NODIA APP Sample Paper 09 Page 1

SAMPLE PAPER 09
ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE (184)
CLASS-X EXAM 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
1. This question paper comprises 11 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2 The Question Paper contains THREE sections -
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Grammar and Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature Textbook
3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

1. Read the following text. 10

1. For most of us, concerns about the environment are often reduced to just global warming.
With forests disappearing, animals being hunted to extinction, and wildlife holidays
becoming a luxury for a few, connecting with nature seems like a distant dream. For many
people, zoos and wildlife parks are now the only places left to experience nature up close.
2. Zoos have always been an affordable form of recreation for people from different
backgrounds, whether rich or poor, educated or not. They provide a great opportunity
to educate and make people more aware of wildlife. In India, there are over 150 zoos,
attracting around 50 million visitors every year, according to CEE India.
3. Today’s children are increasingly disconnected from nature. We need a fun, engaging
place for nature education that can compete with the internet, TV, and video games.
Zoos are where children can actually see real animals, turning their imagination into
reality and sparking curiosity. Some of these children grow up to be wildlife protectors.
4. In India, Reuben David, a wildlife conservation hero, founded the Ahmedabad zoo.
Under his leadership, it became one of India’s most important zoos, contributing a lot
to conservation and research. Zoos around the world also exchange animals with each
other.
5. Conflicts between humans and wild animals are still increasing. The Wildlife Protection
Society of India reported that between 1994 and 2010, 3,189 leopards were killed. Leopards
often become targets because they attack livestock and enter human settlements. Wild
animals need protection now more than ever.
6. Some animal activists suggest shutting down zoos. But what’s the alternative plan to
save endangered species? Closing zoos could make their extinction happen faster. Zoos
provide safe spaces for endangered species to breed. If animals are only left in the wild,
they face the risk of being wiped out by diseases, starvation, or epidemics. Many species
are bred in zoos and then returned to the wild.
Page 2 Sample Paper 09 CBSE 10th English LL

7. The issue should not be about shutting down poorly maintained zoos but rather
improving them. More money should be spent on creating natural habitats for animals,
ensuring they are healthy, supporting breeding programs, conducting research, and
protecting endangered species. Zoos play an important role in conservation, education,
and research, helping people learn about and understand wildlife.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.
i. In paragraph 1, why do zoos and wildlife parks play a crucial role in connecting people
with nature? 1
ii. Complete the following with the correct option : 1
Zoos are important because :
(a) They only provide fun for people.
(b) They help educate and raise awareness about wildlife among people from different
backgrounds.
(paragraph 2)
iii. How do zoos help children reconnect with nature, as mentioned in the passage? 2
(paragraph 3)
iv. Select the option that best explains why zoos are important for conservation : 1
(a) Zoos only focus on entertaining visitors.
(b) Zoos provide breeding grounds for endangered species and help protect them from
extinction.
(paragraph 6)
v. State whether the following statement is True or False. 1
Reuben David’s efforts in creating the Ahmedabad zoo significantly contributed to
wildlife conservation and research.
(paragraph 4)
vi. The writer mentions that shutting down zoos could accelerate extinction. 1
Which of the following is a key reason for this?
(A) Zoos protect animals from hunters.
(B) Zoos allow animals to be bred in captivity and reintroduced into the wild.
(C) Zoos entertain visitors and raise money for wildlife protection.
(D) Zoos provide opportunities for visitors to interact with animals.
(paragraph 6)
vii. List two roles zoos play in wildlife protection and education, as mentioned in the
passage. 2
(paragraph 7)

viii. Fill in the blank with the correct option : 1

The focus should be on improving poorly maintained zoos by :
(A) Banning all zoos worldwide.
(B) Closing zoos that don’t meet standards.
(C) Investing in better habitats and care for animals.
(D) Moving animals to different countries.
(paragraph 7)
NODIA APP Sample Paper 09 Page 3

2. Read the following text. 10

1. Air pollution is one of the leading environmental health risks, causing approximately 7
million deaths annually. Major sources of air pollution include emissions from vehicles,
industrial activities, and the burning of fossil fuels. The World Health Organization
(WHO) estimates that 91% of the world’s population lives in areas where air quality
exceeds recommended limits.
2. Fine particulate matter, also known as PM2.5, is especially harmful. These tiny particles
can penetrate deep into the lungs and enter the bloodstream, leading to respiratory and
cardiovascular diseases. Studies have shown that a 10 µg/m³ increase in PM2.5 levels is
associated with a 6% increase in the risk of premature death.
3. In response to rising air pollution levels, many cities are adopting measures such as
promoting public transportation, reducing industrial emissions, and encouraging the use
of renewable energy. Countries that have implemented stricter air quality standards have
seen up to a 30% decrease in PM2.5 levels over the past decade.
4. While these efforts have made progress, much more needs to be done. Experts warn that
without global cooperation and stricter regulations, air pollution-related deaths could rise
by 50% by 2050.
5. Addressing air pollution is critical for protecting public health, reducing healthcare costs,
and combating climate change. By adopting cleaner technologies and more sustainable
practices, the world can reduce the deadly impact of air pollution on both people and
the planet.

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. What does the use of the phrase “leading environmental health risks” by the writer, in
paragraph 1, tell us about the severity of air pollution? 1
(A) The writer believes air pollution has no major health impact.
(B) The writer is highlighting air pollution as a significant global health threat.
(C) The writer is downplaying the seriousness of air pollution.
(D) The writer is unsure about the effects of air pollution.

ii. Select the option that is true for the assertion and reason given below : 1
Assertion : Fine particulate matter (PM2.5) poses a major threat to public health.
Reason : PM 2.5 particles can enter the bloodstream and increase the risk of respiratory
and cardiovascular diseases.
(A) Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(B) Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(C) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(D) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.

iii. Identify the percentage of the world’s population that lives in areas where air quality
exceeds recommended limits, as mentioned in the passage. 1
Page 4 Sample Paper 09 CBSE 10th English LL

iv. According to the passage, what are two main sources of air pollution? 1

v. Read the given prompt and select the correct option in the brackets to fill in the blank : 1
Efforts to reduce air pollution levels have been implemented in many countries, with positive
results.
The percentage decrease in PM2.5 levels in countries with stricter air quality standards
is _____ (10% / 20% / 30%).

vi. What are some of the strategies mentioned in the passage that cities are using to combat
rising air pollution levels? 1

vii. Complete the sentence suitably. 1

Air pollution increases the risk of respiratory and cardiovascular diseases by _____.

viii. Complete the following with a suitable reason : 1

Experts emphasize the importance of addressing air pollution because _____.

ix. In the context of paragraph 5, why is addressing air pollution critical for the future of
public health and the environment? 2

GRAMMAR 10

3. Complete ANY TEN of twelve of the following tasks, as directed.

i. Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option to complete the sentence.
The boys _____ to my lecture since 8 O’clock this morning.
(A) were listening
(B) have been listening
(C) had been listening
(D) None of these

ii. Read the conversation between a mother and her daughter. Complete the sentence by
reporting daughter’s reply correctly.
Mother: Why are you looking so worried?
Daughter: My exams are approaching.
Mother asked her daughter why she was looking very worried. The daughter replied that
_____.

iii. Select the correct option to fill in the blank for the given line.
I _____ rather die than join the gang of terrorists.
(A) could (B) should
(C) would (D) can
NODIA APP Sample Paper 10 Page 1

SAMPLE PAPER 10
ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE (184)
CLASS-X EXAM 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
1. This question paper comprises 11 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2 The Question Paper contains THREE sections -
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Grammar and Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature Textbook
3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

1. Read the following text. 10

1. Many zoos are facing a funding crisis, which has brought back the debate about whether
zoos should exist at all. People who support zoos believe they are essential for saving
rare animal species. Over the last 20 years, zoos have developed programs to protect
endangered animals. These programs, called “captive breeding programs,” involve
breeding animals in zoos and later releasing them back into the wild to increase the
number of animals in their natural habitats.
2. Zoos work together to make sure their breeding programs succeed. Animals are moved
from one zoo to another to prevent inbreeding, which is when closely related animals
mate. Inbreeding can lead to deformities or health problems in the offspring.
3. Zoo supporters also believe that zoos are important for educating children, as millions of
kids visit zoos every year. They argue that watching animals on TV is not the same as
seeing real animals up close. Zoos also do research, like finding out the best conditions
for endangered species to reproduce. If zoos were to close, it could be devastating for
conservation efforts, and many animals would have to be euthanized.
4. People who are against zoos agree that some species have been saved by captive breeding
programs, but they don’t think this is enough to solve the global conservation crisis.
The number of animals saved by zoos is very small compared to the overall problem. It
took millions of dollars to save the Arabian oryx, but that much money can’t be spent
on every endangered species. Some animals, like the African elephant, don’t breed well
in captivity, making zoo programs less effective for certain species.
5. Opponents of zoos also argue that many animals in zoos are kept in poor and unkind
conditions. In some of the worst zoos, animals are still put on display just to entertain
people. When animals are kept in bad environments, they often behave in strange,
repetitive ways. For example, polar bears might walk back and forth or turn their heads
over and over again. Scientists say this behavior is a sign that the animals are stressed
Page 2 Sample Paper 10 CBSE 10th English LL

and frustrated. Opponents of zoos believe that when children see animals acting like
this, they aren’t learning about the animals in a healthy or accurate way.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. In paragraph 1, why do supporters of zoos believe they are important for animal
conservation? 1

ii. Complete the following with the correct option : 1

Zoo breeding programs involve :
(a) Breeding animals in zoos and keeping them in captivity forever.
(b) Breeding animals in zoos and reintroducing them into the wild to boost wild
populations.
(paragraph 1)

iii. How do zoos work together to prevent inbreeding, as explained in the passage? 2
(paragraph 2)

iv. Select the option that best reflects the argument in favor of zoos for education : 1
(a) Zoos are important because they entertain children.
(b) Zoos help educate children by allowing them to see real animals up close, which is
more impactful than watching them on TV.
(paragraph 3)

v. State whether the following statement is True or False. 1

Opponents of zoos agree that captive breeding programs have saved some species, but
they believe it’s not enough to solve the worldwide conservation problem.
(paragraph 4)

vi. The writer mentions that some animals don’t breed well in captivity. 1
Which species is given as an example of this problem?
(A) Arabian oryx (B) African elephant
(C) Polar bear (D) Leopard
(paragraph 4)

vii. List two ways animals behave when kept in bad conditions in zoos, as mentioned in the
passage. 2
(paragraph 5)

viii. Fill in the blank with the correct option : 1

According to opponents of zoos, children who see animals behaving in stressed and
unnatural ways in zoos :
(A) Learn the correct information about the animals.
(B) Are given a false or inaccurate understanding of animal behavior.
(C) Are entertained and educated at the same time.
(D) Learn how animals act in the wild.
(paragraph 5)
NODIA APP Sample Paper 10 Page 3

