement? of farm power is most versatile in
West Africa?

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A. Biogas A. Constructing road
B. Animal B. Building houses
C. Wind C. Building factories
D. Water D. Building religious houses.

8. Farm surveying equipment 11. Organisms which may be


include the following except beneficial to crop include _____
_____
A. Nematodes
A. Abney level B. Bacteria
B. Compass C. Viruses
C. Gunter's chain D. Protozoa
D. Spade
12. Which of the following rocks is
9. The system in which a farmer sedimentary?
uses a piece of land for a period
and abandons it for another land is A. Limestone
called _____ B. Gabbro
C. Granite
A. Crop rotation D. Marble
B. Mixed cropping
C. Shifting cultivation 13. Soil profile is important in
D. Ley farming agriculture because it _____

10. A socio-cultural factor A. Determines the soil catena


affecting land availability for B. Determines the type of the land
agriculture include use of land for tenure system
_____ C. Gives indication of the types of
crops to grow

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D. Promotes the weathering of
rocks 17. If a farmer continuously
applies sulphate of ammonia to his
14. What is the percentage water farmland for many years, the
content of soil sample which resultant soil solution is most likely
weighed 180g when fresh and to _____
120g when oven-dried?
A. Leave blue litmus paper
A. 20.14% unchanged
B 25.00% B. Change blue litmus paper to red
C. 33.33% C. Change red litmus paper to blue
D. 60.00% D. Be rich in soil microbes

15. A soil sample with a pH of 4.5 18. Application of water to the


is said to be _____ subsoil through perforated pipes is
known as _____
A. Acidic
B. Alkaline A. Flooding irrigation
C. Neutral B. Subsurface irrigation
D. Fertile C. Sprinkler irrigation
D. Overhead irrigation
16. The property of soil which
cannot easily be change by a famer 19. Which of the following
is the _____ statements describe the impact of
land degradation?
A. Porosity
B. Structure I. Increased availability of
C. Texture fuel wood.
D. Acidity

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II. Reduction in livestock stand, what will be the population
production. of maize plants on a hectare of
III. Decrease in agricultural farmland?
productivity.
IV. Pollution of water bodies. A. 74,074
B. 54,000
A. I, II and III only C. 37,037
B. I, III and IV only D. 27,000
C. II, III and IV only
D. I, II, III and IV 23. The following crops require
shade trees at the seedling stage
20. Tobacco belongs to the group except _____
of crops called _____
A. Theobroma cacao
A. Fibres B. Coffea spp
B. Beverages C. Elaeis guineensis
C. Stimulants D. Oryza sativa
D. Cereals
24. Crop which are primarily
21. Maize is a popular crop in West grown to provide food for farm
Africa because it _____ animals are _____

A. Is a cereal A. Legumes
B. Has multiple uses B. Weeds
C. Is of high nutritional value C. Forages
D. Was introduced from Europe D. Grasses

22. If the spacing of maize is 0.9m 25. Crop selection is


by 0.3m and one seed is sown per advantageous because _____

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A. Seeds are collected from stands B. Mandibles
with desirable traits C. Labrums
B. Expertise is required in carrying D. Proboscis
out the process
C. The breeder's patience is being 29. Callosobruchus maculatus is a
tasked common pest of _____
D. The process is time consuming
A. Sorghum
26. A fungus known as B. Rice
phytophthora palmivora is C. Maize
responsible for _____ D. Cowpea

A. Panama disease of banana 30. The use of pathogens to


B. Bick-arm disease of kola control dodder weeds is a _____
C. Black disease of cocoa
D. Blossom-end rot of tomato A. Physical method
B. Mechanical method
27. Viral disease of crops can best C. Biological method
be controlled through _____ D. Cultural method

A. Vector control 31. The digestive function of the


B. Planting resistant varieties rumen in ruminant nutrition is
C. Spraying insecticides enhanced by the _____
D. Sterilizing farm equipment
A. Absorption of water
28. Piercing and sucking insect B. Presence of micro-organisms
pests possess _____ C. Absorption of food nutrients
D. Retention of unwanted foreign
A. Maxillae materials

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32. The duration of the oestrus A. Calving
cycle of sow is _____ B. Lambing
C. Farrowing
A. 14-28 days D. Kindling
B. 6-10 days
C. 3-5 days 36. The extra oyster shell meal
D. 1-2 days supplied to breeding hens _____

33. Natural immunity to diseases A. Prevents excess abdominal fat


in calves is acquired through B. Prevents anaemia
access to _____ C. Aids in hardening egg shells
D. Shortens the incubation period
A. Vaccine of eggs
B. Colostrum
C. Balanced diet 37. Iron is important in the diet of
D. Salt licks livestock for _____

34. If a sow conceived on the 5th A. Teeth formation


of June in particular year, it will B. Feather production
probably farrow the same year on C. Hair formation
_____ D. Blood production

A. 8th August 38. Established pasture cannot be


B. 18th September harvested by _____
C. 28 September
D. 28th October A. Using the mower
B. Zero grazing
35. The act of parturition in rabbit C. Using combine harvester
is known as _____ D. Cutting with sickle

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39. The mating of a white Fulani 42. The demand for cassava is not
bull and an N'dama cow could be affected by _____
termed _____
A. Cost of production
A. Inbreeding B. Taste of consumers
B. Line breeding C. Change in income
C. Outbreeding D. Price of cassava
D. Cross breeding
43. A farmer obtained a loan of
40. Which of the following ₦250,000 at a simple interest rate
organisms is NOT an of 8% per annum to be paid in two
endoparasite? years what would be the interest
the farmer will pay on the loan?
A. Roundworm
B. Liverfluke A. ₦20,000
C. Tick B. ₦40,000
D. Cestode C. ₦250,000
D. ₦400,000
41. Which of the following
compounds can be used to seal soil A farmer bought a farm implement
pores and prevent loss of water in for 12,500 in 2007. At the end of
a fish pond? the fourth year he sold it for
₦4,300. Use information to
A. Sulphur (IV) oxide answer questions 44-45.
B. Ammonium sulphate
C. Calcium carbonate 44. Calculate the total
D. Potassium hydroxide depreciation of the implement.

