1.

LIVING WORLD

Biology Smart Booklet

Theory + NCERT MCQs + NEET PYQs
 THE LIVING WORLD
WhatisGrowth
To differentiate whether an organism is living or not, various characteristics
need to be checked in the case of living organisms.

Growth: All living organisms can undergo the process of growth and
development that results in an increase in the mass and number of cells.
Multicellular organisms grow by cell division. The growth of plants and animals
takes place with the help of cell division. In the case of plants, the cell division
occurs throughout their life while in the case of animals the cell division occurs
up to a certain age, and then the cells lose their capability to divide.

It results in an increase in body mass and increases in the number of cells.

Examples: Mountains, boulders, sand mounds, etc grow by the accumulation

of the materials although they are non-living. So, growth cannot be taken as
the factor which categorizes the organism as living.

Metabolism: As the body and organs are the constituents of different

chemicals, they perform various metabolic functions that result in the
conversion of chemicals into other biomolecules. All plants, animals, and
microbes exhibit metabolism. It is absent in the case of non-living organisms
but may be introduced through the in-vitro method.

Sensitivity: The living organisms whether prokaryotes or eukaryotes respond

according to their surroundings and the stimuli present around them, it may be
physical, chemical, or biological. The living organisms are sensitive about their
surroundings and are responsible in accordance with their stimuli. The stimuli
can either be biological, physical, or chemical.

Cellular Organization: It is the defining characteristic of living organisms since

all living organisms are made up of cells that help in performing various cellular
functions resulting in the growth and development, reproduction, metabolism,
etc in the body. Since non-living organisms are not made up of cells so they do
not have cellular organization.

Movement: The lining organisms show movement and locomotion and more
specifically plants move according to the movement of the sun.

Example: The flame of a candle and a crystal do not show movement while if
we take mango trees then we can see they undergo movement, growth, and
development along with reproduction and results in the production of more
trees through their seeds. Thus mango trees are said to be alive as they show
movement while candles flame and crystal are not alive.
Also, the organisms that are aware and are conscious of their surroundings will
be living organisms.

WhatisLiving?
We do know that all living organisms reproduce, grow and metabolize. But
when we look at the microscopic realm, the actual definition of life is rather

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blurred. For instance, viruses are basically a nucleic acid that is protected by a
protein coat. They exhibit no typical characteristics of living organisms such as
reproduction, until and unless it is inside a host.

Another “organism” that borders between the living and non-living are Prions.
These are essentially misfolded proteins can reproduce by making other healthy
proteins to misfold. These entities are responsible for causing diseases such as
Spongiform Encephalopathy, fatal familial insomnia, which are almost always
fatal. In conclusion, the realm between the living and the non-living differs even
now as the definition of “life” is ambiguous.

Characteristics ofLife
Living organisms exhibit undisputable signs of life – such as growth, reproduction
and metabolism. Higher organisms such as humans showcase consciousness –
where we become aware of our surroundings. Similarly, consciousness may be
observable in many lower forms of life such as bacteria and protozoa. When
these organisms engulf food or react to their environment, it is done primarily to
ensure survival.

DiversityintheLivingWorld
In response to the sheer number of organisms discovered to date, a system of
standardizing names was implemented. Binomial nomenclature assigns a two-
part scientific name to an organism. Botanists and zoologists follow set principles
and criteria when assigning a scientific name to an organism. For instance –
plant names are assigned based on the principles and criteria set by the
International Code for Botanical Nomenclature (ICBN). Similarly, animal names
are assigned on the basis of the International Code of Zoological Nomenclature
(ICZN).

Classification of organisms according to the aforementioned conventions

involved a hierarchy of steps, with each step representing a category or a rank.
The most basic unit of classification is species. A species is a group of individual
organisms with fundamental similarities.

Reproduction
Reproduction, a characteristic of living organisms is the process of producing
off springs, possessing features similar to those of parents. In multicellular
organisms, the mode of reproduction is generally sexual. Living organisms also
reproduce by asexual means.

Some examples are given below.

 Fungi spread and multiply fast by producing millions of asexual spores.

Some fungi, the filamentous algae and the protonema of mosses multiply
by fragmentation.
 In yeast and Hydra, budding occurs to produce new organisms. While, in
Planaria (flatworm),
 regeneration of fragmented body parts occur. These parts in turn grow as a
new organism.

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  Unicellular organisms like bacteria, algae and Amoeba reproduce by
increasing the number of cells, i.e., through cell division (growth is
synonymous with reproduction).
 Some organisms like mules, sterile worker bees, infertile human couples,
etc., do not reproduce. Hence, reproduction also cannot be an all-
inclusive defining characteristic of living organisms.

Metabolism
Metabolism is an another characteristic and defining feature of all living things.
The sum total of anabolic or constructive reactions (anabolism) and catabolic
or destructive reactions (catabolism) continuously occurring inside the body is
called metabolism.

Metabolism: Anabolism + Catabolism Metabolism occurs in all unicellular and

multicellular organisms. Its two stages include, i.e., anabolism, the process of
building up or synthesis of complex substances from simpler ones, e.g., Photo
synthesis and catabolism, the process of breakdown of complex substances
into simpler substances, e.g., Respiration, releasing waste outside.

Metabolic reactions can also be demonstrated outside the body in cell free
systems, which are neither living nor non-living. Thus, these reactions in vitro are
surely living reactions not living things. Hence, metabolism can be considered
as a defining feature of all living organisms without exception.

The important differences between anabolism and catabolism are:

Catabolism Anabolism
Catabolism breaks down big complex Anabolism builds molecules required for the
molecules into smaller, easier to absorb body’s functionality.
molecules.

The process of catabolism releases Anabolic processes require energy.

energy.
Hormones involved in the processes are Hormones involved in the process are
adrenaline, cytokine, glucagon, and estrogen, testosterone, growth hormones and
cortisol. insulin.

Examples of catabolic processes are Examples include the formation of

proteins becoming amino acids, glycogen polypeptides from amino acids, glucose
breaking down into glucose and forming glycogen and fatty acids forming
triglycerides breaking up into fatty acids. triglycerides.
In catabolism, potential energy is In anabolism, kinetic energy is converted into
changed into kinetic energy. potential energy.
It is required to perform different activities It is required for maintenance, growth, and
in living entities. storage.

CellularOrganization

The cells are the building blocks of all living things whether plants, animals or
humans. The unicellular organisms are made of a single cell, while multi cellular

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organisms are formed by millions of cells. The cells contain protoplasm (living
matter) and cell organelles (inside the cells) which perform several activities at
the cellular level and result into various life processes.

Consciousness
All living organisms have excellent ability to sense their environment. They
respond to various physical, chemical and biological stimuli.

The various external factors to which living organisms respond are light, water,
temperature, pollutants, other organisms, etc. Light duration or photo period
affects many seasonal breeders, plants as well as animals. All living things
respond to chemicals, entering their * bodies.

Humans are superior to all living things as they have an additional ability of self-
consciousness. Therefore, consciousness can also said to be a defining property
of living organisms.

However, in human beings, it is more difficult to define living state, e.g., Patients
lying in coma supported by machines that replace heart and lungs, are brain-
dead with no self-consciousness.

BodyOrganization
The body of living organisms is organized, i.e., several component and sub-
components cooperate with each other for the functioning of whole body.
PhysicalandBiologicalHierarchies
There is a physical (non-living) hierarchy and biological hierarchy in the
organization of living body. In physical hierarchy, various non-living components
aggregate to form compounds, which finally enter the living world in the form of
cells. These cells organize to form tissues, that form organs and several organs
combustive to form organ-systems. Finally, many organ systems organize and
form a living organism.

The properties of tissues are not present in the constituent cells but arise as a
result of interactions among the constituent cells. For example, bone is a hard
tissue, which provides framework to the body. But the cells present inside it do
not have this property. This phenomenon of interactions between various
components of the body results in the hierarchy of organization.

The various life processes are the result of this interaction and coordination. The
complexity in organization enables living organisms as to be self-replicating,
evolving, self-regulating and responding to external stimuli. All living organisms
along with their ancestors and descendants are linked to one another by
sharing of common genetic material in the form of DNA in varying degrees. This
DNA is responsible for the expression of specific traits in organisms. Thus, Biology
is the story of life on earth. It is the story of evolution of living organisms on the
earth.

TaxonomicCategories
In 1956 the term Taxon was introduced and in 1964, Mayr defined taxon to be
the various categories based on different characters of the organisms that
consist of a taxonomic group of any rank.

TaxonomicHierarchy
Various organisms in different categories depending upon their common
characters to make classification easier. These groups together are called
taxonomic hierarchies. The taxonomic hierarchy includes. Kingdom, division of
the kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, and species. Species are the
lowest while the kingdom is the highest rank within the hierarchy. It is also called
the Linnaean hierarchy as it was first proposed by Carolus Linnaeus, the Father
of Systematic Botany. The hierarchy includes seven obligate categories.

They are as follows:

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Species: It is the lowest category of the taxonomic hierarchy. There are around
8.7 million species observed on earth till now while their rest are left
undiscovered. It refers to a group of organisms that are similar in shape, form,
generative options. Species may be more divided into subspecies. It was first
defined by Ernst Mayr in 1964 that the species are the interbreeding populations
that are reproductively isolated from other such groups. The term species was
first introduced by the biologist John Ray. E.g., sapiens.

Genus: A category that is placed above species as they consist of a group of

related species. Genus are of various types based on the number of species
present like monotypic (one genus present), and polytypic (several species
present). For e.g., the genus Panthera constitutes both lion and tiger.

Family: This taxonomic category consists of related genera having similar

characteristics. For e.g., the families Canidae, Felidae, Ursidae, etc. come under
one order Carnivora.

Order or Cohort: This taxonomic category is more specific than the class as it
consists of one or more similar families. The class Mammalia consists of around
twenty-six orders that include primates, Carnivora, etc.

Class: It was the most general taxonomic category before the introduction of
phyla. In the animal kingdom, there are around 108 classes that include Pisces,
reptilia, aves, etc. The categories used in classification now are different from
those of the Linnaeus taxonomy.

Phylum: This category is more specific than the kingdom. In the animal kingdom,
there are around thirty-five phyla that include phylum Arthropoda, Chordata,
etc.

Kingdom: The highest level of classification is the kingdom which is further

divided into various subgroups. The total kingdoms of the living organisms are
five in number that includes Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia.

Generic Name Specific Epithet Common Name

Mangifera indica Mango
Solanum tuberosum Potato
Solanum nigrum Nightshade
Panthera leo Lion
Panthera tigris Tiger
Homo Sapiens Man

Commo Biological Genus Family Order Class Phylum/Divisio

n Name Name n
Man Homo Homo Hominidae Primata Mammalia Chordata
sapiens
Housefly Musca Musca Muscidae Diptera Insecta Arthropoda
domestica

Mango Mangifera Mangifer Anarcardiac Sapindal DicotyledonaeAngiospermae

indica a eae es
Wheat Triticum Triticum Poaceae Poales Monocotyledo Angiospermae
aestivum nae

Herbarium
A herbarium is a collection of preserved plant specimens that are dried and
labelled. The plant species that are collected are first dried, pressed, mounted,
and then labelled on the herbarium sheets.

The steps involved in the herbarium technique are as follows:

 Collecting various specimens from different areas.

 Drying the particular specimen by placing them in between the various
folds of newspapers or by iron drying them.
 By dipping the specimens in mercuric chloride poisoning is done.
 With the help of a cello tape or glue, mounting the dried specimens on the
herbarium sheets.
 Certain specimen parts that are difficult to attach to the sheet, like stems,
are stitched so that they stick to their position on the sheet.
 To keep them for a longer time, preserves must be sprayed.
 The labeling for identification of all the specimens must be done at the left
side of the bottom corner. The name, date of collection, area of collection,
habit, etc must be written.

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  Lastly, these herbarium sheets are deposed under the herbarium covers
where the rest of the herbarium sheets are covered and packed.
 These herbarium sheets are stored in the cupboards named under their
category.

To avoid any confusion each herbarium sheet is to be labeled properly on the

right-hand corner at the bottom of the herbarium sheet which includes the
scientific name along with author’s name, local name, name of family, locality,
date of collection, name of the collector, etc.

The book flora consists of information about the collected specimens, this book
gives the information regarding the number of plant species present in the
various regions along with their brief description. is published in the form of a
book called flora.

Some important floras of India are Flora of British India, Flora of Delhi, Flora of
Madras, Flora of Travancore, etc.

In England, the Royal Botanical Garden at Kew is the largest Herbarium in the
world. Central National Herbarium is the largest Herbarium in India located in the
Indian Botanical Garden at Kolkata established in 1787.

Botanical Gardens
They are those gardens that are responsible for the cultivation and preservation
of a wide range of plants. These plants are reserved along with their botanical
names that are tagged as a label. It is a collection of many species of plants
such as succulent plants, garden herbs, and many more exotic plants. Visitors
include educational displays, art exhibitions, and open-air theatre musical
performances with tours and other entertainments. They are under the control of
the universities or the scientific research organizations that relate both herbaria
and the research programs together in the botanical sciences. There are more
than 600 botanical gardens present all around the world.

The ancient Botanical Garden in the world is the Hanging Gardens of Babylon
and comes under the Wonders of the world.

The Royal botanical garden at Kew in England is the largest Botanical Garden in
the world and is known as the botanical capital of the world. It was discovered
by Bentham and Hooker.

In India Indian Botanical Garden at Kolkata is the largest botanical garden while
Tropical Botanical Garden at Thiruvananthapuram in Kerala is the largest tropical
botanical garden in Asia.

Museum
The museum is the place where the artistic and educational plants or animals are
preserved, stored, and exhibited to the public. Museums are of various types that
include the natural science museum, Science Museum and Zoological Museum.

The Botany and Zoology Departments of all the college's museums are
maintained. Animals can also be preserved as they are placed in jars or

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 containers having chemical solutions which help them to preserve for a longer
time. The specimens are then identified and labelled and are then stored after
their catalog is prepared.

The plants and animal specimens are also preserved as dry specimens. Like
insects after collecting, killing, and pinning are then preserved in insect boxes
while in the case of the birds and mammals they are first stuffed and then
preserved. The skeletons of the animal are preserved in the museums.

ZoologicalParks
They are animal parks within enclosures that display to the public and replicate
their natural habitats for behavioral patterns which benefit the animals and
visitors. Special climatic conditions are created for the animals and the
walkthrough exhibits are there for visitors for non-aggressive species. Visitors are
how to avoid eating foods that animals might snatch or to keep their paths
away.

The zoological park of Kruger in South Africa is the largest zoo in the world.

The Zoo of Kolkata in India is the largest zoo.

NCERT LINE BY LINE QUESTIONS

What is living?
1. The characteristics of growth include Pg-3, Easy
A) increase in mass B) increase in number
C) increase in length D) both A. and B.
2. Unicellular organisms grow by Pg-4, Easy
A) cell elongation B) cell division
C) accumulation of material on thesurface D) none of these
3. Mountains, boulders and sand moundsalso grow, but they are not considered asliving organisms
because they grow by Pg-4, Easy
A) Accumulation of material on theirinner surface.
B) the division of their particles.
C) accumulation of material on their outersurface.
D) both A. and B.
4. Choose the correct statement aboutgrowth in plants. Pg-4, Easy
A) Growth occurs continuouslythroughout their lifespan by celldivision.
B) The growth is seen only upto a certainage.
C) Growth occurs by the accumulation ofmaterial on the upper surface of theircells.
D) Growth occurs only in certain cells.
5. In yeast and Hydra, reproduction occursby Pg-4, Easy
A) conjugation B) sporulation
C) budding D) none of these
6. The organism(s) that can multiply byfragmentation is/are Pg-4, Easy
A) fungi B) filamentous algae
C) protonema of moss D) all of these
7. In Amoeba, reproduction is synonymouswith Pg-4, Easy
A) digestion B) growth
C) locomotion D) none of these
8. Living organisms that do not reproduceare Pg-4, Easy

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 A) mule B) worker bees
C) infertile human couples D) all of these
9. Match Column-I with Column-II andchoose the correct option from the codesgiven below.
Pg-4, Medium
Column-I Column-II
(Organism) (Methodof reproduction)
a Planaria (1) Fragmentation
b Hydra (2) Regeneration
c Fungi (3) Binary fission
d Amoeba (4) Budding
Codes
abcd abcd
A) 2 4 1 3 B) 4 2 3 1
C) 3 1 4 2 D) 1 3 2 4
10. The sum total of all the chemical reactionsoccurring in our body is Pg-5, Easy
A) anabolism B) catabolism C) metabolism D) none of these
11. An isolated metabolic reaction outside thebody of an organism, performed in a testtubeis
Pg-5, Easy
A) living B) non-living
C) neither living nor non-living
D) sometimes living and sometimes nonlivingdepending upon environmentalfactors
12. Choose the incorrect statement from thefollowing: Pg-5, Easy
A) All living organisms exhibitmetabolism.
B) Metabolism is the sum total of allchemical reactions occurring in ourbody.
C) Metabolism is a defining feature of allliving organisms.
D) Metabolic reactions cannot bedemonstrated outside the body in cellfreesystems.
13. Isolated metabolic reactions occurring invitroare not living things, but surely livingreactions. It proves
that ‘A’ of the body isthe defining feature of life forms. Here ‘A’is Pg-5, Easy
A) reproduction B) cellular organization
C) metabolic reactions D) growth
14. Identify the defining characteristics ofliving organisms from the following. Pg-5, Easy
A) Growth B) Ability to make sound
C) Reproduction D) Response to external stimuli
15. Photoperiod affects Pg-5, Easy
A) reproduction B) metabolism
C) growth D) cellular organization
16. Living organisms respond toenvironmental stimuli which could be Pg-5, Easy
A) physical B) chemical C) biological D) all of these
17. Match Column-I with Column-II andchoose the correct option from the codesgiven below:
Pg- 3-5, Easy
Column-I Column-II
a Growth (1) Production ofprogeny
b Reproduction (2) Sum of all chemicalreactions occurring
in body
c Metabolism (3) Sense and respondto environmental
stimuli
d Consciousness (4) Increase in massand number
Codes
abcd abcd
A) 3 2 4 1 B) 4 1 2 3
C) 1 3 2 4 D) 2 4 3 1
18. All living organisms are linked to eachother because Pg-5, Easy
A) they show a common cellularorganization.
B) they possess common genetic materialof the same type.
C) they share common genetic materialbut to varying degrees.

