TARGET (MED.

) CODE-X
Time : 3 Hrs.| Total Marks : 720

PHYSICS
  
(3) a x  a y / 2 
(4) a x  a y  a z 
01. The magnitude of the X and Y components of A
are 7 and 6. Also the magnitudes of X and Y ^ ^
07. A particle has an initial velocity 3 i  4 j and an
 
components A  B are 11 and 9 respectively. ^ ^
acceleration of 0.4 i  0.3 j. Its speed after 10 s is:

What is the magnitude of B ? (1) 10 unit (2) 7 2 unit
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 9 (3) 7 unit (4) 8.5 unit
02. If the resultant of two forces (A + B) and (A – B) 08. A train has a speed of 60 km/h.for the first one
is A  B , then the angle between these
2 2 hour and 40 km/h for the next half hour.Its
forces is average speed in km/h is :
(1) 50 (2) 53.33 (3) 48 (4) 70
 A2  B2   
 (2) cos   2
1 
 A 2  B2  
 09. A balloon is going upwards with velocity
(1) cos 1  12 m/sec. It releases a packet when it is at a
 A 2  B2   A  B2 
    height of 65m from the ground. How much time
the packet will take to reach the ground if
g =10m/s2

A2  B2

 (4) cos 1 


 2 A 2  B2  
(3) cos 
1
 A 2  B2  (1) 5 sec. (2) 6 sec. (3) 7 sec. (4) 8 sec.
 2 A2  B2
   
  
10. A ball is dropped from a bridge 122.5 metres
  above a river. After the ball has been falling for
03. If A1 and A 2 are two non-collinear unit vectors 2 seconds, a second ball is thrown straight down
  after it. What must its initial velocity be so that
and if | A1  A 2 | 3 , then the value of both hit the water at the same time?

       (1) 49 m/s (2) 55.5 m/s

 A1  A 2  .  2 A1  A 2  is
    (3) 26.1 m/s (4) 9.8 m/s
(1) 1 (2) 1/2 (3) 3/2 (4) 2 11. A stone thrown upward with a speed u from the
top of the tower reaches the ground with a
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ velocity 3u. The height of the tower is
04. The vectors 2 i  3 j 2 k , 5 i  a j k , and
^ ^ ^
(1) 3u2/g (2) 4u2/g
 i  2 j 3 k are coplanar when a is
(3) 6 u2/g (4) 9 u2/g
(1) – 9 (2) 9 (3) –18 (4) 18 12. A train is moving along a straight path with
  uniform acceleration. Its engine passes across
05. A vector A when added to the vector B  3 ^i  4 ^j a pole with a velocity of 60km/h and the end
yields a resultant vector that is in the positive (guard’s van) passes across same pole with a
y direction and has a magnitude equal to that velocity of 80 km/h. The middle point of the
  train will pass across same pole with a velocity:
of B . Find the magnitude of A . (1) 70 km/h (2) 70.7 km/h
(1) 10 (2) 10 (3) 5 (4) 15 (3) 65 km/h (4) 75 km/h


13. A projectile is fired at an angle of 45º with the
^ ^ ^
06. The component of vector A  a x i  a y j a z k horizontal. Elevation angle of the projectile at
its highest point as seen from the point of
 ^ ^ projection, is
along the direction of  i  j  is (1) 45º (2) 60º
 
1  1  1  3 

(1) a x  a y  a z  
(2) a x  a y  (3) tan  
 2
(4) tan  2 
 
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14. A boy aims at a bird from a point at a horizontal 21. Inertia is that property of a body by virtue of
distance of 100 m. The gun can impart a velocity which the body is
of 500 m/s to the bullet. At what height above (1) unable to change by itself the state of rest
the bird must he aim his gun in order to hit?
(2) unable to change by itself the state of
(g = 10 m/s2) uniform motion
(1) 20 cm (2) 40cm (3) 50cm (4) 100cm (3) unable to change by itself the direction of
15. The equation of trajectory of a particle is motion

7 (4) unable to change by itself the state of rest

y  7x    x 2 or of uniform motion
5
22. Two blocks of masses 10 kg and 20 kg are
If we assume g = 10 m/s 2 , then range of connected by a massless string and are placed
projectile (in meter) : on a smooth horizontal surface as shown in the
(1) 10 (2) 24 (3) 5 (4) 9 figure. If a force F = 600 N is applied to 10 kg
16. A car moving horizontally along a straight line block, then the tension in the string is
with constant speed 20 m/s. A projectile is to
20
be fired from moving cart in such a way that it F 10
kg
kg
will return to cart after the cart has moved
100 m. At what speed (relative to the cart) must
the projectile be fired ? (take g = 10 m/s2) (1) 100 N (2) 200 N

(1) 10 ms–1 (2) 25 m/s–1 (3) 300 N (4) 400 N

23. The displacement of a particle of mass m is
40 25
(3) ms –1 (4) ms –1 1 2
3 3 given by y  ut  gt The force acting on the
2
17. A projectile was moving on a certain planet with particle is
no surrounding atmosphere. Its height y and
distance x along horizontal plane are given by : mu
y = 12t – 6t2m and x = 5t m where, t is in (1) mg (2)
t
seconds. The velocity with which the projectile
is projected is : 2mu
(1) 6 ms–1 (2) 13 ms–1 (3) 10 ms–1 (4) 14 ms–1 (3) 2 mg (4)
t
18. A body is projected horizontally with a velocity of 24. Two masses of 5 kg and 3 kg are suspended
4 2m/sec. The velocity of the body after 0.7 with the help of massless inextensible strings
seconds will be nearly ( Take g = 10 m/sec2) as shown in figure. The whole system is going
upwards with an acceleration of 2 ms–2. The
(1) 10 m/sec (2) 9 m/sec tensions T1 and T2 are (Take g = 10 ms–2)
(3) 19 m/sec (4) 11 m/sec
19. The mass of a lift is 2000 kg. When the tension
in the supporting cable is 28000 N, then its T1
acceleration is 5 kg
(1) 4 ms–2 upwards (2) 4 ms–2 downwards
T2
(3) 14 ms–2 upwards (4) 30 ms–2 downwards
3 kg
20. A body of mass 3 kg hits a wall at an angle of
60° and returns at the same angle. The impact
(1) 96 N, 36 N (2) 36N, 96 N
time was 0.2 sec. The force exerted on the wall
(3) 96 N, 96 N (4) 36N, 36 N
25. Starting from rest, a body slides down a 45°
60° inclined plane in twice the time it takes to slide
down the same distance in the absence of
60°
friction. The coefficient of friction between the
10 m/s body and the inclined plane is
(1) 0.80 (2) 0.75
(1) 150 3 N (2) 50 3
(3) 0.25 (4) 0.33
(3) 100 N (4) 75 3 N
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26. The coefficient of static friction, s, between
 F
block A of mass 2 kg and the table as shown in (3) µ  mg – 
the figure is 0.2. What would be the maximum  2
mass value of block B so that the two blocks do
not move? The string and the pulley are  3 
assumed to be smooth and massless. (4) µ  mg  2 F 
 