2. Read the following text. 10

1. The global plastic waste crisis is one of the most pressing environmental challenges
today. An estimated 300 million tons of plastic waste are produced each year, with
only 9% being recycled, while 12% is incinerated, and the remaining 79% accumulates
in landfills or the natural environment. Of this, over 8 million tons enter the oceans
annually, impacting marine ecosystems.
2. Plastic pollution in oceans has increased dramatically over the past 50 years. By 2050,
it is estimated that the amount of plastic in the ocean will outweigh all the fish. More
than 100,000 marine animals, including turtles, seabirds, and marine mammals, die each
year due to plastic ingestion or entanglement. Microplastics, particles less than 5mm in
size, have been found in over 90% of seabirds and 100% of sea turtles tested.
3. Several countries have implemented bans on single-use plastics, such as plastic bags and
straws. Recycling rates have increased in some regions, but the overall recycling rate
remains low. Europe recycles around 30% of its plastic waste, while in the U.S., only 9%
of plastic waste is recycled.
4. Innovative solutions such as chemical recycling, which breaks plastic down to its original
components, and biodegradable alternatives are being developed. Research on plastic-
eating microbes, which can naturally degrade plastics, is ongoing and offers promising
results. These technologies could potentially reduce the amount of plastic that remains
in the environment.
5. Experts predict that without significant global intervention, plastic pollution could triple
by 2040, severely impacting ecosystems, food chains, and human health.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. What does the use of the phrase “pressing environmental challenges” by the writer, in
paragraph 1, suggest about the plastic waste crisis? 1
(A) The writer is emphasizing the urgency and severity of the plastic waste crisis.
(B) The writer believes plastic waste is a manageable problem.
(C) The writer thinks plastic waste is no longer a concern.
(D) The writer is indifferent to the problem.

ii. Select the option that is true for the assertion and reason given below : 1
Assertion : Marine animals are significantly harmed by plastic pollution.
Reason : Plastic ingestion and entanglement cause death to over 100,000 marine animals
annually.
(A) Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(B) Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(C) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(D) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.

iii. Identify the percentage of global plastic waste that is currently recycled, as mentioned
in the passage. 1
Page 4 Sample Paper 10 CBSE 10th English LL

iv. According to the passage, what are two key impacts of plastic waste on marine
environments? 1

v. Read the given prompt and select the correct option in the brackets to fill in the blank : 1
Countries like the U.S. and Europe have taken steps to improve recycling rates, but
overall success remains limited.
The percentage of plastic waste recycled globally is _____ (9% / 12% / 30%).

vi. What are some of the innovative methods mentioned in the passage that are being
developed to reduce plastic waste? 1

vii. Complete the sentence suitably. 1

Plastic pollution has dramatically increased in the oceans, and by 2050, _____.

viii. Complete the following with a suitable reason : 1

Experts emphasize that urgent action is needed to address plastic pollution because
_____.

ix. In the context of paragraph 5, why is addressing plastic pollution critical for the future
of ecosystems and human health? 2

GRAMMAR 10

3. Complete ANY TEN of twelve of the following tasks, as directed.

i. Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option to complete an online update.
A new understanding of the fundamental connection between mind and body explains
phenomena such as phantom limbs, and _____ surprising implications.
(A) have (B) are
(C) is (D) has

ii. Read the conversation between Sudhir and Riya. Complete the sentence by reporting
Riya’s reply correctly.
Sudhir : Riya, what is the reporting time for photoshoot tomorrow?
Riya : I have no clue as I was not there during the briefing.
Sudhir asked Riya what was the reporting time for photoshoot the following day. In
response to his question, Riya answered that _____.

iii. Select the correct option to fill in the blank for the given line, from a magazine.
When our cherished ideas are contradicted by the facts, we avoid the human
tendency to double down on those ideas.
(A) must (B) need
(C) can (D) could
NODIA APP Sample Paper 11 Page 1

SAMPLE PAPER 11
ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE (184)
CLASS-X EXAM 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
1. This question paper comprises 11 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2 The Question Paper contains THREE sections -
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Grammar and Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature Textbook
3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

1. Read the following text. 10

1. The problem of water shortages is affecting most of our big cities. Rivers are running
low, and ponds and wells are drying up, leaving people in villages, especially women, to
travel long distances to collect water for drinking, cooking, and washing. This adds to
the ongoing issue of water pollution, which makes the water unsafe for humans. Even
the rainy season and the floods that come with it won’t fix this problem.
2. The Delhi Administration is very concerned about the health risks caused by the pollut-
ed Yamuna River. Plans are in place to build two large tanks to treat sewage. Currently,
only 60 percent of the city’s 200 million gallons of sewage is treated before being dumped
into the river, which supplies water to many towns and villages downstream. Major riv-
ers like the Ganga, Yamuna, and Kaveri, which are crucial for many cities, are quickly
becoming sources of diseases.
3. A new bill introduced in Parliament aims to create central and state boards to prevent
and control water pollution. However, it will take time before the laws are passed and
enforced. In the meantime, the problem is growing. According to a survey done a few
years ago, 90 percent of child deaths in developing countries were caused by water-borne
diseases, and the situation hasn’t changed much since then.
4. In India, the growing population still uses open spaces as bathrooms, which means that
with every storm or rainfall, human waste filled with germs and parasites enters ponds,
wells, and even rivers. Only 18 percent of people in rural areas have access to clean
drinking water.
5. Another serious problem is industrial waste, which is often dumped into rivers without
being treated. For example, for every kilogram of processed leather, 30-40 liters of dirty,
foul-smelling water needs to be thrown away. There are at least 900 licensed tanneries
in India. Factories that make paper, jute, strawboard, textiles, and other materials also
Page 2 Sample Paper 11 CBSE 10th English LL

release toxic waste, including harmful chemicals like sulphur, ammonia, urea, metallic
salts, and acids, into the rivers.
6. It’s important not only to make new laws to keep water clean but also to enforce them
strictly, or we risk a major health crisis that will affect both cities and rural areas.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.
i. In paragraph 1, why are women in remote areas forced to travel long distances to fetch
water? 1
ii. Complete the following with the correct option : 1
The rainy season won’t solve the water problem because :
(a) Floods during the monsoons are too short.
(b) Water pollution is widespread, making water unfit for consumption.
(paragraph 1)
iii. What are the two main concerns about the Yamuna River mentioned in the passage? 2
(paragraph 2)
iv. Select the option that best reflects the urgency of the problem described in paragraph 3 : 1
(a) The problem of water pollution is decreasing as new laws are introduced.
(b) The problem is getting worse, and 90% of child deaths in developing countries are
linked to water-borne diseases.
(paragraph 3)
v. State whether the following statement is True or False. 1
Only 18 percent of India’s rural population has access to clean drinking water.
(paragraph 4)
vi. The writer mentions “untreated industrial waste” in paragraph 5. 1
Which of the following is an environmentally damaging industrial practice?
(A) Treating all industrial waste before disposal into rivers.
(B) Dumping untreated waste into rivers, leading to water pollution.
(C) Recycling wastewater for reuse in industrial processes.
(D) Utilizing clean energy sources for industrial operations.

vii. List two harmful substances found in industrial waste that pollute rivers, as mentioned
in the passage. 2
(paragraph 5)

viii. Fill in the blank with the correct option : 1

The passage emphasizes the need to :
(A) Focus on building more dams.
(B) Create and enforce strong water pollution laws to prevent a national health disas-
ter.
(C) Only clean water in cities.
(D) Reduce population growth in rural areas.
(paragraph 6)
NODIA APP Sample Paper 11 Page 3

2. Read the following text. 10

1. Deforestation is responsible for the loss of approximately 10 million hectares of forest
each year, contributing to biodiversity loss, climate change, and soil degradation. Forests
cover about 31% of the Earth’s land area, but deforestation has reduced this by nearly
20% over the past century.
2. Forests play a crucial role in absorbing carbon dioxide. It is estimated that forests absorb
2.4 billion metric tons of CO2 annually, helping to mitigate climate change. However,
when forests are cleared or burned, they release stored carbon back into the atmosphere,
contributing to the greenhouse effect.
3. Agriculture is the primary driver of deforestation, accounting for around 80% of global
deforestation. This is due to the expansion of farmland for crops such as soy, palm oil,
and cattle ranching. Urbanization and logging also contribute significantly to forest loss.
4. Efforts to combat deforestation include reforestation programs, the creation of protect-
ed areas, and the promotion of sustainable agriculture practices. Some countries have
successfully reduced deforestation rates by up to 50% through stricter regulations and
reforestation initiatives.
5. Scientists warn that if deforestation continues at its current rate, it could lead to the loss
of critical ecosystems and increase global temperatures by as much as 2°C by 2100.

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. What does the use of the phrase “responsible for the loss” by the writer, in paragraph
1, tell us about deforestation? 1
(A) The writer believes deforestation has no significant impact.
(B) The writer is emphasizing that deforestation is causing significant damage.
(C) The writer thinks deforestation is a natural process.
(D) The writer is showing indifference to deforestation.

ii. Select the option that is true for the assertion and reason given below : 1
Assertion : Forests help mitigate climate change.
Reason : Forests absorb 2.4 billion metric tons of carbon dioxide annually.
(A) Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(B) Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explana-
tion of the assertion.
(C) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(D) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.

iii. Identify the percentage of the Earth’s land area that is currently covered by forests, as
mentioned in the passage. 1

iv. According to the passage, what are two main causes of deforestation? 1
Page 4 Sample Paper 11 CBSE 10th English LL

v. Read the given prompt and select the correct option in the brackets to fill in the blank : 1
Efforts to combat deforestation have shown some success in reducing forest loss in
various countries.
The percentage of deforestation caused by agriculture globally is _____ (50% / 70%
/ 80%).

vi. What are some of the methods mentioned in the passage that are being used to combat
deforestation? 1

vii. Complete the sentence suitably. 1

Deforestation contributes to climate change by _____.

viii. Complete the following with a suitable reason : 1

Scientists emphasize the importance of stopping deforestation because _____.

ix. In the context of paragraph 5, why is addressing deforestation critical for preventing
future environmental damage? 2

GRAMMAR 10

3. Complete ANY TEN of twelve of the following tasks, as directed.

i. Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option to complete the sentence.
Yesterday, when I _____ home late at night, I _____ to find my house unlocked.
(A) had returned, was shocked (B) returned, was shocked
(C) was returned, got shocked (D) had to return, were shocked

ii. Read the conversation between two friends. Complete the sentence by reporting the conver-
sation.
Ankit : May I drop you there in my car at the airport?
Atul : Thanks a lot. It will be a great help to me.
When Ankit asked Atul _____ at the airport in his car, Atul thanked him adding
that it _____.
iii. Select the correct option to fill in the blank for the given line, from an article on envi-
ronment.
In this way, we _____ wage the war against environmental destruction with a two-
pronged approach of rationality and sensibility, and some day, win the battle altogether.
(A) will (B) can
(C) might (D) could
iv. Select the option that identifies the error and supplies the correction for the following
line, from a health report.
Tobacco breaks down quickly in the human body, so addicts might need to smoke or
chew some on a regular basis to maintain the desired effects of nicotine on the brain to
keep their focus intact.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 12 Page 1

SAMPLE PAPER 12
ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE (184)
CLASS-X EXAM 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
1. This question paper comprises 11 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2 The Question Paper contains THREE sections -
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Grammar and Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature Textbook
3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

1. Read the following text. 10

1. I understand what it’s like to be poor and suffer because I have personally experienced
it. I know what it feels like to have no clothes, no books, to struggle through life, and to
walk for miles on dusty roads without an umbrella or transportation. I’ve been through
all of this, and I understand the challenges that many of you, as graduates, are facing
today. I’m speaking from 60 years of experience. Please don’t think that all those years
were easy or full of happiness. To achieve something in life, I want to tell you that you
must go through difficult experiences.
2. I agree that success in life doesn’t always come from being smart or strong, and sometimes
it’s a bit like a gamble. But if you get your mind right and know your work well, you will
succeed sooner or later. However, you shouldn’t feel discouraged if things don’t happen
right away. You must face life as it is and accept the challenges that come with it.
3. What I want to say is that the most important things in life are not always the big
achievements. What I really love is enjoying the simple things in life. I am happy that
I can still sleep peacefully at night after a three-mile walk in the evening. I still enjoy a
good meal, appreciate the beauty of the blue sky, and love walking through open fields
and smelling the crops like Ragi and Jowar.
4. We often think that happiness comes from watching movies and exciting shows. That’s
not true. The greatest joys in life are the simple things that God has given us for free.
All you need is the desire to appreciate them. If you keep your mind and heart open, you
will see so many things around you that can bring joy. For example, look at the beautiful
butterfly flying around in colorful patterns. These are the amazing things that God has
given us to enjoy.
5. We need to love and appreciate nature and all the amazing things it provides. Nature
is full of creativity, resourcefulness, and variety. These are the things that have inspired
me throughout my life.
Page 2 Sample Paper 12 CBSE 10th English LL