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 D) all of these.
19. Assertion: Non-living objects also grow.
Reason: They grow by accumulation ofmaterial on the surface. Pg-3, Medium
A) Both assertion and reason are true andreason is the correct explanation ofassertion.
B) Both assertion and reason are true butreason is not the correct explanation ofassertion.
C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
D) Both assertion and reason are false.
20. Assertion: Reproduction is not a definingproperty of living organisms.
Reason: Mules do not reproduce. Pg-4, Medium
A) Both assertion and reason are true andreason is the correct explanation ofassertion.
B) Both assertion and reason are true butreason is not the correct explanation ofassertion.
C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
D) Both assertion and reason are false.
21. Assertion: Non-living objects also exhibitmetabolism.
Reason: Isolated metabolic reactionsoccurring, invitro are living things. Pg-5, Medium
A) Both assertion and reason are true andreason is the correct explanation ofassertion.
B) Both assertion and reason are true butreason is not the correct explanation ofassertion.
C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
D) Both assertion and reason are false.
Diversity in the living World
22. The process of naming of living organismsis called Pg-4, Easy
A) systematics B) taxonomy C) nomenclature D) none of these
23. Identification of an organism means Pg-4, Easy
A) its correct description B) its correct classification
C) its correct nomenclature D) all of these
24. ICBN stands for Pg-4, Easy
A) International Code for BiologicalNaming
B) International Centre for BotanicalNomenclature
C) Indian Code for BiologicalNomenclature
D) International Code for BotanicalNomenclature
25. Choose the correct statement aboutscientific names. Pg-4, Easy
A) They ensure that each organism hasonly one name.
B) Description of any organism shouldenable the people to arrive at the samename.
C) They ensure that such a name has notbeen used for any other organism.
D) All of these.
26. The system of providing a name with twocomponents is called Pg-4, Easy
A) trinomial nomenclature B) binomial nomenclature
C) uninominal nomenclature D) none of these
27. The naming system, which is practised bybiologists all over the world, was given by
Pg-4, Easy
A) Carolus Linnaeus B) Whittaker
C) Haeckel D) Woese
28. Match the Column-I with Column-II andchoose the correct option from the codesgiven below.
Pg-6, Difficult
Column-I Column-II
a Biodiversity (1) Correct descriptionof an organism
b Nomenclature (2) The variety ofliving organisms
c Identification (3) A system ofproviding a namewith two
components
d Binomialnomenclature (4) Naming of livingorganisms
Codes -
abcd abcd
A) 2 4 1 3 B) 4 3 2 1
C) 1 2 4 3 D) 3 1 4 2
29. Select correctly written scientific name ofmango which was first described byCarolus Linnaeus.

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 Pg-7, Easy
A) Mangifera indica Car Linn. B) Mangifera indica Linn.
C) Mangifera indica D) Mangifera Indica
30. In Mangifera indica Linn., the specificepithet is Pg-7, Easy
A) Mangifera B) indica C) Linn. D) Both A. and B.
31. Choose the incorrect statement aboutrules of nomenclature. Pg-7, Easy
A) Biological names are generally given inLatin.
B) The first word in biological namerepresents the genus while the secondcomponent denotes the
specificepithet.
C) When hand written, both words ofbiological names are separatelyunderlined.
D) Both the words of biological name startwith capital letter.
32. Which of the following is against the rulesof ICBN? Pg-7, Easy
A) Handwritten scientific names shouldbe underlined.
B) Every species should have a genericname and a specific epithet.
C) Scientific names are in latin andshould be italized.
D) Generic and specific names should bewritten starting with small letters.
33. Biological names are generally written in Pg-7, Easy
A) Greek language B) Latin language
C) English language D) Hindi language
34. The process by which organisms aregrouped into convenient categories basedon some easily observable
characters, iscalled Pg-7, Easy
A) taxonomy B) identification
C) classification D) nomenclature
35. The scientific term used for the categoriesof organisms to study them is Pg-7, Easy
A) taxa B) biological name C) systematics D) none of these
36. The process of classification is called Pg-7, Easy
A) systematics B) taxonomy C) nomenclature D) identification
37. The modern taxonomic studies are basedon Pg-8, Easy
A) cell structures B) external and internal structure
C) development process D) all of these
38. Among the following process which one isnot the basic to taxonomy? Pg-8, Easy
A) Identification B) Classification
C) Collection of specimen D) Nomenclature
39. Systematics refers to Pg-8, Easy
A) diversities of different kinds oforganisms and their relationship.
B) identification and study of organsystems of organisms.
C) identification and preservation oforganisms.
D) study of habitat of organisms and theirclassification.
40. Match Column-I with Column-II andchoose the correct option from the codesgiven below.
Pg-8, Difficult
Column-I Column-II
a Mammalia (1) Specific epithet
b Mangifera (2) Branch of study
c indica (3) Taxa
d Systematics (4) Generic name
Codes -
abcd abcd
A) 3 4 1 2 B) 2 1 3 4
C) 1 2 4 3 D) 4 3 2 1
41. Assertion: Binomial nomenclature givenby Linnaeus is being practiced bybiologists all over the world.
Reason: Each name of this system has twocomponents, the generic name and thespecific epithet.

Pg-8, Medium
A) Both Assertion and Reason are trueand Reason is correct explanation ofAssertion.
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,but Reason is not the correctexplanation of Assertion.

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 C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
42. Assertion: The process of classification oforganisms is taxonomy.
Reason: It is merely based on the externalfeatures of organisms. Pg-7, Medium
A) Both Assertion and Reason are trueand Reason is correct explanation ofAssertion.
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,but Reason is not the correctexplanation of Assertion.
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
43. Assertion: Systematics is the study oforganisms, their diversities but not therelationships among them.
Pg-7, Medium
Reason: Systematics is derived from aEnglish word ‘systema’.
A) Both Assertion and Reason are trueand Reason is correct explanation ofAssertion.
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,but Reason is not the correctexplanation of Assertion.
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
Taxonomic Categories
44. All the taxonomic categories togetherconstitute the Pg-8, Easy
A) taxon B) family C) kingdom D) hierarchy
45. The lowest taxonomic category is Pg-8, Easy
A) agenus B) species C) class D) family
46. The basic requirement for placing anorganism in various categories is theknowledge of
Pg-9, Easy
A) characters of an individual B) characters of group of organisms
C) binomial nomenclature D) both A and B
47. Solanum includes species Pg-9, Easy
A) nigrum B) melongena C) tuberosum D) all of these
48. The taxonomic category, genusrepresents Pg-9, Easy
A) an individual organism B) a collection of organisms
C) a group of closely related species oforganisms
D) none of these
49. Match Column-I and Column-II andchoose the correct option from the codesgiven below.
Pg-9, Medium
Column-I Column-II
(Organism name) (Scientific name)
a Lion (1) Panthera tigris
b Leopard (2) Panthera leo
c Tiger (3) Solanum nigrum
d Potato (4) Panthera pardus
Codes -
abcd abcd
A) 2 4 1 3 B) 4 2 1 3
C) 1 2 4 3 D) 3 4 2 1
50. ‘Suffix’ used for a unit of classification inplants to indicate ‘family’ taxonomiccategory is
Pg-9, Easy
A) -ales B) –onae C) -aceae D) ae
51. The taxonomic category ‘order’ liesbetween Pg-10, Easy
A) Genus and species B) Genus and family
C) Family and class D) Class and phylum
52. Choose the incorrect statement from thefollowing. Pg-9, Easy
A) Each genus may have one or more thanone specific epithets representingdifferent organisms.
B) Potato and brinjal are two differentspecies but both belong to the genusSolanum.
C) ‘Families’ are characterized on thebasis of merely reproductive features ofplant species.
D) ‘Order’ is a higher taxonomic categoryand is identified on the basis ofaggregates of characteristics.
53. Fishes, amphibians, reptiles and birdsrepresent which taxonomic category? Pg-9, Easy
A) Class B) Phylum C) Order D) Kingdom
54. The ‘phylum’ taxon of animal classificationis equivalent to which taxon of plantclassification?
Pg-10, Easy
A) Class B) Division C) Order D) Family

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55. Refer to the given figure showinghierarchical arrangement of taxonomiccategories in the ascending
order. In thefigure some taxa are labeled as A, B, C andD. Which taxon will show maximumsimilar
characters among its members?Identify it. Pg-10, Easy

A) B B) A C) C D) D
56. The kingdom that comprises all plantsfrom various divisions is Pg-10, Easy
A) Plantae B) Animalia C) Chordata D) Mammal
57. Match the Column-I with Column-II andchoose the correct option from the codesgiven below:
Pg-9-10, Difficult
Column-I Column-II
a Order (1) Solanum
b Kingdom (2) Solanaceae
c Family (3) Plantae
d Genus (4) tuberosum
e Species (5) Polymoniales
Codes
abcde abcde
A) 5 3 2 1 4 B) 4 2 5 3 1
C) 1 5 3 4 2 D) 3 4 1 5 2
58. In a taxonomic hierarchy, on moving fromspecies to kingdom, the number ofcommon characteristics
Pg-9-10, Medium
A) will increase B) remain same C) will decrease D) may increase or decrease
59. Choose the correct statements from thefollowing: Pg-9-10, Easy
I. In case of plants, classes with a fewsimilar characters are aligned to ahigher category called phylum.
II. Sub-categories have also beendeveloped in the taxonomic hierarchyto facilitate more sound and
scientificplacement of various taxa.
III. Class includes related orders.
IV. Convolvulaceae family is included inpolymoniales order on the basis of itsfloral characters.
Select the correct option.
A) I and IV B) II and III C) II, III and IV D) All of these
60. Match Column-I with Column-II forhousefly classification and select thecorrect option using the codes
givenbelow. Pg-9-10, Medium
Column-I Column-II
a Family (1) Diptera
b Order (2) Arthropoda
c Class (3) Muscidae
d Phylum (4) Insecta
Codes
abcd abcd
A) 4 3 2 1 B) 4 2 1 3
C) 3 1 4 2 D) 3 2 4 1
61. Assertion: Genus may have one or morethan one species epithets.
Reason: Genus comprises a group ofrelated species. Pg-9, Medium
A) Both Assertion and Reason are trueand Reason is correct explanation ofAssertion.
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,but Reason is not the correctexplanation of Assertion.
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
62. Assertion: Order is the assemblage offamilies which exhibit a few similarcharacters.
Reason: Plant family polymoniales isincluded in the order solanaceae based onthe floral characters.
Pg-9, Medium
A) Both Assertion and Reason are trueand Reason is correct explanation ofAssertion.
 B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,but Reason is not the correctexplanation of Assertion.
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
63. Assertion: Wheat belongs to the familypoaceae.
Reason: Wheat is a member of orderpoales. Pg-9, Medium
A) Both Assertion and Reason are trueand Reason is correct explanation ofAssertion.
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,but Reason is not the correctexplanation of Assertion.
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
64. Which of the following options representsthe correct classification for the givenanimal?
Pg-11, Difficult

Phylum Class Order Family Genus Species

A) Chordata Vertebrata Chiroptera Felidae Canis Tigris
B) Chordata Mammalia Carnivora Felidae Panthera Tigris
C) Vertebrata Mammalia Carnivora Felidae Panthera Tigris
D) Mammalia Felidae Carnivora Feliaceae Panthera Leo
Taxonomical Aids
65. Taxonomic studies of various organismsare useful in Pg-11, Easy
A) agriculture B) forestry C) industry D) all of these
66. Taxonomic studies require Pg-11, Easy
A) correct classification
B) correct identification of organisms
C) intensive laboratory and field studies
D) all of these
67. A store house of collected plant specimensthat are dried, pressed and preserved onsheets is a
Pg-11, Easy
A) herbarium B) botanical garden
C) zoological park D) catalogue
68. Among the following, which information isnot provided by the herbarium sheet abouta plant?
Pg-12, Easy
A) Collector’s name B) Place of collection
C) Economic importance of plant species D) Botanical name of the plant
69. The specialized gardens having collectionsof living plants for reference are Pg-12, Easy
A) Herbarium B) Botanical gardens
C) Zoological parks D) Museum
70. Match the Column-I and Column-II andchoose the correct option from the codesgiven below:
Pg-12, Easy
Column-I Column-II
a Kew Botanical Garden (1) Dehradun
B Indian Botanical Garden (2) Lucknow
c National BotanicalResearch Institute (3) England
d Forest ResearchInstitute (4) Howrah
Codes -
abcd abcd
A) 3 4 2 1 B) 4 2 3 1
C) 1 3 4 2 D) 2 1 3 4
71. National Botanical Research Institute issituated at Pg-12, Easy
 A) Howrah B) Lucknow C) Dehradun D) Delhi
72. Choose the incorrect statement from thefollowing: Pg-12, Easy
A) Herbarium is a storehouse of collectedplant specimens that are dried, pressedand preserved on
sheets.
B) Herbaria serve as quick referralsystems in taxonomical studies.
C) Botanical gardens have collection ofpreserved plant materials also.
D) Indian Botanical Garden is situated atHowrah, India.
73. Biological museums have collection of Pg-12, Easy
A) preserved plant specimens B) preserved animal specimens
C) live plants and animals D) both A and B
74. Insects are preserved in insect boxes Pg-12, Easy
A) in preservative solutions B) after stuffing
C) after collecting, killing and pinning D) as skeletons
75. Match Column-I with Column-II andchoose the correct option from the codesgiven below:
Pg- 11-12, Difficult
Column-I(Organism) Column-II (Methodof preservation)
a Birds (1) Skeleton
b Human (2) Preservative solution
c Insects (3) Stuffing
d Small animals (4) In boxes after killingand pinning
Codes -
abcd abcd
A) 3 1 4 2 B) 4 3 2 1
C) 1 2 3 4 D) 2 4 1 3
76. The place where wild animals are kept inprotected environment is Pg-13, Easy
A) botanical garden B) zoological park
C) museum D) herbarium

77. Zoological parks are commonly known as Pg-13, Easy

A) museum B) garden C) zoo D) none of these
78. Zoological parks and botanical gardenshave a collection of Pg- 12-13, Easy
A) exotic living species only B) endemic living species only
C) both A and B D) only local plants and animals
79. Plants and animals are identified by key onthe basis of their Pg-13, Easy
A) morphology B) anatomy
C) similarities and dissimilarities D) all of these
80. The keys are based on contrastingcharacters generally in a pair called Pg-13, Easy
A) couplet B) doublet C) triplet D) all of these
81. The contrasting characteristics generallyin a pair used for identification of animalsin Taxonomic key are
referred to as Pg-13, Easy
A) Lead B) Couplet C) Doublet D) Alternate
82. Taxonomic key is used in the preparationof the Pg-14, Easy
A) monographs B) flora C) both A and B D) none of these
83. Each statement of the key is called a Pg-13, Easy
A) couplet B) lead C) monograph D) none of these
84. Match items given in Column-I with thosein Column-II and select the correct optiongiven below.
Pg- 12-14, Difficult
Column-I Column-II
a Herbarium (1) It is a place having a collectionof preserved plants and animals.
b Key (2) A list that enumeratesmethodically all the species
found in an area with briefdescription aiding identification.
c Museum (3) It is a place where dried andpressed plant specimens
mounted on sheets are kept.
d Catalogue (4) A booklet containing a list ofcharacters and their alternates
which are helpful inidentification of various taxa.

18
 Codes –
abcd abcd
A) 1 4 3 2 B) 3 2 1 4
C) 2 4 3 1 D) 3 4 1 2
85. Choose the correct statements abouttaxonomic keys. Pg- 13-14, Easy
I. It is used for the identification of onlyplants.
II. Each statement in the key is called alead.
III. No separate taxonomic keys arerequired for different taxonomiccategories.
A) II and III B) I and II C) III and I D) II only
86. Among the following which one is not ataxonomic aid? Pg-14, Easy
A) Flora B) Manual C) Taxon D) Key
87. Among the following which one containsinformation on any one taxon? Pg-14, Easy
A) Flora B) Monograph C) Manual D) Catalogue
88. Assertion: Herbarium is a storehouse ofcollected plant specimens that are dried,pressed and preserved
on sheets.
Reason: Herbaria serve as quick referralsystems in taxonomical studies. Pg-14, Medium
A) Both Assertion and Reason are trueand Reason is correct explanation ofAssertion.
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,but Reason is not the correctexplanation of Assertion.
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

89. Assertion: Museums have collection of liveplants and animals.

Reason: In museums, as far as possible,conditions similar to their natural habitatare provided.
Pg-14, Medium
A) Both Assertion and Reason are trueand Reason is correct explanation ofAssertion.
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,but Reason is not the correctexplanation of Assertion.
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
90. Assertion: The taxonomical keys are basedon the contrasting characters.
Reason: Each statement in the key iscalled a couplet. Pg-14, Medium
A) Both Assertion and Reason are trueand Reason is correct explanation ofAssertion.
B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,but Reason is not the correctexplanation of Assertion.
C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

NEET PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS

1. Match the items given in column I with those in column II and select the correct option given below:
[2018]
Column I Column II
A. Herbarium I. It is a place having a collectionof preserved plants andanimals.
B. Key II. A list that enumeratesmethodically all the speciesfound in an area with brief
description aiding identification.
C. Museum III. It is a place where driedand pressed plant specimensmounted on sheets are kept.
D. Catalogue IV. A booklet containing a listof characters and theiralternates which are helpful in
identification of various taxa.
(a) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II (b) A – III; B – II; C – I; D – IV
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II (d) A – II; B – IV; C – III; D – I
2. Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules.Which one of the following is contrary to the rules
ofnomenclature? [2016]
(a) Biological names can be written in any language.
(b) The first word in a biological name represents thegenus name, and the second is a specific epithet.
(c) The names are written in Latin and are italicised.
(d) When written by hand, the names are to be underlined.

19
3. It is much easier for a small animal to run uphill than for alarge animal, because [2016]
(a) it is easier to carry a small body weight.
(b) smaller animals have a higher metabolic rate.
(c) small animals have a lower O2 requirement.
(d) the efficiency of muscles in large animals is less thanin the small animals.
4. Select correctly written scientific name of Mango which was first described by Carolus Linnaeus
(NEET-2019)
(a) Mangifera indica Car. Linn. (b) Mangifera indica Linn.
(c) Mangifera indica (d) Mangifera Indica
5. The contrasting characteristics generally in a pairused for identification of animals in Taxonomic Key
are referred to as : (NEET-2019 ODISSA)
(a) Lead (b) Couplet (c) Doublet (d) Alternate

20
 NCERT LINE BY LINE QUESTIONS – ANSWERS
1) D 2) B 3) C 4) A 5) C 6) D 7) B 8) D 9) A 10) C
11) C 12) D 13) B 14) D 15) A 16) D 17) B 18) C 19) A 20) A
21) D 22) C 23) D 24) D 25) D 26) B 27) A 28) A 29) B 30) B
31) D 32) D 33) B 34) C 35) A 36) B 37) D 38) C 39) A 40) A
41) A 42) C 43) D 44) D 45) B 46) D 47) D 48) C 49) A 50) C
51) C 52) C 53) B 54) B 55) B 56) A 57) A 58) C 59) B 60) C
61) A 62) C 63) B 64) B 65) D 66) D 67) A 68) C 69) B 70) A
71) B 72) C 73) D 74) C 75) C 76) B 77) C 78) C 79) C 80) A
81) B 82) C 83) B 84) B 85) D 86) C 87) B 88) D 89) C 90) C

NEET PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS-ANSWERS

1 (c) 2 (a) 3 (b) 4(2) 5(2)

NEET PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS-EXPLANATIONS

1. (c) Herbarium is a place where dried and pressed plant specimen mounted on sheets are
kept systematically.
Key is the Identification of various taxa. Museum is an institution where plant and
animal specimen are exhibited to public. A collection may include scientific specimen
works of arts etc. Catalogue is an alphabetical listing of species.
2. (a) Binomial nomenclature is a formal system of naming species of living things by giving
each a name composed of two parts, both of which use Latin grammatical forms,
although they can be based on words from other languages.
3. (b) Basal metabolic rate is inversely proportional to body size. So, smaller animals have a
higher metabolic rate. Hence, production of energy is more.

