LECTURE (1)

1. What is the main advantage of using central venous access over

peripheral venous access?
- A) Cost-effectiveness
- B) Reduced infection rates
- C) Higher permissible flow rates
- D) Easier to insert
Answer: C

2. Which of the following is not a common venous access site for

catheter insertion?
- A) Internal jugular vein
- B) Femoral vein
- C) Radial vein
- D) Basilic vein
Answer: C

3. Peripheral venous cannulae are not suitable for which type of

substance?
- A) Antibiotics
- B) Chemotherapy
- C) Total parenteral nutrition
- D) All of the above
Answer: D

4. Which of the following patients would most likely require a

central venous access device?
- A) A patient needing a single IV antibiotic dose
- B) A patient undergoing prolonged chemotherapy
- C) A patient with a minor infection
- D) A patient with a skin abrasion
Answer: B
5. Which vein is commonly used for peripherally-inserted central
catheters (PICC)?
- A) Cephalic vein
- B) Carotid artery
- C) Subclavian vein
- D) Radial artery
Answer: A

6. What is the main purpose of using Doppler imaging during

venous access procedures?
- A) To measure blood pressure
- B) To assess venous waveform and flow
- C) To detect infections
- D) To locate peripheral veins
Answer: B

7. What is a significant benefit of using heparin-impregnated

materials in catheter designs?
- A) Reduced risk of infection
- B) Increased flow rate
- C) Enhanced patient comfort
- D) Easier insertion
Answer: A

8. Which of the following is a contraindication for venous access

device placement?
- A) Suitable vein access
- B) Healthy skin at access site
- C) Systemic coagulopathy
- D) Short duration of treatment
Answer: C
9. What is the typical gauge size for high-flow vascular access
catheters used in hemodialysis?
- A) 8-10 French
- B) 10-12 French
- C) 12-16 French
- D) 16-18 French
Answer: C

10. For how long are PICC lines typically appropriate?

- A) Hours to days
- B) Days to weeks
- C) Weeks to months
- D) Months to years
Answer: B

11. What is the primary reason for using ultrasound guidance during
venous access procedures?
- A) To increase patient comfort
- B) To reduce procedure time
- C) To avoid inadvertent arterial puncture
- D) To enhance imaging quality
Answer: C

12. Which venous access site is often used for high-flow procedures
like plasmapheresis?
- A) Basilic vein
- B) Radial vein
- C) Right internal jugular vein
- D) Cephalic vein
Answer: C
13. Which imaging technique is used to confirm the catheter tip
position?
- A) MRI
- B) CT scan
- C) Fluoroscopy
- D) Ultrasound
Answer: C

14. In which condition is the administration of total parenteral

nutrition (TPN) indicated?
- A) Peripheral venous access only
- B) Risk of venous sclerosis or extravasation
- C) Short-term hydration
- D) Minor infections
Answer: B

15. Which type of catheter would be most appropriate for a patient

requiring over 30 days of access?
- A) PICC line
- B) Non-tunneled catheter
- C) Tunneled catheter
- D) Peripheral IV cannula
Answer: C

16. What is the primary purpose of using local anesthesia during

catheter insertion?
- A) To prevent infection
- B) To reduce patient discomfort
- C) To improve imaging quality
- D) To speed up the procedure
Answer: B
17. Which of the following is a benefit of implanted vascular access
ports (Portacaths)?
- A) Easier to insert
- B) Lower infection rates
- C) Higher flow rates
- D) Shorter duration of use
Answer: B

18. Which of the following materials might be used in catheter

designs to reduce infections?
- A) Plastic
- B) Silicone
- C) Anti-microbial and heparin-impregnated materials
- D) Rubber
Answer: C

(True or False) Questions (T/F):

1. Peripheral venous cannulae have a long lifespan.

- False

2. Central venous access is recommended for short-term treatments.

- False

3. The internal jugular vein and femoral vein are a most common
site for catheter insertion.
- True

4. Doppler imaging is used to assess venous waveform and flow.

- True
5. Local anesthesia is not required for venous access procedures.
- False

6. Tunneled catheters are typically used for short-term access.

- False

7. Systemic coagulopathy is an indication for venous access device

placement.
- False

8. Peripheral veins are more prone to venous sclerosis from certain

medications compared to central veins.
- True

9. PICC lines are typically appropriate for durations of days to

weeks.
- True

9. The Seldinger technique involves direct catheter insertion without

a guidewire.
- False

10. The right internal jugular vein has a straight course leading to
the right atrium.
- True

11. High-flow vascular access catheters are typically between 12

and 16 French size.
- True
LECTURE (2-3)