(g = 10 m/s2)
31. A plank with a box on it at one end is gradually
2 kg A raised about the other end. As the angle of
inclination with the horizontal reaches 30°, the
box starts to slip and slides 4.0m down the plank
in 4.0 s.
B

(1) 2.0 kg (2) 4.0 kg (3) 0.2 kg (4) 0.4 kg mg

27. A block of mass m is in contact with the cart C 
as shown in the figure. The coefficients of static and kinetic friction
The coefficient of static friction between the between the box and the plank will be,
block and the cart is . The acceleration  of respectively
the cart that will prevent the block from falling (1) 0.5 and 0.6 (2) 0.4 and 0.3
satisfies
(3) 0.6 and 0.6 (4) 0.6 and 0.5

32. The maximum speed with which a vehicle can
C m take safely circular road on a horizontal flat
rough is (where symbols have their usual
meanings)
mg g g g
(1)   (2)   (3)   (4)  
 m   (1) u rg tan  (2) rg tan 
28. A smooth block is released at rest on a 45°
incline and then slides a distance d. The time (3) rg (4) rgµ
taken to slide is n times as much to slide on
33. A particle of mass 2 kg is moving in circular
rough incline than on a smooth incline. The
path w ith con stan t spee d 20 m/s. The
coefficient of friction is
magnitude of change in velocity when particle
1 1 travesls from A to P will be
(1) µ k  1 – (2) µ k  1 – v
n2 n2 (1) 20 2 m/s
P
1 1 (2) 40 m/s
(3) µs  1 – (4) µs  1 –
n2 n2
(3) 40 2 m/s v
29. A block rests on a rough inclined plane making A
an angle of 30° with the horizontal. The (4) Zero
coefficient of static friction between the block 34. A particle is going in a spiral path as shown in
and the plane is 0.8. If the frictional force on figure, with constant speed.
the block is 10 N, the mass of the block (in kg)
is (g = 10 m/ s2)
(1) 2.0 (2) 4.0 (3) 1.6 (4) 2.5
30. A mass m rests on horizontal surface. The
coefficient of friction between the mass and the
surface is µ. If the mass is pulled by a force F
as shown in fig. the limiting friction between
mass and surface will be F
(1) Velocity of particle is constant
(1) µmg
30° (2) The acceleration of particle is constant
 3  (3) The magnitude of acceleration is constant
(2) µ  mg – 2 F 
  (4) The magnitude of acceleration is increasing
continuously
mg
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35. A particle moves with a speed v in a horizontal the trolley after the entire sand bag is empty is
circular path. The change in its velocity for (1)5 km h –1 (2) 10 km h–1
covering 60° will be –
(3) 15 km h–1 (4) 25 km h–1
v 44. If the force acting on a body is inversely
(1) v 2 (2) (3) v 3 (4) v proportional to its speed, then its kinetic energy
2
is :
36. The angular speed of seconds hand in a
mechanical watch is – (1) linearly related to time
(2) inversely proportional to time

(1) rad /s (2) 2 rad/s (3) inversely proportional to the square of time
30
(4) a constant
60 45. A force F acting on an object varies with
(3) rad/s (4) rad /s
 distance x as shown here. The force is in N
and x is in m. The work done by the force in
37. A curved road of 50 m radius is banked at correct moving the object from x = 0 to x =6m is:
angle for a given speed. If the speed is to be
doubled keeping the same banking angle, the
F(N)
radius of curvature of the road should be
changed to 3
2
(1) 25 m (2) 100 m (3) 150 m (4) 200 m
1
38. A particle moves in a circle of radius 5 cm with
constant speed and time period 0.2 s. The 0 1 2345 6 x(m)
acceleration of the particle is
(1) 13.5 J (2) 12.75 J
(1) 15 m/s2 (2) 25 m/s2
(3) 4.5 J (4) 9.0 J
(3) 36 m/s2 (4) 5 m/s2
39. If two person A and B take 2s and 4s, respectively
to lift an object to the same height h, then the CHEMISTRY
ratio of their powers is :
46. What percentage of oxygen is present in the
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 1 compound CaCO3.3Ca3(PO4)2 ?
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 3 (1) 23.3% (2) 45.36% (3) 41.94% (4) 17.08%
40. Sand drops vertically at the rate of 1 kg/s onto 47. Haemoglobin contains 0.33 % of iron by weight.
a conveyor belt moving horizontally with a The molecular weight of haemoglobin is
velocity of 0.2 m/s. The extra power needed to approximately 67200. The number of iron atoms
keep the belt moving is : (atomic weight of Fe is 56) present in one
(1) 0.04 W (2) 0.02 W (3) 0.4 W (4) 0.2 W molecule of haemoglobin are :
41. A bicyclist comes to a skidding stop in 10m. (1) 1 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 2
During this process, the force on the bicycle 48. One atom of an element weighs 1.8 × 10–22g.
due to the road is 200 N and is directly opposed Its atomic mass is :
to motion. The work done by the road on the
cycle is : (1) 29.9 (2) 154 (3) 108.36 (4) 18
49. The minimum number of molecules is present
(1) +2000 J (2) –2000 J
in :
(3) zero (4) –20000 J
(1) 1.5 L of H2 gas at STP
42. A body constrained to move along y-axis is
 ^ ^ ^
(2) 5 L of N2 gas at STP
subjected to a constant force F   i  2 j 3 k N . (3) 0.5 g of H2 gas
The work done by this force in moving the body (4) 10 g of O2 gas
a distance of 4m along y-axis is :
50. Volume occupied by one molecule of water
(1) 4 J (2) 8 J (3) 12 J (4) 24 J (density = 1 g cm–3) is :
43. A trolley of mass 200 kg carrying a sandbag of (1) 9.0 × 10–23 cm3
25 kg is moving uniformly with a speed 25 km
h–1 on a frictionless track. After a while, sand (2) 6.023 × 10–23 cm3
starts leaking out of a hole on the floor of the (3) 3.0 × 10–23 cm3
trolley at the rate of 0.05 kg s–1. The speed of (4) 5.5 × 10–23 cm3