21
 2. BIOLOGICAL
CLASSIFICATION

Biology Smart Booklet

Theory + NCERT MCQs + NEET PYQs
22
 BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION

Biological Classification
Biological classification is defined as the process of grouping organisms according
to certain similarities.

Linnaeus proposed the two kingdoms of classification, He classified organisms in

the animal kingdom as Animalia and in the plant kingdom as Plantae. There were
certain limitations related to biological classification. Classification of two
kingdoms as it does not distinguish between eukaryotes and prokaryotes,
unicellular and multicellular organisms, and photosynthetic and non-
photosynthetic organisms.Also, the organisms that are aware and are conscious
of their surroundings will be living organisms.

Five Kingdoms Rankings

RH Whittaker suggested the five rankings.The classification of these five
kingdoms is as follows: Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia. The
classification was based on the organization of the thallus, the cell structure, the
diet, the phylogenetic relationship, and the reproduction.

23
Kingdom Monera
Kingdom Monera is considered as the most primitive group of organisms and
monerans are most abundant of all. It generally comprises unicellular organisms
with a prokaryotic cell organization. They lack well-defined cell structures
including the nucleus and other cell organelles.

They consist of prokaryotes which include species like the Cyanobacteria,

archaebacteria, mycoplasma, and bacteria are a few members of this kingdom.

The general features of Monerans are:

 Monerans are present in both aerobic and anaerobic environment.

 Some have rigid cell walls, while some do not.

 The membrane-bound nucleus is absent in monerans.

 Habitat - Monerans are found everywhere in hot or thermal springs, in the

deep ocean floor, under ice, in deserts and also inside the body ofplants and
animals.

 They can be autotrophic, i.e., they can synthesize food on their own while
some others have a heterotrophic, saprophytic, parasitic, symbiotic,
commensalistic and mutualistic modes of nutrition.

 Locomotion is with the help of flagella.

 Circulation is through diffusion.

 Respiration in these organisms vary, few are obligate aerobes, while some are
obligate anaerobes and facultative anaerobes

 Reproduction is mostly asexual, and few also reproduce by sexual

reproduction. Sexual reproduction is by conjugation, transformation, and
transduction. Asexual reproduction is by binary fission.

24
Kingdom Protista
All unicellular eukaryotic organisms are placed under the Kingdom Protista.

The term Protista was first used by Ernst Haeckel in the year 1886. This kingdom
forms a link between other kingdoms of fungi, plants, and animals.

Kingdom Protista is an important phase in early evolution and the very first
protist probably evolved 1.7 billion years ago.

Kingdom Protista is a very large group comprising of at least 16 phyla. Many

species of this kingdom are the primary producers in the aquatic ecosystem, and
some are responsible for serious human diseases like malaria.

General features of Kingdom Protista are as follows:

 They are simple, unicellular, eukaryotic organisms.

 Most of the protists live in water, some in moist soil or even the body of human
and plants.

 These organisms have a membrane-bound nucleus, endomembrane systems,

mitochondria for cellular respiration and some have chloroplasts for
photosynthesis.

 Nuclei contain multiple DNA strands, and the number of nucleotides is

significantly less.

 Respiration – cellular respiration is the primarily aerobic process, but some

living in the moist soil underneath ponds or in digestive tracts of animals are
facultative anaerobes.

 Locomotion is often by flagella or cilia.

25
 Nutrition- include both heterotrophic and autotrophic.

 Reproduction – Some reproduce sexually and others asexually.

 Some protists are pathogens of both plants and animals. Example: Plasmodium
falciparum causes malaria in humans.

Kingdom Fungi
Fungi are a group of organisms that are found everywhere from air, water, land
to the soil. They are also found in plants and animals.

Some fungi are microscopic, and others are gargantuan – almost extending over a
thousand acres. And even though fungi appear like plants, they are in fact closely
related to animals.

Fungi have great economic importance and show a great diversity in morphology
and habitat. More than 70,000 species of fungi have been recognized and the
organisms of kingdom fungi include mushrooms, smuts, yeasts, puffballs, rusts,
smuts, truffles, morels, and moulds

General features of fungi are as follows:

 Fungi are eukaryotic, non-vascular and non-motile organisms.

 The growth rate of fungi is slower than that of bacteria .

 Fungi grow best in an acidic environment.

 The Kingdom Fungi consist of both unicellular (e.g.: Yeast, Molds) and
multicellular (e.g.: mushrooms) organisms.

 Like plant cells, fungi have cell walls made up of complex sugar molecules
called chitin. But unlike plants, they do not undergo photosynthesis.

26
 The cell wall is composed of chitin. The vegetative body of the fungi may be
unicellular or composed of microscopic threads called hyphae.

 They have a heterotrophic mode of nutrition. Few species are saprophytes

i.e., they feed on dead and decaying organic matters.

 Some fungi are parasitic while some are symbionts. They can live in a
symbiotic relationship with algae, like blue-green algae. These are called
lichens.

 Reproduction in fungi is both by sexual and asexual means. Asexual

reproduction takes place by means of spores and sexual reproduction takes
place by means of gametic copulation, somatic copulation, and
Spermatization.

Kingdom Plantae
 Includes all eukaryotic, multicellular, and photosynthetic plants.
 The characteristics of the members of Plantae are as follows:
 Most of them are eukaryotic in nature.
 The main pigment present is chlorophyll.
 Its cell wall is made of cellulose.
 Photosynthesis helps in the synthesis of food.
 The process of reproduction can be both sexual and asexual.
 They represent the phenomenon of alternation of generations, i.e., diploid
sporophytes, and haploid gametophytes.

Kingdom Animalia
These types of organisms are heterotrophic, eukaryotic. Some of the
characteristics of the members of Animalia are the following:

 They are multicellular organisms of various sizes.

 The organ systems are well developed such as the skeletal system, circulatory

27
 system, respiratory system, etc.
 They are found to be bilaterally symmetrical.
 They also have well-developed locomotor organs.
 Breathing takes place through gills, book lungs, book gills, skin, lungs, etc.
 Membrane-bound cell organelles with a nucleus bounded by a nuclear
membrane.
 The circulation takes place through the blood, the blood vessels, and the
heart.
 Reproduction takes place through the formation of haploid gametes. The
fusion of the gametes creates a new diploid organism.
 The kidneys are the most important respiratory organs.

Viruses
The viruses are acellular structures and therefore do not find a place in
Whittaker’s five kingdom classification. They consist of nucleic acid (either DNA
or RNA) that is surrounded by a protein coat. These viruses can grow and multiply
only within a host cell. Viruses exist as crystals outside the host cell. They cause
disease and severely damage the host. Examples of common viruses are the
viruses that cause cold, flu, polio, AIDS, etc.

Viroids
They are the smallest known infectious structures and consist only of nucleic acid
without a protein shell.

Lichens
They are known to be the symbiotic associations of algae and fungi. The pair of
algae are autotrophic and synthesized and provide food. The mushroom pair offers
protection and shelter.

Archaebacteria
Archaebacteria are one of the oldest living organisms (to be known) on Earth. They
are classified as bacteria because many of their features resemble the bacteria
when observed under a microscope. They belong to the kingdom Archaea and
hence are named Archaebacteria. They share slightly common features with
eukaryotes but are completely different from prokaryotes. They are known as
extremophiles as they can easily survive under typically harsh conditions, for
example, the bottom of the sea and the vents of a volcano.

Archaebacteria have made scientists reconsider the definition of species. Species

are defined as a group with gene flow within its members whereas archaebacteria
exhibit gene flow across its species.

28
Archaebacteria have the capability to produce methane, i.e., are methanogens.
They do this by acting on the organic matter and hence decomposing it to release
methane. Methane can hence for cooking and lighting purposes,

 Archaebacteria cannot perform photosynthesis.

 They do not produce spores, unlike bacteria.
 20% of all microbial cells living in the ocean are archaebacteria.
 Archaea was discovered by Carl Woese in 1978.
 Archaebacteria can only reproduce through the asexual mode.

Eubacteria
Eubacteria, also known as "true" bacteria, are single-celled prokaryotic
microorganisms that have a variety of characteristics and can be found in a variety
of environments around the world. Except for archaebacteria, this term
encompasses all types of bacteria. Because eubacteria are so common, they
belong to one of the three domains of life: Bacteria. Eubacterium treatment is
accomplished through the use of medications.

Both heterotrophic and autotrophic organisms feed on Eubacteria. The most well-
known type of nutrition in eubacteria is heterotrophic, which means they must
consume food from other organic carbon sources, primarily plant or animal
matter. Autotrophs, on the other hand, produce their own food through
photosynthesis.

29
Types of Protozoan like Protists are there:

Protozoan like protists are heterotrophs in nature and can survive as predators
and parasites. There are four main types of protozoans.

They are as follows:

 Amoeboid protozoans have pseudopodia for swallowing food particles like
Amoeba. These are found commonly in moist soil or seawater or freshwater.
 Flagellated Protozoans are free-living or parasitic. They are responsible for the
different parasitic diseases. For example, sleeping sickness is caused by the
parasite Trypanosoma.
 Ciliated Protozoans contain thousands of cilia. The movement of cilia helps the
protozoans to move backwards or forward and also allows it to procure food
from outside. An example of Ciliated Protozoans is Paramecium.
 Sporozoans are parasitic and pathogenic. They form reproductive cells in them
known as spores and thus derive their name. Their reproduction may be
asexual or sexual. An example of Sporozoans is the Plasmodium species which
causes Malaria.
Classes of kingdom fungi:
There are five main classes in the Fungi Kingdom.
They are as follows:
 Phycomycetes or Lower Fungi: Asexual reproduction occurs in Phycomycetes.
This takes place by motile spores known as Zoospores and non-motile spores
known as Aplanospores. These spores are produced inside the sporangium.

30
 Examples of Phycomycetes are Mucor, Rhizopus, Albugo, etc.
 Zygomycetes or Conjugation Fungi: Zygomycetes are a primitive group of fungi.
Here, asexual reproduction occurs with the help of non-motile
sporangiospores. An example of Zygomycetes is Rhizopus.
 Deuteromycetes: These are also known as Imperfect Fungi as they do not
engage in sexual reproduction at any stage. Only asexual reproduction occurs
by conidia. The Mycelium gets separated and ranched due to this. Some
examples of Deuteromycetes are Alternaria, Trichoderma, etc.
 Basidiomycetes or Club Fungi: In Club Fungi, vegetative reproduction occurs
through Fragmentation due to the absence of sexual reproductive organs.
Plasmogamy between two vegetative or somatic cells leads to basidium
growth, which then undergoes karyogamy and meiosis to produce four
basidiospores. Some examples of Club Fungi are Agaricus, commonly known as
mushrooms, Ustilago or Smut, etc.
 Ascomycetes or Sac Fungi: Sac Fungi are saprophytic as well as parasitic in
nature. Here, sexual reproduction occurs by ascospores, while asexual
reproduction occurs by conidia. It is branched and separates mycelium in
Ascomycetes. Some examples of Sac Fungi are Penicillium, Claviceps,
Aspergillus, etc.
Characteristics of the members of Animalia:
The Animalia Kingdom is heterotrophic and eukaryotic.
Their characteristics are as follows:
 They are multicellular and can be of various sizes.
 They are bilaterally symmetrical.
 Their respiratory organs are lungs, book lungs, gills, book gills, skin, etc.
 They have membrane-bound cell organelles that have a nucleus bounded by a
nuclear membrane.
 Blood circulation happens through blood, blood vessels, and heart.
 They possess well-developed organs and organ systems like the circulatory
system, skeletonsystem, respiratory system, etc.

31
 NCERT LINE BY LINE QUESTIONS
2. Biological Classification
1. Choose the correct with respect to earliestfor scientific basis of classification (Pg. 16, E)
A) It was proposed by Aristotle
B) Plants were divided as trees, shrubs &herbs on the basis of theirmorphological characters
C) Animals were classified into two groupsthat are those which have red bloodand those that did not
D) All of these
2. Linnaeus system of classification did notdeal with – (Pg. 16, E)
A) Eukaryotes and prokaryotes B) Unicellular & multicellular
C) Photosynthetic & non – photosynthetic D) All of these
3. How many kingdom according to fivekingdom classification and Linnaeussystem of classification
is/are dedicatedfor prokaryotes exclusively (Pg. 16, E)
A) 1, 0 B) 1, 1 C) 2, 0 D) 3, 1
4. Moneran cell wall is composed by- (pg. 17, E)
A) Polysaccharide (Non cellulose) only B) Polysaccharide (cellulose)
C) Polysaccharide (chitin)
D) Amino acid and Non cellulosicpolysaccharide
5. Chemosynthetic mode of nutrition is foundis – (Pg. 17, E)
A) Monera B) Protist C) Plantae D) Fungi
6. R.H Whittaker classification is/are basedupon – (Pg. 17, E)
A) Cell structure & body organization B) Mode of nutrition & reproduction
C) Phylogentic relationship D) All of these
7. Five kingdom classification was proposedin – (Pg. 17, E)
A) 1969 B) 1996 C) 1699 D) None of these
8. Choose the correct about 3 – domainsystem (Pg. 17, E)
A) Two domain are dedicated forprokaryotic while one domain isdedicated for eukaryotic
B) One domain is dedicated forprokaryotic while two domains are foreukaryotic
C) It has seven kingdom which arecategorised in 3 – domain
D) It has six kingdom of which onekingdom is in first and third domainwhile 5 – kingdom is second
domain.
9. Earlier classification system includedbacteria, BGA (blue green algae) fungi,mosses, ferns under ‘Plants’
on basis of- (Pg. 17, E)
A) Mode of nutrition B) Body organisation & nuclear structure
C) Presence of cell wall D) Nature of cell wall.
10. How many of following are prokaryotes: (Pg. 17, E)
Bacteria, Mosses, ferns, fungi,pteridophyta, blue green algae,gymnosperms angiosperm
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) More than 4
11. Fungi has cell wall composed of– (Pg. 17, E)
A) Cellulose B) Non – cellulosic + amino acid
C) Chitin D) Absence of cell wall
12. How many kingdom from R.H. Whittakersystem does have exclusive autotrophicmode of nutrition
(Pg. 17, E)
A) Zero B) One C) Two D) Three
13. Unicellular eukaryotic are categorised in- (Pg. 17, E)
A) Monera B) Protista C) Plantae D) Animalia
14. How many of the following does belong toProtista (Pg. 18, E)
Amoeba, Spirogyra, Chlamydomonas,Chlorella, Paramecium
A) 5 B) 4 C) 3 D) 2

32
15. In five kingdom classificationmulticellularity began from – (Pg. 18, E)
A) Animalia B) Plantae C) Protista D) Fungi
Paragraph – 2.1
Kingdom Monera
16. Identify shape of bacteria (Pg. 18, E)

A) a = cocci, b = rod – shaped, c = bacilli,d = comma – shaped

B) a = spherical coccus, B = Bacilli, c =spirilla, d = vibrio
C) a = cocci, b = spirilla, c = vibrio, d =Bacilli
D) a = vibrio, b = spirilla, c = bacilli, d =coccus
17. choose the correct statement: (Pg. 18, E)
A) Bacteria are sole members of kingdommonera.
B) Bacteria are abundant macro –organism
C) Bacteria occurrence is limited to somearea.
D) Bacteria can’t live in extreme habitatlike desert
18. On the basis of shape; bacteria aregrouped under_____ categories (Pg. 18, E)
A) Four B) Five C) Three D) None of these
19. Choose the correctly stated statement (Pg. 19, E)
A) Bacterial structure and behaviour arecomplex.
B) Bacterial structure and behaviour aresimple
C) Bacterial structure is complex whilebehaviour is simple
D) Bacterial structure is simple whilebehaviour is complex
20. Synthesis of own food from inorganicsubstrate is occur in – (Pg. 19, E)
A) Autotrophic nutrition B) Chemosynthetic autotroph
C) Photosynthetic autotroph D) All of these
Paragraph – 2.1.1
Archaebacteria
21. Match the column – I & column – II (Pg. 19, M)
Column – I Column – II
(i) Halophiles (a) Marshy area
(ii) Thermoacidophiles (b) Salty area
iii) Methanogens (c) Hot springs
A) i) – c, ii) – b, iii – a B) i) – c, ii) – a, iii – b
C) i) – b, ii) – c, iii – a D) i) – b, ii) – a, iii – c
22. Archaebacteria differ from other bacteriain having – (Pg. 19, E)
A) Definite nuclear structure B) Cell wall structure
C) Adaptability cytoplasmicconcentration D) Some membranous cell organelles
23. Survival of archaebacteria in extremecondition is achieved by – (Pg. 19, E)
A) Cell wall structure B) Some membranous cell organelles
C) Adaptability & cytoplasm D) All of these
24. Which of following statement is/are false (Pg. 19, M)
A) Methanogens are present in alimentarycanal of several ruminant animals likecow & buffaloes
B) Methanogens are responsible forproduction of biogas from dung ofruminant animals
C) Methanogens are present in gut ofseveral non – ruminant like cow &buffaloes
D) A & B
Paragraph – 2.1.2
Eubacteria
25. Label A , B and identify organism (c) (Pg. 19, E)

33
 A) A = Heterocyst B = Mucilagenoussheath C = Nostoc, an archaebacteria
B) A = Heterocyst B = Mucilagenoussheath C = Nostoc
C) A = Mucilagenous, B = Heterocyst, C =Nostoc
D) A = heterocyst, B = Mucilagenoussheath, C = Nostoc, a filamentous algae
26. Choose the correct about blue green algae (Pg. 19, M)
i. Also known as cyanobacteria
ii. Presence of chlorophyll a, b similar togreen plants
iii. Photosynthetic autotroph
iv) May be unicellular, colonial orfilamentous
v. Occur in aquatic as well as terrestrial
A) i), iii), iv), v) B) i), ii), iii), iv), v) C) i), ii), iv), v) D) None of these
27. Nitrogen fixation is done by – (Pg. 19, E)
A) Specialised vegetative cell i.e.Heterocyst of Nostoc & Anabaena
B) Specialised reproductive cell i.e.Heterocyst of Nostac& Anabaena
C) Specialised vegetative as well asreproductive cell i.e. Heterocyst ofNostoc & Anabaena
D) None
28. Choose the wrong statement forchemosynthetic autotroph bacteria (Pg. 19, E)
A) They oxidise various inorganicsubstrate such as nitrates, nitrites &ammonia and use the released
Energyfor their ATP production
B) They play great role in recyclingnutrient like nitrogen phosphorous,iron & sulphur
C) For their energy production they utilizesolar energy
D) They can prepare their food frominorganic substrate.
29. Citrus canker is – (Pg. 20, E)
A) Plant disease cause by bacteria B) Human disease cause by bacteria
C) Pet disease cause by bacteria D) None of these
30. Which of following is not economicimportance of heterotrophic bacteria (Pg. 19, E)
A) Making curd from milk B) Antibiotic production
C) N2 fixing in legumes root D) N2 fixing in Anabaena
31. Choose the incorrect option aboutbacterial reproduction – (Pg. 19, E)
A) Bacteria reproduce mainly by fission
B) Under unfavourable condition theyproduce spores
C) They also reproduce by sexualreproduction
D) They show a sort of sexualreproduction
32. Here are few statement given below,Identify organism on basis of statement (Pg. 20, M)
i. Lack cell wall ii. Smallest living cell known
iii. Can survive without oxygen iv. Pathogenic in animal & plants.
A) Nostoc B) Anabaena C) Mycoplasma D) Chlorella
Paragraph – 2.2
Kingdom Protista-Introduction
33. Protista includes - (Pg. 20, E)
A) Unicellular prokaryotes B) Bacteriophages
C) Unicellular eukaryotes D) B.G.A
34. Which of the following kingdoms has nowell defined boundaries? (Pg. 20, E)