1. Venous thromboembolism (VTE) usually arises from:

a) Arterial thrombi
b) Deep venous system
c) Pulmonary arteries
d) Coronary veins

2. What is the primary treatment for patients suspected of having

VTE?
a) Surgery
b) Anticoagulation therapy
c) Catheter-directed thrombolysis
d) IVC filter placement

3. When is an inferior vena cava (IVC) filter placed?

a) As a routine preventive measure
b) In all patients with VTE
c) In patients with contraindication to anticoagulation or recurrent
VTE
d) In patients with deep venous system abnormalities

4. What is a contraindication for IVC filter placement?

a) Femoral vein access
b) Septicemia
c) Recent surgery
d) Anticoagulation therapy
5. What should be performed before IVC filter placement to
determine its necessity?
a) Ultrasound of the lower extremities
b) CT scan of the chest
c) Review of the patient's medical history
d) Measurement of the renal veins

6. What is the best time frame for retrieving retrievable IVC filters?
a) Within 24 hours of placement
b) Within 1 week of placement
c) Within 3 months of placement
d) After 6 months of placement

7. What is the success rate for IVC filter retrieval?

a) 50-60%
b) 70-80%
c) 80-90%
d) 92-95%

8. What is the primary site of thrombus formation in deep vein

thrombosis (DVT)?
a) Calf muscles
b) Renal veins
c) Pulmonary arteries
d) Upper extremity veins

(True or False) Questions (T/F):

9. Catheter-directed thrombolysis is more effective than

pharmacomechanical thrombectomy in achieving complete lysis.
10. Pharmacomechanical thrombectomy is performed without the
use of thrombolytic drugs.

11. Pharmacomechanical thrombectomy is associated with a higher

risk of bleeding complications than catheter directed thrombolysis.

12. IVC filters are commonly placed via the femoral veins

13. An IVC filter is used to prevent deep vein thrombosis

14. Bleeding complications are more common with catheter-directed

thrombolysis than with pharmacomechanical thrombectomy

15. The popliteal vein is accessed for catheter-directed thrombolysis

16. Mechanical thrombectomy involves the use of a device that

vacuums clot

17. Mechanical thrombectomy is more costly than catheter-directed

thrombolysis

18. Pharmacomechanical thrombectomy is performed as a single

session in most patients

19. IVC filter placement is indicated after 14 days of DVT.

20. An IVC filter prevents pulmonary embolism.

21. Thrombus removal in pharmacomechanical thrombectomy is

usually completed within 2-3 hours.
Answers:
1. b
2. b
3. c
4. b
5. c
6. c
7. d
8. a
9. True
10. False
11. False
12. False
13. False
14. True
15. True
16. True
17. False
18. True
19. False
20. True
21. True
LECTURE (4)

1. Percutaneous urinary intervention involves access to the urinary

tract using:
a) Surgical incision
b) Needle and guidewire
c) Endoscope
d) Catheter

2. Percutaneous Nephrostomy is performed with the assistance of:

a) X-ray
b) Ultrasound
c) MRI
d) CT scan

3. Percutaneous Nephrostomy is indicated for:

a) Kidney transplantation
b) Urinary tract infection
c) Obstructive uropathy
d) Bladder cancer

4. Patient unable to lie in the lateral or prone position is a relative

contraindication for:
a) Percutaneous Nephrostomy
b) Percutaneous Ureteric Stent Placement
c) Percutaneous Nephrolithotomy
d) None of the above
5. What is the purpose of injecting a small amount of iodinated
contrast during Percutaneous Nephrostomy?
a) To visualize the collecting system
b) To relieve pain
c) To prevent infection
d) To promote healing

6. Percutaneous Ureteric Stent Placement is an alternative to:

a) Open surgery
b) External drainage
c) Kidney transplantation
d) Chemotherapy

7. Percutaneous Ureteric Stent Placement is indicated for:

a) Acute pyelonephritis
b) Ureteric obstruction
c) Bladder stones
d) Renal fibrosis

8. Percutaneous Nephrolithotomy is primarily used for the treatment

of:
a) Kidney stones
b) Bladder cancer
c) Ureteral strictures
d) Renal fibrosis

9. Which instrument is used to visualize and fragment the calculus

in Percutaneous Nephrolithotomy?
a) Endoscope
b) Catheter
c) Guidewire
d) Laser pen
(True or False) Questions (T/F):

10. Percutaneous Nephrostomy is contraindicated in patients with

uncontrolled bleeding diathesis.