A. ₦16,800

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B. ₦8,200 48. The effect of fertilizing a fish
C. ₦3,125 pond with compost manure on
D. ₦1,075 phytoplankton population and fish
yield is such that _____
45. The annual depreciation of the
implement is _____ A. Phytoplankton population
decreases as fish yield decreases
A. ₦4,300 B. Phytoplankton population
B. ₦3,125 decreases while fish yield
C. ₦2,050 increases
D. ₦1075 C. Phytoplankton population
increases while fish yield
46. Which of the following decreases
methods is inappropriate when D. Phytoplankton population
introducing a new variety of rice to increases as a fish yield increases
farmers?
49. Which of the following
A. Farmers' cooperative society developments could result from
B. Circular letters deforestation?
C. Demonstrations
D. Field trips A. Increase in soil erosion
B. Increase in soil pH
47. The term fingerling refers to a C. Decrease in soil temperature
young _____ D. Decrease in soil Porosity

A. Rabbit 50. Sexual propagation involves


B. Fish the use of _____
C. Goat A. Bulbs
D. Turkey B. Seeds

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C. Cuttings
D. Vines.

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WAEC AGRIC. OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (PT.3)

1. Which of the following (c) certificate of occupancy


suggestion would solve (d) receipt of lease
transportation problems
associated with agriculture? The diagram below shows
parts of a plough. Study it and
(a) Establishment of tractor hiring answer question 4-7
units
(b) efficient railway system
(c) establishment of car hire units
(d) provision of extension services

2. Which of the following


statements is NOT correct about
agriculture in most West African
countries? 4. The part labelled I in the
diagram is the _____
(a) employment
(b) fuel (a) hitch
(c) food (b) handle
(d) income (c) plough share
(d) mould board
3. The document given to a farmer
on acquiring a piece of land from 5. The part labelled II is the ____
government is certificate called
_____ (a) wheel
(b) plough share
(a) Certificate of purchase (c) handle
(b) receipt of ownership (d) mouldboard

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6. Which of the following functions 9. Crop rotation is often used in
is not associated with the part maintaining soil fertility because
labelled I? _____

(a) Inverting of furrow slice (a) all crops grown, add nutrient to
(b) Cutting through soil the soil
(c) Pulverizing of the slice in some (b) some of the crops fix nitrogen
ploughs in the soil
(d) Enabling the plough to roll over (c) crops grown are ploughed into
obstacles the soil
(d) the crops are rotated on
7. The function of the part labelled different farmlands
II is that it _____
10. Land is said to be a fixed asset
(a) makes vertical cuts in Agriculture. This means that
(b) makes horizontal cuts _____
(c) inverts the furrow slice
(d) removes mud that clings to the (a) its features and topography are
disc fixed
(b) soil nutrients and its vegetative
8. The surveying instrument used cover can be replaced.
for measuring horizontal and (c) its size remains fixed over time
vertical angles is called _____ (d) its micro organic composition is
constant over time
(a) theodolite
(b) Gunter's chain 11. The most limiting factor
(c) offset staff affecting land availability for
(d) arrow agriculture in urban settlements is
_____

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(a) soil type (a) carbonation
(b) topography (b) hydration
(c) climate (c) solution
(d) population pressure (d) oxidation

12. Rhizobium supplies nitrogen to 15. Which of the following


leguminous plants by _____ statement is a disadvantage of
decaying organic matter in soils?
(a) incorporating urea into their
bodies (a) Bacterial and fungal growth is
(b) fixing atmospheric nitrogen enhanced
into the soil (b) minerals in organic matter are
(c) decomposing plant and animals released into the soil
remains (c) physical condition of soil is
(d) decreasing the pH value of the enhanced
soil (d) Water-holding capacity of soil
is improved
13. An example of igneous rock is
_____ 16. Lost soil nutrients can be
replenished by the following
(a) granite methods except _____
(b) limestone
(c) coal (a) organic manuring
(d) sandstone (b) fertilizer application
(c) continuous grazing
14. In chemical weathering of (d) cover cropping
rocks, the equation Fe2O + 3H2O
Fe2O3.3H2O represents _____

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17. In the carbon cycle, carbon (d) High soil fertility and
dioxide in the air may be productivity
replenished by _____
20. The process of removing
(a) respiration excess maize seedlings from a
(b) transpiration stand is known as _____
(c) lighting
(d) denitrification (a) pruning
(b) supplying
18. Irrigation can be described as (c) thinning
the _____ (d) weeding

(a) reduction of soil water Study the diagram below and


(b) spraying of minerals on plants answer question 21 and 22.
(c) application of dissolved
fertilizers to the soil 21. The farm tool associated with
(d) application of water to the soil the diagram above is _____

19. Which of the following (a) knife


conditions is a characteristic of a (b) secateurs
poorly drained soil? (c) shears
(d) cutlass
(a) presence of a large number of
termites 22. The crop associated with the
(b) Presence of high amount of diagram above is _____
humus
(c) Decrease in the activities of (a) Theobroma cacao
microorganisms (b) Zingiber officinale
(c) Hevea brasiliensis

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(d) Gossypium hirsutum 26. Pure lines of crops are
produced through continuous ___
23. Which of the following crops
requires shade at the early stage (a) selection
of is growth? (b) hybridization
(c) cross breeding
(a) Plantain (d) inbreeding
(b) Banana
(c) Cocoa 27. Quarantine regulations are
(d) Sugarcane established so as to _____

24. Which of the following plants is (a) allow the importation of


not a leguminous forage? diseased plant and animal
materials
(a) Centrosema Pubescens (b) prevent the introduction of
(b) Panicum maximum foreign diseases into a country
(c) Stylosanthes gracilis (c) assist farmers to grow foreign
(d) Calopogonium mucunoides crops
(d) facilitates the rapid spread of
25. The process of crossing two foreign diseases
pure lines of plants of the same
species is called _____ 28. The most effective method of
controlling viral diseases in crops is
(a) selection by _____
(b) genotype improvement
(c) hybridization (a) spraying with Bordeaux
(d) inbreeding mixture
(b) removing and burning affected
crops

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(c) practicing crop rotation (d) preventing bush burning
(d) planting at recommended
spacing 32. The continuous removal of
forest tress without replacement is
29. Which of the following insects known as _____
transmits swollen shoot virus of
Cocoa? (a) afforestation
(b) taungya farming
(a) Stem borer (c) deforestation
(b) Mealybug (d) selective exploitation
(c) White fly
(d) Capsid 33. A farm animal which possesses
a pair of caeca is ____
30. The use of parasites and
predators to control weeds is (a) pig
referred to as _____ (b) fowl
(c) sheep
(a) biological control (d) cattle
(b) chemical control
(c) cultural control 34. Oestrogen in female animals is
(d) mechanical control NOT responsible for _____