34
 A) Monera B) Protista C) Fungi D) Metaphyta and Metazoa
35. Members of Protista are primarily (Pg. 20, E)
A) Parasites B) Terrestrial C) Aquatic D) Photosynthetic
36. Nearly all protists are – (Pg. 20, E)
A) Aerobic B) Anaerobic
C) Aerobic or anaerobic D) Photosynthetic
37. Nutritionally, protists are- (Pg. 20, E)
A) Photoautotrophs B) Heterotrophs
C) Saprotrophs D) Photoautotrophs, heterotrophs orautotrophs
38. Based upon the modes of nutrition,protists are grouped into – (Pg. 20, E)
A) Plant-like protists (algae) and ingestive,animal-like protists (protozoa); andabsorptive, fungus like
protists
B) Chrysophytes, Dinoflagellates andEuglenoids only
C) Slime moulds and fungi only
D) Flagellated protozoans and sporozoansonly
39. Which of the following are placed underProtista-? (Pg. 20, E)
A) Chryosophytes and Dinoflagellates B) Euglenoids
C) Slime moulds and protozoans D) All
40. Locomotory structures in protists are – (Pg. 20, E)
A) Flagella B) Cilia C) Pseudopodia D) All
41. Protista form a link with – (Pg. 20, E)
A) Plants only B) Animals only C) Fungi only D) Plants, animals and fungi
Paragraph – 2.2.1
Chrysophytes
42. Chrysophytes include – (Pg. 20, E)
A) Diatoms and desmids (golden algae) B) Euglenoids
C) Dinoflagellates D) Slime moulds
43. Which of the following modes ofreproduction can be found in at least someprotists? (Pg. 20, E)
A) Binary fission B) Sexual reproduction
C) Spore formation D) All
44. Select the following statement that doesnot apply to diatoms – (Pg. 20, E)
A) Diatom cell wall may be impregnatedwith silicon
B) Cell wall is made up of 2 half-shells fittightly together
C) Diatom is a chrysophyte D) Diatom is multiflagellate
45. Silica gel(Keieselghur)/Diatomite/Diatomaceousearth is obtained by – (Pg. 20, E)
A) Diatoms B) Dinoflagellates C) Euglenoids D) Brown algae
46. The diatoms do not easily decay like mostof the other algae because - (Pg. 20, E)
A) They have highly siliceous wall B) They have water proof cells
C) Their cell wall are mucilaginous D) Cell wall is virus-resistant
47. Diatomaceous earth is used for all except (Pg. 20, E)
A) Polishing B) Filtration of oils and syrups
C) Sound and fire proof room D) Biogas
48. Chrysophytes are - (Pg. 20, E)
A) Planktons B) Nektons C) Benthonic D) Active swimmers
49. Chief producers in ocean are - (Pg. 20, E)
A) Dinoflagellates B) Diatoms C) Euglenoids D) Green algae
50. Photosynthetic protists are - (Pg. 20, E)
A) Euglenoids, Diatoms and Dinoflagellates B) Euglenoids and slime moulds
C) Diatoms and Zooflagellates D) Desmids +Ciliates
Paragraph – 2.2.2
Dinoflagellates
51. Dinoflagellates are mostly- (Pg. 21, E)
A) Marine B) Fresh water C) terrestrial D) Saprophytes
52. Red tides in warm coastal water developdue to super abundance of- (Pg. 21, E)

35
 A) Dinoflagellates B) Euglenoid forms
C) Diatoms and desmids D) Chlamydomonas nivalis
53. Red tide is caused by – (Pg. 21, E)
A) Ceretium B) Noctiluca C) Gonyaulax D) All of these
54. Dinoflagellates have – (Pg. 21, E)
A) A single flagellum in the transversegroove between the cell plates
B) A single flagellum in the longitudinalgroove between the cell plates
C) Two flagella one lies longitudinally andthe other transversely in a furrowbetween the wall plates
D) No flagella
55. In which of the following the cell wall hasstiff cellulose plate on the outer surface – (Pg. 21, E)
A) Dinoflagellates B) Desmids C) Diatoms D) Euglenoids
56. Which of the following releases toxins thatmay even kill other marine animals likefishes –
(Pg. 21, E)
A) Gonyaulax B) Paramecium C) Euglenoids D) Sporozoans
Paragraph – 2.2.3
Euglena
57. Euglenoids e.g.Euglena are found – (Pg. 21, E)
A) In fresh running water B) In fresh stagnant water
C) In marine environment D) In both fresh and marine water
58. Which of the following statements aboutEuglena is true? (Pg. 21, E)
A) Euglenoids are flagellates
B) Euglena placed in continuousdarkness loses their photosyntheticactivity and die
C) The pigments of Euglena are quitedifferent from those of green plants
D) Euglena is a marine protist
59. Which of the following statement is trueabout Euglena? (Pg. 21, E)
A) They show flagellar locomotion B) They have a rigid cell wall
C) They have no chloroplast D) They are obligate autotroph
60. (Pg. 21, E)
i. Instead of a cell wall they have aprotein rich pellicle making their bodyflexible.
ii. They have 2 flagella, a short and a longone.
iii. They have mixotrophic nutrition
iv. In light they are photosynthetic, but actas heterotroph (predating other smallerorganism) when they
are in dark.
v. They are connecting link betweenplants and animals.
The above statements are assigned to –
A) Dinoflagellates B) Slime mould
C) Desmids and Diatoms D) Euglena
Paragraph – 2.2.4
Slime Moulds
61. Slime moulds – (Pg. 21, E)
A) Are parasite B) Do not produce fruiting bodies
C) Do not produce spores D) Saprophytic protists
62. The slimy mass of protoplasm with nucleiforms the body of slime moulds is called –
(Pg. 21, E)
A) Plasmodium B) Myxamoeba C) Sporocytes D) Periplasmodium
63. Which of the following is correct about theslime mould? (Pg. 21, E)
I. Its thalloid body, plasmodium, haspseudopodia for locomotion andengulfing organic matter
II. During unfavourable conditionsplasmodium differentiates andproduces fruiting bodies, sporangium
III. Spores possess no true cell wall.
IV. They are dispersed by air current.
V. Being extremely resistant, sporessurvive for many years
VI. Plasmodium can grow upto severalfeet.
A) I, II, IV, V, VI B) I, II , III C) I, II , III, VI D) II, III , VI
Paragraph – 2.2.5

36
 Protozoans
64. Protozoans are not included in kingdomAnimalia because – (Pg. 22, E)
A) Mostly asymmetrical B) Unicellular eukaryotes
C) Heterotrophic nature D) Multicellular prokaryotes
65. All protozoans are – (Pg. 22, E)
A) Saprophytes only B) Parasites only
C) Predators only D) Heterotrophs (parasites or predator)only
66. Which of the following is considered to beprimitive relatives of animals -? (Pg. 22, E)
A) Dinoflagellates B) Slime moulds
C) Protozoa D) Protochordata
67. How many major groups protozoan have? (Pg. 22, E)
A) 3 B) 4 C) 2 D) 8
68. Which of the following are protozoans? (Pg. 22, E)
A) Diatoms, flagellates, ciliates B) Desmids, flagellates, ciliates
C) Amoeboid, flagellates, ciliates,sporozoans
D) Amoeba, ·Paramecium, dinoflagellates,Plasmodium
69. Which of the following statements is wrongabout the amoeboid protozoans? (Pg. 22, M)
A) They live in freshwater, sea water ormoist soil
B) Amoeba has pseudopodia forlocomotion and capture prey
C) Entamoeba show holozoic nutrition
D) Marine forms are shelled with silica
70. Flagellated protozoans are – (Pg. 22, E)
A) Free living B) Parasites
C) Either free living or parasites D) Pseudopodia
71. Which one is correct about Trypanosoma?
A) They are flagellated protozoan B) They are parasite
C) They cause sleeping sickness D) All
72. Paramecium- (Pg. 22, E)
A) Is a ciliated protozoan
B) Shows water current movement by ciliawhich helps the food to be steered intogullet
C) Has a cavity (gullet) that opens to theoutside of the cell surface
D) All
73. Plasmodium (malarial parasite) (Pg. 22, E)
A) Is a ciliated protozoan
B) Shows water current movement by ciliawhich helps the food to be steered intogullet
C) Causes malaria D) All
74. Which of the following always produce aninfectious spore like stage in their lifecycles?
A) Ciliated protozoans B) Flagellated protozoans (Pg. 22, E)
C) Sporozoans D) None
Paragraph – 2.3
Kingdom Fungi - Introduction
75. Mode of nutrition in fungi is not – (Pg. 22, E)
A) Parasitic B) Saprophytic C) Autotrophic D) Heterotrophic
76. All of the following are fungi except – (Pg. 22, E)
A) Yeast B) Penicillium C) Plasmodium D) Puccinia
77. Which of the following is odd? (Pg. 22, E)
A) Toad stool B) Puccinia C) Alternaria D) Mushroom
78. Cell walls of all fungi consist of thepolysaccharide – (Pg. 22, E)
A) Chitin B) Cellulose C) Silica D) Pectin
79. The body of multicellular fungus is calleda – (Pg. 22, E)
A) Monokaryon B) Hyphae C) Rhizoids D) Dikaryon
80. The cells of the body of a multicellularfungus are organised into rapidly growingindividual filaments
called – (Pg. 22, E)
A) Mycelium B) Rhizoids C) Hyphae D) Dikaryon

37
81. Which one is unicellular fungus? (Pg. 22, E)
A) Puccinia B) Toad stool C) Penicillium D) Yeast
82. Coenocytic hypha is – (Pg. 22, E)
A) Uninucleate hypha B) Multicellular hypha
C) Multinucleate hypha without septae D) Hypha in coelom
83. Many fungi are in ____ association withphotosynthetic organisms to formmycorrhizae or lichens –
(Pg. 22, E)
A) Parasitic B) Symbiotic C) Photosynthetic D) Saprobic
84. Fungi can be parasites on – (Pg. 22, E)
A) Animals B) Human being C) Plants D) All
85. Fungi prefer to grow in – (Pg. 22, E)
A) Cold and dry places B) Hot and dry places
C) Sea water D) Warm and humid places
86. Fungi occur- (Pg. 22, E)
A) In air and soil B) In water
C) On plants and animals D) All
87. Fungi show a great diversity in – (Pg. 22, E)
A) Morphology B) Habitat
C) Both a and b D) Nutrition
88. Reproduction in fungi can take place by allof the following vegetative methods except-
(Pg. 22, E)
A) Gemmae B) Fragmentation C) Fission D) Budding
89. Fungi show asexual reproduction by all ofthe following spores except- (Pg. 23, E)
A) Conidia B) Oospore C) Sporangiospore D) Zoospores
90. Sexual reproduction in fungi is by all of thefollowing except- (Pg. 23, E)
A) Oospores B) Ascopores C) Zoospores D) Basidiospores
91. Select the correct statements below thatcorrectly apply to the Kingdom Fungi- (Pg. 23, E)
A) Some fungi form beneficialinterrelationships with plants
B) Certain fungi are natural sources ofantibiotics
C) The fungal life cycle typically includesa spore stage
D) All

92.
93. The above diagram shows a generalized lifecycle of a fungus. The appropriate termsfor A to E are-
(Pg. 23, H)
A) Spores are absent in air B) Spores are present in the bread
C) Spores are in the air D) The bread gets decomposed·
94. Which of the following is the correctsequence of 3 steps in the sexual cycle offungi- (Pg. 23, E)
A) Mitosis ----. Meiosis ----. Fertilization
B) Plasmogamy----. Karyogamy----.Meiosis
C) Meiosis ----. Plasmogamy ----.Karyogamy
D) Karyogamy----. Plasmogamy----.Meiosis
95. Fungi are classified on the basis of – (Pg. 23, E)
A) Morphology of mycelium B) Development of fruiting bodies
C) Mode of spore formation D) All
96. Dikaryophase I Dikaryon formation is aspecific characteristic of- (Pg. 23, E)
A) All fungi B) Phycomycetes and ascomycetes
C) Only basidiomycetes D) Ascomycetes and basidiomycetes
97. Coenocytic, multinucleate and branchedmycelial habit is found in- (Pg. 23, E)

38
 A) Basidiomycetes B) Phycomycetes
C) Ascomycetes D) Deuteromycetes
9 8. Column I Column II
A. Phycomycetes I. Sac fungi
B. Ascomycetes II. Algal fungi
C. Basidiomycetes III. Fungi imperfecti
D. Deuteromycetes IV. Club fungi
The correct matching is - (Pg. 23, H)
A) A-II, B-I, C- IV, D-III B) A- II, B - IV, C - I, D – III
C) A- IV, B - I, C - II, D – III D) A- IV, B - III, C - II, D – I
Paragraph – 2.3.1
Phycomycetes
99. Members of phycomycetes are found- (Pg. 23, E)
I. In aquatic habitat II. On decaying wood
III. On moist and damp places IV. As obligate parasite on plants
A) None of the above B) I and IV
C) II and III D) All of the above
100. In phycomycetes asexual reproductionoccurs by- (Pg. 23, E)
A) Zoospores (motile) B) Aplanospores (non-motile)
C) Both D) Aplanogamete
101. Which of the following spores are producedendogenously? (Pg. 23, E)
A) Zoospores and Conidia B) Conidia and aplanospores
C) Aplanospores and zoospores D) Aplanospore, zoospores and conidia
102. In Phycomycetes sexual reproductionoccurs by (Pg. 23, E)
A) Isogamy and anisogamy B) lsogamy, oogamy
C) Isogamy, anisogamy and oogamy D) Oogamy and anisogamy
103. All the following belong to phycomycetesexcept – (Pg. 23, E)
A) Penicillium B) Rhizopus (bread mould)
C) Mucor D) Albugo
104. Which of the following is parasite onmustard? (Pg. 23, E)
A) Albugo B) Puccinia C) Yeast D) Ustilago
Paragraph – 2.3.2
Ascomycetes
105. Which of the following is false aboutascomycetes? (Pg. 23, E)
A) Mode of nutrition saprophytic,decomposer, coprophilous (growing ondung) and parasitic
B) Includes unicellular (e.g. yeast) andmulticellular forms
C) Mycelium is coenocytic
D) Aspergillus, Claviceps, Neurospora areimportant members of Ascomycetes
106. I. It includes unicellular as well asmulticellular fungi
II. In multicellular forms hyphae arebranched and septate
III. Conidiophore produces conidia(spores) exogenously in chain
IV. Sexual spores are ascopores producedendogenously in Ascus
V. Fruiting body is called ascocarp
Which of the above characters are show by-? (Pg. 23, E)
A) Phycomycetes B) Sac fungi C) Club fungi D) Fungi imperfecti
107. Which of the following are edibleascomycete’s delicacies? (Pg. 24, E)
A) Morels+ Mushroom B) Truffles+ Toadstool
C) Morels+ Truffles D) Puffball+ Mushroom
108. Which of the following is used extensivelyin biochemical and genetical work? (Pg. 24, E)
A) Agaricus B) Alternaria C) Neurospora D) Mucor
109. Which of the following ascomycetes is thesource of antibiotic? (Pg. 24, E)
A) Neurospora B) Penicillium C) Claviceps D) None
Paragraph – 2.3.3
Basidiomycetes

39
110. Basidiomycetes include - (Pg. 24, E)
A) Mushroom, Toadstool, Puffball andbracket fungi
B) Smut fungi and rust fungi
C) Both a and b
D) Bread mould, sac fungi and algal fungi
111. Which of the following are commonparasite basidiomycetes (Pg. 24, E)
A) Puccinia (rust) and Ustilago (smut) B) Sac fungi
C) Puffballs D) Agaricus (mushroom)
112. Where does meiosis occur in mushroom?
A) Basidiospore B) Basidium C) Basidiocarp D) Ascus mother cell
113. I. Mycelium is branched and septate
II. No asexual spores are generally formed
III. Vegetative reproduction byfragmentation is common
IV. Sex organs are absent but sexualreproduction takes place bysomatogamy
V. Karyogamy and meiosis occur inbasidium to form haploid exogenous 4basidiospores
VI. Basidia are arranged in basidiocarp.
The above characters are assigned to – (Pg. 24, E)
A) Sac fungi B) Club fungi C) Algal fungi D) Fungi imperfect
114. Plasmogamy in fungi is the fusion of- (Pg. 24, E)
A) Two haploid gamete cells and theirnuclei at once
B) Two haploid nuclei
C) Two haploid gamete cells
D) Two diploid vegetative cells with nuclei
115. Karyogamy is - (Pg. 24, E)
A) Fusion of two protoplasts
B) Fusion of two nuclei
C) Fusion of two plasma membranes
D) All of these
Paragraph – 2.3.4
Deuteromycetes
116. Which of the following is false aboutdeuteromycetes? (Pg. 24, E)
A) They reproduce only by asexual spores(conidia)
B) Mycelium is branched and septate
C) They have only parasitic forms
D) They have no sexual stage (perfectstage)
117. Which of the following is correct aboutclass Deuteromycetes? (Pg. 24, E)
A) Some members are saprophytes orparasites
B) A large number of members aredecomposers of litter and help inmineral cycling
C) Alternaria, Colletotrichum andTrichoderma are deuteromycetes
D) All
118. Sexual reproduction is found in all except (Pg. 24, E)
A) Deuteromycetes B) Ascomycetes
C) Phycomycetes D) Basidiomycetes
119. If sexual stage is discovered in a memberof deuteromycetes, it is moved to- (Pg. 24, E)
A) Phycomycetes B) Basidiomycetes
C) Ascomycetes D) Both band c
Diagram Based Questions
120. Identify the diagram. (Pg. 23, E)
(A) (i) Mucor (ii) Aspergillus (iii) Agaricus
(B) (i) Aspergillus (ii) Mucor (iii) Agaricus
(C) (i) Agaricus (ii)Aspergillus (iii) Mucor
(D) (i) Agaricus (ii) Mucor (iii) Aspergillus
121. Identify the diagram. (Pg. 21, E)