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. In paragraph 1, what personal experiences does the speaker share to show his understanding
of poverty and struggle? 1

ii. Complete the following with the correct option : 1

According to the speaker, success in life is :
(a) Always based on intelligence and strength.
(b) Sometimes a gamble, but comes from knowing your job well and being patient.
(paragraph 2)

iii. What does the speaker say about finding joy in life, as explained in paragraph 3? 2

iv. Select the option that best reflects the speaker’s view on happiness in paragraph 4 : 1
(a) Happiness comes from material wealth and technology.
(b) Happiness comes from appreciating the simple, free things in life that God has given
us.

v. State whether the following statement is True or False. 1

According to the speaker, watching exciting movies and shows is the greatest source of
happiness in life.
(paragraph 4)

vi. The writer mentions the importance of nature in our lives in paragraph 5. 1
Which of the following is a sustainable way to appreciate nature, as suggested by the
speaker?
(A) Exploiting natural resources for economic gains.
(B) Building urban developments in place of forests.
(C) Protecting natural habitats and enjoying the simple beauty of nature.
(D) Using pesticides to increase agricultural production.

vii. List two simple things in life that the speaker enjoys, as mentioned in the passage. 2
(paragraph 3)

viii. Fill in the blank with the correct option : 1

The speaker emphasizes that to find joy in life, we need to :
(A) Work hard to achieve wealth and success.
(B) Open our hearts and minds to the beauty around us, especially in nature.
(C) Focus only on entertainment and material comforts.
(D) Rely on others to provide happiness for us.
(paragraph 4)

2. Read the following text. 10

1. Obesity rates have been steadily increasing worldwide, becoming a significant public
health issue. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), global obesity
rates have nearly tripled since 1975. In 2023, approximately 13% of the world’s adult
population was classified as obese, compared to 4% in 1975.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 12 Page 3

2. Obesity is linked to numerous health complications, including heart disease, type 2

diabetes, stroke, and certain types of cancer. The condition is primarily caused by poor
dietary habits, lack of physical activity, and genetic factors. The rise in consumption
of processed foods high in sugars and fats, along with a more sedentary lifestyle, has
greatly contributed to the obesity epidemic.
3. The economic impact of obesity is also considerable. In 2023, the estimated global cost
of obesity-related health issues was $2 trillion, equivalent to 2.8% of the global GDP.
Countries with higher obesity rates often see increased healthcare expenditures and
reduced workforce productivity.
4. Governments are implementing various strategies to combat obesity, including public
health campaigns, promoting healthier diets, and encouraging regular physical activity.
Some countries have introduced sugar taxes to reduce the consumption of sugary
beverages and foods.
5. Experts predict that without effective intervention, global obesity rates could rise to 20%
by 2035, further straining healthcare systems and economies.
Chart : Global Obesity Rates from 1975 to 2023
Year Obesity Rate (%)
1975 4%
1990 6%
2005 9%
2020 11%
2023 13%

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. What does the use of the phrase “significant public health issue” by the writer, in paragraph
1, tell us about the concern surrounding obesity? 1
(A) The writer believes obesity is not a major concern.
(B) The writer is emphasizing the seriousness of obesity as a global problem.
(C) The writer is indifferent to obesity’s impact.
(D) The writer is downplaying the issue of obesity.
ii. Select the option that is true for the assertion and reason given below : 1
Assertion : Obesity is linked to several serious health complications.
Reason : Obesity increases the risk of diseases like heart disease, type 2 diabetes, and
certain cancers.
(A) Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(B) Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(C) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(D) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.
iii. Identify the percentage of the world’s population classified as obese in 2023, according
to the passage. 1
Page 4 Sample Paper 12 CBSE 10th English LL

iv. According to the passage, what are two major causes of the rise in obesity rates? 1

v. Read the given prompt and select the correct option in the brackets to fill in the blank : 1
Global obesity rates have nearly tripled since 1975, with the current percentage standing at.
The obesity rate in 2023 is _____ (13% / 20% / 9%).

vi. What are some of the strategies mentioned in the passage that governments are using to
combat obesity? 1
vii. Complete the sentence suitably. 1
Obesity has a significant economic impact because.
viii. Complete the following with a suitable reason :
Experts predict that global obesity rates could rise to 20% by 2035 because _____.
ix. In the context of paragraph 5, why is addressing obesity critical for preventing future
healthcare and economic burdens? 2

GRAMMAR 10

3. Complete ANY TEN of twelve of the following tasks, as directed.

i. Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option to complete an online update.
Noida’s first wild animal rescue centre is likely _____ end.
(A) by year (B) on year
(C) at year (D) of year
ii. Read the conversation between Mannu and Annu. Complete the sentence by reporting
it correctly.
Mannu : Where are you going?
Annu : I am going to the market. Do you want anything?
Mannu asked Annu _____. Annu replied she was going to the market and further
asked if she wanted anything.
iii. Select the correct option to fill in the blank for the given line, from an article by Penguin
G.G. J who is considered one of the pioneers of the Gujrati short story.
His writing _____ by a dramatic style, romanticism and powerful depiction of human
emotions.
(A) is characterised (B) has been characterised
(C) is characterising (D) characterises
iv. Identify the error in the given sentence and supply the correction.
It should not be possible for you to complete all of it by tomorrow evening.
Use the given format for your response.
Error Correction
NODIA APP Sample Paper 13 Page 1

SAMPLE PAPER 13
ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE (184)
CLASS-X EXAM 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
1. This question paper comprises 11 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2 The Question Paper contains THREE sections -
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Grammar and Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature Textbook
3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

1. Read the following text. 10

1. In the summer of 1967, when I was ten years old, my father finally gave in to my constant
requests and took me to get my own dog. We drove far into the Michigan countryside
in our family car to a farm owned by a tough woman and her elderly mother. This farm
only had one thing to offer—dogs. There were all kinds of dogs in every shape, size, and
temperament. But all the dogs had two things in common : they were all mixed breeds,
and each one was free to a good home.
2. I quickly decided that the older dogs weren’t for me and rushed to see the puppies. “You
should pick one that’s not too shy,” my father advised. “Try shaking the cage and see
which ones don’t back away.”
3. I grabbed the gate of the cage and rattled it loudly. Most of the puppies jumped back
in fear, tumbling over each other in a pile of fur. But one puppy stayed behind. He was
gold with a white patch on his chest, and he bravely ran to the gate, barking loudly. He
jumped up and licked my fingers through the fence. I fell in love with him instantly.
4. I brought him home in a cardboard box and named him Shaun. He was the kind of dog
that makes people love dogs. He quickly learned every command I taught him and was
very well-behaved. I could drop a piece of food on the floor, and he wouldn’t touch it
until I said it was okay.
5. Family members would visit and leave wanting to get a dog of their own because they
were so impressed by Shaun, or as I liked to call him, “Saint Shaun.” Even though he
was a mixed breed, one of the many unwanted dogs in America, he became special to
me. He entered my life and changed it for the better, giving me the childhood every kid
should have.
6. Our bond lasted fourteen years, and by the time he passed away, I was no longer the
little boy who brought him home. I had grown up, graduated from college, and started
my first job far away. Shaun stayed behind with my parents, where he belonged. My
Page 2 Sample Paper 13 CBSE 10th English LL

parents, now retired, called me to tell me the sad news. My mother later shared, “In
fifty years of marriage, I’ve only seen your father cry twice. Once was when we lost Mary
Ann,”—my sister, who was stillborn. “The second time was when Shaun died.”
7. Saint Shaun was my childhood companion, the perfect dog. At least, that’s how I will
always remember him. Shaun set the bar for how I would judge every dog I would have
in the future.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.
i. In paragraph 1, what two things did all the dogs on the farm have in common? 1

ii. Complete the following with the correct option : 1

The father advised the boy to :
(a) Pick the shyest puppy in the cage.
(b) Pick a puppy that wasn’t afraid when the cage was rattled.
(paragraph 2)
iii. How did the boy know Shaun was the right dog for him? 2
(paragraph 3)

iv. Select the option that best reflects how Shaun behaved as a pet : 1
(a) Shaun was disobedient and hard to train.
(b) Shaun was well-behaved, learned commands quickly, and followed rules.
(paragraph 4)

v. State whether the following statement is True or False. 1

Family members were so impressed by Shaun that they wanted to get a dog of their own
after visiting him.
(paragraph 5)

vi. The writer mentions two emotional moments in his father’s life in pragraph 6 1
Which of the following describes the significance of these moments?
(A) Both involved the loss of family members, one human and one animal.
(B) Both were related to Shaun’s behavior as a dog.
(C) One moment was about Shaun’s achievements, and the other was about family
success.
(D) Both occurred during celebrations in the family.

vii. List two things that made Shaun a special dog for the writer. 2
(paragraph 5 and 7)

viii. Fill in the blank with the correct option : 1

The writer will always remember Shaun as :
(A) An ordinary dog.
(B) A disobedient but lovable dog.
(C) A perfect dog who set the standard for all future dogs.
(D) A troublesome dog who needed constant attention.
(paragraph 7)
NODIA APP Sample Paper 13 Page 3

2. Read the following text. 10

1. Waste management has become a critical issue in urban areas worldwide. In 2022, global
municipal solid waste production reached 2.1 billion tons, with predictions that it could
rise to 3.4 billion tons by 2050. Much of this waste ends up in landfills, while only 16%
is recycled. The increasing amount of waste poses environmental challenges, including
pollution, greenhouse gas emissions, and habitat destruction.
2. Plastic waste, which accounts for 12% of global municipal solid waste, is particularly
problematic due to its slow decomposition rate. It can take up to 500 years for some
types of plastic to break down in the environment. Furthermore, less than 10% of plastic
waste is recycled, contributing significantly to pollution in oceans and landfills.
3. Countries are implementing various strategies to improve waste management, such as
expanding recycling programs, banning single-use plastics, and promoting waste-to-
energy technologies. Some cities have introduced “zero-waste” initiatives, aiming to
divert at least 90% of waste from landfills through recycling and composting.
4. The economic cost of poor waste management is substantial. Inadequate waste disposal
can increase healthcare costs, as waste-related pollution contributes to respiratory issues
and water contamination. In 2022, it was estimated that the global economic impact of
poor waste management was $375 billion.
5. Experts agree that improving waste management is critical for reducing environmental
damage and protecting public health. Without proper action, the global waste crisis
will continue to worsen, leading to even more severe consequences for both human and
environmental health.
Chart : Global Municipal Solid Waste Production (in billion tons)
Year Waste Production (billion tons)
2022 2.1
2030 2.7 (projected)
2050 3.4 (projected)

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. What does the use of the phrase “critical issue” by the writer, in paragraph 1, tell us
about the significance of waste management? 1
(A) The writer believes waste management is not a serious problem.
(B) The writer is emphasizing the urgency of addressing waste management.
(C) The writer is indifferent to the challenges of waste management.
(D) The writer thinks waste management is a minor concern.

ii. Select the option that is true for the assertion and reason given below : 1
Assertion : Plastic waste is particularly problematic in waste management.
Reason : Plastic waste takes hundreds of years to decompose and has a low recycling rate.
(A) Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(B) Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
Page 4 Sample Paper 13 CBSE 10th English LL

(C) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.