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51. In figure the energy levels of the hydrogen atom 55. The number of d-electrons in Fe 2+ (Z = 26) is
have been shown along with some transitions not equal to the number of electrons in which
marking A,B, C. The transition A, B and C one of the following ?
respectively represents (1) p-electrons in Cl (Z = 17)
0 ev (2) d-electrons in Fe (Z = 26)
n =5 – 0.54 eV
n =4 (3) p-electrons in ne (Z = 10)
C – 0.85 eV
n =3 – 1.151 eV (4) s-electrons in Mg (Z = 12)
n =2 B – 3.40 eV
n =1 A – 13.60 eV 56. Sulphur has hightest oxidation state in
(1) the first member of the Lyman series, third (1) SO2 (2) H2SO4
member of Balmer series and second (3) Na2S2O 3 (4) H2S
member of Paschen series
57. Oxidation Number of P in Ba (H2PO2)2 is
(2) the ionisation potential of H, second member
of Balmer series and third member of (1) +3 (2) +2
Paschen series (3) +1 (4) 1
(3) the series limit of Lyman series, second
58. Among the following identify the species with
member of Balmer series and second
member of Paschen series an atom in +6 oxidation state of metal
(4) the series limit of Lyman series, third (1) MnO4 (2) [Cr(CN)6]3
member of Balmer series and second
member of Paschen series. (3) NiF62 (4) CrO2Cl2

52. A hydrogen-like atom emits radiations of 59. Oxidation number of sulphur in Na2S2O3 would
frequency 2.7 × 10 15 Hz when it makes a be
transition from n = 2 to n = 1. The frequency (1) + 2 (2) + 4
emitted in a transition from n = 3 to n = 1 will
(3) – 2 (4) 0
be
60. Oxidation number of Fe in Fe 3O4 are
(1) 1.8 ×1015 Hz (2) 3.2 ×1015 Hz
(3) 4.7 × 105 Hz (4) 6.9 × 1015 Hz (1) + 2 and +3 (2) +1 and + 2

53. The following diagram indicates the energy (3) + 1 and + 3 (4) None
levels of a certain atom when the system moves 61. In the stru cture of 4-i sopropyl -2, 4,
from 4E level to E.A photon of wavelength 1is 5-trimethylheptane, number of 1°, 2° & 3° H’s
emitted. The wavelength of photon produced are respectively :
during its transition from 7/3E level to E is 2 . (1) 18, 5, 4 (2) 21, 4, 3
The The ratio 1 /2 will be
(3) 18, 4, 3 (4) 21, 5, 4
4E 62. The correct IUPAC name of :
7
E
3 CH3—C = C—CH3
1 2
E C2H5 C2H5
(1) 1, 2-diethyl butane
9 4 3 7
(1) (2) (3) (4) (2) 2-ethyl 3-methylpentane
4 9 2 3
(3) 3, 4-dimethyl-3-hexene
54. A hydrogen atom is in excited state of principal
quantum number n. It emits a photon of (4) none is correct
wavelength , when returns to ground state. The
value of n is
63. The IUPAC name of is :
R  1
(1) R  R  1 (2)
R
(1) 2-ethyl-3-methyl-1-penten-4-yne
R (2) 2-ethyl-3-methyl-4pentyn-1-ene
(3) (4)   R  1
R  1 (3) 4-ethyl-3-methyl-1-pentyn-4-ene
(4) 4-ethyl-3-ethyl-4-penten-1-yne
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 energy released in bonding
Me
(3) Energy required for excitation is equal to the
Me Me energy released in bonding
64.
Me Me
(4) None of these

The IUPAC name of the above structure is : 69. Which of the following statements is true about
hybridization?
(1) 2, 4, 5-Trimethyl-3-nonene
(2) 5, 6-Dithyl-3-methyl-4-decene (1) Only those atomic orbitals can be hybridized
which do not differ much in shape.
(3) 2, 4, 5-Triethyl-3-octene
(2) Only those atomic orbitals can be hybridized
(4) 3-Heptyl-5-Trimethyl-3-heptene
which do not differ much in energy
(3) On ly tho se ato mic o rbital s can be
hybrideized which do not differ much in size.
65.
(4) Only those atomic orbitals can be hybridized
wh ich do no t diffe r much in overl ap
integrals.
Total number of substituent present in the
above compound 70. Which of the following statements is true about
hybridization?
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 6 (1) Hybridization generates new set of atomic
orbitals identical in shape but not in size
66. The C – O – C bond angle in alcohol is slightly and energy.
less than the tetrahedral angle where as the C
– O – C bond angle in either is slightly greater (2) Hybridization generates new set of atomic
because : obtials identical in size but not in shape and
energy.
(1) of repulsion between the two bulky R group
(3) Hybridization generates new set of atomic
(2) O atom in both alcohols and ethers is Sp3 obitals indentical in energy but not in shape
hybridised and size.
(3) Lone pair-lone pair repulsion is greater than (4) Hybridization generates new set of atomic
bond orbitals identical in shape, size and energy.
(4) None of these

67. For exhibiting tetravelency, carbon atoms have

to be excited. Now, which of the following 71.
statements is true? N N N
(1) Excitation occurs before bonding I II III
(2) Bonding occurs before excitation
(3) Bo th bon di ng and ex ci tati on o ccur
simultaneously
N N
(4) Two bonds are formed first, then excitation
occurs followed by formation of another two IV V
bonds
Among these canonical structures of pyridine.
68. Which of the following statements is true about The correct order of stability is
bonding and excitation?
(1) (I = V) > (II = IV) > III
(1) Energy required for excitation of carbon (2) (II = IV) > (I = V) > III
atoms (96 Kcal/mol) is less than energy
released in bonding (3) (I = V) > III > (II = IV)
(4) III > (II = IV) > (I = V)
(2) Energy required for excitation is more than