40
 A) (i) Dinoflagellates (ii) Euglena
B) (i) Dinoflagellates (ii) Paramoceium
C) (i) Euglena (ii) Dinoflagellates
D) (i) Slime mould (ii) Paramecium
122. Kingdom plantae includes- (Pg. 25, E)
i. All eukaryotic chlorophyllousorganisms
ii. Some prokaryotic chlorophyllousorganisms
iii. Few eukaryotic partial heterotrophicplant
iv. Few prokaryotic partial heterotrophicplant
A) i, iii B) ii, iv C) i, ii, iii D) i, iii, iv
123. Plantae does not includes how many offollowing- (Pg. 25, E)
Algae, Fungi, Bryophyte, Bladderwort,Pteridophyta, Gymnosperm, Angiosperm
A) Zero B) One C) Two D) Three
124. Life cycle of angiosperms plant have- (Pg. 25, E)
A) Diploid sporophyte & diploidgametophyte
B) Diploid gametophyte & haploidsporophyte
C) Diploid sporophyte & haploidgametophyte
D) Haploid sporophyte & haploidgametophyte
125. How many of following enlisted are correctabout plantae- (Pg. 25, E)
I. Cells have eukaryotic structure
II. Prominent chloroplast
III. Cellulosic cell wall
IV. Life cycle has three distinct phase
V. Show alteration of generation
A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four
Paragraph – 2.5
Kingdom Animalia
126. Kingdom Animalia are characterized by (Pg. 25, E)
A) Heterotrophic eukaryotic unicellular &multicellular organism that lack cellwall
B) Holozoic ,digest food in an internalcavity and store food as complexcarbohydrates or fat
C) Higher as well as lower forms showelaborate sensory mechanisms
D) All of the above
127. How many of following term is correctabout Animalia- Heterotroph, eukaryotic,prokaryotic,
unicellular, multicellular,store food as glycogen, presence ofelaborated neuromotor mechanism
without any exception, embryologicaldevelopment (Pg. 25, E)
A) 6 B) More than 6 C) 5 D) Less than 3
Paragraph – 2.6
Viruses, viroids, prions, & lichens
128. In R.H Whittaker system, viroids, prions &lichens are grouped into- (Pg. 25, E)
A) Monera B) Protista
C) Protista and fungi D) None of these
129. Viruses did not place in classification dueto- (Pg. 25, E)
A) Lack in study of viruses
B) They are not considered truly ‘living’
C) Lack of genetic material
D) All of these
130. Viruses are not- (Pg. 25, E)

41
 A) Non-cellular organism
B) Inert crystalline structure outside theliving cell
C) Active crystalline structure outside theliving cell
D) Once they infect a cell they take overthe machinery of host cell to replicatethemselves, killing the
host
131. The name viruses-
A) which means venom was given byDmitri Ivanowsky
B) which means venom was given by M.W.Beijerinek
C) which means venom was given byStanley
D) which means venom was given byPasteur
132.

Identify a, b & organism(c)

A) a=DNA, b=capsid, c=TMV B) a=RNA, b=capsid, c=TMV
C) a=capsid, b=DNA, c=bacteriophage D) a=capsid, b=RNA, c=bacteriophage
133. choose the correct statement –
A) genetic material of mosaic disease oftobacco causing organism is DNA
B) Viruses were found to be smaller thanbacteria but they can passed throughbacteria proof filters
C) M.W Beijerinek (1898) demonstratedthat the extract of infected plant oftobacco could cause infection
inhealthy plants
D) Viruses were found to be smaller thanbacteria and they can passed throughbacteria proof filters.
134. Contagium vivumfluidum was stated by – (Pg. 26, E)
A) Dmitri lavanowsky (1898) B) M.W. Beijerinek (1892)
C) W.M. Stanley (1935) D) None of these
135. Who showed that viruses could becrystallized & crystals outside host-
A) W.M. Stanley(1935) B) M.W.Beijerinek (1898)
C) Dmitri lvanowsky (1892) D) M.W. Stanley (1898)
136. Which of following is major constituent incrystallined virus structure – (Pg. 26, E)
A) Carbohydrate B) Protein C) Fat D) Nucleic acid
137. Viruses are (Pg. 26, E)
A) Autotroph B) Obligate parasite C) Saprotroph D) Holozoic
138. Genetic material of viruses are/is – (Pg. 26, E)
A) DNA B) RNA
C) DNA and RNA both in an individualvirus
D) DNA or RNA in an individual virus
139. The infection material of viruses is/are (Pg. 26, E)
A) Protein coat B) Genetic material
C) Nucleoprotein D) All of these
140. In general viruses that infect plants have- (Pg. 26, E)
A) ds RNA B) ss RNA C) ds DNA D) ss DNA
141. Animal infection viruses are not generally (Pg. 26, E)
A) ss RNA B) ds RNA C) ds DNA D) ss DNA
142. genetic material of bacteriophage is – (Pg. 26, E)
A) ds DNA B) ss RNA C) ds RNA D) ss DNA
143. bacteriophage is – (Pg. 26, E)
A) bacteria that infect virus

42
 B) virus that infect bacteria
C) bacteria that infect cellular organism
D) virus that infect other than bacteria
144. The protein coat called ___(A)___ made ofsmall subunit called ____(B)____ thatprotect ____(C)____ of
virus (Pg. 26, E)
A) A = capsomere, B = capsid, C= geneticmaterial
B) A = capsid, B = capsomere, C = geneticmaterial
C) A = capsid, B = capsomere, C = enzymeand mineral
D) A = capsomere, B = capsid, C = enzymeand mineral
145. Head of bacteriophage is – (Pg. 26, E)
A) Helical B) Polyhedral C) Icosahedral D) A & B
146.

(Pg. 26, E)
A) A = head B = sheath, C = tail fibers, D= Collar
B) A = head B = collar C = sheath, D =tail fibers
C) A = collar B = head C = tail fibers D =sheath
D) A = tail fibers B = sheath C = head D =collar
147. Viroid was discovered by –
A) T.O. Diener (1971) (Pg. 27, E)
B) W.M. Stanley (1935)
C) T.O diener (1935)
D) W.M. Stanley (1971)
148. Choose the correct on basis of size : (Pg. 27, E)
A) Bacteria<virus<viroid B) Viroid<virus<bacteria
C) Viroid>bacteria<virus D) Bacteria>viroid>virus
149. Given below are statement (i-vi) choosecorrect set (Pg. 27, E)
i. Viroid=virus-capsid ii. Potato spindle disease cause by prions
iii. Viroid have free DNA iv. Viroid have free RNA
v. DNA of viroid was of low molecularweight
iv. RNA of viroid was of light molecularweight
A) i,iv only B) i, vi, iii C) i, iv, vi D) i, iii, v
150. Prion cause- (Pg. 27, E)
A) BSE in cattle and CJD in human
B) BSE in human and CJD in cattle
C) BSE and CJD cause in cattle
D) BSE and CJD cause in human
151. Prions are- (Pg. 27, E)
A) Smaller than virus B) Larger than virus
C) Smaller than viroid D) Similar in size to viruses
152. Choose the incorrect about BSE (Pg. 27, E)
A) It expanded as Bovine spongiformencephalophathy
B) Caused by prion
C) Its analogous variant is CJD
D) Its homologous variant is CJD
153. Lichen are – (Pg. 27, E)
A) Saprotroph only B) Symbiotic
C) Parasitic only D) A & C

43
154. Lichen are mutual association of- (Pg. 27, E)
A) Mycobiont (fungal) andphycobiont (algae)
B) Gymnosperm root & fungi
C) Algae & gymnosperm root
D) All of these
155. Mycobiont and phycobiout are ___&___respectively (Pg. 27, E)
A) Autotrophic & heterotrophic
B) Autotrophic & autotrophic
C) Heterotrophic & autotrophic
D) Heterotrophic & heterotrophic
156. The function of fungal part is lichen is/are (Pg. 27, E)
A) Water absorption B) Mineral absorption
C) Provide shelter D) All of these
157. Lichen cannot grow in – (Pg. 27, E)
A) Polluted area B) Area where there is no pollution
C) Association between fungi and algae isunpolluted region
D) All of these

NEET PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS

1. Select the incorrect statement. [2018]
(a) Cell wall is present in members of fungi and plantae.
(b) Mushrooms belong to basidiomycetes.
(c) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell in all kingdoms except monera.
(d) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures in sporozoans.
2. Which among the following is not a prokaryote? [2018]
(a) Saccharomyces (b) Mycobacterium (c) Oscillatoria (d) Nostoc
3. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in [2018]
(a) using flagella for locomotion.
(b) having a contractile vacuole for removing excess water.
(c) having two types of nuclei.
(d) using pseudopodia for capturing prey.
4. Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans? [2018]
(a) Dinoflagellates (b) Diatoms (c) Euglenoids (d) Cyanobacteria
5. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in __________. [2018]
(a) Neurospora (b) Alternaria (c) Saccharomyces (d) Agaricus
6. Which of the following components provides sticky character to the bacterial cell? [2017]
(a) Nuclear membrane (b) Plasma membrane (c) Glycocalyx (d) Cell wall
7. Which of the following are the smallest living cells, known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic to
plants as well as animals and can survive without oxygen? [2017]
(a) Pseudomonas (b) Mycoplasma (c) Nostoc (d) Bacillus
8. Which of the following are found in extreme saline conditions? [2017]
(a) Eubacteria (b) Cyanobacteria (c) Mycobacteria (d) Archaebacteria
9. Viroids differ from viruses in having [2017]
(a) DNA molecules without protein coat. (b) RNA molecules with protein coat.
(c) RNA molecules without protein coat. (d) DNA molecules with protein coat.
10. Chrysophytes, euglenoids, dinoflagellates and slime moulds are included in which of the following
kingdom? [2016]
(a) Monera (b) Protista (c) Fungi (d) Animalia
11. One of the major components of cell wall of most fungi is _________. [2016]
(a) chitin (b) peptidoglycan (c) cellulose (d) hemicellulose
12. Which one of the following statements is incorrect? [2016]
(a) Cyanobacteria are also called blue-green algae. (b) Golden algae are also called desmids.

44
 (c) Eubacteria are also called false bacteria. (d) Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi.
13. Which of the following statements is incorrect for viroids? [2016]
(a) They lack a protein coat. (b) They are smaller than viruses.
(c) They cause infections. (d) Their RNA is of high molecular weight.
14. Which of the following structures is not found in a prokaryotic cell? [2015]
(a) Ribosome (b) Mesosome (c) Plasma membrane (d) Nuclear envelope
15. The structures that help some bacteria to attach to rocks and / or host tissues are : [2015]
(a) Fimbriae (b) Mesosomes (c) Holdfast (d) Rhizoids
16. Pick up the incorrect statement. [2015]
(a) Protista have photosynthetic and heterotrophic modes of nutrition.
(b) Some fungi are edible.
(c) Nuclear membrane is present in monera.
(d) Cell wall is absent in animalia.
17. In which group of organisms the cell walls form two thin overlapping shells which fit together?
[2015]
(a) Euglenoids (b) Dinoflagellates (c) Slime moulds (d) Chrysophytes
18. The imperfect fungi which are decomposer of litter and help in mineral cycling belong to :[2015]
(a) Basidiomycetes (b) Phycomycetes (c) Ascomycetes (d) Deuteromycetes
19. Which one is incorrect statement? [2015]
(a) Mucor has biflagellate zoospores.
(b) Haploid endosperm is a typical feature of gymnosperms.
(c) Brown algae have chlorophyll a and c and fucoxanthin.
(d) Archegonia are found in bryophyta, pteridophyta and gymnosperms.
20. Choose the incorrect statements. [2015]
(a) Neurospora is used in the study of biochemical genetics.
(b) Morels and truffles are poisonous mushrooms.
(c) Yeast is unicellular and useful in fermentation.
(d) Penicillium is multicellular and produces antibiotics.
21. Which one of the following matches is correct? [2015 ]
a) Alternaria Sexual reproduction absent Deuteromycetes
b) Mucor Reproduction by conjugation Ascomycetes
c) Agaricus Parasitic fungus Basidiomycetes
d) Phytophthora Aseptate mycelium Basidiomycetes

22. True nucleus is absent in _________. [2015]

(a) Mucor (b) Vaucheria (c) Volvox (d) Anabaena
23. Which of the following are most suitable indicators of SO2 pollution in the environment? [2015]
(a) Conifers (b) Algae (c) Fungi (d) Lichens
24. Viruses have [2014]
(a) DNA enclosed in a protein coat. (b) prokaryotic nucleus.
(c) single chromosome. (d) both DNA and RNA.
25. Five kingdom system of classification suggested by R.H.Whittaker is not based on [2014]
(a) presence or absence of a well-defined nucleus. (b) mode of reproduction.
(c) mode of nutrition. (d) complexity of body organisation.
26. Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in : [2014]
(a) Cell membrane (b) Mode of nutrition (c) Cell shape (d) Mode of reproduction
27. The motile bacteria are able to move by : [2014]
(a) fimbriae (b) flagella (c) cilia (d) pili
28. Which one of the following fungi contains hallucinogens? [2014]
(a) Morchella esculenta (b) Amanita muscaria (c) Neurospora sp. (d) Ustilago sp.
29. Which of the following shows coiled RNA strand and capsomeres? [2014]
(a) Polio virus (b) Tobacco mosaic virus
(c) Measle virus (d) Retrovirus

45
30. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (NEET-2019)
(1) Viroids lack a protein coat (2) Viruses are obligate parasites
(3) Infective constituent in viruses is the protein coat
(4) Prions consist of abnormally folded proteins
31. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (NEET-2019)
(1) Morels and truffles are edible delicacies.
(2) Claviceps is a source of many alkaloids and LSD.
(3) Conidia are produced exogenously and ascospores endogenously.
(4) Yeasts have filamentous bodies with long thread-like hyphae.
32. Match Column - I with Column - II. (NEET-2019)
Column - I Column - II
(a) Saprophyte (i) Symbiotic association of fungi with plant roots
(b) Parasite (ii) Decomposition of dead organic materials
(c) Lichens (iii) Living on living plants or animals
(d) Mycorrhiza (iv) Symbiotic association of algae and fungi
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
33. Mad cow disease in catttle is caused by an organism which has :- (NEET-2019 ODISSA)
(1) inert crystalline structure (2) abnormally folded protein
(3) free RNA without protein coat (4) free DNA without protein coat
34. Which of the following statements is correct ? (NEET-2019 ODISSA)
(1) Lichens do not grow in polluted areas.
(2) Algal component of lichens is called mycobiont.
(3) Fungal component of lichens is called phycobiont
(4) Lichens are not good pollution indicators.
35. Match the organisms in column-I with habitats in column-II (NEET-2019 ODISSA)
Column-I Column-II
(a) Halophiles (i) Hot springs
(b) Thermoacidophiles (ii) Aquatic environment
(c) Methanogens (iii) Guts of ruminants
(d) Cyanobacteria (iv) Salty area
Select the correct answer from the options given below :-
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) (2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
36. Which of the following is incorrect aboutCynobacteria? (NEET-2020 COVID)
(1) They are photoautotrophs
(2) They lack heterocysts
(3) They often form blooms in polluted water bodies
(4) They have chlorophyll A similar to green plants
37. Which of the following is correct about viroids? (NEET-2020)
1) They have free DNA without protein coat
2) They have RNA with protein coat
3) They have free RNA without protein coat
4) They have DNA with protein coat
38. Which of the following statements is correct? [NEET-2021]
1) Fusion of protoplasms between two motile on non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy.
2) Organisms that depend on living plants are called saprophytes.
3) Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath cells.
4) Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy.

46
39. Given below are two statements: [NEET-2022]
Statement I: Mycoplasma can pass through less than 1 micron filter size.
Statement II: Mycoplasma are bacteria with cell wall.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1) Both statements I and Statements II are correct
2) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
40. Which of the following is a correct statement? [NEET-2022]
1) Cyanobacteria area a group of autotrophic organisms classified under Kingdom Monera
2) Bacteria are exclusively heterotrophic organisms
3) Slime moulds are saprophytic organisms classified under Kingdom Monera
4) Mycoplasma have DNA, Ribosome and cell wall

NCERT LINE BY LINE QUESTIONS – ANSWERS

1) D 2) D 3) A 4) D 5) A 6) D 7) A 8) A 9) C 10) B
11) C 12) D 13) B 14) A 15) D 16) B 17) A 18) A 19) D 20) A
21) C 22) B 23) A 24) D 25) D 26) A 27) A 28) C 29) A 30) D
31) C 32) C 33) C 34) B 35) C 36) A 37) D 38) A 39) D 40) D
41) D 42) A 43) D 44) D 45) A 46) A 47) D 48) A 49) B 50) A
51) A 52) A 53) C 54) C 55) A 56) A 57) B 58) A 59) A 60) D
61) D 62) A 63) A 64) B 65) D 66) C 67) B 68) C 69) D 70) C
71) D 72) D 73) C 74) C 75) C 76) C 77) C 78) A 79) B 80) C
81) D 82) C 83) B 84) D 85) D 86) D 87) C 88) A 89) B 90) C
91) D 92) B 93) C 94) B 95) D 96) D 97) B 98) A 99) D 100) C
101) C 102) C 103) A 104) A 105) C 106) B 107) C 108) C 109) B 110) C
111) A 112) B 113) B 114) C 115) D 116) C 117) D 118) A 119) D 120) C
121) B 122) A 123) B 124) C 125) D 126) D 127) C 128) D 129) B 130) C
131) A 132) B 133) D 134) D 135) A 136) B 137) B 138) D 139) B 140) B
141) D 142) A 143) B 144) B 145) D 146) B 147) A 148) B 149) C 150) A
151)D 152) D 153) B 154) A 155) C 156) D 157) A

NEET PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS-ANSWERS

1) d 2) a 3) c 4) b 5) d 6) c 7) b 8) d 9) c 10) b
11) a 12) c 13) d 14) d 15) a 16) c 17) d 18) d 19) a 20) b
21) a 22) d 23) d 24) a 25) a 26) a 27) b 28) b 29) b 30) 3
31) 4 32) 4 33) 2 34) 1 35) 1 36) 2 37) 3 38) 1 39) 3 40) 1
NEET PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS-EXPLANATIONS
1. (d) Pseudopodia are locomotory structures in sarcodines(amoeboid).
2. (a) Saccharomyces i.e. yeast is an eukaryote (unicellular fungi). Mycobacterium is a bacterium.
Oscillatoria andNostoc are cyanobacteria.
3. (c) Ciliates differs from other protozoans in having two types of nuclei. E.g., Paramoeciumhave two types
ofnuclei i.e.macronucleus & micronucleus.
4. (b) Diatoms are the chief producers or the most common form of phytoplankton in the ocean. They
utiliseinorganic nutrients to form proteins, fats and organic material & provide food for various sea
creatures.
5. (d) In Agaricus (a genus of basidiomycetes), basidiospores or meiospores are produced exogenously.
Neurospora(a genus of ascomycetes) produces ascospores as meiospores but endogenously inside the
ascus). Alternaria (a genus of deuteromycetes) does not produce sexual spores. Saccharomyces
(unicellular ascomycetes) produces ascospores, endogenously.