11. Percutaneous access for urinary tract calculus treatment is

typically guided by ultrasound.

12. Fasting for at least 6–8 hours is required before percutaneous

urinary intervention.

13. A pigtail drainage catheter is commonly used in Percutaneous

Nephrostomy.

14. Bed rest for 2–4 hours is recommended after Percutaneous

Nephrostomy.

15. Percutaneous Ureteric Stent Placement is indicated for the

prevention of ureteric obstruction by calculus fragments during
lithotripsy.

16. Acute pyonephrosis is a contraindication for Percutaneous

Ureteric Stent Placement.

17. Percutaneous Ureteric Stent Placement involves advancing a

guidewire through the ureter into the bladder.

18. Percutaneous Nephrolithotomy is a minimally invasive

procedure commonly used for the treatment of small renal calculi.

19. Percutaneous Nephrostomy requires the patient to be in a prone

or prone-oblique position.
20. Percutaneous Nephrolithotomy involves dilating the tract to
facilitate stone extraction.

21. An endoscope is commonly used to visualize and fragment the

calculus in Percutaneous Nephrolithotomy.

22. Routine exchange of long-term nephrostomy catheters is

necessary.

Answers:
1. b
2. b
3. c
4. d
5. a
6. b
7. b
8. a
9. a
10. True
11. True
12. True
13. True
14. True
15. True
16. True
17. True
18. False
19. True
20. True
21. True
22. True
LECTURE (5)

1. What is the purpose of Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic

Shunt (TIPS)?
a) Reduce portal venous pressures ✅
b) Treat ascites in chronic liver disease
c) Manage gastro-oesophageal varices
d) All of the above

2. Which vein is accessed during the TIPS procedure?

a) Left internal jugular vein
b) Right internal jugular vein ✅
c) Femoral vein
d) Brachial vein

3. What is the function of a TIPS covered stent-graft?

a) Reduce portal venous pressures
b) Divert blood flow from the portal vein to the liver ✅
c) Prevent bleeding in varices
d) Dilate the hepatic vein

4. How is haemostasis achieved after TIPS procedure?

a) Manual compression at the puncture site ✅
b) Administration of hemostatic medications
c) Placement of a compression bandage
d) Surgical suturing at the puncture site

5. Percutaneous intervention for biliary obstruction is indicated in:

a) Biliary sepsis
b) Stone disease
c) Benign strictures
d) All of the above ✅
6. What is the purpose of Percutaneous Transhepatic
Cholangiography (PTC)?
a) Access and image the biliary system ✅
b) Drain the gallbladder
c) Insert a gastrostomy tube
d) Relieve dysphagia in oesophageal carcinoma

7. How is PTC performed?

a) By accessing the bile duct under ultrasound or fluoroscopic
guidance
b) Through a percutaneous puncture in the abdomen
c) Injecting contrast medium into the bile ducts
d) All of the above ✅

8. What is the recommended duration for a percutaneous

cholecystostomy drain to remain in place?
a) 1-2 weeks
b) 2-4 weeks
c) 4-6 weeks ✅
d) 6-8 weeks

9. Percutaneous gastrostomy insertion is indicated for:

a) Patients with mechanical or functional swallowing impairment
b) Patients with oropharyngeal tumors
c) Patients with neurological dysfunction
d) All of the above ✅

10. How is the position of a gastrostomy confirmed?

a) Ultrasound imaging
b) Fluoroscopy
c) Contrast injection through the gastrostomy ✅
d) X-ray examination

11. Gastrointestinal tract stenting is performed for which of the

following conditions?
a) Dysphagia in unresectable oesophageal carcinoma
b) Gastric outlet or duodenal tumor obstruction
c) Closed-loop colonic tumor obstruction
d) All of the above ✅

12. What is the typical positioning for upper gastrointestinal (GI)

access during stenting?
a) Supine ✅
b) Prone
c) Left lateral decubitus
d) Right lateral decubitus

13. How is a gastrostomy insertion tract dilated?

a) Balloon dilation ✅
b) Surgical incision
c) Laser ablation
d) Medication administration