(D) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.

iii. Identify the percentage of global plastic waste that is recycled, as mentioned in the
passage. 1
iv. According to the passage, what are two major environmental challenges caused by poor
waste management? 1
v. Read the given prompt and select the correct option in the brackets to fill in the blank : 1
The projected global waste production by 2050 is expected to increase by more than 1
billion tons.
The projected global waste production in 2050 is _____ (2.7 billion tons / 3.4 billion
tons / 4.0 billion tons).

vi. What are some of the strategies mentioned in the passage that countries are using to
improve waste management? 1

vii. Complete the sentence suitably. 1

The economic cost of poor waste management is significant because _____.

viii. Complete the following with a suitable reason : 1

Experts emphasize the importance of improving waste management because _____.

ix. In the context of paragraph 5, why is improving waste management critical for the
future of public health and the environment? 2

GRAMMAR 10

3. Complete ANY TEN of twelve of the following tasks, as directed.

i. Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option to complete the sentence.
If only he _____ us truth in the first place, things would not have gone wrong.
(A) has told (B) would have told
(C) had told (D) should have told

ii. Read the conversation between Prateek and Raghav. and complete the narration that
follows.
Prateek: I don’t feel well today.
Raghav: What can I help you, Sir?
Prateek: Can you take me to the doctor?
Raghav: Yes, Sir.
Prateek told Raghav that he did not feel well that day. Raghav asked respectfully what
he could help him. Prateek asked Raghav _____. Prateek replied in the affirmative.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 14 Page 1

SAMPLE PAPER 14
ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE (184)
CLASS-X EXAM 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
1. This question paper comprises 11 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2 The Question Paper contains THREE sections -
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Grammar and Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature Textbook
3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

1. Read the following text. 10

1. Problems like corruption, terrorism, communalism, and the desire for power and wealth
continue to affect modern society. More than half of India’s population is under the age
of 25, and the country’s future will only be bright if young people are prepared to face
and solve these problems.
2. Every child has a lot of potential, and it is important to nurture and develop this
potential from a young age. Since children spend a lot of time in school, the school
curriculum should help them understand and practice important values like respect,
justice, and civic responsibility. Education should also teach children about their rights
and duties, as well as moral values like honesty, responsibility, and respect for others.
3. Moral education should focus on helping children think critically, make good decisions,
understand others’ feelings, and work together towards common goals.
4. Schools play a big role in shaping a child’s character, and the way children are educated
affects how they grow into morally responsible citizens who can bring positive changes
to society.
5. Today’s youth face many challenges, such as drug abuse, violence, and family problems.
Without learning moral values, they may struggle to tell the difference between right
and wrong. Having a strong moral foundation helps children make the right choices,
especially in a time when negative media influences are strong.
6. Many schools in India have added moral education to their curriculum because they
understand that the country needs citizens with strong moral values. Since children
often see their teachers as role models, teachers are the best people to teach these values.
7. Therefore, schools should focus on the personality development of children because it
is one of their most important responsibilities. Schools should take the lead in helping
children grow into better people, so they can make the world a better place to live in.
Page 2 Sample Paper 14 CBSE 10th English LL

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. In paragraph 1, what problems are mentioned as affecting modern society? 1

ii. Complete the following with the correct option : 1

According to the passage, the future of India depends on :
(a) Building more schools.
(b) Equipping young people to deal with the problems of society.
(paragraph 1)

iii. What should the school curriculum teach children, as mentioned in paragraph 2? 2

iv. Select the option that best explains the importance of moral education : 1
(a) Moral education helps children become smarter in academics.
(b) Moral education helps children think critically, make good decisions, and work with
others.
(paragraph 3)

v. State whether the following statement is True or False. 1

Schools do not play a big role in shaping a child’s character, according to the passage.
(paragraph 4)

vi. The writer mentions some challenges faced by today’s youth in paragraph 5. 1
Which of the following are two challenges the youth are facing?
(A) Lack of education and poor health.
(B) Drug abuse and violence.
(C) Unemployment and corruption.
(D) Family support and academic pressure.

vii. List two reasons why schools in India have introduced moral education into their
curriculum. 2
(paragraph 6)

viii. Fill in the blank with the correct option : 1

According to the passage, schools should focus on:
(A) Teaching more subjects.
(B) Helping children develop into better human beings.
(C) Offering more extracurricular activities.
(D) Giving children more homework.
(paragraph 7)

2. Read the following text. 10

1. The global electric vehicle (EV) market has seen significant growth in recent years, driven
by environmental concerns and stricter regulations. By 2023, there were approximately 14
million electric vehicles in operation globally, a sharp increase from just 1 million in 2015.
This represents a compound annual growth rate (CAGR) of over 35%.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 14 Page 3

2. Electric vehicles offer substantial advantages over traditional gasoline-powered cars,

including reduced greenhouse gas emissions and lower operational costs. EVs produce
zero tailpipe emissions, making them a preferred choice for cities grappling with air
pollution. In addition, electricity costs for EVs are typically 30-50% lower than gasoline
costs in most regions.
3. However, electric vehicles still face several challenges. One of the primary issues is
the insufficient charging infrastructure. As of 2023, there were only 2.7 million public
charging stations worldwide, which is not enough to meet growing demand. Concerns
about battery range and charging times also continue to affect consumer confidence.
4. Governments worldwide are supporting the transition to electric vehicles through
incentives like tax credits, rebates, and subsidies. Some cities have even introduced low-
emission zones, allowing only electric or hybrid vehicles to operate.
5. Experts predict that by 2030, electric vehicles could account for 30% of global car
sales, significantly contributing to reductions in carbon emissions and efforts to combat
climate change.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.
i. What does the phrase “significant growth” by the writer, in paragraph 1, suggest about
the electric vehicle market? 1
(A) The writer believes the market is stagnant.
(B) The writer highlights the substantial and rapid expansion of the market.
(C) The writer downplays the importance of electric vehicle growth.
(D) The writer is indifferent to the market’s performance.

ii. Select the option that is true for the assertion and reason given below : 1
Assertion : Electric vehicles help reduce environmental damage caused by transportation.
Reason : EVs produce zero tailpipe emissions, lowering air pollution in urban areas.
(A) Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(B) Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(C) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(D) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.

iii. Identify the number of electric vehicles on the road in 2023, as mentioned in the
passage. 1

iv. According to the passage, what are two key challenges faced by the electric vehicle
industry? 1
v. Read the given prompt and select the correct option in the brackets to fill in the blank : 1
Electric vehicles offer lower operating costs compared to gasoline-powered cars, with
electricity costs being significantly lower in most regions.
Electricity costs for EVs are about _____ (30-50% / 50-70% / 10-20%) lower than
gasoline costs.
Page 4 Sample Paper 14 CBSE 10th English LL

vi. What are some of the incentives mentioned in the passage that governments are using
to encourage the adoption of electric vehicles? 1

vii. Complete the sentence suitably. 1

Charging infrastructure for electric vehicles is limited, as _____.

viii. Complete the following with a suitable reason : 1

Experts predict that electric vehicles could make up 30% of global car sales by 2030
because _____.

ix. In the context of paragraph 5, why is the adoption of electric vehicles important for
addressing climate change? 2

GRAMMAR 10

3. Complete ANY TEN of twelve of the following tasks, as directed.

i. Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option to complete the magazine article.
The thief and the eye-witness _____.
(A) has escaped (B) has been escaping
(C) was escaping (D) have escaped

ii. Read the conversation between Rohit and Amal and complete the narration that follows:
Rohit : I’m really looking forward to the class picnic tomorrow.
Amal : Yes, after a long time we will be meeting all our friends and teachers.
When Rohit said that he was looking forward to their class picnic, Amal affirmed that
_____.

iii. Select the correct option to fill in the blank for the given line to complete an online
update.
During the college days, I _____ beat them all in the race!
(A) could (B) should
(C) can (D) might

iv. Select the option that identifies the error and supplies the correction for the following
line, from self-help book:
Goals provides direction to our behaviour and guide our actions and thoughts.
Option No. Error Correction
(A) provides provide
(B) behaviour behaviours
(C) to for
(D) guide guides
NODIA APP Sample Paper 15 Page 1

SAMPLE PAPER 15
ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE (184)
CLASS-X EXAM 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
1. This question paper comprises 11 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2 The Question Paper contains THREE sections -
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Grammar and Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature Textbook
3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

1. Read the following text. 10

1. What brings happiness has meant different things to different generations. Our ancestors
took pride in learning, making sacrifices, and caring for others’ well-being. But those
days are gone. Today, we mostly care only about ourselves. We feel jealous when our
neighbors succeed, and this leaves us feeling stressed and unhappy.
2. The word “happy” can have many meanings. It can mean lucky, fortunate, content, or
pleased. But true happiness comes from within a person’s mind. No matter how much
money or wealth someone has, it doesn’t necessarily make them happy.
3. Our ancestors lived very differently from how we live today. They followed the idea of
“simple living and high thinking.” People were satisfied with what they earned through
hard work. Having a lot of material wealth didn’t mean much to them. Instead, they
sought mental satisfaction and fulfillment in everything they did.
4. The structure of families in the past was also very different from today. They lived in
large, close-knit joint families, and this made them happier. Family members cared for
one another, and siblings grew up with their cousins. The love they shared is harder
to find in today’s small nuclear families. The joint family provided emotional support
during tough times, reducing stress. But in nuclear families, we’ve grown apart from our
relatives, and sometimes cousins don’t even recognize each other. Family conflicts can
lead to separation and destroy family bonds.
5. The joint family system was a great environment for children to grow up in. Children
learned important values like respect, responsibility, and honesty. As a result, they
became better human beings compared to today’s generation. For our ancestors, the
greatest happiness came when their children grew up to be honest individuals. Today,
however, we’re happy only when we achieve our material goals, and we’re often willing
to do anything to get there. Our way of thinking has become focused only on getting
what we want, no matter the cost.
Page 2 Sample Paper 15 CBSE 10th English LL

6. Our ancestors had a dream of making India the best country. They were willing to make
personal sacrifices to achieve this dream. Their happiness was tied to the well-being
of all Indians. But today, many people want to move to Western countries to enjoy a
more comfortable life. They leave behind the problems of Indian society without trying
to fix them. While they may succeed abroad, they often feel disconnected from their
homeland. They miss their childhood memories and family relationships, which makes it
hard for them to feel truly happy. Being far from aging parents also causes worry, and
it’s difficult for them to return because their children may not adjust to life in India. In
this way, our generation blends tradition and modernity into a unique lifestyle.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. In paragraph 1, what are some of the differences between our ancestors’ values and
modern values? 1

ii. Complete the following with the correct option : 1

True happiness, according to the passage, comes from :
(a) Having a lot of material wealth.
(b) What’s inside a person’s mind and their inner feelings.
(paragraph 2)

iii. How did our ancestors live differently from us, according to paragraph 3? 2

iv. Select the option that best explains the difference between joint families and nuclear
families : 1
(a) Joint families provided emotional support and close relationships, while nuclear
families are more distant.
(b) Nuclear families are happier because they are smaller.
(paragraph 4)

v. State whether the following statements is True or False. 1

Our ancestors believed that the greatest happiness came from raising children to be
successful in their careers.
(paragraph 5)

vi. The writer mentions in paragraph 6 that many people today move to Western
countries. 1
Which of the following are two reasons this can make them unhappy?
(A) They miss their childhood memories and feel disconnected from their homeland.
(B) They worry about being far from their aging parents.
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) They struggle with adjusting to the weather and new customs.

vii. List two values that children learned from growing up in joint families, as mentioned in
the passage. 2
(paragraph 5)
NODIA APP Sample Paper 15 Page 3

viii. Fill in the blank with the correct option : 1

Today, many people move away from India to live in Western countries because :
(A) They want to improve the problems in Indian society.
(B) They seek a more comfortable life but often feel disconnected from their homeland.
(C) They find more opportunities to visit their family members.
(D) They believe that life in Western countries offers more financial stability.
(paragraph 6)

2. Read the following text. 10

1. Mental health awareness has grown significantly in recent years, with more individuals
seeking help for conditions such as anxiety and depression. According to the World
Health Organization (WHO), 1 in 8 people worldwide lived with a mental health disorder
in 2021, representing about 970 million people. This is a sharp increase from 792 million
in 2017.
2. The COVID-19 pandemic further worsened global mental health, with rates of anxiety
and depression increasing by 25% during its peak in 2020. Factors such as social isolation,
job insecurity, and fear of illness contributed to this rise. Young people, particularly
those aged 15 to 29, experienced a 30% increase in anxiety-related conditions during this
period.
3. Many countries are working to improve mental health services by increasing funding,
promoting mental health education, and integrating mental health care into primary
healthcare systems. Telemedicine has emerged as a key tool, with usage increasing by
45% between 2020 and 2022, providing remote mental health support for individuals
who cannot access in-person care.
4. Despite progress, mental health services remain underfunded globally. WHO estimates
that low-income countries allocate less than 2% of their national health budgets to
mental health, compared to 5% in middle-income countries and 8% in high-income
countries. This leaves millions of individuals, particularly in low-income regions, without
adequate care.
5. Experts stress that addressing mental health is crucial for overall well-being, economic
productivity, and reducing the global burden of disease. Poor mental health is estimated
to cost the global economy $1 trillion annually due to lost productivity and increased
healthcare costs.