31. Forest resources can be (a) development of secondary


managed by the following sexual characteristics
measures except _____ (b) onset of heat period
(c) milk let-down after parturition
(a) taungya farming (d) development of udder
(b) selective exploitation
(c) promoting deforestation

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35. A beef cow gained 75kg over a 38. Which of the following animal
period of two months and two diseases is NOT associated with
days. What is its average weight malnutrition?
gain?
(a) Aspergillosis
(a) 0.83 kg (b) Acidosis
(b) 1.21 kg (c) Milk fever
(c) 1.28 kg (d) Rickets
(d) 2.25 kg
39. The botanical name of
36. A disadvantage of natural Northern gamba grass is _____
incubation is that _____
(a) Cynodon dactylon
(a) the eggs cannot be candled (b) Panicum maximum
(b) the chicks are less healthy (c) Pennisetum purpureum
(c) the brooding hens sometimes (d) Andropogon gayanus
abandon the eggs.
(d) it takes a longer time for eggs 40. The cut and carry system of
to hatch feeding livestock is termed _____

37. Ruminants fed on dried (a) rotational grazing


grasses are given feed (b) zero grazing
supplements to _____ (c) mixed grazing
(d) controlled grazing
(a) increase water intake
(b) activity provide bulk to feed 41. Progeny selection involves
(c) reduce microbial selection of breeding stock on the
(d) provide deficient nutrients basis of _____

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(a) feed conservation of offspring (b) processing fish
efficiency of the parents (c) harvesting fish
(b) merits of each animal (d) feeding fish
(c) merits of the dam only
(d) performance of offspring 45. Methods of preserving fish
including the following except
42. The cattle disease which is _____
likely to be most common in the
forest belt of West Africa is _____ (a) drying
(b) smoking
(a) foot and mouth (c) salting
(b) trypanosomiasis (d) soaking
(c) anthrax
(d) tuberculosis 46. Determine the price elasticity
of demand if the price of yam tuber
43. Ecto-parasites can be rises by 10% (0.1) and the
controlled by _____ quantity demanded falls by 5%
(0.05).
(a) administering antibodies to
host (a) 0.5
(b) administering antibiotics to (b) 0.4
host (c) 0.3
(c) dipping of host (d) 0.1
(d) deworming of host
47. Most farm business fail
44. Cropping in fish farming is the because of _____
act of _____
(a) death of the manager
(a) stocking fish (b) lack of capital

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(c) labour problems GET YOUR ANSWERS
(d) poor management
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48. Which of the following answers to these questions & also
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function? practice group online?

(a) Buying of agricultural To Get & Join NOW!


commodities
(b) planting of crops
(c) transporting of farm produce
farm produce
(d) Storage of farm produce

49. Risks on commercial farms


could result from _____

(a) price stability


(b) diversification
(c) crop failure
(d) insurance

50. An agricultural extension


officer should be able to _____

(a) create new jobs for farmers


(b) raise funds for farmers
(c) cultivate a large farm
(d) guide and educate farmers

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WAEC AGRIC. OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (PT.4)

1. The branch of agriculture which (b) family members have right to


deals with the production of fruits free use of land
is called _____ (c) Non-family members cannot
inherit land
(a) pomology (d) Farm mechanization is
(b) floriculture restricted
(c) olericulture
(d) nematology 4. A farmland measures 50m x
50m. Determine its area in
2. One advantage of cooperative hectares
farming is that it _____
(a) 25 ha
(a) allows farmers to have small (b) 2.5 ha
and scattered plots (c) 0.25 ha
(b) enables individual farmers to (d) 0.025ha
acquire loans from the banks
(c) enables farmers to acquire Study the illustration of farm
loans from the banks implements below and use it to
(d) facilitates the use of local tools answer questions 5-8.

3. Which of the following


statements is NOT a problem
associated with land tenure
system through inheritance?

5. The part of the implement


(a) family members have small
labelled I is called _____
land holdings

(a) disc
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(b) beam (c) III
(c) disc scraper (d) IV
(d) plough share
9. A farming system in which
6. The part of the implements different types of crops are grown
which makes horizontal cuts into in succession, in a definite order on
the soil and uproots weeds is the same piece of land is termed
labelled as _____ _____

(a) I (a) mixed farming


(b) II (b) land rotation
(c) III (c) continuous cropping
(d) IV (d) crop rotation

7. The function of the part labelled 10. Land use for agriculture in
II is to _____ West Africa is influenced by the
following factors except _____
(a) make horizontal cuts into the
soil (a) population density
(b) make vertical cuts into the soil (b) topography
(c) roll over obstacles (c) fallowing
(d) remove soil from the disc (d) climatic conditions

8. Which of the labelled parts 11. A social factor which affects


provides balance to the land availability and use is _____
implements?
(a) temperature
(a) I (b) soil pH
(b) II (c) light intensity and duration

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(d) culture of the people 15. Which of the following
statements is NOT correct about
12. The followings are climatic soil texture?
factors affecting agricultural
production except _____ (a) Soils with fine particles have
higher water holding capacity than
(a) rainfall coarse soils
(b) relative humidity (b) Fine-textured soils are warm
(c) temperature soils and coarse-textured soils are
(d) topography cool soils
(c) The effect of leaching in coarse-
13. Predators are used by farmers textured soils is greater than that
to _____ in fine-textured soils
(d) Fine-textured soils have higher
(a) control pests nutrient holding capacity than
(b) induce flowering in plants coarse-textured soils
(c) protect the soil
(d) hasten fruit ripening 16. Inhibition of root and fruit
formation are deficiency
14. Which of the following agents symptoms of _____
is not associated with chemical
weathering? (a) iron
(b) nitrogen
(a) oxidation (c) chlorine
(b) pressure (d) phosphorus
(c) hydrolysis
(d) carbonation 17. In the carbon cycle, carbon
dioxide is used by crops for _____
(a) photosynthesis

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(b) transpiration 20. The crop roots illustrated
(c) decomposition above are that of a _____
(d) respiration
(a) legume
18. Flood irrigation is used for the (b) cereal
cultivation of _____ (c) tuber
(d) spice
(a) water melon
(b) swamp rice 21. If rows of crops are spaced
(c) oil palm 1.0m apart with one seed sown per
(d) coconut stand, determine the spacing
between stands to obtain a plant
19. The presence of excess water population of 40,000 plants per
in the colloids of soil particles is hectare.
known as _____
(a) 0.25 m
(a) drainage (b) 0.45 m
(b) waterlogging (c) 0.50 m
(c) irrigation (d) 1.00 m
(d) leaching
22. The correct sequence of pre-
Study the illustration below planting operations is _____
and answer question 20.
(a) clearing → stumping →
ploughing → harrowing
(b) stumping → ploughing →
harrowing → clearing
(c) bulldozing → harrowing →
stumping → ploughing