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72. configuration (n – 1)d1ns2 for n = 4?
(1) 3rd period and 3rd group
(2) 4th period and 3rd group
N N N N N
(3) 3rd period and 2nd group
H H H H H
(4) 4th period and 2nd group
I II III IV V
78. The outer electronic configuration of an
Among these canonical structures of pyrrole the element is,
correct order of stability is.
(n – 2)f 7 (n–1)d1ns2
(1) (III = IV) > (II = V) > I
To which block in the long form of the periodic
(2) I > (II = V) > (III = IV) table does this belong?
(3) I > (III = IV) > (II = V) (1) s-block (2) p-block (3) d-block (4) f-block
(4) (II = V) > (III = IV) > I 79. The screening effect of d-electrons is:
73. Rank the resonance structure is each group in (1) much more than s-electrons
order of i ncre asin g contribution to the
(2) equal to s-electrons
resonance hybrid.
(3) equal to p-electrons
CH3 CH3 (4) much less than s-electrons
 80. The ionic radius of a cation is always:
CH3—C== N—NH2 CH3—C—N== NH2
I II (1) less than atomic radius
(2) more than atomic radius
CH3 (3) equal to atomic radius
(4) cannotbe predicted
:

CH3—C—N —NH2
 81. M+ ion is always smaller than M-atom because
III
(1) nucleus in each case contains different
(1) I < II < III (2) II < I < III nucleons
(3) III < II < I (4) III < I < II (2) M-atom has an electron lesser than M+ ion
74. Acrolei n may be wri tten as (3) the force of attraction is more in M-atom
than in M+ ion
+ – because
CH2 = CH — CH = O (4) the nuclear charge is acting on lesser
(1) It is more stable structure of acrolein having number of electrons in M+ ion than M-atom
charge. 82. The lanthanide contraction is responsible for
(2) Negative charge on more electronegative the fact that :
atom is more stable (1) Zr and Hf have about the same radius
(3) The above structure which is not the (2) Zr and Y have about the same radius
sturcture of acrolein (3) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state
(4) Both (1) & (2) (4) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state
75. Oxygen molecule is formed by 83. The set representing the correct order of first
(1) one axial S-S overlapping and one P-P ionisation enthalpy is :
overlapping (1) K > Na > Li (2) Be > Mg > Ca
(2) two P-P axial overlapping (3) B > C > N (4) Ge > Si > C
(3) one P-P axi al and o ne P-P sidew ise 84. Whi ch o f th e fo llow ing configuratio ns
overlapping represents atoms of element having a large
(4) two P-P sidewise overlapping difference between first and the second
76. The first ionisation energy (in eV) of N, O atoms ionisation energy ?
are (1) 1s2, 2s2, 2p4
(1) 14.6, 13.6 (2) 13.6, 14.6 (2) 1s2, 2s2 2p6
(3) 13.6, 13.6 (4) 14.6, 14.6 (3) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s1
77. What is the position of the element in the (4) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2
pe riodic table satisfy ing the electron ic

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85. The incorrect statement among the following (3) Bacteria are organe ll ele ss and 80S
is : ribosomes
(1) The first ionisation energy of Al is less than (4) Number and arrangement of flagella are
the first ionisation energy of Mg variable in bacteria
(2) The second ionisation energy of Mg is 92. Se le ct the in co rrect state me nt abo ut
greater than second ionisation energy of Na prokaryotic ribosomes —
(3) The first ionisation energy of Na is less than (1) 50S and 30S subunits unite to form 70S
first ionisation energy of Mg ribosomes
(4) The third ionisation energy of Mg is greater (2) Polysome / polyribosome consists of many
than the third ionisation energy of Al ribosomes only
86. Chlorine has higher value of electron gain (3) Ribosome is the site of protein synthesis
enthalpy than fluorine. This is due to : (4) Polysome indicate the synthesis of identical
(1) smaller electronegativity of fluorine polypeptide in multiple copies
(2) higher atomic radius of fluorine 93. Which of the following statement is false for
prokaryotic cell inclusions ?
(3) weaker electron repulsion in chlorine
(1) These are storage granules in the cytoplasm
(4) more vacant p-subshell in chlorine
(2) They are membranous
87. Which one is wrong statement ?
(3) Ph osph ate gran ul es, cy an ophy ce an
(1) Total number of elements known are 118. granules and glycogen granules are the
(2) Element with atomic number 117 is a examples of cell inclusions
halogen. (4) Gas vacuole is found in B.G.A and purple and
(3) The long or extended form of the periodic green photosynthetic bacteria
table was presented by Bohr. 94. If you removed the fimbriae from a bacterial
(4) Th e lo ng form of peri odic table can cell, which of the following would you expect to
accommodate only 118 elements. happen ?
88. The element with atomic number 118 is likely (1) The bacteria could no longer swim
to have same outer shell configuration as the (2) The bacteria would not adhere to the host
element with atomic number : tissue
(1) 36 (2) 28 (3) 58 (4) 88 (3) Transportation of molecules across the
89. Which of the following statements is incorrect membrane would stop
about long form of the periodic table ? (4) The shape of bacteria would change
(1) Elements have been arranged in order of 95. Why tail of lipids in the membrane are towards
increasing atomic numbers. inner part ?
(2) The elements on right side of the periodic (1) The tail is not non polar hydrocarbon and is
table are non-metals. protected within an aqueous environment
(3) The elements in the middle are transition (2) The tail is polar hydrocarbon and so is
elements. protected from aqueous environment
(4) The table has eight periods and sixteen (3) The nonpolar or hydrophobic hydrocarbon
groups. tails of lipid, being being on inner side side
90. In Mendeleev’s periodic table, silver belongs to ensures their protection from aqueous
IB group. The group to which silver belongs in environment
long form of periodic table is : (4) The tail is hydrophilic so it tends to be located
(1) first (2) eleventh in the aqueous inner side of membrane
(3) tenth (4) sixteenth 96. Which of the following statement is incorrect
about the plasma membrane ?
BIOLOGY (1) The ratio of proteins and lipid varies
91. Which is false ? considerably in different cell types
(1) Bacterial glycocalyx differs in composition (2) 52% protein and 40% lipids are in the
and thickness among different bacteria membrane of human RBC
(2) Bacterial envelope has a 3 layered structure (3) The arrangement of proteins (P) and lipids
and each layer has a distinct function but (L) is L–P–P–L
they act as a single protective unit (4) Head of lipid (fatty acid) is hydrophilic