47
6. (c) Sticky character of the bacterial wall is due to glycocalyx which is rich in glycoproteins.
7. (b) Mycoplasmas are smallest, prokaryotes lacking cell wall and are pleomorphic in nature. These are
pathogenicto both plants and animals.
8. (d) Archaebacteria are able to survive in harsh conditions due to the presence of branched lipid chain in
cellmembrane that reduces fluidity of cell membrane. It includes halophiles which are exclusively found
in saline habitats.
9. (c) Viroids are sub-viral agents as infectious RNA particles, without protein coat.
10. (b) All unicellular eukaryotic organism like diatoms, desmids (chrysophytes), euglenoids, dinoflagellates
and slime mould are included in protista.
11. (a)
12. (c) Eubacteria are the true bacteria.
13. (d)
14. (d) Nuclear envelope is not found in a prokaryotic cell.
15. (a) Fimbriae help bacteria to get attachment with rocks or host body to get establishment and nutrition.
16. (c) The kingdom monerapossesses unicellular organisms (e.g - bacteria) having no nuclear membrane.
17. (d) In chrysophytes, the cell walls form two thin overlapping shells held together. The body of diatoms
appears like soap box due to overlapping shells.
18. (d) Class-deuteromycetes contains imperfect fungi which play an important role in decomposition of
Organicwastes.
19. (a) The spores are non-motile in Mucor.
20. (b) Morel and truffles are used as food and they are members of ascomycetes fungi.
21. (a) Alternaria belongs to class - deuteromycetes, which lack sexual reproduction. Asexual reproduction
Takesplace by conidia produced on conidiophores.
22. (d) Anabaena is a cyanobacteria which lack a true nucleus because of absence of nuclear membrane.
23. (d) Lichens cannot grow in the place where sulphur dioxide, pollutant is available in the environment.
24. (a)
25. (a)
26. (a) Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in having a different cell wall structure. They lack
peptidoglyan incell wall and possess a monolayer of branched fatty acids attached to glycerol by ether
bonds in their cellmembranes.
27. (b) Motile bacteria have thin filamentous extensions from their cell wall called flagella.
28. (b) Several mushrooms such as Amanita muscaria, Psilocybemexicanaand Panaeolusspp. secrete
hallucinogenic substances like psilocybin and psilocin.
These substances may destroy brain cells and perception power of human beings.
29. (b)
37. Viroids are infectious nucleic acid contains only ssRNA
38. Fusion of protoplasm between two motile or non – motile gametes is called plasmogamy
39 Mycoplasma are bacteria with out cell wall.
40. CYANOBACTERIA comes under KINGDOM Monera

48
 3.PLANT KINGDOM

Biology Smart Booklet

49
Theory + NCERT MCQs + NEET PYQs
50
 PLANT KINGDOM
What are Plants
Plant kingdom classification has changed a number of times over the years. For
instance, blue-green algae were once considered to be part of the plant
kingdom, but today, they are classified under Kingdom Eubacteria. Similarly,
lichen was once considered a plant; however, they are composite organisms. In
other words, lichens are comprised of two individual organisms a fungus and a
plant. Historically, organisms that could not be classified under animals were
grouped under plants.

Whittaker classified the whole living organism into five kingdoms based on the
complexity of cell structure (Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic), the complexity of the
body (unicellular and multicellular), and mode of nutrition (autotrophs and
heterotrophs).

Classification of the Plant Kingdom

All the classification systems, starting from that of Aristotle to the 20thcentury,
can be divided into three types:

 Artificial System: In this system, the classification is based on few

morphological characters. Theophrastus, Pliny, and Linnaeus used an
artificial system of classification.

 Natural System: In this system, the classification is based on all the important
related characters. Both external and internal. Bentham and hooker,
Adanson, Candolle used a natural system of classification.

 Phylogenetic System: Classification based on the evolutionary relationship of

plants. The use of phylogeny for classification was done by Eichler, Blessy.

Numerical Taxonomy
Taxonomy based on statistical methods with equal importance using
computers.

Cytotaxonomy
Taxonomy that is based on cytology or structure of the cell (chromosome
number, shape, behaviour, etc).

Chemotaxonomy
Taxonomy based on chemical constituents of plants (nature of the protein, DNA
sequence, taste, smell, etc).

51
Eichler Classification
The classification of Plant kingdom depending on flowering. Divided into two-
Cryptogamae (non-flowering, seedless plants) and Phanerogamae (flowering,
seed-bearing plants).

Based on the Plant Body Cryptogamae is divided into Thallophyta, Bryophyta,

and Pteridophyta.

 Thallophyta: The plant body is thallus-like (undifferentiated plant body).

 Bryophyta: Plant body with a root-like structure, stem-like structure,

vascular tissues are absent).

 Pteridophyta: The plant body is differentiated into true root, stem, and
leaves. Vascular

Thallophytes Again Divided Into:

 Algae (pigmented thallophytes).

 Fungi (non-pigmented thallophytes).
 Lichens: Symbiotic association between algae and fungi.

Phanerogamae is Divided Into Two:

 Gymnosperms (naked seed plants)

 Angiosperma (covered seeded plants)

Angiosperms Are Again Divided Into Two:

 Monocots (bearing single cotyledon, fibrous root system, and parallel

venation).
 Dicots (have two cotyledons, taproot system, and reticulate venation).

Algae
1. Phycology: Branch of Biology that deals with the study of algae
Phycos = Seaweed
Logos = Study
2. Fritch - Father of phycology.
3. M.O.P. Iyengar is the father of Indian phycology.

Algal members are pigmented thallophyte

Habitat
Hydrophytes: Water is their habitat. In aquatic habitat:

 Freshwater (Spirogyra) and marine (Sargassum).

 Floating- Chlamydomonas, Spirogyra
 Benthophytes - These plants remain attached to the bottom of their
habitat. Example Chara (stoneworts)

52
  Xerophytes: Their habitat is desert.
 Mesophytes- They grow in medium habitats.
 Epiphytes- They grow on plant body (Cladophora)
 Epizoic- growing on the animal body (Trichophillus)
 Lithophytes- They grow on rocks.
 Halophytes- They grow in salty areas.
 Moist soil-terrestrials (Fritschiella).

Plant Body
 The vegetative plant body of algae is a haploid gametophyte.
 They may be unicellular, flagellated (Chlamydomonas), or non-
flagellated (Chlorella).

Multicellular:

 Coenobium- It is a colony with a fixed number of cells and also the

division of labor is fixed. E.g.: Volvox.
 Aggregation-indefinite colony. E.g., Tetraspora
 Filamentous-unbranched. E.g.: Ulothrix
 Filamentous branches. E.g.: Cladophora
 Siphonous- multinucleate. E.g.: Vaucheria
 Parenchymatous. E.g.: Ulva the,
 Branched like higher plants. E.g.: Sargassum, Chara

Nutrition:

 Autotrophs - Photosynthetic (most of them)

 Parasitic forms (rare). E.g.: Cephaleuros.

Pigments:

 Chlorophyll- a, b, c, d.
 Carotenoids- carotene and xanthophyll-fucoxanthin are dominating
pigments in brown algae.
 Phycobillins- phycocyanin and phycoerythrin.

Reproduction
Vegetative reproduction: Reproduction Using the Vegetative Parts.

Different Types are:

 Fission
 Fragmentation
 Budding
 Tubers
 Gemmae

Asexual Reproduction: Without the Fusion of Gametes.

53
Mainly by:

 Zoospores within sporangia

 Aplanospores
 Akinete
 Hypnospores
 Endospore
 Exospore
 Monospore
 Auxospore.

Palmella Stage
In this stage of asexual reproduction the spores become colonial and appear
like the algae named Palmella. E.g.: Ulothrix, Chlamydomonas.

Sexual Reproduction
Homogametes: Similar gametes.

Heterogametes: Dissimilar gametes.

Isogamy: Fusion of morphologically and physiologically similar gametes.

Isogamy- flagellated (Chlamydomonas) and non-flagellated (Spirogyra).

Anisogamy: Fusion of morphologically or physiologically dissimilar gametes.

Morphologically dissimilar gametes’ fusion occurs in Chlamydomonas.
Physiologically dissimilar gametes’ fusion occurs in Spirogyra.

Oogamy: It is the fusion of morphologically and physiologically dissimilar

gametes that are small motile male gamete and large nonmotile female
gamete. E.g.: Fucus, Volvox.

Exceptional Cases:
Unicellular antheridium and oogonium. E.g.: Oedogonium.

Special Reproductive Structures:

Conceptacles- E.g.: Sargassum
Globule (antheridium) and nucule (oogonium) E.g.: Chara

Conjugation
A special type of sexual reproduction called conjugation is found in spirogyra.
The life cycle exhibits two phases-haploid and diploid and some of them exhibit
alternation of generation. The diploid phase is alternated with the haploid
phase.

Classification of Algae
They are classified into three:

54
  Chlorophyceae
 Phaeophyceae
 Rhodophyceae

Chlorophyceae: In Chlorophyceae, the plant body is unicellular as in

Chlamydomonas or colonial as in Volvox or filamentous as in Spirogyra.

Different Shapes for the Chloroplast:

1. Ribbon shaped and spiral in Spirogyra

2. Girdle shaped in Ulothrix

3. Cup shaped chloroplast in Chlamydomonas.

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4. Star-shaped in Zygnema.

5. Disc-shaped in Caulerpa

56
6. Reticulate in Oedogonium.

 Photosynthetic pigments are chlorophyll a and b.

 Food is stored in the form of starch and some are stored in the form of oil
droplets.
 Pyrenoids are present, which are the storage bodies.
 The inner layer of the cell wall is made up of cellulose and the outer layer
is made up of pectose.

The members reproduce:

 Vegetatively by fragmentation
 Asexually by flagellated zoospores
 Sexually by isogamy, anisogamy, and oogamy.

Common Chlorophyceae members are: Chlamydomonas, Chlorella, Volvox,

Ulothrix, Ulva, Caulerpa, Chara, Acetabularia etc.

Brown Algae or Phaeophyceae

57
  They are marine.
 Simple branched and filamentous as in Ectocarpus, or flat ribbon-shaped in
Sargassum, Laminaria, Fucus, etc.
 The giant brown algae Kelps are the largest sea plants, some are free-
floating as in Sargassum and some are epiphytes on other plants like
Ectocarpus.

The Plant Body has Three Parts:

 Fixing structures called a holdfast.

 The stalk-like structure called a stipe.
 The leaf-like structure is called a frond.

Rhodophyceae (Red Algae)

Red algae Rhodophyceae (red algae) include members like Porphyra,
Porphyridium, Polysiphonia (multi-axial body), Batrachospermum (Frog spawn
alga), Gelidium, Gracilaria, Gleopeltis, Chondrus, Corallina, Harveyella
(colourless parasitic red alga). Habitat Mostly they are marine. Found in
warmer oceans.

Economic Importance of Algae:

 In the food chain algae are the primary producers. The basis of the food
cycles of all aquatic animals is formed by the algae.
 On earth, half of the total carbon dioxide fixation is carried out by algae
through the process of photosynthesis.
 In the purification of air and water it plays a very important role.
 Some algae are edible. E.g.: Chlorella, Laminaria, Porphyra, Sargassum,
Ulva, Spirulina.
 Some algae are used as fodder. E.g.: Laminaria, Sargassum, Fucus.
 It also acts as a food supplement for space travelers. E.g.: Chlorella,
Spirulina.
 From red algae, algin and carrageenan are obtained which are water-
holding substances or hydrocolloids.
 Agar is obtained by Gelidium and Gracilaria. It is used to grow
microorganisms.
 Used in the preparation of culture medium in tissue culture experiments.
 It has medicinal values as antibiotics are prepared from them.
 Also used as a source of minerals- Polysiphonia, Laminaria
 Has importance in biological research: Chlorella, Acetabularia.
 E.g.: Chlorella, Polysiphonia.

Common Names of Algae:

 Water silk-Spirogyra
 Sea lettuce- Ulva
 Umbrella plant-Acetabularia (Largest unicellular algae)

Bryophytes

58
  Simplest non-vascular land plants with undifferentiated plant bodies.
 Bryology: Study of Bryophytes.
 Hedwig: Father of bryology.
 S.R. Kashyap: Father of Indian bryology.
 The bryophytes are also called the amphibians of the plant kingdom due
to their unique characteristics.
 Bryophytes grow in dense patches on moist shady places like walls, damp
soil, tree trunks, etc.

Features

 Habitat: Mainly terrestrial but some are aquatic. E.g.: Riccia fluitans
 Epiphyllous E.g.: Radula
 Plant body Thallus and Prostate. E.g.: Riccia, Anthoceros, Marchantia or
Erect. E.g.- Moss.
 Root-like structures called rhizoids help in fixing them in the soil.
 The body of the plant is differentiated into stem-like and leaf-like
structures.
 Vascular tissues are absent.
 Vegetative reproduction occurs by fragmentation, budding, tubers, etc.
 Asexual reproduction occurs by Gemmae- asexual buds in liverworts.
 Sexual reproduction occurs. The vegetative plant body acts as the
gametophyte and all the members are homosporous.
 Multicellular sex organs are present that are found in clusters.
 The club-shaped antheridium is the male reproductive organ and it
produces biflagellate antherozoids which are motile too.
 The flask-shaped archegonium is the female reproductive organ and it
produces the egg.
 To form the zygote the antherozoid fuses with the egg.
 The sporophyte is not free-living and it derives nutrients from the
photosynthetic gametophyte.
 After meiosis, the haploid spores are formed in the sporophyte and the
spore germinates to form the gametophyte.
 Alternation of generation is present where the haploid phase alters with
the diploid phase.
 Both the phases are multicellular.
 The gametophyte is the dominant photosynthetic free-living stage.
 The sporophyte is short-lived and it highly depends on the gametophyte.
 For fertilization, water is very much essential.

Classification of Bryophytes: It has three classes.

59
  Hapticospida (liverworts).
 Anthocerotopsida (Hornworts).
 Bryopsida. (Moss).

Hepaticopsida or Liverworts
A class of lower green plants called liverworts that belong to the division
Bryophyta. The class Hepaticopsida, also called Marchantiopsida, comprises
the liverworts, which are nonvascular land plants. Although there is a great
diversity of external form, most of the gametophytes (gamete-producing plants)
are dorsoventrally differentiated.

Bryopsida (Moss)
 They are higher bryophytes.
 The gametophyte consists of two stages-protonema and the leafy stage.
 Protonema is green filamentous, branched, creeping structures that
directly develop from the spore on germination, and they also bear
branched rhizoids and lateral buds.
 The leafy stage is developed as a lateral bud from the secondary
protonema.
 The plant body consists of root-like, stem-like, and leaf-like structures. Eg:
Funaria.
 Rhizoids are multicellular and branched also.
 The leafy stages bear the sex organs.
 Vegetative reproduction occurs by the process of fragmentation and
budding in the secondary protonema.

Economic Importance:

 They are used as food by herbaceous animals.

 Sphagnum (Moss) occurs in the form of peat and is used as fuel.
 Because of its water holding capacity, the mosses are also used for the
trans-shipment of living material.
 Moses also prevents soil erosion.
 They are the first colonizers on barren rocks along with lichens.
 For the growth of the higher plants or succession, they decompose rocks
for making substrate.

Pteridophytes
 They are the first terrestrial plant to bear vascular tissue such as xylem and
phloem. So they are also called vascular cryptogams.
 Commonly known as a botanical snake.
 The plant body is differentiated into true root, stem, wind-needle-like, and
leaf.

60
  The plant body is the sporophytic generation.
 The stem is rhizomatous and they regenerate when aerial parts are
destroyed.
 Leaves may be small known as microphyll as in Selaginella or large known
as macrophyll as in ferns.

Pteridophytes are further classified into four classes:

 Psilopsida (Psilotum)
 Lycopsida (Selaginella)
 Sphenopsida (Equisetum)
 Pteropsida (Pteris).

Economic Importance:
 Some members are Medicinal:Dryopter is Helps in Soil binding & Used as
Ornamental plants.
 Edible plants: Marcelia Used in Crop rotation- Azolla & Helps in Symbiotic
nitrogen fixation.
 Play an important role in the succession of plants on bare rocks or soil.
 Sphagnum is used to keep seedlings in gardens and also in keeping cut
plant parts moist during transportation and propagation.

Common Names:

 Creeping pine/ Club moss- Lycopodium

 Spike moss (Resurrection plant- Selaginella
 Water fern- Azolla (smallest pteridophyte)
 Walking fern (Maiden Hall fern)- Adiantum
 Adder’s tongue fern- Ophioglossum
 Fossil pteridophyte- Cooksonia
 Leafless Pteridophyte- Psilotum
 Horsetail- Equisetum

Gymnosperm
The word “Gymnosperm” comes from the Greek words “gymnos”(naked) and
“sperma”(seed), hence known as “Naked seeds.” Gymnosperms are the seed-
producing plants, but unlike angiosperms, they produce seeds without fruits.
These plants develop on the surface of scales or leaves, or at the end of stalks
forming a cone-like structure.
Gymnosperms belong to kingdom ‘Plantae‘ and sub-kingdom ‘Embryophyta’.
The fossil evidence suggested that they originated during the Paleozoic era,
about 390 million years ago.
Basically, gymnosperms are plants in which the ovules are not enclosed within
the ovary wall, unlike the angiosperms. It remains exposed before and after

61
 fertilisation and before developing into a seed. The stem of gymnosperms can be
branched or unbranched. The thick cuticle, needle-like leaves, and sunken
stomata reduce the rate of water loss in these plants.
The family of gymnosperms consist of conifers, the cycads, the gnetophytes and
the species of Gynkgophyta division and Ginkgo biloba.
Let us have an overview of the characteristics, examples, classification and
examples of gymnosperms.

Angiosperm
A plant of a large group that comprises those that have flowers and produce
seeds enclosed within a carpel, including herbaceous plants, shrubs, grasses,
and most trees. Compare with gymnosperm.

Alternation of generations:

 The diploid sporophyte has a structure called a sporangium.

 The sporangium undergoes meiosis and forms haploid spores.
 The spore develops into a gametophyte which is haploid in nature.
 The gametophyte has the reproductive organs which undergo mitosis to
form haploid gametes.
 The gametes fertilize to form a haploid zygote which matures into a mature
sporophyte. This cycle keeps repeating.

Monocot
In this type of angiosperms, only one cotyledon is present. Also, leaves are
parallel-veined, and vascular bundles are scattered. The root system is
adventitious. Examples: Wheat, Maize, Rice etc.

Dicot
There are two seed leaves present in dicot angiosperms. Vascular bundles are in
a ring and veins are branched. Also, tap roots are present. Examples: Potato,
Pea, Banyan etc.