14. Percutaneous cholecystostomy is commonly performed in

patients with:
a) Gallstones
b) Cholecystitis ✅
c) Pancreatitis
d) Hepatitis

15. What is the primary aim of TIPS procedure?

a) Reduce risk of bleeding in varices ✅
b) Improve liver function
c) Normalize portal venous flow
d) Reduce portal venous pressures

16. Which imaging technique is used to guide percutaneous

interventions for biliary obstruction?
a) Ultrasound
b) Fluoroscopy ✅
c) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
d) Computed tomography (CT)

17. What is the role of a percutaneous pigtail type drain in

cholecystitis?
a) Drainage of gallbladder contents ✅
b) Prevent leakage of bile into the abdominal cavity
c) Facilitate healing of the gallbladder
d) Relieve pain associated with cholecystitis

18. What is the primary indication for percutaneous gastrostomy

insertion?
a) Relief of dysphagia
b) Long-term feeding in the setting of oral intake insufficiency ✅
c) Treatment of gastric tumors
d) Prevention of gastroesophageal reflux

19. Which of the following is NOT a potential complication of

gastrointestinal tract stenting?
a) Stent migration
b) Infection
c) Bleeding
d) Allergic reaction to contrast medium ✅

20. What is the purpose of percutaneous transhepatic

cholangiography (PTC)?
a) Access and image the biliary system ✅
b) Drain the gallbladder
c) Relieve dysphagia in oesophageal carcinoma
d) Treat gastric outlet obstruction

(True or False) Questions (T/F):

1. True or False: TIPS is a minimally invasive procedure performed

to reduce portal venous pressures in patients with portal
hypertension.
Answer: True

2. True or False: Percutaneous stent placement is primarily used for

the treatment of biliary sepsis.
Answer: False

3. True or False: Percutaneous Transhepatic Cholangiography

(PTC) involves accessing and imaging the biliary system.
Answer: True

4. True or False: Percutaneous cholecystostomy is a procedure

performed to drain the gallbladder.
Answer: True

5. True or False: Gastrostomy tubes are typically inserted in patients

with neurological dysfunction to facilitate long-term feeding.
Answer: True
6. True or False: Fluoroscopy is particularly useful for patients with
subtotal pharyngeal or esophageal obstruction where passage of an
endoscope is unfeasible or fails.
Answer: True

7. True or False: Percutaneous gastrostomy insertion is indicated for

relief of dysphagia in patients with mechanical or functional
swallowing impairment.
Answer: True

8. True or False: Percutaneous Transhepatic Cholangiography

(PTC) allows for the passage of a guidewire and catheter into the
biliary tree for intervention.
Answer: True

9. True or False: Percutaneous cholecystostomy drains need to

remain in place for at least 2-4 weeks to allow the healing process to
form a tract around the drainage catheter.
Answer: False

10. True or False: Gastrointestinal tract stenting is performed

exclusively by endoscopists and not by Interventional Radiologists.
Answer: False

LECTURE (6)

1. Endovascular therapies in interventional oncology involve access

via the:
 a) Venous system
b) Arterial system ✅
c) Lymphatic system
d) Gastrointestinal system

2. Percutaneous ablation techniques involve the destruction of

tumors using:
a) Surgical excision
b) Radiation therapy
c) Thermal or chemical energy ✅
d) Targeted drug delivery

3. Radiofrequency ablation (RFA) works by:

a) Freezing the tumor cells
b) Inducing molecular motion and heating ✅
c) Disrupting cellular membranes with electric current
d) Administering chemotherapy directly to the tumor

4. Which ablative technique is less sensitive to the heat-sink effect

and more protective of support tissues?
a) Cryoablation
b) Microwave ablation ✅
c) Irreversible electroporation
d) Chemical ablation

5. Cryoablation is commonly used in the treatment of:

a) Lung cancer
b) Breast cancer
c) Brain tumors
d) Renal malignancies ✅
6. Irreversible electroporation (IRE) causes cell death by:
a) Thermal coagulation
b) Apoptosis and necrosis ✅
c) Vascular thrombosis
d) Protein denaturation

7. Which ablative technique requires the administration of muscle

relaxants due to muscular contraction?
a) Radiofrequency ablation
b) Microwave ablation
c) Irreversible electroporation ✅
d) Chemical ablation

8. Chemical ablation involves the percutaneous instillation of:

a) Saline solution
b) Radioactive substances
c) Acetic acid or ethanol ✅
d) Antibiotics