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. What does the use of the phrase “sharp increase” by the writer, in paragraph 1, suggest
about the rise in mental health disorders? 1
(A) The writer is downplaying the growth of mental health issues.
(B) The writer highlights a significant and rapid rise in mental health disorders.
(C) The writer is showing indifference to mental health issues.
(D) The writer believes mental health disorders have not changed significantly.
Page 4 Sample Paper 15 CBSE 10th English LL

ii. Select the option that is true for the assertion and reason given below : 1
Assertion : The COVID-19 pandemic worsened global mental health.
Reason : During the pandemic, anxiety and depression rates increased by 25%, driven
by factors such as social isolation and job insecurity.
(A) Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(B) Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(C) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(D) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.

iii. Identify the percentage increase in anxiety-related conditions among young people (aged
15 to 29) during the COVID-19 pandemic, as mentioned in the passage. 1

iv. According to the passage, what are two primary reasons for the rise in mental health
challenges during the pandemic? 1

v. Read the given prompt and select the correct option in the brackets to fill in the blank : 1
Global mental health conditions saw a steep rise, with the number of people affected
increasing by nearly 200 million between 2017 and 2021.
The total number of people living with mental health disorders in 2021 was _____
(792 million / 970 million / 1.2 billion).

vi. What are some of the strategies mentioned in the passage that countries are using to
improve mental health services? 1

vii. Complete the sentence suitably. 1

Telemedicine has become a critical tool in mental health care, with its usage increasing
by _____.

viii. Complete the following with a suitable reason : 1

Experts emphasize the importance of addressing mental health because _____.

ix. In the context of paragraph 5, why is addressing mental health critical for global well-
being and economic productivity? 2

GRAMMAR 10

3. Complete ANY TEN of twelve of the following tasks, as directed.

i. Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option to complete the sentence.
The director had come out of the office before I _____.
(A) arrived (B) arrive
(C) was arrived (D) had arrived
NODIA APP Sample Paper 16 Page 1

SAMPLE PAPER 16
ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE (184)
CLASS-X EXAM 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
1. This question paper comprises 11 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2 The Question Paper contains THREE sections -
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Grammar and Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature Textbook
3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

1. Read the following text. 10

1. Not too long ago, a group of teachers studied students and their learning problems. They
found something interesting. Students who struggled in subjects like Maths or Art could
still do well in other areas. However, students who were bad at reading tended to do
poorly in all their subjects.
2. At first, the teachers were confused by this, but they soon found the answer. They
realized that even subjects like Maths and Science depend on reading.
3. While other skills are involved in subjects like Maths, such as adding and subtracting,
most instructions are given in written form. Students often have to read homework
directions, tests, and word problems. If students can’t read and understand these, they
can’t solve the problems. So, being good at reading is important for success in almost
every subject.
4. If you go to college, you’ll spend most of your study time reading. You’ll need more
information, and the best way to get it is by reading. Even if information comes in
movies or tapes, it won’t help you unless you know how to read. In the future, magazines
and books may be on computers or microfilm, but they will still need to be read. The
same applies to learning in school—printed material isn’t going away anytime soon.
5. Success in school still depends on being able to read well. Students who can’t read or
don’t read well enough to understand the material will struggle. You are entering a
world where more and more reading is required every day. Instructions for using apps,
cooking food, understanding traffic signs, travel guides, and safety warnings all require
reading skills.
6. Your ability to find and keep a job is also linked to your reading ability. Even the simplest
jobs require some reading, and many people get better-paying jobs by learning new
skills through reading. The more specialized the job, the more you need to read quickly
and confidently. Doctors read medical journals to keep up with the latest treatments,
Page 2 Sample Paper 16 CBSE 10th English LL

pharmacists read prescriptions, and lawyers spend a lot of time reading legal documents.
Jobs that require strong reading skills are growing fast, and today, people who can’t read
well may have a hard time finding employment.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. In paragraph 1, what did the teachers discover about students who struggled with
reading? 1

ii. Complete the following with the correct option : 1

Why do students who are bad at reading struggle in subjects like Maths and Science?
(a) Because these subjects don’t require any reading.
(b) Because even these subjects have written instructions and problems that students
need to read and understand.
(paragraph 2)

iii. How does reading affect success in Maths, as explained in paragraph 3? 2

iv. Select the option that best explains the importance of reading in college : 1
(a) College students spend most of their time doing practical work.
(b) College students need to read a lot to get information, and even future technologies
will still require reading.
(paragraph 4)

v. State whether the following statement is True or False. 1

Printed material will soon disappear from schools, according to the passage.
(paragraph 4)

vi. The writer mentions in paragraph 5 that more reading is required in daily life today. 1
Which of the following are two examples of things that require reading skills?
(A) Understanding traffic signs and safety warnings.
(B) Instructions for using apps and food preparation guides.
(C) Both (A) and (B).
(D) Memorizing phone numbers and recognizing faces.
(paragraph 5)

vii. List two reasons why reading is important for getting and keeping a job, as mentioned
in the passage. 2
(paragraph 6)

viii. Fill in the blank with the correct option : 1

According to the passage, people who cannot read well :
(A) Will still find jobs easily in most professions.
(B) May struggle to find employment in today’s world where reading is necessary.
(C) Do not need to worry about learning to read quickly or confidently.
(D) Don’t need to worry about improving their reading skills.
(paragraph 6)
NODIA APP Sample Paper 16 Page 3

2. Read the following text. 10

1. The rise of e-commerce has transformed the global retail landscape. In 2023, global
e-commerce sales reached $5.9 trillion, accounting for 20% of total retail sales. This is a
significant increase from 2015, when e-commerce accounted for just 7.4% of retail sales.
2. The COVID-19 pandemic accelerated this shift, with online shopping becoming a
preferred method for many consumers. By 2021, more than 2.1 billion people worldwide
made online purchases, representing over a quarter of the global population. Convenience,
a wide range of options, and competitive pricing are major factors driving this growth.
3. Despite its advantages, e-commerce faces challenges. Issues like cybersecurity threats, data
privacy concerns, and environmental impacts from packaging and delivery services have
raised questions about its sustainability. Additionally, the rapid growth of e-commerce
has increased competition among retailers, with small businesses struggling to keep up.
4. Governments and businesses are working to address these issues. Many countries have
implemented stricter regulations on data privacy and introduced initiatives to promote
sustainable packaging and carbon-neutral delivery methods. E-commerce companies are
investing in technologies like artificial intelligence and automation to enhance customer
experiences and reduce environmental impacts.
5. Experts predict that by 2030, e-commerce will account for 30% of total retail sales,
further transforming the retail industry and reshaping consumer behavior.

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. What does the use of the phrase “transformed the global retail landscape” by the writer,
in paragraph 1, tell us about the impact of e-commerce? 1
(A) The writer is highlighting how e-commerce has drastically changed the retail
industry.
(B) The writer believes e-commerce has had little impact on retail.
(C) The writer thinks e-commerce is not significant for retail.
(D) The writer is indifferent to e-commerce’s impact on retail.

ii. Select the option that is true for the assertion and reason given below : 1
Assertion : E-commerce grew rapidly during the COVID-19 pandemic.
Reason : The pandemic made online shopping a preferred method for many consumers
due to convenience and safety concerns.
(A) Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(B) Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(C) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(D) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.

iii. Identify the percentage of global retail sales accounted for by e-commerce in 2023, as
mentioned in the passage. 1
Page 4 Sample Paper 16 CBSE 10th English LL

iv. According to the passage, what are two major challenges faced by the e-commerce
industry? 1

v. Read the given prompt and select the correct option in the brackets to fill in the blank : 1
The percentage of global e-commerce sales has risen sharply since 2015, driven by
convenience, competitive pricing, and a wide range of options.
In 2023, e-commerce accounted for _____ (15% / 20% / 30%) of total retail sales.

vi. What are some of the strategies mentioned in the passage that businesses and governments
are using to address e-commerce challenges? 1

vii. Complete the sentence suitably. 1

E-commerce companies are investing in new technologies such as _____.

viii. Complete the following with a suitable reason : 1

Experts predict that e-commerce will account for 30% of total retail sales by 2030
because _____.

ix. In the context of paragraph 5, why is the growth of e-commerce expected to further
transform the retail industry? 2

GRAMMAR 10

3. Complete ANY TEN of twelve of the following tasks, as directed.

i. Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option to complete an online update.
Forests remove carbon from the atmosphere _____ that is roughly 13% of our total
emission.
(A) at a rate (B) on a rate
(C) at the rate (D) on the rate

ii. Read the conversation between a doctor and his patient. Complete the sentence by
reporting the patient’s reply correctly.
Passenger 1 : Are you from the software industry sir?
Passenger 2 : Yes, but how do you know?
Passenger 1, tried to recollect some experience and asked passenger 2 _____. On this,
passenger 2 nodded his head in affirmation and inquisitively asked how he knew that.

iii. Select the correct option to fill in the blank for the given line.
When life is uncertain, our usual responses and coping strategies
not always work.
(A) may (B) might
(C) can (D) could
NODIA APP Sample Paper 17 Page 1

SAMPLE PAPER 17
ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE (184)
CLASS-X EXAM 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
1. This question paper comprises 11 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2 The Question Paper contains THREE sections -
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Grammar and Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature Textbook
3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

1. Read the following text. 10

1. A piano teacher once shared an interesting experience with a young woman who came
to ask about music lessons. The young woman asked, “How long will this course take?
My father says it’s trendy to play musical instruments, and I should learn one quickly.
I want something that is fast and easy.” The teacher, amused, explained that learning
music takes a lifetime of careful practice. The young woman was disappointed and never
returned.
2. The main reason some people succeed and others don’t is because of this “instant
coffee” attitude. Many of us want quick results. We want to succeed right away and
get frustrated when things don’t go as planned. We forget about the importance of
perseverance and patience. When a skill or activity requires a lot of effort and time, we
feel upset, lose motivation, and sometimes want to give up.
3. But thinking this way doesn’t help us solve the problem.
4. Life is hard for people with an “instant coffee” mindset. Real success and happiness
come to those who have a “bread-making” attitude. These are the people willing to put
in the time and effort, like kneading dough, waiting for it to rise, and going through the
long process before it’s ready. Nothing happens instantly. Whether it’s in your career,
studies, music, sports, relationships, fitness, or even spirituality, everything requires time
and effort.
5. Only if we are ready to spend time and work hard, while also having faith, can we
achieve results. If we don’t accept this tough truth, our lives won’t be truly happy or
fulfilling. We might not make the extra effort needed to change our lives for the better.
6. The problem with “instant coffee” solutions is that they don’t last long. If we keep
looking for quick fixes, we will likely end up going in the wrong direction.
Page 2 Sample Paper 17 CBSE 10th English LL