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(d) clearing → bulldozing → (d) hybridization
stumping → harrowing
26. A raw material that could be
23. Heat treatment of oil palm obtained from the forest is _____
seeds before sowing helps to
_____ (a) margarine
(b) honey
(a) mobilize nutrients for the (c) mutton
embryo (d) butter
(b) harden the mesocarp
(c) break embryo dormancy 27. Which of the following
(d) improve disease resistance methods of plant propagation is
limited to plants which root easily?
24. Imported plants are expected
to be _____ (a) Grafting and cutting
(b) Layering and cutting
(a) vaccinated (c) Budding and layering
(b) improved upon (d) Grafting and layering
(c) treated
(d) quarantined 28. Which of the following
practices is NOT a way of
25. A breeding method which maintaining ornamental plants?
involves the production of
heterozygous populations from (a) Pruning
homozygous lines is _____ (b) Weeding
(c) Watering
(a) inbreeding (d) Harvesting
(b) introduction
(c) selection

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29. Which of the following pairs of (b) Mowing
diseases attack coffee? (c) Application of herbicides
(d) Mulching
(a) Mosaic and smut
(b) Smut and midge The diagram below illustrates
(c) Rust and mosaic the digestive tract of a farm
(d) Rust and leaf spot animal. Study it and use it to
answer questions 33-35.
30. Insect-pests of crops could be
controlled by _____

(a) cover cropping


(b) mulching
(c) crop rotation
(d) organic manuring

33. The farm animal associated


31. Which of the following insect-
with the digestive tract illustrated
pests does not attack cotton?
above is _____

(a) Aphid
(a) turkey
(b) Cotton stainer
(b) cattle
(c) Weevil
(c) pig
(d) Pink bollworm
(d) goat.

32. Which of the following


34. Digestion of protein starts in
practices is an example of a
the part labelled _____
cultural weed control method?

(a) I
(a) Use of insects
(b) II
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(c) III 37. Which of the following
(d) IV equipment could be used in place
of the equipment labelled II in the
35. Which of the following management of chicks?
enzymes is not secreted by the
part labelled III? (a) Incubator
(b) feeder
(a) Pepsin (c) Electric bulb
(b) Amylase (d) Egg candier
(c) Lipase
(d) Trypsin 38. Which quality of eggs is
associated with the equipment
Study the illustrated poultry labelled I?
equipment and use them to
answer question 36-38. (a) Size
(b) Fertility
(c) Colour
(d) Price

Study the illustration below


and answer question 39.

36. Which of the illustrated


equipment is not used in a brooder
house?

(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV

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39. What is the name given to the 42. The practice of mating closely
identification method illustrated related animals is called _____
above?
(a) cross breeding
(a) Tagging (b) hybridization
(b) Neck chaining (c) in-breeding
(c) Ear notching (d) out-breeding
(d) Branding
Study the farm animal parasite
40. A farmer collects 800 eggs illustrated below and answer
from a laying stock of 1,200 birds questions 43-44
per day. Determine the laying
percentage of the stock.

(a) 150%
(b) 67%
(c) 50%
(d) 33%

41. By-products of livestock used


as feed ingredients in poultry
ration include _____
43. The parts labelled I, II and III
form the _____
(a) hides and hoofs
(b) blood and bones
(a) proglottide
(c) feathers and fur
(b) rostellum
(d) skin and bones
(c) sucker
(d) scolex

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44. The parasite illustrated in the 47. Subsidies are given to farmers
diagram above obtains nutrients in the form of _____
from the host through _____
(a) reduced prices of inputs
(a) osmosis (b) provision of social
(b) diffusion infrastructure
(b) capillarity (c) high tariff on imported inputs
(c) egestion (d) short term loans

45. In fish farming, clarias is Use the table below to answer


introduced to a pond stocked with question 48.
Tilapia in order to _____
Demand and Supply Schedule for
Mangoes
(a) regulate the population for Price of fruits Supply (No. Demand (No.
(Le) of baskets) of baskets)
Tilapia
1,000.00 10 60
(b) compete with Tilapia for feed 2,000.00 20 50
(c) check pests in the pond water 3,000.00 30 40
4,000.00 40 30
(d) regulate the turbidity of the
5,000.00 50 20
pond water
6,000.00 60 10

46. The demand for agricultural


48. At a unit price of Le 1,000.00,
produce is generally _____
what will be the excess demand
over supply of mangoes?
(a) infinite
(b) inelastic
(a) 50 baskets
(c) unitary
(b) 40 baskets
(d) static
(c) 20 baskets
(d) 10 baskets

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49. Which of the following agents
is NOT involved in agricultural
marketing?

(a) Commodity boards


(b) money lenders
(c) Retailers
(d) Middlemen

50. Agricultural extension


teaching methods are classified on
the basis of _____

(a) teaching materials


(b) topics to be taught
(c) attitude
(d) audience size

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answers to these questions & also
join our special WAEC Agric.
practice group online?

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WAEC AGRIC. OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (PT.5)

1. Which of the following problem The diagram below illustrates a


does not cause wastage of farm farm equipment. Study it and
produce? answer questions 4-5.

(a) Use of crude farm fools


(b) Poor transportation network
(c) Inadequate processing facilities
(d) Inadequate storage facilities

2. Which of the following


statements is not a reason for
providing tractor-hiring services to
farmers? To _____
4. The equipment is used for ___

(a) encourage farm mechanization


(a) watering
(b) increase the area of land to be
(b) pruning
cultivated
(c) fertigation
(c) increase the cost of production
(d) mulching
(d) boost food production

5. The part of the equipment


3. The land tenure system which
labeled I is used to _____
involves the outright purchase of
land is _____
(a) control pressure
(b) store liquid
(a) leasehold
(c) prevent leakages
(b) communal
(d) reduce liquid to droplets
(c) freehold
(d) inheritance.