9. The ideal tumor size for one RFA probe is typically:

a) Less than 1 cm
b) Less than 3 cm ✅
c) Greater than 10 cm
d) Any size can be treated

10. Which ablative technique has the shortest ablation time

compared to others?
a) Cryoablation
b) Microwave ablation
c) Irreversible electroporation ✅
d) Chemical ablation
11. Endovascular therapies involve the direct delivery of:
a) Chemotherapy ✅
b) Radiation therapy
c) Immunotherapy
d) Surgical instruments

12. The heat-sink effect may occur in tumors adjacent to:

a) Nerves
b) Muscles
c) Lymph nodes
d) Large vessels ✅

13. Percutaneous ablation techniques are performed under:

a) Ultrasound guidance
b) CT guidance ✅
c) MRI guidance
d) X-ray guidance

14. Which ablative technique is most commonly used in the

treatment of prostate cancer?
a) Radiofrequency ablation
b) Cryoablation ✅
c) Microwave ablation
d) Irreversible electroporation

15. Endovascular therapies involve access via the:

a) Arterial system ✅
b) Venous system
c) Lymphatic system
d) Digestive system

16. Ablative techniques result in:

a) Tumor growth
 b) Cellular rejuvenation
c) Cell death ✅
d) Metastasis

17. Microwave ablation is less sensitive to the heat-sink effect

compared to:
a) Cryoablation
b) Radiofrequency ablation ✅
c) Irreversible electroporation
d) Chemical ablation

18. Chemical ablation with ethanol causes destruction of:

a) Muscle tissue
b) Vascular endothelium ✅
c) Nerve cells
d) Connective tissue

19. Percutaneous ablation techniques are used in the treatment of:

a) Infectious diseases
b) Autoimmune disorders
c) Genetic disorders
d) Cancer ✅

20. Endovascular therapies involve the delivery of chemotherapy

and/or:
a) Hormone therapy
b) Antibiotics
c) Embolic material ✅
d) Stem cells

(True or False) Questions (T/F):

1. True or False: Interventional oncology is divided into
endovascular therapy and percutaneous ablation.
- True

2. True or False: Radiofrequency ablation (RFA) uses heat

generated by an alternating current to destroy tumor cells.
- True

3. True or False: Microwave ablation is more sensitive to the heat-

sink effect compared to RFA.
- False

4. True or False: Cryoablation involves rapid cooling around the

probe inserted into the tumor.
- True

5. True or False: Irreversible electroporation (IRE) is a non-thermal

ablative technique that does not require muscle relaxants.
- False

6. True or False: Chemical ablation involves the percutaneous

instillation of acetic acid or ethanol to induce coagulative necrosis.
- True

7. True or False: The size of the ablation zone in RFA is limited due
to the decrease in heat generated with distance from the probe.
- True

8. True or False: Microwave ablation is more protective of support

tissues compared to RFA.
- True
9. True or False: Irreversible electroporation damages the
extracellular support structures.
- False

10. True or False: Chemical ablation with ethanol causes destruction

of vascular endothelium, resulting in thrombosis and ischemia.
- True

LECTURE (7)

1. Transcatheter embolization therapy in interventional radiology

aims to:
a) Enhance blood flow
b) Increase vascular malformations
c) Remove blood flow ✅
 d) Treat varices

2. Which of the following is NOT an application of transcatheter

embolization therapy?
a) Treatment of vascular malformations
b) Control of hemorrhage
c) Tumor therapy
d) Enhancement of blood flow ✅

3. Transcatheter embolization in interventional oncology may

involve the direct delivery of:
a) Chemotherapy ✅
b) Radiation therapy
c) Immunotherapy
d) Surgical instruments

4. Embolic materials used in interventional radiology can be

categorized based on:
a) Level of occlusion desired ✅
b) Tumor type
c) Patient age
d) Chemotherapeutic agents

5. Gelatin sponge (Gel-foam) is a temporary embolic material that

is:
a) Water-soluble
b) Hemostatic and absorbable ✅
c) Made from acrylic spheres
d) Permanent in nature

6. Which embolic material is typically used in interventional

oncology?
 a) Polyvinyl alcohol particles ✅
b) Gelatin sponge
c) Platinum coils
d) Acrylic spheres

7. Coils used as embolic material in interventional radiology are

made of:
a) Stainless steel or platinum wire ✅
b) Gelatin sponge
c) Polyvinyl alcohol particles
d) Acrylic spheres