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. In paragraph 1, what was the young lady expecting from the music lessons? 1

ii. Complete the following with the correct option :

The “instant coffee” attitude is when :1
(a) People are willing to work hard and wait for results.
(b) People want quick results without putting in much effort or time.
(paragraph 2)

iii. How does the “bread-making” attitude differ from the “instant coffee” attitude, as
explained in paragraph 4? 2

iv. Select the option that best explains the problem with the “instant coffee” mindset : 1
(a) It motivates people to work harder in life.
(b) It causes frustration and leads people to give up easily when things take time and
effort.
(paragraph 2 and 3)
v. State whether the following statement is True or False. 1
People who accept that success takes time and effort are more likely to live happy and
fulfilling lives.
(paragraph 5)
vi. The writer mentions in paragraph 6 that “instant coffee” solutions don’t last long. 1
What does this imply for people who seek quick fixes?
(A) They achieve long-term success with ease.
(B) They often end up unsatisfied and going in the wrong direction.
(C) They experience more happiness and fulfillment.
(D) They become more patient and willing to work harder.

vii. List two areas of life where the “bread-making” attitude is important, as mentioned in
the passage. 2
(paragraph 4)

viii. Fill in the blank with the correct option : 1

The main lesson of the passage is that real success comes to those who :
(A) Always seek the easiest path.
(B) Put in consistent time and effort with patience.
(C) Look for shortcuts and fast results.
(D) Depend on luck rather than hard work.
(paragraph 4 and 5)

2. Read the following text. 10

1. India’s agricultural sector plays a crucial role in the country’s economy, employing
nearly 42% of the workforce and contributing around 17% to the national GDP in 2022.
Despite this, the sector faces numerous challenges, including water scarcity, inefficient
NODIA APP Sample Paper 17 Page 3

farming practices, and dependency on monsoon rains, which account for nearly 70% of
India’s annual rainfall. In 2021, nearly 70% of India’s farmers were small and marginal,
holding less than 2 hectares of land.
2. Climate change has exacerbated the unpredictability of monsoon patterns, leading to
more frequent droughts and floods. In 2020, floods caused losses of over $10 billion
to Indian agriculture, while droughts in some regions led to a 30% reduction in crop
yields. Such fluctuations severely impact the livelihood of farmers, who rely heavily on
consistent weather patterns for successful harvests.
3. The government has implemented several initiatives to support farmers. The Pradhan
Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) provides crop insurance for over 58 million farmers,
covering them against losses due to natural disasters. Another major initiative, the
Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY), has brought 21 million hectares
of farmland under improved irrigation systems, helping reduce the dependence on
monsoons.
4. Despite these programs, small and marginal farmers—who make up 86% of the farming
community—continue to face issues such as limited access to technology, credit, and
modern farming practices. In 2021, only 30% of small-scale farmers had access to
institutional credit, limiting their ability to invest in advanced agricultural methods and
technologies.
5. Experts emphasize that further investments in technology, infrastructure, and training
are essential to boost productivity and ensure sustainable farming practices, which will
be crucial for the long-term stability of India’s agricultural sector.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. What does the use of the phrase “crucial role” by the writer, in paragraph 1, suggest
about the significance of India’s agricultural sector? 1
(A) The writer believes agriculture is a minor part of the economy.
(B) The writer is emphasizing the essential importance of agriculture to India’s economy.
(C) The writer is indifferent to the role of agriculture.
(D) The writer believes agriculture plays no significant role in the economy.

ii. Select the option that is true for the assertion and reason given below : 1
Assertion : Climate change has worsened agricultural challenges in India.
Reason : Unpredictable monsoon patterns have led to frequent droughts and floods,
affecting crop yields.
(A) Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(B) Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(C) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(D) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.

iii. Identify the percentage of small and marginal farmers in India, as mentioned in the
passage. 1
Page 4 Sample Paper 17 CBSE 10th English LL

iv. According to the passage, what are two major government initiatives aimed at supporting
Indian farmers? 1
v. Read the given prompt and select the correct option in the brackets to fill in the blank : 1
Small and marginal farmers in India face numerous challenges, including limited
access to credit and technology, which hampers their ability to adopt modern farming
practices.
The percentage of Indian farmers who are small and marginal is _____ (70% / 86%
/ 58%).

vi. What are some of the strategies mentioned in the passage that the government is using
to address agricultural challenges? 1

vii. Complete the sentence suitably. 1

Floods in 2020 caused over $10 billion in losses to Indian agriculture, while droughts
led to _____.

viii. Complete the following with a suitable reason : 1

Experts stress the need for more investment in technology and infrastructure because
_____.

ix. In the context of paragraph 5, why is investing in modern technology and training
critical for the long-term stability of India’s agricultural sector? 2

GRAMMAR 10
3. Complete ANY TEN of twelve of the following tasks, as directed.
i. The ACC _____ the date of examination to recruit soldiers and train them to become
commissioned officers in the Indian Army.
(A) will announce (B) has announced
(C) to be announced (D) announcing

ii. Read the conversation between Amit and Shlok. Complete the sentence by reporting
Shlok’s statement correctly.
Amit : Are you going to Delhi today?
Shlok : No, I am coming with Devendra. He will start day after tomorrow.
Amit rang up Shlok and asked whether he was going to Delhi the following day. In
response to this, Shlok replied _____.

iii. Select the correct option to fill in the blank for the given line, from the speech of the
school President.
I _____ admit, the trek which we thought would be a boring and exhausting experience
was one of the most enjoyable experiences we have had this term.
(A) must (B) should
(C) need (D) would
NODIA APP Sample Paper 18 Page 1

SAMPLE PAPER 18
ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE (184)
CLASS-X EXAM 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
1. This question paper comprises 11 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2 The Question Paper contains THREE sections -
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Grammar and Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature Textbook
3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

1. Read the following text. 10

1. Crows are very aware of what’s happening around them and often observe humans closely.
Birds in the corvid family, like crows, magpies, and ravens, can build relationships with
people. When corvids trust their human friends, they sometimes show this by bringing
gifts, although it’s not guaranteed. Some people even feed crows as a calming, meditative
activity.
2. The behavior of crows differs based on where they live and their family group. There
are about 50 types of corvids around the world, and each type acts differently. While
they’re not the only smart birds, corvids stand out because they excel at skills that are
similar to humans. Crows can recognize human faces, remember if someone is friendly or
dangerous, and even share this information with other crows.
3. Crows have social systems that are similar to human communities in the Western world.
American crows, for example, have a family and territory they protect, but they also pay
attention to the other crows in their neighborhood. They interact with bigger groups of
unfamiliar crows, just like humans interact with people outside their close friendships.
4. Crows are careful creatures. They pay close attention to individual people more than
most birds. PET scans of crows’ brains show that when they see human faces they
connect with danger or kindness, certain parts of their brains linked to emotions and fear
become active. These parts are similar to the human brain, which is quite fascinating.
5. Crows have specific tastes in food. If you offer them a variety of foods, they will choose
their favorite. Earning their trust takes time and routine. Crows need to feel that you are
not a threat, that the food you give is safe, and that it will always be there. Sometimes
crows bring gifts to their human friends, but being friends with them also means being
responsible.
Page 2 Sample Paper 18 CBSE 10th English LL

6. People who love crows have encouraged others to feed them for years. However, feeding
them the wrong way can cause problems. If too much food is left out, crows might gather
in large numbers and bother the neighborhood. Just as crows communicate with each
other, people who feed them should be aware of how their actions affect their human
neighbors.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.
i. In paragraph 1, how do crows sometimes show their friendship with humans? 1

ii. Complete the following with the correct option : 1

Crows are known for being intelligent because :
(a) They can only recognize other birds.
(b) They can recognize human faces and share information with other crows.
(paragraph 2)
iii. How do American crows interact with their surroundings and other crows, as explained
in paragraph 3? 2

iv. Select the option that best describes the similarities between the crow’s brain and the
human brain : 1
(a) Crows and humans have the same brain size.
(b) Crows, like humans, have brain areas that handle emotions and fear.
(paragraph 4)

v. State whether the following statement is True or False. 1

Crows are picky eaters and will only eat one kind of food.
(paragraph 5)

vi. The writer mentions in paragraph 6 that feeding crows can become a problem. 1
What could happen if too much food is left out for them?
(A) The crows may become sick from overeating.
(B) Crows might gather in large numbers and disturb the neighborhood.
(C) The food will spoil, and crows will stop coming.
(D) Crows will become too dependent on human food and lose their ability to find food
in nature. (2)

vii. List two things humans should keep in mind when feeding crows, as mentioned in the
passage. 2
(paragraph 5 and 6)

viii. Fill in the blank with the correct option : 1

The passage suggests that being friends with crows also means :
(A) Taking responsibility for how your actions affect your neighbors.
(B) Giving the crows as much food as possible.
(C) Allowing crows to gather in large groups in your area.
(D) Ignoring how crows interact with other people around you.
(paragraph 6)
NODIA APP Sample Paper 18 Page 3

2. Read the following text. 10

1. India’s healthcare sector has been growing rapidly, with an estimated market value
of 27.5 lakh crore in 2022, up from 11.8 lakh crore in 2017. This growth is driven by
factors such as rising income levels, expanding middle-class populations, and increased
access to healthcare services. However, India’s healthcare system faces several challenges,
including limited access to rural healthcare, high out-of-pocket expenses, and a shortage
of healthcare professionals.
2. In rural areas, where nearly 65% of India’s population resides, access to quality healthcare
remains a significant issue. The doctor-to-patient ratio in rural India is as low as 1 :10,000,
compared to 1 :1,500 in urban areas. Additionally, over 62% of healthcare expenses are
paid out of pocket by individuals, placing a substantial financial burden on households.
3. To address these issues, the Indian government has launched initiatives such as Ayushman
Bharat, which aims to provide health insurance to over 50 crore individuals, covering up
to 5 lakh per family per year for secondary and tertiary care. The Pradhan Mantri Jan
Arogya Yojana (PMJAY), part of the Ayushman Bharat scheme, is one of the largest
healthcare schemes in the world.
4. Despite these efforts, the shortage of healthcare workers continues to be a major problem.
As of 2022, India had only 1 doctor for every 1,445 people, below the World Health
Organization’s recommended ratio of 1 :1,000. The government has been investing in the
expansion of medical education to produce more healthcare professionals and bridge this
gap.
5. Experts believe that with continued investments in healthcare infrastructure, technology,
and workforce development, India’s healthcare sector could reach a market value of 40
lakh crore by 2030, providing better access to quality care for all citizens.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. What does the use of the phrase “growing rapidly” by the writer, in paragraph 1,
suggest about India’s healthcare sector? 1
(A) The writer believes the healthcare sector is stagnant.
(B) The writer is emphasizing the fast expansion of the healthcare sector.
(C) The writer is indifferent to the growth of the healthcare sector.
(D) The writer believes the healthcare sector is shrinking.