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6. Which of the following 9. The practice of growing arable
statement is NOT a tractor-coupled and forage crops alternately on a
implement? piece of land is called _____

(a) plough (a) ley farming


(b) sheller (b) mixed farming
(c) ridger (c) alley farming
(d) harrow (d) pastoral farming

7. Which of the following 10. Which of the following groups


statements is NOT true of electrical of raw materials are used in
power? It _____ textiles industries?

(a) can be generated from solar (a) Guinea corn, wheat and kenaf
energy (b) Cotton, jute and wool
(b) is the cleanest source of farm (c) coffee, cotton and cocoa
power (d) wool, palm kernel and maize
(c) can perform work on its own
(d) is capital intensive 11. Which of the following is an
example of igneous rock?
8. The survey equipment used for
measuring angular distance is (a) Basalt
_____ (b) Dolomite
(c) Limestone
(a) offset staff (d) Marble
(b) measuring tape
(c) ranging pole 12. The chemical composition of
(d) prismatic compass soil is mostly influenced by _____

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(a) climate (c) examine the structure of soil
(b) time (d) determine soil acidity
(c) topography
(d) parent material 15. The purpose of the part
labelled I in the experiment is to
13. The structure of loam could be _____
described as _____
(a) allow proper aggregation of soil
(a) single-grained particles
(b) blocky (b) allow even evaporation of
(c) crumby water
(d) platy (c) prevent water from escaping
(d) distribute water around the soil
Study the diagram below and
answer questions 14 and 15. 16. A beneficial effect of bush
burning on the soil is the _____

(a) reduction of soil microbial


activities
(b) exposure of soil surface to
erosion
(c) destruction of weed seeds
(d) destruction of soil organic
matter
14. The aim of the experiment
illustrated in the diagram is to
17. Which of the following
_____
practices does NOT replenish lost
soil nutrients?
(a) determine soil texture
(b) ascertain water content of soil
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(a) Crop rotation 20. Which of the following crops is
(b) Fallowing usually classified as a vegetable?
(c) Liming
(d) Bush burning (a) Lycopersicon esculentum
(b) Ananas sativa
18. The use of inorganic fertilizer (c) Hevea brasiliensis
is preferable to organic manure (d) Theobroma cacao
because inorganic fertilizer _____
21. A groundnut variety produces
(a) improves soil structure a steady seed yield of 350kg per
(b) releases nutrients to the soil hectare. What will be the yield of
faster the variety on a 10-hectare farm?
(c) reduces leaching of soil
nutrients (a) 35kg
(d) improves soil water holding (b) 350kg
capacity (c) 3.500kg
(d) 7,000kg
19. Which of the following
statement describes an advantage 22. Thinning is a farm operation in
of underground drainage? It _____ which _____

(a) allows for free movement of (a) empty spaces where seeds did
farm machinery not germinate are replanted
(b) checks the growth of weeds (b) the number of seedlings per
(c) improves soil texture stand is reduced to one or two
(d) increases organic matter (c) fertilizers and manures are
content of soil applied to crops
(d) Effort is made to control pests

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23. Which of the following plants is (a) 100%
NOT a pasture grass? (b) 75%
(c) 50%
(a) Pennisetum purpureum (d) 25%
(b) Axonopus compressus
(c) Stylosanthes gracilis 26. Ornamental plants are
(d) Panicum maximum commonly used for purposes
except _____
24. One advantage of cross
breeding is that the _____ (a) for exterior decorations
(b) as sources of perfumes
(a) offspring resemble the (c) provision of shade
recessive parent (d) as bedding materials for
(b) yield of the offspring may not animals
be comparable to those of the
parents 27. Hibiscus and Croton are
(c) offspring perform better than examples of _____
the average of the parents
(d) offspring cannot survive (a) ground covers
adverse environmental (b) hedge plants
(c) lawn plants
25. Assuming that brown colour is (d) avenue trees
dominant over black colour in
cowpea. What percentage of the 28. A disadvantage of vegetative
F1 generation will have brown propagation is that _____
colour, if a homozygous brown
cowpea is crossed with a (a) plants are true to type
homozygous black cowpea? (b) fruits are small in size

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(c) plants take a long time to
mature
(d) diseases are easily transferred
to offspring

29. An effective method of


preventing viral diseases in crops
is by _____

31. The pest illustrated is a _____


(a) treating the seeds with
fungicides (a) boring insect pest
(b) practicing crop rotation (b) chewing insect pest
(c) regular spraying of crops (c) sucking insect pest
(d) planting resistant varieties (d) piercing insect pest

30. A groundnut plant showing 32. A cultural method used in


stunted growth with yellow or controlling the pest illustrated is
mottled leaves is likely to be _____
infected with _____

(a) spraying with insecticides


(a) blight (b) hand pulling of weeds
(b) tikka (c) fumigation of store
(c) rosette (d) early planting
(d) anthracnose

The diagram below illustrates


The diagram below illustrates a the digestive tract of a farm
crop pest. Study it and answer animal. Study it and answer
questions 31 and 32 questions 33 and 34.

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33. Deamination is a function of 35. Fertilization takes place in the
the part labelled _____ part labelled _____

(a) I (a) I
(b) II (b) II
(c) III (c) III
(d) IV (d) IV

34. Digestion of protein starts in 36. Chalaza is formed in the part


the part labelled _____ labelled _____

(a) I (a) I
(b) II (b) II
(c) III (c) III
(d) IV (d) IV

Study the diagram below and 37. A farmer observed that all his
answer questions 35 and 36. day-old chicks clustered around
the source of heat in a brooder

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house. This observation is likely
due to _____

(a) manifestation of a disease


outbreak
(b) thirst because of inadequate
water
(c) poor nutrition
39. The animal by-product
(d) low temperature
illustrated may be prepared and
fed to farm animals as a source of
38. Which of the following
_____
practices ensures that a young
animal has resistance against
(a) sodium
diseases?
(b) iron
(c) calcium
(a) Regular visits of the veterinary
(d) nitrogen
doctors
(b) Giving the animal a
40. The animal by-product
maintenance ration
illustrated is not used in making
(c) regular dipping of animal
_____
(d) giving the animal access to
colostrums
(a) fertilizer
(b) bone meal
Study the diagram below and
(c) button
answer questions 39 and 40.
(d) leather

41. Vitamin K deficiency in farm


animals causes _____

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(a) night blindness (d) Tuberculosis
(b) sterility in both sexes
(c) delayed blood clothing 45. Bees are regarded as friends
(d) delayed ovulation of the farmer because they _____

42. Which of the following (a) usually sting the farmer


methods is not used in collecting (b) are harmless insects
semen for artificial insemination? (c) help in pollination
(d) produce nectar for human use
(a) Massage method
(b) Use of artificial vagina Use the demand schedule
(c) herd mating of the animals below to answer questions 46-
(d) Electro-ejaculation method 48.