8. Transarterial embolization (TAE) in interventional oncology

involves:
a) Delivery of chemotherapy and embolization
b) Occlusion of the blood supply without chemotherapy ✅
c) Radioembolization with yttrium-90
d) Use of gelatin sponge as the embolic material

9. Transarterial chemoembolization (TACE) in interventional

oncology combines:
a) Embolization with gelatin sponge
b) Delivery of chemotherapy only
c) Delivery of chemotherapy and embolization ✅
d) Radioembolization with yttrium-90

10. Conventional TACE (cTACE) involves the delivery of

chemotherapy into the feeding arteries followed by:
a) Radioembolization with yttrium-90
b) Gelatin sponge embolization ✅
 c) Delivery of chemotherapy and embolization with particles
d) Occlusion of the blood supply without chemotherapy

11. Drug-eluting bead TACE (DEB-TACE) involves the delivery of

particles containing chemotherapy into the feeding arteries, which
slowly release the chemotherapy and:
a) Enhance blood flow
b) Induce ischaemia and necrosis ✅
c) Treat vascular malformations
d) Absorb over time

12. Transarterial radioembolization (TARE) is also known as:

a) Selective internal radiation therapy (SIRT) ✅
b) Transcatheter embolization therapy
c) Drug-eluting bead TACE (DEB-TACE)
d) Conventional TACE (cTACE)

13. The radioactive isotope used in transarterial radioembolization

(TARE) is:
a) Yttrium-90 ✅
b) Platinum
c) Acrylic spheres
d) Gelatin sponge

14. Transarterial radioembolization (TARE) allows a significantly

higher radiation dose to be applied compared to:
a) External beam radiotherapy ✅
b) Drug-eluting bead TACE (DEB-TACE)
c) Conventional TACE (cTACE)
d) Transarterial embolization (TAE)
15. The main purpose of embolization in transarterial
radioembolization (TARE) is to:
a) Diminish blood flow ✅
b) Enhance blood flow
c) Control hemorrhage
d) Treat varices

16. Gelatin sponge is a temporary embolic material that is:

a) Absorbable and hemostatic ✅
b) Permanent and water-soluble
c) Made from polyvinyl alcohol particles
d) Used in transarterial radioembolization (TARE)

17. Transarterial embolization in interventional radiology results in

tumor ischemia and necrosis via:
a) Delivery of chemotherapy
b) Occlusion of the blood supply ✅
c) Radiation therapy
d) Administration of immunotherapy

18. Drug-eluting bead TACE (DEB-TACE) delivers particles

containing chemotherapy into the feeding arteries, resulting in:
a) Enhanced blood flow
b) Ischemia and necrosis ✅
c) Vascular malformations
d) Hemostasis
19. Transarterial radioembolization (TARE) is also known as
selective internal radiation therapy (SIRT) and involves the use of:
a) Beta-emitting radioactive isotopes ✅
b) Gelatin sponge
c) Platinum coils
d) Acrylic spheres

20. The purpose of embolization in transarterial radioembolization

(TARE) is to deliver a higher radiation dose locally into the tumor
by:
a) Increasing blood flow
b) Administering chemotherapy
c) Diminishing blood flow ✅
d) Treating varices

(True or False) Questions (T/F):

1. True or False: Transcatheter embolization therapy is used to

enhance blood flow.
- False

2. True or False: Gelatin sponge is a permanent embolic material.

- False

3. True or False: Drug-eluting bead TACE (DEB-TACE) involves

the delivery of chemotherapy particles into the feeding arteries.
- True

4. True or False: Transarterial radioembolization (TARE) is a form

of external beam radiotherapy.
 - False

5. True or False: Transarterial embolization (TAE) involves

occlusion of the blood supply without the use of chemotherapy.
- True

6. True or False: Gelatin sponge is an absorbable and hemostatic

embolic material.
- True

7. True or False: Transarterial chemoembolization (TACE)

combines the delivery of chemotherapy and embolization.
- True

8. True or False: Particles used in interventional radiology can be

made of acrylic spheres.
- True

9. True or False: Transarterial radioembolization (TARE) delivers a

significantly lower radiation dose compared to external beam
radiotherapy.
- False

10. True or False: The main purpose of embolization in TARE is to

enhance blood flow to the tumor.
- False
LECTURE (8)

1. Image-guided biopsy is commonly performed for:

a) Organ transplantation
b) Cancer staging
c) Tissue sampling and histological diagnosis ✅
d) Organ imaging