ii. Select the option that is true for the assertion and reason given below : 1
Assertion : India’s rural population faces significant healthcare challenges.
Reason : Rural areas in India have a much lower doctor-to-patient ratio compared to
urban areas.
(A) Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(B) Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(C) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(D) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Page 4 Sample Paper 18 CBSE 10th English LL

iii. Identify the percentage of healthcare expenses paid out of pocket by individuals in India,
as mentioned in the passage. 1

iv. According to the passage, what are two major government initiatives aimed at improving
healthcare access in India? 1

v. Read the given prompt and select the correct option in the brackets to fill in the blank : 1
The Ayushman Bharat scheme aims to provide health insurance coverage for millions
of Indian citizens, reducing their out-of-pocket healthcare expenses.
Ayushman Bharat covers up to (1 lakh / 3 lakh / 5 lakh) per family per year for
secondary and tertiary care.

vi. What are some of the strategies mentioned in the passage that the Indian government is
using to address healthcare challenges? 1

vii. Complete the sentence suitably. 1

The shortage of healthcare workers remains a critical issue in India, with only
_____.

viii. Complete the following with a suitable reason : 1

Experts believe that continued investment in healthcare infrastructure is necessary
because _____.

ix. In the context of paragraph 5, why is investing in healthcare workforce development

crucial for the future of India’s healthcare system? 2

GRAMMAR 10

3. Complete ANY TEN of twelve of the following tasks, as directed.

i. Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option to complete the sentence.
I _____ following you in the evening today.
(A) will
(B) will be
(B) will have been
(D) would have been

ii. Read the conversation between Radha and Anu. Complete the narration by reporting
Radha’s reply correctly.
Anu : Today, it was boring at school, don’t you think so?
Radha : No, I think it was a fun day today.
While walking back from school, Anu and Radha were discussing their day, when Anu
asked Radha about her day at school and Radha replied _____.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 19 Page 1

SAMPLE PAPER 19
ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE (184)
CLASS-X EXAM 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
1. This question paper comprises 11 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2 The Question Paper contains THREE sections -
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Grammar and Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature Textbook
3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

1. Read the following text. 10

1. Even international students who speak English as their first language might have a hard
time adjusting to a new academic culture. One common problem is listening. Students
may feel anxious about this, and it takes time to get better at it. They need structured
help, such as learning how to focus on the main points. They also need guidance with
academic reading, like how to approach an article, skim through, read deeply, and take
notes.
2. As students improve their listening skills, they face bigger challenges with academic
writing. In places like Britain, much of education is based on writing essays, but this can
be difficult for students from different cultures. They need to develop their own ideas,
form opinions, and analyze different issues in clear English. For some, writing this way is
unfamiliar, and they may struggle with plagiarism, which means copying someone else’s
ideas. In Britain, plagiarism is considered stealing, but that’s not always the case in
other countries. Students are expected to do research in the library and are not allowed
to simply repeat what was said in lectures.
3. The best way to handle these difficulties is to be prepared. The first step is taking a test
to check if their English skills are good enough to deal with academic challenges.
4. If a test shows that a student’s English skills are not strong enough for university, they
can take pre-sessional courses, usually at the university they want to attend. These
courses can last from three weeks to a full academic year, so students need to be realistic
about their needs. It generally takes around 200 hours of study to improve one low
score on some tests. Some universities, especially those that used to be polytechnics,
are offering more flexible pre-sessional and foundation courses. For example, Elisabeth
Jones, Director of the Centre for Language Study at Leeds Metropolitan University,
says, “Our courses are offered every month, so students from different parts of the world
can join at any time.”
Page 2 Sample Paper 19 CBSE 10th English LL

5. She believes that new universities are generally more flexible with language training
than older ones. “Universities like ours can accept students with lower language test
scores and help them improve through a programme until they reach the required level,
though we can’t guarantee how long it will take.”
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.
i. In paragraph 1, what is one common problem international students face when adjusting
to a new academic culture? 1

ii. Complete the following with the correct option : 1

International students may struggle with academic writing because :
(a) They only need to summarize lecture notes.
(b) They are expected to express their own ideas and opinions, which may be unfamiliar
to them.
(paragraph 2)
iii. What is plagiarism, and why is it a problem in places like Britain? 2
(paragraph 2)

iv. Select the option that best explains how students can overcome academic challenges : 1
(a) By relying on lecture notes for all assignments.
(b) By preparing in advance and taking language tests to assess their skills.
(paragraph 3)

v. State whether the following statement is True or False. 1

Pre-sessional courses are usually very short, lasting no more than three weeks.
(paragraph 4)

vi. The writer mentions in paragraph 4 that some universities offer more flexible language
training. 1
What makes these courses flexible for students from different parts of the world?
(A) The courses are free and open to all students.
(B) The courses are offered every month, so students can join at any time.
(C) The courses are only offered during summer breaks.
(D) The courses are shorter, lasting no more than two weeks.

vii. List two reasons why some newer universities are considered more flexible when it comes
to language training. 2
(paragraph 5)

viii. Fill in the blank with the correct option : 1

According to the passage, improving language skills may require :
(A) 200 hours of study to improve a low score on some tests.
(B) 20 hours of study before enrolling in a degree program.
(C) No additional study for students who already speak English.
(D) Skipping any language courses as they are unnecessary.
(paragraph 4)
NODIA APP Sample Paper 19 Page 3

2. Read the following text. 10

1. The Indian education system has seen significant changes over the last decade. In
2021, the literacy rate in India reached 77.7%, compared to 74% in 2011. Government
initiatives such as Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) and the Right to Education Act (RTE)
have played a role in improving access to education. However, in rural regions, only 64%
of students complete secondary education, compared to 79% in urban areas.
2. In 2020, the government introduced the National Education Policy (NEP) to reform
the Indian education system, focusing on critical thinking, digital literacy, and flexible
learning pathways. The NEP aims to increase the gross enrollment ratio (GER) in
higher education to 50% by 2035, up from the current 27%. As of 2021, only 11% of rural
students had access to higher education compared to 51% of their urban counterparts.
3. The COVID-19 pandemic caused major disruptions in the education sector, leading to
a shift toward online learning. By mid-2021, over 250 million students across India were
learning remotely. However, the digital divide is a significant barrier, as 29% of rural
households lack access to the internet, compared to just 4% in urban areas.
4. The government is working to bridge this gap by increasing investments in digital
infrastructure through initiatives like PM eVIDYA. This initiative aims to provide
multi-modal access to education through TV channels, online courses, and mobile apps,
targeting over 100 million students by 2025.
5. Experts believe that with continued investments in digital education and reforms under
the NEP, India’s education sector can achieve substantial growth in the coming years,
equipping students with the skills needed for a rapidly evolving job market.

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. What does the use of the phrase “significant changes” by the writer, in paragraph 1,
suggest about the Indian education system? 1
(A) The writer believes the education system has remained stagnant.
(B) The writer is emphasizing the major reforms and improvements in the education
system.
(C) The writer is indifferent to the changes in the education system.
(D) The writer believes there have been no meaningful improvements.

ii. Select the option that is true for the assertion and reason given below : 1
Assertion : The digital divide has made online learning inaccessible for many students
in rural areas.
Reason : A large percentage of rural households lack access to the internet.
(A) Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(B) Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(C) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(D) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Page 4 Sample Paper 19 CBSE 10th English LL

iii. Identify the percentage of rural households that lack access to the internet, as mentioned
in the passage. 1

iv. According to the passage, what are two key initiatives introduced by the Indian
government to improve access to education? 1

v. Read the given prompt and select the correct option in the brackets to fill in the blank : 1
The National Education Policy (NEP) aims to reform the Indian education system and
increase the gross enrollment ratio in higher education.
The NEP targets a gross enrollment ratio of _____ (27% / 50% / 64%) by 2035.

vi. What are some of the strategies mentioned in the passage that the government is using
to address the digital divide? 1

vii. Complete the sentence suitably. 1

The digital divide in India is reflected by the fact that rural areas have , compared to
only 4% in urban areas _____.

viii. Complete the following with a suitable reason : 1

Experts believe that continued investment in digital education is essential because
_____.

ix. In the context of paragraph 5, why is investing in digital infrastructure critical for the
future of India’s education system? 2

GRAMMAR 10

3. Complete ANY TEN of twelve of the following tasks, as directed.

i. Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option to complete the sentence.
If we _____ one more batsman in our team, we would have won the match.
(A) had had (B) would have been
(C) would have (D) would have had

ii. Read the conversation between Reena and Rakesh. Complete the sentence by reporting
Rakesh’s reply correctly.
Reena : Have you seen ‘Three Idiots’ ?
Rakesh : I saw them yesterday in my class.
Reena asked Rakesh if he had seen ‘Three Idiots’. Rakesh replied that _____.

iii. Select the correct option to fill in the blank for the given line.
The swimmer was tired but he _____ reach the shore before he collapsed.
(A) will (B) could
(C) may (D) must
NODIA APP Sample Paper 20 Page 1

SAMPLE PAPER 20
ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE (184)
CLASS-X EXAM 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
1. This question paper comprises 11 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2 The Question Paper contains THREE sections -
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Grammar and Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature Textbook
3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

1. Read the following text. 10

1. Sport has quickly become a big part of the entertainment industry, and the smallest
details of athletes’ private lives are exposed by the media for everyone to see. Top
athletes are often called “stars,” and businesses take advantage of their skills to make
money. Big profits are made by selling sports gear that looks like what the professionals
wear, and newspapers sell more copies if they have good sports coverage. Spectators
even make money by betting on the results of games.
2. The growing demand for new talented athletes adds to the idea that professional sports
are glamorous. However, even those who make it to the top can only stay there for a
short time, and they often need help finding a new career afterward.
3. It’s always appealing to do something interesting and do it well, but serious injuries or
unexpected losses in performance can quickly stop many young athletes from progressing.
Outdoor sports can be enjoyable, except when bad weather like rain, snow, or fog gets
in the way. Hearing thousands of fans cheering your name is flattering, but fans can be
unpredictable and forget athletes quickly once age affects their abilities.
4. Athletes at the top of their game get to travel all over the world—cricketers may play
during the Australian summer, and Wimbledon champions may spend the year in sunny
places. However, their social lives suffer, and they have to give up their free time for
hard, tiring practice. All professional athletes must follow strict training schedules to
stay fit, which requires a lot of exercise, discipline, and careful control of their diet and
habits.
5. Athletes retire early, and the money they earned may not be enough to last the rest of
their lives. After retiring, they need to find a new career, but they often start fifteen
years behind others in the workforce. They may not have enough fame in their sport
to get a high-paying job. In the end, it might be better to stay an amateur sports
enthusiast.
Page 2 Sample Paper 20 CBSE 10th English LL

Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.

i. In paragraph 1, how do businesses take advantage of top athletes’ skills? 1

ii. Complete the following with the correct option : 1

Professional sports are often seen as glamorous because :
(a) Athletes’ careers last a long time.
(b) There is a high demand for talented athletes, and they are treated like stars.
(paragraph 2)
iii. What are two challenges young athletes face, as mentioned in paragraph 3? 2

iv. Select the option that best explains how athletes’ social lives are affected : 1
(a) Athletes have a lot of free time to spend with their families.
(b) Athletes’ social lives are disrupted by their need to travel and train hard.
(paragraph 4)
v. State whether the following statement is True or False. 1
Athletes retire early, and most of them have enough money to live on for the rest of their
lives.
(paragraph 5)
vi. The writer mentions in paragraph 3 that fans can be fickle. 1
What does this mean for athletes?
(A) Fans always remain loyal to athletes throughout their careers.
(B) Fans quickly forget about athletes once their performance declines or age affects
them.
(C) Fans become more supportive as athletes age.
(D) Fans help athletes recover from injuries.