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97. Read the given statements : (e) Quiescent stage - no longer proliferation of
(i) Centromere is present in the middle of the cell
chromosome and forms two equal arms. (1) (a) & (c) only (2) (b) & (d) only
(ii) Chromosome has a terminal centromere (3) (c) & (d) only (4) (d) & (e) only
(iii) Centromere lies close to the end of the 103. Select the incorrect statement regarding
chromosome forming one extremely short significance of meiosis :
and one very long arm. (1) conservation of chromosome number in
(iv) Centromere lies slightly away form the species
middle of the chrosome resulting into one (2) During gamete formation chromosome
shorter arm and one longer arm. number become half which never restore in
Select the correct option as per the codes given sexual reproduction
above. (3) Genetic variation in the population
Metacentric submetacentric Acrocentric Telocentric
(4) Variations are very important for evolution
(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
104. Late prophase can be recognised by :
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (1) absence of golgi bodies, Nucleolus, Nuclear
membrane and ER
(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(2) absence of plasma membrane including
98. These are the densely stained reticular
membrane bounded organelles
stru ctures presen t ne ar th e nu cl eu s,
consisting of many flat, disc shaped cisternae (3) chromosome like thread like structure
of 0.5 - 1.0 m diameter. These are : (4) formation of equatorial blate.
(1) chloroplasts 105. Arrange the following statements as they
(2) endoplasmic reticulum occurs during cell division :
(3) mitochondria (a) Chromatids moves to opposite pole.
(4) Golgi apparatus (b) Chromatin material forms mass in the two
poles.
99. The chromosome in which centromere lies
sl ig htly away fro m th e middl e of the (c) Centriole moves towards opposte pole
chromosome resulting into one shorter arm (d) chromosome is made up of two sister
and one longer arm, is called as : chromatids
(1) metacentric (2) submetacentric (e) Duplication of DNA
(3) acrocentric (4) telocentric (f) Formation of cell plate
100. Gametes are formed from specialised A (1) (e)  (c) (d) (a) (f) (b)
cell, after B C daughter cells form. (2) (e)  (c) (d) (b) (f) (a)
A B C (3) (e)  (c) (a) (b) (f) (d)
(1) Haploid Meiosis Diploid (4) (e)  (c) (d) (a) (b) (f)
(2) Diploid Meiosis Diploid 106. Read the statement carefully and select the
(3) Diploid Meiosis Haploid option have group of correct statements.
(4) Haploid Meiosis Haploid (a) Formation of cell-plate is the process of
cytokinesis in plant cell.
101. Each pole receives half the chromosome number
of the parent cell : (b) Social insects (haploid) divide by mitosis.
(1) Telophase (2) Telophase II (c) Nucleolus, golgi bodies and ER reform in
prophase
(3) Telophase I (4) Anaphase
(d) G0 phase is metabolically inactive phase
102. Read the statement carefully and select wrong
statements : (e) Amount of DNA duplicate (2c  4c) is
synthesis phase.
(a) G1 phase metabolically active but does not
replicate DNA. (1) (a), (b) & (c)
(b) 2C increase into 4C in G0 phase. (2) (a), (b) & (d)
(c) In G2 no. of chromosome remain same (3) (a), (e) & (d)
(d) Centriole duplicates in S-phase in plant cell (4) (a), (b) and (e)

Tel. : 0612-3508700 Class Room Test | TARGET (MED.) CODE-X 1 0

107. Se lect the wro ng state ment reg ardi ng (4) Glycolysis will increase as energy will be
significance of mitosis after : suppllied by NADH2
(1) Mitosis usually produce diploid cell with 113. For bacteria to continue growing rapidly when
identical genetic make up th ey are shifted from an e nvironme nt
(2) Mitosis can not restore the nulceo- containing O2 to an anaerobic environment,
cytoplasmic ratio they must
(3) Significant in cell repair (1) Produce more ATP per mole of glucose during
glycolysis
(4) Apical & lateral cambium meristem divide
by mitosis (2) Produce ATP during oxidation of NADH
108. Match the Column A and B. (3) Increase the rate of glycolysis
(i) Leptotene (a) Termination of Chiasmata (4) Increase the rate of TCA cycle
(ii) Zygotene (b) Chiasmata 114. The free energy released during oxidation of 3
PGAl to 1,3 di PGA, is-
(iii)Pachytene (c) Compaction of chromosome
(1) Used to oxidise NADH
(iv)Diplotene (d) Synapsis
(2) Lost as heat
(v) Diakinesis (e) Recombination nodules
(3) Used to form ATP
(1) (i-c); (ii-d); (iii-a); (iv-b); (v-e)
(4) Used to reduce NAD+
(2) (i-c); (ii-d); (iii-e); (iv-b); (v-a)
115. Fermentation takes place:
(3) (i-c); (ii-d); (iii-e); (iv-a); (v-b)
(1) Under anaerobic con diti ons in many
(4) (i-c); (ii-e); (iii-d); (iv-a); (v-b) prokaryotes and unicellular eukaryotes
109. Starting with one molecule of glucose, the (2) Un der aero bic conditio ns i n many
energy containing products of glycolysis are : prokaryotes and unicellular eukaryotes
(1) 2 NADH + H+, 2 Pyruvate, 2 ATP (3) Under anaerobic con diti ons in all
(2) 2 FADH2, 2 Pyruvate, 2 ATP prokaryotes and unicellular eukaryotes
(3) 2 NADH + H+, 2 CO2, 2 ATP (4) Under aerobic conditions in all prokaryotes
(4) 2 Pyruvate, 8 ATP, 2 CO2 and unicellular eukaryotes
110. Why is a different enzyme involved in each step 116. Which one is true ?
of glycolysis ? (1) In absence of O2, fermentation regenerates
(1) Each step occurs in a different subcellular the NAD+ needed for glycolysis
location (2) Fermentation does not liberate all the
(2) Each step occurs in a different cell energy available in each sugar molecule
(3) Each step involves a different change in (3) When alcohol conc. reaches 13% , the yeast
potential energy cells become poisoned and die
(4) Each step involves a different chemical (4) All of these
reaction 117. Match the Column :
111. 3PGAl is oxidised during glycolysis. What Column–I Column–II
happens to the hydrogen atoms and the e– that (A) Peripheral membrane (i) Comples-III
are removed during oxidation ?
protein of ATP synthase
(1) They reduce NAD+
(B) Pyruvate dehydrogenase (ii) F0
(2) They oxidise NAD+
complex
(3) They are transferred to C3H4O3 (Pyruvic
acid) (C) Integral membrane (iii) F1
(4) They come out immediately in the form of protein of ATP synthase
H2O (D) Cytochrome bc1 (iv) Mitochondrial
112. What will happen to glycolytic pathway if a cell matrix
runs completely out of ATP- (1) (A-i); (B-ii); (C-iii); (D-iv)
(1) Glycolysis will speed up (2) (A-ii); (B-iv); (C-iii); (D-i)
(2) Glycolysis will be slow down (3) (A-iii); (B-iv); (C-i); (D-ii)
(3) Glycolysis will stop as first and third steps (4) (A-iii); (B-iv); (C-ii); (D-i)
need ATP input