43. Complete eradication of tsetse Price (₦) Quantity Demanded


(kg)
flies will be an effective control
12 200
measure for _____
8 240

(a) aspergillosis 46. What is the percentage change


(b) trypanosomiasis in quantity demanded?
(c) fowl pox
(d) swine fever (a) 16.67%
(b) 20.00%
44. Which of the following (c) 40.00%
diseases is caused by a virus? (d) 83.33%

(a) Brucellosis 47. What is the percentage change


(b) Trypanosomiasis in price?
(c) Rinderpest

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(a) 33.33% (c) electronic media
(b) 40.00% (d) field trip
(c) 50.00%
(d) 66.67% GET YOUR ANSWERS

48. What is the price elasticity of Would you like to get the correct
demand of the commodity? answers to these questions & also
join our special WAEC Agric.
(a) 0.3 practice group online?
(b) 0.4
(c) 0.5 To Get & Join NOW!
(d) 0.6

49. Which of the following farm


documents is usually prepared at
the end of the year?

(a) Farm budget


(b) labour record
(c) farm inventory
(d) profit and loss account

50. Which of the following


agricultural extension methods is
aimed at reaching an individual
farmer at a particular time?

(a) Film show


(b) farm visit

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WAEC AGRIC. OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (PT.6)

1. Which of the following A. encourages use of land for


statements best describes permanent projects by individuals.
commercial farming? B. makes land cheap to acquire.
C. leads to fragmentation.
A. Production of plants and D. does not promote farm
animals for family consumption mechanization.
B. Large scale agricultural
production for sale 4. Which of the following
C. Large scale agricultural implements is used for primary
production for family consumption tillage?
D. Use of family labour for large
scale agricultural production A. Ridger
B. Cultivator
2. Which of the following problems C. Plough
are associated with agricultural D. Harrow
marketing in West Africa?
The diagram below illustrates
I. Seasonality of produce
the use of a farm machinery.
II. Transportation of produce
Study it to answer question 5.
III. Access to credit

A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. I, II and III

3. An advantage of communal land


tenure system is that it ____

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5. A periodic maintenance activity boundary of a farmland is called
carried out on the illustrated farm farm _____
machinery is _____
A. layout.
A. checking the radiator water. B. business.
B. checking of tyre pressure. C. surveying.
C. changing of engine oil. D. tillage.
D. cleaning after use.
9. Which of the following
6. A disadvantage of farm statements about land is not
mechanization is _____ correct?

A. efficiency in farming. A. Its supply is limited


B. displacement of farm workers. B. It is used for production
C. reduction in health hazards. C. It is subject to depreciation
D. timeliness of farm operations. D. It can be relocated agricultural

7. Calculate in hectares the area of 10. A socio-cultural factor


a rectangular farmland with affecting land availability is _____
dimensions 50 m by 25 m.
A. soil type.
A. 125 ha B. religion.
B. 12.5 ha C. topography.
C. 1.25 ha D. mining
D. 0.125 ha
11. A biotic factor affecting
8. The practice of measuring and agricultural production is _____
mapping out the size, position and
A. rainfall.

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B. predator. A. 5.0%
C. humidity. B. 12.5%
D. temperature. C. 20.0%
D. 25.0%
12. Which of the following groups
of organisms are parasitic plants? 15. Which of the following mineral
elements is essential for
A. Nematode, fungus, and chlorophyll formation?
bacterium
B. Strigal, nematode, and dodder A. Calcium
C. Dodder, fungus, and strigal B. Boron
D. Mistletoe, fungus and bacterium C. Sodium
D. Magnesium
13. The type of rock formed from
accumulation of materials The diagram below illustrates a
transported by water is called - soil profile. Study it and
_____ answer question 16.

A. sedimentary rock.
B. igneous
C. metamorphic rock.
D. plutonic rock.

14. A fresh garden soil sample


weighed 25kg. When oven-dried,
its weight reduced to 20kg.
Calculate the percentage moisture 16. The soil horizon that is not
content of the soil sample. supportive of the growth of tree

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crops is Liquid fertilizers and 20. In green manuring, crops are
pesticides could be _____ ploughed into the soil just before
flowering in other to _____
A. horizon A
B. horizon B A. control soil pathogens
C. horizon C B. enrich the soil with nutrients
D. horizon D C. control soil erosion
D. increase the soil temperature
18. In a crop rotation system, it is
usually preferred that cassava 21. Corns, rhizomes and tubers
comes last in the rotation because are examples of _____
it _____
A. underground roots
A. adds nitrogen to the soil. B. underground stems
B. is a shallow feeder. C. aerial stems
C. is a deep rooted crop. D. modified leaves
D. is a perennial crop.
22. Which of the following
19. The growing of only one crop statements is not a reason for
on a piece of land from year to budding? The resulting plants
year is known as _____ _____

A. mixed cropping. A. can withstand adverse climatic


B. crop rotation conditions
C. monoculture B. flower and fruit early.
D. shifting cultivation. C. are more disease resistant.
D. develop broader leaves for
photosynthesis.

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23. Which of the following C. 5,000
statements are advantages of D. 2,000
mulching? It _____
26. Protective functions of forests
I. Controls weeds. include the following except _____
II. Conserves soil moisture
III. Increases soil temperature A. soil conservation.
IV. Reduces soil pH B. serving as windbreak.
C. purification of air.
A. I and II D. source of firewood.
B. I and III
C. II and IV 27. The growing of both trees and
D. III and IV arable crops on the same piece of
land is _____
24. A planting material used in
propagating plantain is the _____ A. ley farming
B. mixed farming
A. crown. C. forestry
B. peeper. D. taungya system.
C. slip.
D. leaf. 28. Sexual propagation of
ornamental plants involves the use
25. If maize seed is sown at a of _____
spacing of 100cm x 50cm,
determine the expected maize A. stems.
plant population per hectare. B. seeds.
C. suckens
A. 40,000 D. rhizomes
B. 20,000

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29. The vector of leaf curt disease A. harden the kernel.
of cotton is _____ B. prevent high level of oil
rancidity.
A. grasshopper C. extract oil from the palm fruit.
B. termites. D. separate mesocarp from
C. thrips. endocarp
D. white fly.
33. Which of the following breeds
30. A major storage pest of cereals of cattle is exotic?
in West Africa is _____
A. Sokoto Gudali
A. stem borer. B. Ndama
B. weevil. C. Friesian
C. bird. D. Muturu
D. army worm.
Study the diagram below and
31. Biological control of insect- answer questions 34 and 35.
pests of crops is carried out
through _____

A. crop rotation
B. use of predators
C. use of pesticides
D. farm sanitation 34. The diagram represents the
digestive system of a _____
32. During the production of palm
oil, the oil palm fruits are boiled in A. buck.
order to _____ B. cock.
C. bull.