NCERT LINE BY LINE QUESTIONS

3. Plant Kingdom
1. Artificial classification system is based on– (Pg29, E)

62
 A) Mainly on vegetative character and onthe androecium structure
B) Ultrastructure, anatomical,embryological characters
C) External and internal features D) Chromosome number.
2. George Bentham and Joseph DaltonHooker gave (Pg30, E)
A) Artificial classification system
B) Phylogenetic classification
C) Natural classification system
D) A and B respectively
3. Choose incorrectly match option (Pg30, E)
A) Numerical taxonomy – Number andcode are assigned to all the characterand the data are then
processed
B) Cytotaxonomy – Based on cytologicalinformation
C) Chemotaxonomy – Based onphytochemistry
D) Natural classification – Linnaeus
4. Phylogenetic classification – (Pg30, E)
A) Based on evolutionary relationship
B) This assume that organism belongingto some taxa haven’t a commonancestor
C) Gave equal weightage to vegetative &sexual character but not onevolutionary relationship
D) A and B bothrelationship
Paragraph – 3.1
Algae
5. Blue – green algae placed in whichkingdom according to R.H. Whittaker (Pg30, E)
A) Monera B) Protista C) Fungi D) Plantae
6. Choose the correct statement algae: (Pg30, E)
A) Algae are chlorophyllous, autotrophicmember of Plantae
B) Some algae occur in association withfungi and on sloth bear
C) The plant body of algae lack root, stem,leaf
D) All of these
7. Colonial form alga is – (Pg30, E)
A) Ulothrix B) Volvox C) Kelp D) Spirogyra
8. Zoospore is – (Pg30, E)
A) Sexual spore in algae B) Asexual spore in algae
C) Develop in zoosporangium in numberof four
D) Non flagellated spore
9. Fusion between one large static femalegametes and smaller motile male gamete istermed as ___ as seen
is ___ (Pg30, E)
A) Isogamous, Spirogyra B) Oogamous, Volvox
C) Anisogamous, Fucus D) Oogamous, Ulothrix
10. Eudorinashow – (Pg30, E)
A) Fusion of flagellate similar size gamete
B) Fusion of non – flagellate similar sizegamete
C) Oogamous D) Anisogamous
11. How many of following is an example ofisogamous Ulothrix, Spirogyra, Volvox,fucus, Polysiphonia
(Pg31, M)
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
12. Identify organism and label A, B, C, D (Pg31, M)

A) Laminaria A = leaf B = air bladder C =stripe D = holdfast

63
 B) Fucus A = frond B = air bladder C =stripe D = Hold fast
C) Fucus A = air bladder B = frond, C =midrib D = holdfast
D) Laminaria A = leaf C = midrib D =petiole
13. Algae are useful to man in – (Pg32, M)
A) Fixation of almost half of total CO2 onearth
B) Primary producer
C) Increase level of oxygen D) All of these
14. Hydrocolloids are produced by – (Pg32, M)
A) Brown algae ( algin), carrageen(redalgae), Agar(brown algae)
B) Brown algae ( algin), Red algae(carrageen)
C) Brown algae ( algin, agar), Red algae(carrageen)
D) None of these
15. Choose correct statement – (Pg32, E)
A) Chlorella, a multicellular alga rich inprotein
B) Chlorella &Spirulina are astronaut foodbecause of their high carbohydrate,
vitamin mineral but less protein
C) The product obtained by Gracilaria areused to grow microbes
D) Laminaria, Sargassum a member ofRhodophyceae are among 70 species ofmarine algae used as food
Paragraph – 3.1.1
Chlorophycease
16. Chlorophyceae are commonly called as- (Pg32, E)
A) Green algae B) Blue – green algae
C) Brown algae D) Red algae
17. Major pigment of Chlamydomonas – (Pg32, E)
A) Chlorophyll a, b B) Chlorophyll a, c
C) Chlorophyll a, d D) Fucoxanthin, phycoerythrin
18. Choose incorrect statement about greenalga- (Pg32, E)
A) The chlorophyll localised in definitechloroplast
B) Spirogyra have spiral chloroplast
C) Most member have one or more storagebodies i.e. pyrenoid localised inchloroplast
D) The cell wall is made of outer layer thatis of cellulose and inner layer of pectose
19. Reproduction in green algae is/are – (Pg32, E)
A) Isogamous B) Anisogamous C) Oogamous D) All of these
20. Chara is (Pg32, E)
A) Common stonewort B) Marine green algae
C) Unisexual algae D) None of these
21. Flagellation in green algae is – (Pg32, E)
A) 2 – 8, equal, apical B) 2, unequal, lateral
C) 2 – 8, unequal, lateral D) Absent
Paragraph – 3.1.2
Phaeophyceae
22. Phaeophyceae is commonly named as – (Pg32, E)
A) Green alga B) Brown alga C) Red algae D) None
23. Choose the correct statement fromfollowing – (Pg32, M)
A) Ectocarpusis filamentous forms whilekelps is profusely branched from
B) Kelps may reach a height of average100cm
C) The plant body of brown algae isattached to substratum by stripe
D) Leaf – like photosynthetic organ ofbrown algae is stripe
24. Major pigment found in Fucus is/are (Pg32, E)
A) Chlorophyll a, c B) Chlorophyll a, d
C) Chlorophyll a, b D) Fucoxanthin and phycoerythrin
25. The color of brown algae depend upon (Pg32, E)
A) Amount of xanthophyll B) Fucoxanthin present in them

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 C) Phycoerythrin and fucoxanthin ratio D) A & B both
26. Choose the correct about cell of brownalgae – (Pg32, E)
A) Cellulosic cell wall cover outside byalign
B) Cellulosic cell wall with pectin andpolysulphate esters
C) They have two flagella, equal sized andlaterally inserted
D) A and C both
27. Dictyotais member of – (Pg33, E)
A) Same member of Ectocarpus,Gelidium, fucus
B) Same member those having Caminariaor mannitol as stored food
C) Same member of Laminaria, Porphyra,fucus
D) Same member those havingphycoerythrin as accessory pigment
28. Gametes of Sargassum are- (Pg 33, E)
A) Pyriform B) Cup – shaped C) Ribbon – shaped D) Discoid
Paragraph – 3.1.3
Rhodophyceae
29. Rhodopyceae is called red algae because of– (Pg33, E)
A) Predominance of red pigment
B) Abundance if d – phycoerythrin
C) A & B both D) None of these
30. The stored food in Polysiphoniais ____A___which is very similar to _____B_____ and_____C____ in
structure (Pg33, E)
A) A = floridean starch B = amylopectin C= glycogen
B) A = floridean starch B = chitin C =glycogen
C) A = mannitol B = floridean starch C =amylopectin
D) None of these
31. Member of Rhodophyceae reproduce by– (Pg33, E)
A) Non – motile asexual spore and motilesexual gametes
B) motile asexual spore and motile sexualgametes
C) Non – motile asexual spore and non –motile sexual gametes
D) motile asexual spore and non – motilesexual gametes
32. Porphyrashow – (Pg34, E)
A) Isogamous B) Anisogamous C) Oogamous D) All of these
Paragraph – 3.2
Bryophyta
33. Bryophyta include – (Pg34, E)
A) Hornwort B) Liverwort C) Mosses D) All of these
34. Identify given plant diagram and label itsparts: (Pg34, E)

A) Funaria, A = gametophyte B =sporophyte

B) Sphagnum, A = gametophyte B =sporophyte
C) Funaria, A = sporophyte B =gametophyte
D) Sphagnum, A = sporophyte B =gametophyte
35. Bryophytes are – (Pg35, E)
A) Amphibians of plant kingdom
B) Reptilians of plant kingdom
C) First vascular bundles containing plant

65
 D) A & C both
36. The body organization of bryophytes have (Pg35, E)
A) Unicellular or multicellular rhizoid
B) Less differentiation than algae
C) They have true root stem and leaves
D) A & C both
37. The main plant body of bryophyte is___A___ that produce ____B____ (Pg35, E)
A) A = diploid B = gametes B) A = haploid B = gametes
C) A = haploid B = spores D) A = diploid B = spores
38. Choose the correct statement
A) Sex organs in bryophytes areunicellular and jacketed
B) Male sex organ is antheridium thatproduce flagellate (four flagella)antherozoids
C) Female sex organ is archegonium i.e.flask – shaped and produce single egg
D) Water is required for travelling of eggfrom archegonium to antheridium
39. In bryophyta, meiosis occur – (Pg35, E)
A) During development of gametes B) Immediately after zygote formation
C) After sometime of zygote formation D) In gameophytic stage
40. Identify the given diagram and label (Pg34,E)

A) Sphagnum, a liverwort A = archegoniabranch B = antheridial branch

B) Sphagnum, a moss A = archegoniabranch B = antheridial branch
C) Funaria, a moss A = antheridial branchB = archegonia branch
D) Sphagnum, a liverwort A = antheridialbranch B = archegonia branch
41. Choose the correct statement with regardto bryophyta (Pg35, E)
A) Sporophyte is free – living but attachedto photosynthetic gametophyte derivesnourishment from it
B) Sporophyte is not free – living butattached to photosyntheticgametophyte and derives
nourishmentfrom it
C) Gametophyte is not free – living butattached to photosynthetic sporophyteand derives nourishment
from it
D) Gametophyte is free living but attachedto photosynthetic sporophyte andderives nourishment from
it
42. First organism to colonize rock are – (Pg35, E)
A) Mosses B) Lichen C) Liverwort D) A & B both
43. For trans – shipment of living materialwhich of following is more suitable to use (Pg35, E)
A) Marchantia B) Funaria C) Sphagnum D) Riccia
44. Which of the following is obtained fromSphagnum as coal: (Pg35, E)
A) Bituminous B) Peat C) Lignite D) Anthracite
Paragraph – 3.2.1
Liverwort
45. Choose the correct statement : (Pg35, E)
A) The thalloid plant body of liverwort isdorsiventrally appressed closely tosubstrate
B) The leafy members have tiny true leafin two rows on the stem like structure
C) The leafy membrane have tiny leaf likeappendage in four rows on the stemlike structure
D) The thalloid plant body of liverwort isisobilaterally appressed closely tosubstrate
46. Asexual reproduction in bryophytes is nottake place by – (Pg35, E)

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 A) Fragmentation B) Gemmae
C) Budding in secondary protonema D) Oogamous
47. Gemmae are – (Pg35, E)
A) Green, unicellular, asexual bud,develop in small receptacles i.e.gemmacup
B) Green, multicellular, asexual buddevelop in small receptacles i.e.gemmacup
C) Non – green unicellular, asexual bud,develop in small receptacles i.e.gemmacup
D) Green, multicellular, sexual buddevelop in small receptacles i.e.gemmacup
48. In Marchantia (Pg35, E)
A) Male and Female sex organs areproduced on same thalli
B) Male and female sex organs areproduced on different thalli
C) Gametophytes is differentiated into footseta and capsule
D) Spores geminates to form free – livingsporophyte
Paragraph – 3.2.2
Mosses:
49. The predominant stage of life cycle of amoss is- (Pg36, E)
A) Gametophytes B) Sporophytes
C) Protonema stage D) Frothallus stage
50. The gametophyte of moss is divided into- (Pg36, E)
A) Two stage, first protonema stage whichdevelops directly from gamete.
B) Two stage, second leafy stage whichdevelop from secondary protonema asa lateral bud.
C) Two stage, first leafy stage and secondprotonema stage
D) Two stage, first protenema stage whichdevelops directly from spore andsecond leafy stage which
develop fromspore germination as terminal bud.
51. Protonema stage is – (Pg36, E)
A) Creeping, green unbranched andfrequently filamentous stage
B) Prostate, green, branched andfrequently filamentous stage
C) Creeping, green, branched andfrequently filamentous stage
D) Prostate, non – green, unbranched andfrequently stage
52. Choose the correct statement about leafystage of mosses (Pg36, E)
A) They consist, upright, slender axesbearing spirally arranged leaves.
B) They are attached to soil throughmulticellular and branched rhizoid
C) This stage bear sex organ D) All of these
53. In sexual reproduction which of followingis not seen in mosses (Pg36, E)
A) Sex organ are produced at apex of leafystage
B) After fertilization zygote develop intosporophyte
C) Development of embryo D) All of these
54. The sporophyte of mosses – (Pg36, E)
I) Is more elaborate than that is liverwort
II) Consisting of foot, seta and capsule
III) Spores present in capsule
IV) Spore produce after meiosis
V) Elaborate mechanism of sporedispersal
VI) Presence of peristomic teeth.
A) All are correct B) I), II), III) only
C) IV), V), VI) only D) I), III), V) only
55. Choose incorrect matched (Pg36, M)
Column – A Column – B
A) Hornwort i) Marchantia
B) Bryopsida ii) Polytrichum
C) Liverwort iii) Marchantia
D) Mosses iv) Sphagnum
Paragraph – 3.3
Pteridophytes

67
56. Pteridophytes includes – (Pg36, E)
A) Horsetail B) Ferns C) Polytrichum D) A & B both
57. First terrestrial vascular plant is – (Pg36, E)
A) Algae B) Bryophyta (liverwort & hornwort)
C) Pteridophyta D) Bryophyta (Mosses)
58. Choose the correct statement fromfollowing (Pg36, E)
A) The plant body is differentiated intotrue root, only true prostrate stem as inSelaginella and true leaf
B) The leaves of pteridophytes are smallas in Selaginella or macrophyll in ferns.
C) Pteridophytes possess xylem, phloem
D) All of these
59. In pteridophyta – (Pg36, E)
A) The main plant body is a sporophyte
B) The main plant body is a gametophyte
C) The main plant body is a gametophyteon which sporophytic phase is partiallydependent
D) A & C
60. Choose the correct with regard toreproduction in pteridophyte (Pg36, E)
A) Sporophyte bear sporangia that aresubtended by sporophyll
B) Gametophyte bear sporangia that aresubtended by sporophyll
C) Sporophyll compact to form strobili asin fern
D) The sporangia produce spores bymitosis in spore mother cell
61. Gametophyte of pteridophyte is – (Pg36, E)
A) Small but multicellular, free living,mostly photosynthetic, differentiatedinto root, stemand leaf
B) Small inconspicuous but multicellulardependent mostly photosyntheticthalloid body
C) Small but multicellular, free livingmostly photosynthetic thalloidstructure
D) Small inconspicuous but multicellularfree – living mostly non –photosynthetic thalloid body
62. Water needed for fertilization in – (Pg36, E)
A) Eucalyptus B) Bryophytes C) Pteridophyptes D) B & C both
63. Sex organ bear on – (Pg36, E)
A) Sporophytes B) Gametophyte
C) On both gametophytes & sporophyte D) None
64. Heterosporous pteridophytes is/are- (Pg36, E)
A) Selaginella B) Salvinia C) Psilotum D) A & B both
65. Pteridophytes with all similar kind ofspores is in (Pg36, E)
A) Terror of Kashmir B) Psilotum
C) Selaginella D) A & B both
66. Seed habit reported for first time is (Pg36, E)
A) Blue – green algae B) Pteridophyte
C) Angiosperm D) Bryophyta
67. Pteridophyte classification into – (Pg36, E)
A) 4 classes B) 4 orders C) 4 families D) All of these
68. Adiantum is member with – (Pg36, E)
A) Pteris B) Equisetum C) Lycopodium D) Selaginella
69. Match the following: (Pg36, M)
Column – I Column – II
i) Sphenopsida A) Dryopteris
ii) Lycopsida B) Selaginella
iii) Psilopsida C) Psilotum
iv) Pteropsida D) Equisetum
A) A – iv, B – ii, C – iii, D – I B) A – iii, B – ii, C – iv, D – i
C) A – ii, B – iii, C – i, D – iv D) A – i, B – iv, C – ii, D – iii
70. Identify following pteridophytes – (Pg37, E)

68
 A) A = Salvinia, B = horsetail, C = fern, D= Selaginella
B) A = Selaginella, B = Salvinia, C = fern,D = horsetail
C) A = Equisteum, B = fern, C =Selaginella, D = horsetail
D) A = Selaginella, B = Salvia, C =Dryopteris, D = Equisteum
71. Label A, B, C, D, E in following diagram: (Pg37, E)

A) A = strobilus, B = rhizome, B) A = cone, C = Node, D = internode

C) A = strobilus, B = rhizome, C = node, D= internode, E = branch
D) None of these
Paragraph - 3.4
Gymnosperm:
72. Gymnosperms are plants in which – (Pg38, E)
A) Ovules are enclosed by any ovary wallboth before and after fertilization
B) Ovules are not enclosed by any ovarywall both before and after fertilization
C) Ovules are enclosed by any ovary wallbefore fertilization but not afterfertilization
D) Ovules are not enclosed by any ovarywall before fertilization but afterfertilization
73. Tallest tree species belongs to – (Pg38, E)
A) Angiosperm B) Gymnosperm C) Pteridophyte D) Algae
74. Fungi show symbiotic association withgymnosperm in form of – (Pg38, E)
A) Mycorrhiza in Pinus B) Mycorrhiza in cycas
C) Coralloid rest in Pinus D) Coralloid rest in cycas
75. The stem of – (Pg38, E)
A) Cycas is unbranched B) Pinus is branched
C) Cedrusis branched D) All of these
76. Needle-like leaves, thick cuticle, suckenstomata are character of – (Pg38, E)
A) Cycas B) Pinus C) Gnetum D) Ginkgo
77. Gymnosperms are – (Pg38, E)
A) Heterosporous, haploid microsporesand haploid megaspore
B) Homosporous, both spores are haploid
C) Heterosporous, bothspores(microspores & megaspores) arediploid
D) None of these
78. Choose the correct statement – (Pg38, E)
A) The male and female cones borne onsame plant as in Cycas
B) The male and female cones borne ondifferent plant as in Cycas
C) The male and female cones borne onsame plant as in Pinus
D) Both A & C
79. Choose the correct about female cone ofgymnosperm: (Pg38, E)
A) The nucleus is protected by bitegmicstructure

69
 B) The megaspore mother call dividesmitotically to form four megaspores
C) One of four megaspores, enclosedwithin the megasporangium whichdevelop into a multicellular
femalegametophyte that bear one archegonia
D) Ovule is unitegmic
80. Statement-I : The cones bearingmegasporophyll with ovules are femalecone
Statement-II : The strobili bearingmicrosporangia are called male cone (Pg38, E)
A) Both stated statement are correct
B) Both stated statement are incorrect
C) Statement-I is correct while statement-II is incorrect
D) Statement-I is incorrect whilestatement-II is correct
81. Identify given plant diagram and choosecorrect response (Pg39, E)