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118. Whi ch o f th e fo llow ing reaction s mo st (3) Chemiosmotic theory
appropriately explains the photosynthesis ? (4) Munch’s pressure/mass flow model
Sunlight
(1) 6CO2  12H2 O  C 6H12O6  6O2  6H2O
Chlorophyll
125. Why Calvin cycle in called C3–cycle?
Sunlight (1) Primary CO2 acceptor is C3 – compound
(2) 6CO2  6H2O 
Chlorophyll
 C6H12O6  6O2
(2) Many intermediate compounds are C 3 –
Sunlight
(3) C6H12O6  6O2  6CO2  6H2O compounds
Chlorophyll
(3) 1st stable product is 3 PGA which is a C3–
(4) None of these compound
119. Which of the following is correct ? (4) None
(1) PS-I is involve d in non -cyclic 126. PEPcase has an advantage to RUBisCO. The
ph otophosphory lati on but not cycl ic advantage is that—
photophosphorylation
(1) PEPCase conserves energy but RUBISCO
(2) PS-II is involved in both non-cyclic as well does not
as cyclic photophosphorylation
(2) RUBISCO combines with O2, but PEPCase
(3) PS-I is involved only in non-cyclic oxidative does not
phosphorylation
(3) PEPCase combines with O2 but RUBisCO
(4) PS-I is involved in both non-cyclic as well does not
as cyclic photophosphorylation
(4) PEPCase is present in both mesophyll and
120. What happens during the light phase of bundle sheath but RUBisCO is not
photosynthesis?
127. The phenomenon of heterophylly :
(1) ADP is hydrolysed and NADPH oxidised
(1) Is found in cotton, coriandar, larkspur and
(2) ADP is phosphorylated and NADP reduced buttercup
(3) ATP is hydrolysed and NADPH oxidised (2) Is an example of plasticity
(4) ATP is hydrolysed and NADP reduced (3) Occurs as a result of development or in
121. Which statement about photosynthesis is false? response to environment
(1) In green plants PSI and PSII are requried (4) All are correct
for the synthesis of NADPH + H+ 128. Development is the sum of two process which
(2) Photosynthesis is a redox process; H2O is is:
oxidised, CO2is reduced (1) growth and growth only
(3) Ph otosyn the si s is a ph ysio-ch emical (2) growth and differentiation
process
(3) differentiation only
(4) None
(4) any of these
122. The nature of ATP in both photosynthesis and
cellular respiration is made possible by— 129. This is defined as an irreversible permanent
increase in size of an organ or its parts or even
(1) The existance of proton gradient across the
of individual cell ?
specific membrane
(1) development (2) Growth
(2) The action of ATPase
(3) Meristematic (4) Elongation
(3) Energy from e – movements
130. Th e in trin sic factor i nflu enci ng the
(4) All
development in plants is :
123. When Rubisco acts as an oxygenase—
(1) O2
(1) Phosphoglycerate and phosphoglycolate are
(2) H2O
produced
(3) CO2 and nutrition
(2) Phosphoenolpyruvate is oxidized
(4) Plant growth regulators
(3) Net carbon fixation is enhanced
131. Which phase of a sigmoid curve explain the
(4) It must mean that theplant is deprived of
initial phase of growth rate is very slow ?
CO2
(1) log phase
124. The mechanisms of ATP formation both in
chloroplast and mitochondria is explained by— (2) lag phase
(1) Relay pump theory of Godlewski (3) stationary phase
(2) Cholodny Went’s model (4) maturation phase