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D. sow. 38. The least important factor for
successful incubation of eggs is
35. The main function of the part _____
labelled I is _____
A. light.
A. temporary storage of food. B. temperature.
B. production of digestive C. ventilation
enzymes. D humidity.
C. crushing of food particles.
D. transportation of food nutrients. 39. A wallow should be provided in
the pen of pigs in order to _____
36. Which of the following
hormones is responsible for A. reduce the feed intake of pigs.
oestrus in farm animals? B. increase the water intake of
pigs.
A. Oxytocin C. enable the pigs to swim.
B. Oestrogen D. cool the temperature of pigs.
C. Prolactin
D. Progesterone The data for feed consumption and
weight gain of four farm animals
37. In animal production, labelled P, Q, R, and S are shown
immature spermatozoa are stored below. Use the data to answer
in the _____ questions 40 and 41.

A. urethra. P: 50 kg feed consumed and 20 kg


B. scrotum. weight gained.
C. epididymis. Q: 90 kg feed consumed and 30 kg
D. prostate gland weight gained.

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R: 100 kg feed consumed and 25 C. phosphorus and iron.
kg weight gained. D. magnesium and sodium.
S: 150 kg feed consumed and 30
kg weight gained. 43. Which of the following
statements about inbreeding in
40. Which of the following animals farm animals is/are false?
is the most efficient feed
converter? I. inbred animals reach
market weight early.
A. P II. Inbred animals have
B. Q reduced vigour.
C. R III. Inbreeding increases the
D. S occurrences of undesirable
traits.
41. The feed conversion efficiency
of the poorest weight gainer is A. I only
_____ B. II only
C. I and II only
A. 0.40 D. I and III only
B. 0.33.
C. 0.25. 44. Which of the following
D.0.20 parasites may be found in the gut
of livestock?
42. Bone meal is usually included
in the diet of livestock to supply A. Tick
_____ B. Flea
C. Roundworm
A. calcium and phophorus D. Louse
B. calcium and lodine.

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45. Vegetative growth in fish A. shows an increase in the supply
ponds _____ of rice.
B. describes a shift in the demand
A. makes fish movements easy. for rice.
B. regulates water acidity. C. describes the equilibrium price
C. increases pond water turbidity. for rice.
D. moderates pond temperature. D. shows that the demand for rice
exceeds supply.
46. Which of the following factors
of agricultural production is 48. What is the change in quantity
abundant in rural areas? of rice demand when the price
increases from ₦1.00 to ₦5.00?
A. Enterprise
B. Land A. 8 kg
C. Labour B. 6 kg
D. Capital C.4 kg
D.2 kg
Study the graph illustrated
below and answer questions 49. Determine the equilibrium
47-49. price of rice.

A. ₦1.00
B. ₦2.00
C. ₦3.00
D. ₦4.00

50. A major characteristic of mass


teaching method of agricultural
47. The graph best _____
extension is that _____

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A. information can be directed to a
large number of people at different
locations.
B. It demonstrates how to carry
out new techniques to farmers in
the same locality.
C. feedback is readily available to
extension officers.
D. it summarizes and analyses
what had been done in previous
learning situations.

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WAEC AGRIC. OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS (PT.7)

1. A nation exports agricultural 4. Mechanical power is not usually


produce mainly to _____ required in _____

A. provide food A. soil tillage


B. create employment B. fertilizer application
C. earn foreign exchange C. staking of yams
D. provide raw materials D. planting of seeds

2. Quarantine measures in The diagram below illustrates


agriculture are aimed at _____ farm equipment. Study it and
answer questions 5 and 6.
A. regulating cost of importation of
crops and animals.
B. preventing the introduction of
pests and diseases. 5. The illustrated equipment is
C. maintaining genetic purity of called _____
crops and animals.
D. introducing new varieties of A. arrow
crops and breeds of animals. B. harpoon
C. wooden peg
3. Which of the following D. ranging pole
statements is NOT true about
farming in West Africa? 6. The illustrated equipment is
used for _____
A. Farm labour is highly inefficient
B. Farm workers are poorly paid A. making drills
C. Getting reliable labour is difficult B. marking stations
D. Mechanisation is fully adopted C. marking chain lengths

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D. making holes for transplanting 9. Which factor of production has
the following characteristics?
The diagram below illustrates a
surveyed school farmland. I. Free gift of nature.
Study it to answer question 7. II. Limited in supply.
III. Immobile

A. Land
B. Labour
C. Capital
D. Entrepreneur
7. Calculate the area of the
farmland.
10. Igneous rocks can easily be
identified through their _____
A. 0.32ha
B. 0.36ha
A. glassy appearance.
C. 0.47ha
B. coarse texture.
D. 0.52ha
C. stratified layers.
D. fossil contents.
8. The major objective of farm
planning is to _____
11. Water which rises above the
water table in the soil and is held
A. maximise the use of available
in fine medium pores between soil
resources
particles by surface tension is ___
B. control insect pests of crops.
C. control diseases among animals
A. hygroscopic water.
D. reduce losses due to natural
B. gravitational water
disasters
C. capillary water
D. percolating water

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12. An oven dried soil sample of A farmer designed the table
mass 8g had a mass of 1.6g after below for implementation on
it was completely burnt. farm. Study it and answer
Determine the percentage of questions 15 and 16.
humus in the soil sample.
Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4
Plot Yam Groundnut Maize Cowpea

Α. 6.4%
1
Plot Groundnut Maize Cowpea Yam

Β. 9.6% 2
Plot Maize Cowpea Yam Groundnut
C. 20% 3
Plot Cowpea Yam Goundnut Maize
D. 80% 4

13. The deficiency of nitrogen in a 15. The cropping system


maize plant can be corrected by illustrated in the table is _____
applying _____
A. mixed cropping
A. potassium chloride. B. crop rotation
B. muriate of potash C. shifting cultivation
C. sulphate of ammonia D. land rotation
D. calcium carbonate
16. Which of the following crops
14. The structure of sandy soils can conveniently replace maize in
can be described as _____ the table?