vii. List two reasons why being an amateur athlete might be better than being a professional,
as suggested in the passage. 2
(paragraph 5)
viii. Fill in the blank with the correct option : 1
After retiring, athletes often struggle in their new careers because :
(A) They retired too late to start a new job.
(B) They enter the workforce later than others and may not have enough fame to get
a high salary.
(C) They earned too much money during their sports career.
(D) They have no desire to work after retirement.
(paragraph 5)

2. Read the following text. 10

1. The Indian tourism industry has been a major contributor to the country’s economy,
generating 16.91 lakh crore, or 9.2% of India’s GDP, in 2022. The sector also supported
nearly 39 million jobs, which represents 8% of the country’s total employment. However,
the COVID-19 pandemic severely impacted tourism, with international tourist arrivals
decreasing by 75% in 2020 and 2021.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 20 Page 3

2. Domestic tourism, which accounts for about 88% of the total tourism in India, has
shown signs of recovery. In 2022, domestic tourists took nearly 1.5 billion trips, up from
1.2 billion trips in 2021. Popular destinations include states like Kerala, Rajasthan, and
Uttarakhand, known for their rich cultural heritage and natural beauty.
3. The government has launched several initiatives to boost tourism. The Dekho Apna
Desh campaign encourages domestic travel, while schemes like Swadesh Darshan and
PRASHAD aim to develop tourism infrastructure and promote heritage and spiritual
sites.
4. Medical and wellness tourism is another growing segment. India attracted 1.4 million
medical tourists in 2022, drawn by the country’s affordable healthcare services. Ayurveda
and yoga retreats have also seen a surge in popularity among wellness tourists.
5. Experts predict that with continued government support and rising domestic demand,
the Indian tourism sector could return to pre-pandemic levels by 2025, contributing even
more to the economy and creating millions of jobs.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.
i. What does the use of the phrase “major contributor” by the writer, in paragraph 1,
suggest about the Indian tourism industry? 1
(A) The writer believes tourism has no impact on the economy.
(B) The writer is highlighting the importance of tourism to India’s economy.
(C) The writer is indifferent to the role of tourism.
(D) The writer thinks tourism has only a minor role in the economy.
ii. Select the option that is true for the assertion and reason given below : 1
Assertion : Domestic tourism has recovered more quickly than international tourism in
India.
Reason : The majority of Indian tourism is driven by domestic travelers.
(A) Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(B) Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(C) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(D) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.
iii. Identify the percentage decrease in international tourist arrivals in India due to the
COVID-19 pandemic, as mentioned in the passage. 1

iv. According to the passage, what are two major government initiatives aimed at boosting
tourism in India? 1
v. Read the given prompt and select the correct option in the brackets to fill in the blank : 1
The Indian tourism industry contributed significantly to the economy in 2022,
generating 16.91 lakh crore and supporting millions of jobs.
Tourism contributed ____ (7% / 8% / 9.2%) of India’s GDP in 2022.

vi. What are some of the strategies mentioned in the passage that the Indian government is
using to revive the tourism industry? 1
Page 4 Sample Paper 20 CBSE 10th English LL

vii. Complete the sentence suitably. 1

Medical and wellness tourism in India has grown due to _____.

viii. Complete the following with a suitable reason : 1

Experts believe that the Indian tourism sector could return to pre-pandemic levels by
2025 because _____.

ix. In the context of paragraph 5, why is continued government support important for the
future of India’s tourism industry? 2

GRAMMAR 10
3. Complete ANY TEN of twelve of the following tasks, as directed.
i. Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option to complete the sentence.
A bank _____ various kinds of loans to its account holders so that they _____ set
up a business, buy property or a vehicle.
(A) will offer, will (B) offers, can
(C) should offer, must (D) will be offering, should

ii. Read the conversation between a judge and a lawyer. Complete the sentence by report-
ing the dialogue.
“Call the accused,” said the judge.
“My client is hospitalised for hypertension,” his lawyer informed the judge.
As soon as, the judge commanded _____ the accused, his lawyer informed him that
his client _____ for hypertension.

iii. Select the correct option to fill in the blank for the given line, from a health magazine
on mental health. Even highways have lines, which provide safety and if we go over one
side, we’ll go into the ditch and if we cross over the line in the middle, we _____ get
killed.
(A) should (B) must
(C) could (D) need not

iv. Select the option that identifies the error and supplies the correction for the following
line, from an article on philosophy.
‘These sights of disease, misery and death quite moved him that he at once became a
beggar and went out into the world to seek enlightenment concerning the sorrows he
had witnessed.’
Option No. Error Correction
(A) of about
(B) quite so
(C) into around
(D) had witnessed witnessed
NODIA APP Sample Paper 21 Page 1

SAMPLE PAPER 21
ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE (184)
CLASS-X EXAM 2024-25
Time Allowed : 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
1. This question paper comprises 11 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2 The Question Paper contains THREE sections -
Section A : Reading Skills
Section B : Grammar and Creative Writing Skills
Section C : Literature Textbook
3. Attempt questions based on specific instructions for each part.

1. Read the following text. 10

1. Summer vacation can be both a challenge and an opportunity for families. For some kids,
it becomes a time of doing nothing and falling behind in personal growth. For others,
and their parents, it’s a period filled with too many activities and tight schedules.
2. “Summer is a wonderful chance for parents to bond with their children,” says a well-
known child psychologist. It’s also a time when children can learn and families can grow
together. To make this happen, educators and psychologists suggest several simple tips
that parents can start planning before summer begins.
3. “Summer is a great time for kids to use the skills they’ve learned in school in new ways,”
says a well-known educator. For example, comparing prices at the grocery store can help
children practice mental math. Measuring for building projects like a treehouse or a toy
teaches them geometry. Even long car trips are opportunities to study maps and learn
geography.
4. Sometimes kids need a little nudge in the right direction. Victoria, for instance, encouraged
her seven-year-old son, Philip, to join their local library’s summer reading club. For each
book report he wrote, Philip earned a raffle ticket, and by the end of the summer, he
won an autographed picture of a hockey star. His name was also printed in the local
newspaper for one of his reports. Even though Philip complained about writing, in the
end, he was proud of his work, and his ability to express himself improved.
5. Parents who offer daily stimulation—whether intellectual, creative, or self-esteem
boosting—have the greatest impact on their children, says a well-known researcher. In a
study from 1998, researchers compared how successful college students spent their free
time as kids with those of troubled youth. They found that successful kids were more
likely to play spontaneous games, help with household chores, and engage in playful
activities with their parents.
Page 2 Sample Paper 21 CBSE 10th English LL

6. Educators say that truly successful children are those who learn to manage their time and
help others—whether that’s helping a neighbor in need or cooking meals for their family.
Experts believe that parents often fail because they don’t present these responsibilities
in a positive way.
7. For many parents of school-aged children, summer is the longest stretch of time they
get to spend with their kids. With a little planning, they can use this time to help their
children become smarter, more creative, and more caring individuals.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.
i. In paragraph 1, what are the two main challenges families face during summer
vacation? 1
ii. Complete the following with the correct option : 1
Summer is an opportunity for parents to :
(a) Let children spend time away from home.
(b) Bond with their children and help them grow.
(paragraph 2)
iii. How can summer be used to reinforce skills learned in school, according to paragraph
3? 2
iv. Select the option that best explains how Philip benefited from his summer reading club
experience : 1
(a) Philip found reading boring and gained nothing from it.
(b) Philip improved his writing skills and earned recognition for his efforts.
(paragraph 4)
v. State whether the following statement is True or False. 1
Successful kids are more likely to engage in spontaneous games and help with
household chores.
(paragraph 5)
vi. The writer mentions in paragraph 6 that parents can fail in presenting responsibilities
to children. 1
What is one reason for this failure?
(A) Parents make responsibilities seem like a burden instead of presenting them positively.
(B) Parents give children too many responsibilities at once.
(C) Parents avoid giving children responsibilities.
(D) Parents think children are too young to handle any responsibilities.

vii. List two ways parents can help their children develop into better individuals during
summer, as mentioned in the passage. 2
(paragraph 5 and 6)
viii. Fill in the blank with the correct option : 1
According to the passage, the summer break offers parents :
(A) A time to enroll children in more school-like activities.
(B) A chance to help their children become smarter and more caring individuals.
NODIA APP Sample Paper 21 Page 3

(C) An opportunity to focus entirely on their own work.

(D) A time to let children relax without any responsibilities.
(paragraph 7)

2. Read the following text. 10

1. Education plays a pivotal role in shaping India’s future, and over the past decade, there
has been a strong focus on improving literacy rates and access to education. By 2021,
India’s literacy rate reached 77.7%, up from 64.8% in 2001. However, rural literacy still
lags behind at 67%, compared to 84% in urban areas.
2. Dropout rates remain a challenge, especially among girls in rural regions. In 2020, about 40%
of girls aged 15-18 dropped out of school, with early marriage and lack of sanitation facilities
cited as key reasons. For boys, the dropout rate during the same age range was 33%.
3. The government has introduced several initiatives to improve education access and
reduce dropout rates. Programs like Beti Bachao Beti Padhao have focused on increasing
girls’ enrollment in schools. The Midday Meal Scheme has benefitted over 100 million
children across India, helping to improve attendance and reduce hunger.
4. The COVID-19 pandemic caused significant disruptions in education. By mid-2021, over
240 million students were affected by school closures, leading to a shift toward online
learning. However, only 24% of Indian households had access to the internet, further
widening the digital divide between urban and rural areas.
5. Experts believe that continued investments in infrastructure, teacher training, and
digital education are essential to ensure equitable access to education. They predict that
with improved resources, India’s literacy rate could reach 85% by 2030.
Answer the following questions, based on the passage above.
i. What does the use of the phrase “pivotal role” by the writer, in paragraph 1, suggest
about the importance of education in India? 1
(A) The writer is indifferent to the role of education.
(B) The writer believes education is not important.
(C) The writer is highlighting the essential role education plays in shaping India’s
future.
(D) The writer thinks education is not a priority.

ii. Select the option that is true for the assertion and reason given below : 1
Assertion : The dropout rate for girls in rural India is higher than for boys.
Reason : Lack of sanitation facilities and early marriage contribute to the high dropout
rate for girls.
(A) Both the assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(B) Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(C) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(D) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Page 4 Sample Paper 21 CBSE 10th English LL

iii. Identify the percentage of Indian households with access to the internet in 2021, as
mentioned in the passage. 1

iv. According to the passage, what are two major government initiatives aimed at improving
education access in India? 1

v. Read the given prompt and select the correct option in the brackets to fill in the blank : 1
The literacy rate in rural India remains lower than in urban areas, with rural literacy
at just .
The literacy rate in rural India is _____ (67% / 74% / 77%).

vi. What are some of the challenges mentioned in the passage that are preventing girls in
rural India from continuing their education? 1

vii. Complete the sentence suitably. 1

The COVID-19 pandemic widened the digital divide in India, as only _____.

viii. Complete the following with a suitable reason : 1

Experts predict that India’s literacy rate could reach 85% by 2030 because _____.

ix. In the context of paragraph 5, why is investing in infrastructure, teacher training, and
digital education critical for the future of India’s education system? 2

GRAMMAR 10

3. Complete ANY TEN of twelve of the following tasks, as directed.

i. Fill in the blank by choosing the correct option to complete the sentence.
The mechanic _____ the vehicle since the morning.
(A) repaired (B) repairing
(C) has been repairing (D) will be repairing

ii. Read the conversation between customer and shopkeeper. Complete the sentence by
reporting shopkeeper’s reply correctly.
Customer : Can I have a bottle of juice?
Shopkeeper : Sorry, we only have milk bottles.
The customer asked the shopkeeper if he could have a bottle of juice. The shopkeeper
apologized and said _____.

iii. Select the correct option to fill in the blank for the given line.
Genius does what it must, and talent does what it _____.
(A) can (B) would
(C) may (D) should