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132. Increase in the girth of plant is done by : A
(1) Primary growth
(2) Apical meristem
(3) Intercalary Meristem C
(4) Secondary growth
133. The period of growth is generally divided into B
(1) Two phases
D
(2) One phase
(3) Three phases (1) A – Epiglottis, B – Alveoli,
(4) Five phase C – Bronchus, D – Diaphragm
134. The correct sequence of the development (2) A – Epiglottis, B – Alveoli,
process in a plant cell is C – Bronchioles, D – Diaphragm
(1) Plasmatic g rowth, D iffe rentiati on, (3) A – Soundbox, B – Alveoli,
Senescence and Maturation respectively
C – Bronchus, D – Diaphragm
(2) Plasmatic g rowth, D iffe rentiati on,
(4) A – Soundbox, B – Alveoli,
Maturation and Senescence respectively
C – Bronchioles, D – Diaphragm
(3) Maturation, Plasmatic g rowth,
Differentiation and Senescence respectively 139. mammalian lungs have an enormous number
of minute alveoli (air sacs). This is to allow
(4) Differen tiation, Plasmatic g rowth,
(1) more surface area for diffusion of gases
Maturation and Senescence respectively
(2) more space for increasing the volume of
135. What is represented by ‘e’ in the equation inspired air
W1 = W0 ert. (3) more nerve supply to keep the lungs working
(1) elongation per unit time (4) more spongy texture for keeping lung in
(2) Final size proper shape.
(3) Base of natural logarithms 140. A person breathing normally at rest, takes in
and expels approximately half a litre of air
(4) Length at time ‘zero’
during each respiratory cycle. This is called :
136. In man and mammals, air passes from outside
(1) inspiratory reserve volume
into the lungs through :
(2) tidal volume
(1) nasal cavity, larynx, pharynx, trachea,
bronchi, alveoli (3) expiratory reserve volume
(4) vital capacity
(2) nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea,
bronchioles, bronchi, alveoli 141. Vital capacity of lungs is :
(3) nasal cavity, larynx, pharynx, trachea, (1) IRV + ERV
bronchioles, alveoli (2) IRV + ERV + TV – RV
(4) nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, (3) IRV + ERV + TV + RV
bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli. (4) IRV + ERV + TV
137. Which of the following options is incorrect about 142. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the
the larynx (sound box) ? correct option from the codes given below.
(1) It is a bony box. Column-I Column-II
(2) Glottis is the opening into the larynx. (a) TV + ERV (i) Expiratory capacity
(3) During swallowing of food glottis is covered (b) RV + ERV + TV + IRV (ii) Total lung capacity
by epiglottis to prevent food entry into the (c) ERV + RV (iii) Functional
larynx. residual capacity
(4) All of these. (1) (a-i), (b-ii), (c-iii)
138. The given figure shows the diagrammatic view (2) (a-iii), (b-i), (c-ii)
of human respiratory system. Identify A, B, C (3) (a-iii), (b-ii), (c-i)
and D. (4) (a-ii), (b-iii), (c-i)
Tel. : 0612-3508700 Class Room Test | TARGET (MED.) CODE-X 1 3
143. After forceful inspiration, the amount of air that A B C D
can be breathed out by maximum forced
Systemic Pulmonary Pulmonary Systemi c
expiration is equal to : (1)
vein artery vein artery
(1) Inspiratory Reserve Vol ume (IRV) + Systemic Pulmonary Pulmonary Systemi c
Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) + Tidal (2)
artery artery vein vein
Volume (TV) + Residual Volume (RV)
Pulmonary Systemic Pulmonary Systemi c
(2) IRV + RV + ERV (3)
artery vein vein artery
(3) IRV + TV + ERV
Systemic Pulmonary Pulmonary Systemi c
(4) TV + RV + ERV (4)
vein vein artery artery
144. Bulk of oxygen diffuses from the plasma into 147. When CO2 concentration in blood increases
the red blood corpuscles where it joins loosely breathing becomes :
with Fe2+ ions of haemoglobin (Hb) to form bright (1) shallower and slow
red oxyhaemoglobin (HbO 2). The process is
(2) there is no effect on breathing
called :
(3) slow and deep
(1) oxidation (2) oxygenation
(4) faster and deeper.
(3) hydration (4) dehydrogenation 148. Oxygen (O2) is utilized by animals to :
145. Which of the following statements is correct ? (1) directly breakdown the nutrients molecules
(1) The contraction of internal intercostal (2) indirectly breakdown the nutrients molecules
muscles lifts up the ribs and sternum. (3) obtain nourishment from environments
(2) The RBCs transport oxygen only (4) burn the organic compounds indirectly
(3) The thoracic cavity is anatomically an air 149. It is known that exposure to carbon monoxide
tight chamber. is harmful to animals because :
(4) Healthy man can inspire approximately (1) it reduces CO2 transport
500 mL of air per minute. (2) it reduces O2 transport
146. Th e gi ven figu re show s di agrammatic (3) it increases CO2 transport
representation of exchange of gases at the (4) it destroys hemoglobin
alveolus and the body tissues with blood and 150. Co rrect th e order of the give n steps of
transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide. Identify respiration mechanism as they occur in the
the blood vessels A to D. human body.
I. Breathing of pulmonary ventilation
Inspired air Expired air
II. Diffusion across the alveolar membrane
III. Transport of gases by blood
Alveolar air IV. Utilization of O2 by cells
V. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and
tissues
Choose the correct option.
(1) I  II  III  IV  V
B C (2) I  II  III  V  IV
(3) I  III  II  V  IV
(4) I  III  II  IV  V
151. This is the diagrammatic presentation of a
standard ECG. What does QRS depicts

A D

(1) electrical exitation

(2) depolarisation of the atrea
(3) depolarisation of the ventricles
(4) none of the above
Tel. : 0612-3508700 Class Room Test | TARGET (MED.) CODE-X 1 4
152. The Rh antigen is observed on 162. A certain road accident patient with unknown
(1) The surface of RBCs blood group needs immediate blood transfusion.
His one doctor friend at once offers his blood.
(2) The surface of WBCs
What was the blood group of the donor ?
(3) Near the RBC
(1) Blood group B
(4) All the above (2) Blood group AB
153. Which one of the following statements is (3) Blood group O
incorrect
(4) Blood group A
(1) Heart is the mesodermal derived organ 163. Which of the following is agranulocyte ?
(2) The entire heart is made of cartilagenous (1) Basophil (2) Neutrophil
muscles
(3) Lymphocyte (4) Eosinophil
(3) The walls of ventricles are much thicker
164. Which statement is true for WBC ?
than that of the atria
(1) Non-nucleated
(4) The valves prevent any backward flow.
(2) Its deficiency causes cancer
154. Compared to blood our lymph has
(3) Manufactured only in thymus
(1) Plasma without proteins (4) Can squeeze through blood capillaries
(2) More WBCs and no RBCs 165. Anti-A and Anti-B antibodies are not found in
(3) More RBCs and less WBCs which of the following blood group ?
(4) no plasma (1) AB (2) A (3) O (4) B
155. Which one of the following engulf Pathogens 166. Excretion of potassium is governed primarily by
rapidly. (Chief phagocytic cells of the body) (1) potassi um reabsorption in proxi mal
(1) Acidophils (2) Basophils convoluted tubule
(3) Monocytes (4) Neutrophils (2) potassium secretion in proximal convoluted
tubule
156. A vein possesses a large lumen because
(3) potassium secretion in distal convoluted
(1) Tunica interna, tunica media and tunica tubule
externa are thin (4) potassium reabsorption in distal convoluted
(2) Tunica interna and tunical media are thin tubule
(3) Tunica media and tunica externa are thin 167. Which one of the following statements in regard
(4) Tunica media is thin to the excretion by the human kidneys is
correct?
157. The number of RBCs, in a healthy adult man
has, on an average (1) De scen ding limb of lo op o f He nle is
impermeable to water
(1) 1.5 to 2.5 millions (2) 3 to 3.5 millions
(2) Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of
(3) 5 to 5.5 millions (4) 4 to 4.5 millions reabsorbing Na+ ions
158. Which one of the following is formed by a series (3) Nearly 99 per cent of the glomerular filtrate
of linked enzymic reactions (cascade process) is reabsorbed by the renal tubules
(1) Thromokinase (2) Thrombin (4) Ascendi ng l imb of l oop of H enle is
(3) Fibrin (4) Prothrombin impermeable to electrolytes
159. Platelets are : 168. Effective filtration pressure in glomerulus is
caused due to
(1) also called thrombocytes
(1) powerful pumping action of the heart
(2) cell fragments
(2) secretion of adrenaline
(3) produced from megakaryocytes
(3) afferent arteriole is slightly larger than
(4) All of the above efferent arteriole
160. Clotting disorders occur mainly due to the (4) vacuum develops in proximal convoluted
reduction in the number of : tubule and sucks the blood
(1) Granulocytes (2) RBC 169. A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
(3) WBC (4) Platelets activates
161. The volume of blood pumped out by each ventricle (1) juxtaglomerular cells to release renin
per minute is called (2) adrenal cortex to release aldosterone
(1) Stroke Volume (2) Heart Capacity (3) adrenal medulla to release adrenaline
(3) Cardiac Output (4) Cardiac Capacity (4) posterior pituitary to release vasopressin