A. platy. A. Cassava
B. crumby. B. Cashew
C. single-grained. C. Mango
D. blocky D. Millet

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17. The following bacteria are A. Zea mays
important in the nitrogen cycle B. Oryza sativa
except _____ C. Elaeis guineensis
D. Vigna unguiculata
A. Bacillus.
B. Nitrobacter. 21. Crops which grow and mature
C. Nitrosomonas. within few weeks of their
D. Rhizobium. cultivation are called _____

18. Determine the ratio of A. annual crops.


nutrients in NPK 5-10-15. B. ephemeral crops.
C. perennial crops.
A. 1:2:2 D. biennial crops.
Β. 1:2:3
C. 1:3:1 22. If the yield of cowpea is 750kg
D. 2:1:3 per hectare, calculate the yield of
cowpea from a 20 hectare farm.
19. Which of the following
methods of irrigation is most A. 7,500kg
efficient in terms of water B. 15,000kg
conservation? C. 22,500kg
D. 37,500kg
A. Flood irrigation
B. Furrow irrigation 23. Which of the following
C. Border irrigation statements about threshing of rice
D. Drip irrigation are true?

20. Which of the following crops is I. Rice grains are separated


dicotyledonous? from the panicle

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II. Breakage of some grains 26. Which of the following
could occur. diseases of tomato is caused by
III. The grains are polished. nematode?

A. I and II only A. Fusarium wilt


B. I and III only B. Root knot
C. II and III only C. Leaf spot
D. I, II, and III D. Leaf curl

24. An important reason for 27. The yield of cocoa trees is not
staking yam is to _____ influenced by _____

A. expose the leaves to sunlight. A. pest infestation.


B. prevent water logging on the B. fertiliser application
farm. C. method of harvesting.
C. enhance the formation of D. method of soil tillage
leaves.
D. expose the flowers to 28. The following crops are fibre
pollination. crops except _____

25. A crop that can be propagated A. cotton.


by stem cutting is ___ B. onion.
C. jute.
A. plantain. D. sisal.
B. pepper
C. cassava 29. The fencing and partitioning of
D. carrot a pastureland into paddocks is
meant to _____

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A. suppress weeds that compete 32. Which of the following tree
with pasture crops. species is suitable for making
B. control grazing and ensure electric poles?
regeneration of pasture.
C. allow free movement of A. Indian almond.
ruminants on the pasture. B. Mango.
D. prevent lodging of the pasture C. Silk cotton.
plants. D. Teak.

30. When a gene is expressed in 33. A pest that attacks stored


the phenotype in a homozygous or maize grain is _____
heterozygous form, that gene is
said to be _____ A. mirid
B. rodent
A. segregating. C. grasshopper
B. recessive. D. aphid
C. dominant.
D. desirable. 34. An agricultural system which
combines crop production with
31. Uncontrolled burning of forests forest establishment is known as
encourages _____ _____

A. deforestation. A. plantation farming.


B. afforestation B. taungya farming.
C. regeneration C. arable farming.
D. exploitation D. mixed farming.

35. An important characteristic of


pigs is that they are _____

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A. highly prolific. B. Temperature
B. great milk producers. C. Relative humidity
C. resistant to parasites. D. Atmosphere pressure
D. able to digest cellulose.
39. Which of the following
36. Digestion in ruminants is statements is NOT a reason for
mainly _____ feeding farm animals?

A. enzymatic. A. Production of energy for work


B. microbial. B. Building up of body tissue
C. mastication and enzymatic. C. Production of inorganic manure
D. microbial and enzymatic. D. Protection of animals from
diseases.
37. If 30 eggs make up a crate of
eggs, how many eggs are in 2 40. Rickets in farm animals can be
packs assuming a pack contains 10 controlled by _____
crates of eggs?
A. feeding carbohydrates to the
A. 200 eggs animals.
B. 300 eggs B. feeding animals with quality
C. 400 eggs grasses and legumes.
D. 600 eggs C. adding yeast and vegetables to
animal feed.
38. In a brooder house, which of D. adding fish meal and oyster
the following factors is monitored shell to animal feed.
with the use of wet and dry
hygrometer? 41. The methods of rangeland
improvement which ensures
A. Rainfall

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continuous herbage growth during 43. The part which a bait is
the dry season are _____ attached before lowering the tool
in water is labelled _____
A. reseeding and pest control.
B. controlled stocking and disease A. IV
control. B. III
C. fertiliser application and C. II
irrigation. D. I
D. rotational grazing and weed
control. 44. Which of the labelled parts
enables the tool to float on water
42. Tapeworm, liver fluke and when fish is caught?
roundworm can be controlled by
_____ A. IV
B. III
A. flushing.
C. II
B. drenching.
D. I
C. dipping.
D. fumigation.
45. Which of the following
statements is NOT a precaution
The diagram below illustrates a
measure in bee keeping?
fishing tool. Study it and
answer questions 43 and 44.
A. The apiary should not be fenced
to allow for proper ventilation
B. The attendant should always
wear protective clothing
C. Warning signs should be placed
near an apiary

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D. Locate apiaries far from human C. quantity demanded.
dwellings D. equilibrium point

46. If a farmer produces 9 bags of 48. A farmer whose production


millet at an average cost of exceeds point C will experience
D80,000.00 per bag and sells each _____
of the 9 bags at D90,000.00 the
profit is _____ A. surplus to the market.
B. shortfalls in supply.
A. D10,000.00 C. decrease in cost of production.
B. D80,000.00 D. decrease in revenue generated.
C. D90,000.00
D. D170,000.00 49. A total of 12,000kg of maize
was demanded at ₦20 per kg while
The diagram below is a 8,000kg of it was demanded at
demand and supply graph. ₦30 per kg. What is the
Study it and answer questions percentage change in quantity
47-48. demanded?

A. 33%
B. 50%
C. 67%
D. 150%

50. A cost effective way of


47. The part labelled C in the
disseminating urgent information
graph is the _____
to a large number of farmers at the
same time is through _____
A. quantity supplied.
B. equilibrium price.
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A. demonstration.
B. evaluation.
C. mass media.
D. field trip.

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DISCLAIMER
These are not WAEC expo questions for this year,

but past questions of previous years.

Study these past questions, know their correct

answers and how each answer was gotten to

better prepare for your WAEC Agric. exam.

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