2. Which imaging modality is most commonly used for image-

guided biopsies?
a) Ultrasound ✅
b) MRI
c) PET
d) CT
3. Special ultrasound probes are used for biopsies within which
tracts?
a) Genitourinary, gastrointestinal, and respiratory ✅
b) Neurological and cardiovascular
c) Musculoskeletal and endocrine
d) Ophthalmic and dermatological

4. Biopsies guided by MRI or PET are limited by:

a) Availability and cost ✅
b) Difficulty in image interpretation
c) High radiation exposure
d) Incompatibility with biopsy devices

5. Which is an indication for image-guided biopsy?

a) Investigation of organ dysfunction ✅
b) Routine health screening
c) Cosmetic purposes
d) Weight loss management

6. Non-targeted biopsy involves sampling:

a) Representative area of organ parenchyma ✅
b) Visible vessels or adjacent structures
c) Superficial skin lesions
d) Multiple organs simultaneously

7. Local anesthesia is injected during biopsy down to the level of:

a) Adjacent lymph nodes
b) Organ capsule ✅
c) Subcutaneous tissue
 d) Muscular layer

8. Breath holding may be employed during biopsy if the organ is

prone to movement with:
a) Respiration ✅
b) Digestion
c) Heartbeats
d) Exercise

9. Targeted biopsy is performed on:

a) Discrete lesions identified on imaging ✅
b) Multiple organs simultaneously
c) Organs with normal functionality
d) Superficial skin lesions

10. Which imaging modality is commonly used for challenging

lesions during targeted biopsy?
a) Ultrasound
b) CT ✅
c) MRI
d) PET

11. Care should be taken when biopsying malignant lesions due to a

higher risk of:
a) Infection
b) Hemorrhage ✅
c) Fibrosis
d) Organ rejection

12. The technique for targeted biopsy is similar to non-targeted

biopsy, with greater emphasis on:
a) Patient comfort
b) Positioning ✅
 c) Anesthesia dosage
d) Radiation exposure

13. Post-procedural care after biopsies includes:

a) Lying in the supine position
b) Regular monitoring of hemodynamic stability ✅
c) Immediate ambulation
d) Administration of antibiotics

14. Which condition is a relative contraindication for biopsy?

a) Coagulopathy ✅
b) Organ dysfunction
c) Infection
d) Cancer remission

15. Complications of image-guided biopsies may include:

a) Haemorrhage or vascular injury ✅
b) Inflammatory bowel disease
c) Vision loss
d) Allergic reactions to contrast agents

16. Tumor tract seeding is a potential complication with a frequency

of:
a) 0-3.4% ✅
b) 10-15%
c) 25-30%
d) 50-60%

17. Which reaction is a possible complication of sedation during

biopsy?
a) Anaphylaxis ✅
b) Hypertension
c) Bradycardia
 d) Insomnia

18. The overall risk of death associated with liver biopsy is

approximately:
a) 1 in 3000 ✅
b) 1 in 100
c) 1 in 500
d) 1 in 10,000

19. Image-guided biopsies are primarily performed by:

a) Radiologists ✅
b) Surgeons
c) Pathologists
d) Cardiologists

20. The main purpose of image-guided biopsies is to obtain:

a) Real-time images of the organs
b) Genetic information from the organs
c) Representative tissue samples for histological diagnosis ✅
d) Treatment options for organ dysfunction

(True or False) Questions (T/F):

1. True or False: Image-guided biopsies are commonly performed

solely for organ transplantation.
- False
2. True or False: Ultrasound is the most commonly employed
imaging modality for image-guided biopsies.
- True

3. True or False: Special ultrasound probes are used for biopsies

within the musculoskeletal and endocrine tracts.
- False

4. True or False: MRI-guided biopsies are limited by availability

and cost.
- True

5. True or False: Investigation of organ dysfunction is not an

indication for image-guided biopsy.
- False

6. True or False: Non-targeted biopsy involves choosing a

representative area of organ parenchyma.
- True

7. True or False: Local anesthesia is injected down to the level of

adjacent lymph nodes during a biopsy.
- False

8. True or False: Breath holding is employed during biopsy to

minimize movement caused by digestion.
- False

9. True or False: Targeted biopsy is performed on multiple organs

simultaneously.
- False
10. True or False: Post-procedural care after biopsies includes lying
in the supine position.
- False