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170. Which of the following options has the correct (3) Urea, ammonia and alanine
pair of nephron parts that maintain pH and ionic (4) Urea, nitrogen and O2
balance of blood?
178. Identify A, B, C and D, E and F in the given
(1) Proximal convoluted tubule and Henle’s loop diagram
(2) distal convouted tubule and collecting duct
(3) Proximal convoluted tubule and glomerulus
(4) Collecting duct and Henle’s loop A
B
171. If Henle’s loop were absent from mammalian
nephron, which of the following is to be expected C
(1) The urine will be more concentrated
D
(2) The urine will be more dilute
(3) There will be no urine formation E
(4) There will be no change in the quality and
F
quantity of urine formed A B C D E F
172. If a person is undergoing prolonged fasting, his (1) Pelv is Cortex Medulla Urethra Urinary Ureter
Urine will be found to contain abnormal bladder
quantities of ketones due to (2) Pelv is Medulla Cortex Urethra Urinary Ureter
(1) Oxidation of Glycogen for energy bladder
(2) Oxidation of protein of energy (3) Pelv is Medulla Cortex Ureter Urinary Urethra
bladder
(3) Oxidation of reserved fats for energy
(4) Pelv is Cortex Medulla Ureter Urinary Urethra
(4) Oxidation of Acetone for energy bladder
173. In u re mi a, arti fi ci al kidney i s used for 179. Match the terms given in Column-I with their
removing accumulated waste products like physiological processes given in Column II and
urea by the process called : choose the correct answer.
(1) Micturition (2) Haemolysis Column-I Column-II
(3) Ureolelism (4) Haemodialysis A. Proximal i. Formation of
174. Liquid which collects in the cavity of Bowman’s convoluted tubule concentrated urine
capsule is
B. Distal convoluted ii. Filtration of blood
(1) concentrated urine
tubule
(2) plasma minus blood proteins and blood cells
C. Henle’s loop iii. Reabsorption of 70-80%
(3) glycogen and water
of electrolytes
(4) sulphates and water
D. Counter-current iv. Reabsorption of ions
175. Malpighian body or renal corpuscle is
mechanism
(1) Glomerulus along with collecting duct
E. Renal corpuscle v. Maintenance of
(2) Glomerulus along with DCT
concentration gradient
(3) Glomerulus along with Bowman’s capsule
in medulla
(4) Glomerulus along with Loop of Henle
(1) A-iii, B-v, C-iii, D-ii, E-i
176. Which of the following statements is wrong ?
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-v, E-ii
(1) Kidney does not play any significant role in
(3) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-v, E-iv
the removal of ammonia
(4) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-v, E-i
(2) Ureotelic animals excrete most of the
nitrogenous waste as urea 180. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(3) Ammonia and urea are the waste products (1) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is
derived from the metabolic breakdown of impermeable to water
proteins (2) The descending limb of loop of Henle is
(4) None of the above is wrong impermeable to water
177. Which one of the following is metabolic waste (3) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is
of protein metabolism ? permeable to water
(1) Urea, ammonia and CO2 (4) The descending limb of loop of Henle is
(2) Urea, ammonia and creatinine permeable to electrolytes

Tel. : 0612-3508700 Class Room Test | TARGET (MED.) CODE-X 1 6

 Target (Med.) CODE-X
13 - 11 - 2024
Answer Key
01. (1) 46. (3) 91. (3) 136. (4)
02. (3) 47. (3) 92. (2) 137. (1)
03. (2) 48. (3) 93. (2) 138. (1)
04. (4) 49. (1) 94. (2) 139. (1)
05. (1) 50. (3) 95. (3) 140. (2)
06. (3) 51. (4) 96. (3) 141. (4)
07. (2) 52. (2) 97. (1) 142. (1)
08. (2) 53. (2) 98. (4) 143. (3)
09. (1) 54. (3) 99. (2) 144. (2)
10. (3) 55. (1) 100. (3) 145. (3)
11. (2) 56. (2) 101. (3) 146. (1)
12. (2) 57. (3) 102. (2) 147. (4)
13. (3) 58. (4) 103. (2) 148. (2)
14. (1) 59. (1) 104. (1) 149. (2)
15. (3) 60. (1) 105. (4) 150. (2)
16. (2) 61. (2) 106. (4) 151. (3)
17. (2) 62. (3) 107. (2) 152. (1)
18. (2) 63. (1) 108. (2) 153. (2)
19. (1) 64. (2) 109. (1) 154. (2)
20. (1) 65. (2) 110. (4) 155. (4)
21. (4) 66. (1) 111. (1) 156. (4)
22. (4) 67. (3) 112. (3) 157. (3)
23. (1) 68. (1) 113. (3) 158. (3)
24. (1) 69. (2) 114. (4) 159. (4)
25. (2) 70. (4) 115. (1) 160. (4)
26. (4) 71. (1) 116. (4) 161. (3)
27. (3) 72. (3) 117. (4) 162. (3)
28. (1) 73. (3) 118. (1) 163. (3)
29. (1) 74. (4) 119. (4) 164. (4)
30. (3) 75. (3) 120. (2) 165. (1)
31. (4) 76. (1) 121. (4) 166. (2)
32. (4) 77. (2) 122. (4) 167. (3)
33. (1) 78. (4) 123. (1) 168. (3)
34. (3) 79. (4) 124. (3) 169. (1)
35. (4) 80. (1) 125. (3) 170. (2)
36. (1) 81. (4) 126. (2) 171. (2)
37. (4) 82. (1) 127. (4) 172. (3)
38. (4) 83. (2) 128. (2) 173. (4)
39. (3) 84. (3) 129. (2) 174. (2)
40. (1) 85. (2) 130. (4) 175. (3)
41. (2) 86. (3) 131. (2) 176. (4)
42. (2) 87. (3) 132. (4) 177. (2)
43. (4) 88. (1) 133. (3) 178. (3)
44. (1) 89. (4) 134. (2) 179. (2)
45. (2) 90. (2) 135. (3) 180. (1)

Tel. : 0612-3508700 Class Room Test | TARGET (MED.) CODE-X 2 1