A) Ginkgo, a living fossil B) Cycas, a living fossil

C) Taxus D) Gnetum
82. What is difference between bryophytic andgymnospermous& gametophytes (Pg39, M)
A) Bryophytic gametophytes isindependent free-living structure whilegametophytes of gymnosperm
isdependent
B) Gametophyte of gymnosperm remainwithin the sporangia retained onsporophytes
C) Both A & B D) None of these
83. Choose the correct set about given figure: (Pg39, E)

i) Pinnate leaves ii) Palmate leaf

iii) Branched stem iv) Branching is same as in Cedrus
v) Unbranched
vi) Bear male cone and female cone onsame plant
vii) Bear male cone & female cone ondifferent plant
viii) It is living fossil along with Ginkgo
A) i, iii, vi, viii B) i, v, vii, viii C) ii, v, vi D) i, iv, vii, viii
84. Anthoceros thallus and coralloid root ofCycas are (Pg39, E)
A) Similar in morphological structure B) Performing N2-fixing
C) Presence of vascular bundle D) B & C
85. Gametophytes is parasitic oversporophytes is (Pg39, E)
A) Cycadales B) Coniferales C) Monocot D) All of these
86. The endosperm of gymnosperm represent (Pg39, E)
A) Female gametophyte B) Triploid structure
C) Diploid structure D) A & C
87. Read the following statements and choosethe incorrect response with respect togymnospermous
reproduction (Pg39, E)
A) Pollen grains are carried by aircurrents
B) Pollen tube carries the male gametes toarchegonia
C) Following fertilization, zygote developbut embryo stage is lacking

70
 D) Ovule develops into seed
88. All the given structure of Pinus and Cycasare haploid, except (Pg39, E)
A) Pollen grain B) Egg C) Nucellus D) Endosperm
89. Gymnosperm is example of – (Pg39, E)
A) Vascular, embryophyte with ovuleenclosed is ovary
B) Vascular, non-embryophyte
C) Non-vascular, non-embryophyte
D) Vascular, embryophyte
90. Vascular archegoniates with diplonticlifecycle are – (Pg39, E)
A) Bryophytes B) Gymnosperm C) Pteridophytes D) B & C
Paragraph - 3.5
Angiosperm:
91. Tallest and smallest plant speciesbelonging to angiosperm is – (Pg40, E)
A) Sequoia and Wolffia B) Eucalyptus and Wolffia
C) Sequoia and duck-weed D) None of these
92. Dicotyledons and monocotyledons are two_____ of angiosperm (Pg40, E)
A) Family B) Class C) Order D) Division
93. How many of following is correct aboutdicotyledons and monocotyledonsrespectively
Seed with two cotyledons, trimerous,pentamerous, parallel veinationSeed with one cotyledons,
tetramerous,reticulate veination (Pg40, E)
A) 4, 3 B) 3, 4 C) 2, 5 D) 5, 2
94. A group of plant flower with having threemembers in each whorl is placed is- (Pg40, E)
A) Monocot B) Dicot C) Tetramerous D) Both B & C
95. Choose the correct statement (Pg40, M)
A) Embryo sac develop from onefunctional megaspore(diploid) whichresult from mitosis and
degeneration ofmegaspore mother cell
B) Embryo sac of consist of one eggapparatus, three antipodal cell and twopolar nuclei
C) Polar nuclei, antipodal cells, egg arediploid structure of embryo sac ofangiosperm
D) Secondary nuclei is haploid
96. Secondary nuclei result from fusion is (Pg40, E)
A) Polar nuclei and 1st male gamete
B) Polar nuclei and 2nd male gamete
C) Both nuclei of polar nuclei
D) Egg apparatus and polar nuclei
97. Choose the correct sequence (Pg40, M)
A) Gamete formation → pollination →fertilization → embryo → new plant
B) Gamete formation → transfer of gamete→ fertilization → pollination → embryo
→ new plant
C) Pollination → gametogenesis →fertilization → embryo → new plant
D) None of these
98. Microspore of angiosperm represent- (Pg40, E)
A) Sporophytic phase B) Gametophytic phase
C) Both A & B D) Female gamete
99. Pollen tube in angiosperm discharge- (Pg40, E)
A) One male gamete is embryo sac
B) Two male gamete is embryo sac
C) Three male gamete is embryo sac
D) More than one option is correct
100. Syngamy is- (Pg41, E)
A) Fusion of egg and 1st male gamete
B) Fusion of egg and 2nd male gamete
C) Fusion of polar nuclei & 1st malegamete
D) Both B & C

71
101. Zygote is result of- (Pg 41, E)
A) Syngamy B) Double fertilization
C) Triple fusion D) Both A & C
102. Fusion of 2nd male gamete with diploidsecondary nucleus result in formation of- (Pg41, E)
A) PEN B) Embryo C) Both A & B D) Sporophyte
103. Double fertilization is- (Pg 41, E)
A) Fusion of two nuclei of polar nuclei
B) Fusion of male gamete with egg
C) Fusion of male gamete with secondarynuclei
D) Both B & C
104. PEN provide- (Pg 41, E)
A) Protection of embryo B) Nourishment to embryo
C) Anchorage to embryo D) None of these
105. Which of following structure degenerateafter fertilization- (Pg 41, E)
A) Synergid B) Antipodal cell C) A & B D) Embryo
106. Angiosperm differ with gymnosperm- (Pg 41, E)
A) In presence of true root, stem & leaf
B) Seed enclosed in fruit
C) Ovary enclosed in ovule
D) Both B & C
107. Ovule develop into _____ and ovariesdevelop into ______ of angiosperm (Pg 41, E)
A) Seed, fruit B) Fruit, seed C) Fruit, fruit D) Seed, seed
108. Pistil is- (Pg 41, E)
A) Female sex organ of flower B) Male sex organ of flower
C) Non-reproductive organ of flower
D) Divided into two part that are antherand filament.
Paragraph - 3.5
Angiosperm:
109. Kelp, Polysiphonia, Ectocarpus, Fucus,Wolffian, Volvox
How many of following are show haplontic,haplodiplontic and diplontic life cyclerespectively
(Pg42, E)
A) 1, 3, 2 B) 3, 1, 2 C) 1, 2, 3 D) 2, 3, 1
110. Mitosis is observed in- (Pg42, E)
A) Haploid plant cell B) Diploid plant cell
C) Both A & B D) Only vegetative cell
111. Choose correct statement about haplonticlife cycle- (Pg42, E)
i) Sporophytic generation is representedby single cell zygote
ii) Free-living sporophyte
iii) Sporophyte is parasite on gametophyte
iv) Gametophyte arise from gametes aftermitotical division
v) Example are Spirogyra and somespecies of Chlamydomonas
vi) Gametophyte arise from meiosis occurin spore-
A) i, ii, v, vi B) i, iii, v, vi C) iii, iv, v D) i, iii, iv
112. Eucalyptus show- (Pg42, E)
A) Diploid dominant sporophyte that isphotosynthetic and independent phase
B) Gametophyte is represent by fewdiploid cell
C) Dominant phase is gametophyte
D) All of these
113. Gymnosperms are- (Pg42, E)
A) Haplontic B) Diplontic C) Haplo-diplontic D) Diplo-haplontic
114. Bryophytes and Pteridophyte exhibit- (Pg42, E)
A) Multicellualr sporophyte B) Multicellular gametophyte
C) Unicellular sporophyte D) A & B both

72
115. Bryophytes and pteridophytes differ intheir – (Pg42, E)
A) Stage of meiosis B) Dominant phases
C) Stage of syngamy D) Stage of gametogenesis
116. In bryophytes – (Pg42, E)
A) Sporophyte totally or partiallydependent on the gametophyte for itsanchorage and nutrition
B) Gametophyte totally or partiallydependent on the sporophyte for itsanchorage and nutrition
C) A dominant, independent,photosynthetic, thalloid haploidSporophyte alternate with gametophyte
D) A & C both
117. Choose the correct response with respectto pteridophyte lifecycle (Pg42, E)
A) Diploid gametophyte alternate withsporophyte
B) Sporophyte and gametophyte areindependent
C) Sporophyte show saprophytic D) Meiosis occur in gametophyte
118. The sporophyll of gymnosperms arranged____ on axis to from cones (Pg42, E)
A) Spirally B) Alternately C) Decussate D) Superposed
119. Identify life cycle pattern (Pg42, E)

A) A = haplontic, B =haplo – diplontic, C =diplontic

B) A = haplontic, B = diplontic, C = haplo– diplontic
C) A = haplo – diplontic, B =haplontic, C =diplontic
D) A = as in Volvox and angiosperm, B =as in Ectocarpus, C = as ingymnosperm
120. Bryophyte attached to substratum by – (Pg42, E)
A) Holdfast B) Rhizoid C) Root D) A & C
121. Brown algae focus attached to substratumby – (Pg42, E)
A) Holdfast B) Stipe C) Frond D) Rhizoid
122. The plant body of liverwort is ___A__whereas mosses have ____B___ bearing____C___ arranged leaves
(Pg42, E)
A) A = dorsiventral, B = upright, slenderaxes, C = alternally
B) A = isobilateral, B = upright, slenderaxes, C = spirally
C) A = dorsiventral, B = isobilateral axes,C = alternately
D) A = dorsiventral, B = upright, slenderaxes, C = spirally
123. Embryophytes doesn’t includes (Pg42, E)
A) Algae, Bryophytes
B) Bryophyte, Pteridophytes
C) Gymnosperm, angiosperm
D) Algae only
124. Double fertilization does not occur in – (Pg42, E)
A) Pteridophyte, some gymnosperm,
B) Monocot, dicot
C) Dicot, some gymnosperm
D) Bryophytes, pteridophyte, somegymnosperm & monocot
125. Identify following life cycle pattern andthat pattern shown in (Pg42, E)

73
 A) Haplontic life cycle eg: Volvox
B) Haplodiplontic lifecycle eg: Ectocarpus,Psilotum
C) Haplodiplontic lifecycle eg: Fucus,Marchantia
D) Diplontic lifecycle eg: Bryophytes,Pteridophytes

NEET PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following statement is correct? [2018]
(a) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in gymnosperms.
(b) Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia is homosporous.
(c) Stems are usually unbranched in both Cycas and Cedrus.
(d) Horsetails are gymnosperms.
2. Winged pollen grains are present in ________. [2018]
(a) Mustard (b) Cycas (c) Pinus (d) Mango
3. Which one is incorrectly matched? [2018]
(a) Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia (b) Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae
(c) Unicellular organism – Chlorella (d) Gemma cups – Marchantia
4. Double fertilisation is exhibited by _________. [2017]
(a) algae (b) fungi (c) angiosperms (d) gymnosperms
5. Select the mismatch. [2017]
(a) Cycas – Dioecious (b) Salvinia – Heterosporous
(c) Equisetum – Homosporous (d) Pinus – Dioecious
6. Life cycle of Ectocarpusand Fucus respectively are: [2017]
(a) Diplontic, Haplodiplontic (b) Haplodiplontic, Diplontic
(c) Haplodiplontic, Haplontic (d) Haplontic, Diplontic
7. Zygotic meiosis is characteristic of _________. [2017]
(a) Fucus (b) Funaria (c) Chlamydomonas (d) Marchantia
8. An example of colonial alga is __________. [2017]
(a) Volvox (b) Ulothrix (c) Spirogyra (d) Chlorella
9. Select the correct statement. [2016]
(a) Gymnosperms are both homosporous and heterosporous.
(b) Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are gymnosperms.
(c) Sequoia is one of the tallest trees.
(d) The leaves of gymnosperms are not well adapted to extremes of climate.
10. In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of male gametes requires __________. [2016]
(a) Wind (b) Insects (c) Birds (d) Water
11. In angiosperms, microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis [2015]
(a) form gametes without further divisions. (b) involve meiosis.
(c) occur in ovule. (d) occur in anther.
12. Male gametophyte in angiosperms produces [2015]
(a) single sperm and vegetative cell. (b) single sperm and two vegetative cells.
(c) three sperms. (d) two sperms and a vegetative cell.
13. Read the following five statements (A to E) and select the option with all correct statements. [2015]
(A) Mosses and lichens are the first organisms to colonise a bare rock.

74
 (B) Selaginella is a homosporous pteridophyte.
(C) Coralloid roots in Cycas have VAM.
(D) Main plant body in bryophytes is gametophytic, whereas in pteridophytes it is sporophytic.
(E) In gymnosperms, male and female gametophytes are present within sporangia located on
sporophyte.
(a) (B), (C) and (D) (b) (A), (D) and (E) (c) (B), (C) and (E) (d) (A), (C) and (D)
14. In which of the following gametophyte is not independent free living? [2015]
(a) Marchantia (b) Pteris (c) Pinus (d) Funaria
15. Which one is incorrect statement? [2015]
(a) Mucor has biflagellate zoospores.
(b) Haploid endosperm is typical feature of gymnosperms.
(c) Brown algae have chlorophyll a and c and fucoxanthin.
(d) Archaegonia are found in bryophyta, pteridophyta and gymnosperms.

16. Which one of the following statements is incorrect? [2015]

(a) Agar - agar is obtained from Gelidiumand Gracilaria.
(b) Chlorella and Spirulina are used as space food.
(c) Mannitol is stored food in rhodophyceae.
(d) Algin and carrageenan are products of algae.
17. Male gametes are flagellated in _________. [2015]
(a) Anabaena (b) Ectocarpus (c) Spirogyra (d) Polysiphonia
18. Which of the following is responsible for peat formation? [2014]
(a) Marchanita (b) Riccia (c) Funaria (d) Sphagnum
19. Which one of the following is incorrect about Chara? [2014]
(a) Upper oogonium and lower round antheridium.
(b) Globule and nucule present on the same plant.
(c) Upper antheridium and lower oogonium.
(d) Globule is male reproductive structure.
20. An alga which can be employed as food for human being is __________. [2014]
(a) Ulothrix (b) Chlorella (c) Spirogyra (d) Polysiphonia
21. Which one of the following shows isogamy with non-flagellated gametes? [2014]
(a) Sargassum (b) Ectocarpus (c) Ulothrix (d) Spirogyra
22. From evolutionary point of view, retention of the female gametophyte with developing young embryo
on the parent sporophyte for some time, is first observed in (NEET-2019)
(1) Liverworts (2) Mosses (3) Pteridophytes (4) Gymnosperms
23. Phloem in gymnosperms lacks : (NEET-2019)
(1) Albuminous cells and sieve cells (2) Sieve tubes only
(3) Companion cells only (4) Both sieve tubes and companion cells
24. Phycoerythrin is the major pigment in : (NEET-2020 COVID)
(1) Red algae (2) Blue green algae (3) Green algae (4) Brown algae
25. Which of the following statements is incorrect about gymnosperms? (NEET-2020 COVID)
(1) They are heterosporous
(2) Male and female gametophytes are free living
(3) Most of them have narrow leaves with thick cuticle
(4) Their seeds are not covered
26. Male and female gametophytes do not have an independent free living existence in
(NEET-2020 COVID)
(1) Pteridophytes (2) Algae (3) Angiosperms (4) Bryophytes
27. Floridean starch has structure similar to : (NEET-2020)
1) Laminarin and cellulose 2) Starch and cellulose
3) Amylopectin and glycogen 4) Mannitol and algin

75
28. Strobili or cones are found in : (NEET-2020)
1) Equisetum 2) Salvinia 3) Pteris 4) Marchantia
29. Which of the following pairs is of unicellular algae? (NEET-2020)
1) Chlorella and Spirulina 2) Laminaria and Sargassum
3) Gelidium and Gracilaria 4) Anabaena and Volvox
30. Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two kinds of spores. Such plants are known as
[NEET-2021]
(1) Heterosorus (2) Homosporous (3) Heterosporous (4) Homosorus
31. Gemmae are present in [NEET-2021]
1) Pteridophytes 2) Some Gymnosperms 3) Some Liverworts 4) Mosses
32. Which of the following plants in monoecius ? [NEET-2021]
1) Chara 2) Marchantia polymorpha 3) Cycas circinalis 4) Carica papaya
33. Which of the following algae contains mannitol as reserve food material? [NEET-2021]
1) Gracilaria 2. Volvox 3) Ulothrix 4) Ectocarpus
34. Which of the following algae produce carrageen? [NEET-2021]
1) Brown algae 2) Red algae 3) Blue-green algae 4) Green algae
35. Which of the following is incorrectly matched? [NEET-2022]
1) Ectocarpus – Fucoxanthin 2) Ulothrix – Mannitol
3) Porphyra – Floridian starch 4) Volvox – Starch
36. Hydrocolloid carrageen is obtained from [NEET-2022]

1) Chlorophyceae and Phaeophyceae

2) Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae
3) Rhodophyceae only
4) Phaeophyceae only
37. Match the plant with the kind of life cycle it exhibits: [NEET-2022]
List – I List – II
a) Spirogyra i) Dominant diploid sporophyte vascular
plant, with highly reduced male or female
gametophyte
b) Fern ii) Dominant haploid free-living gametophyte
c) Funaria iii) Dominant diploid sporophyte alternating
with reduced gametophyte called prothallus
d) Cycas iv) Dominant haploid leafy gametophyte
alternating with partially dependent
multicellular sporophyte.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c)- (ii), (d) – (iii)
2) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c)- (iv), (d) – (i)
3) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c)- (i), (d) – (ii)
4) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c)- (i), (d) – (iii)

76
 NCERT LINE BY LINE QUESTIONS – ANSWERS
1) A 2) C 3) D 4) D 5) A 6) D 7) B 8) B 9) B 10) D
11) B 12) B 13) D 14) B 15) C 16) A 17) A 18) D 19) D 20) A
21) A 22) B 23) A 24) A 25) D 26) A 27) B 28) A 29) A 30) A
31) C 32) C 33) D 34) C 35) A 36) A 37) B 38) C 39) C 40) B
41) B 42) D 43) C 44) B 45) A 46) D 47) B 48) B 49) A 50) B
51) C 52) D 53) C 54) A 55) A 56) D 57) C 58) D 59) A 60) A
61) C 62) D 63) B 64) D 65) D 66) B 67) A 68) A 69) A 70) B
71) D 72) B 73) B 74) A 75) D 76) B 77) A 78) B 79) D 80) A
81) A 82) C 83) B 84) B 85) D 86) D 87) C 88) C 89) D 90) B
91) B 92) B 93) A 94) A 95) B 96) C 97) A 98) B 99) B 100) A
101) A 102) A 103) D 104) B 105) C 106) B 107) A 108) A 109) A 110) C
111) B 112) A 113) B 114) D 115) B 116) A 117) B 118) A 119) C 120) B
121) A 122) D 123) A 124) A 125) B
NEET PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS-ANSWERS
1 (a) 2 (c) 3 (a) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (a) 9 (c) 10 (d)
11 (b) 12 (d) 13 (b) 14 (c) 15 (a) 16 (c) 17 (b) 18 (d) 19 (c) 20 (b)
21 (d) 22 (3) 23 (4) 24 (1) 25 (2) 26 (3) 27 (3) 28 (1) 29 (1) 30 (3)
31 (3) 32 (1) 33 (4) 34 (2) 35 (2) 36 (3) 37 (2)

NEET PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS-EXPLANATIONS

1. (a) The gymnosperms are a group of seed-producing plants. The name is based on the unenclosed
conditionof their seeds (called ovules in their unfertilised state).
2. (c) Winged pollen grains are present in Pinus. Each pollen grain has two wing-like structures which enables
it tofloat in air, as an adaptation for dispersal by the wind.
3. (a) Polysiphoniais a genus of red algae, where asexual spores and gametes are non-motile or non-
flagellated.
4. (c) Double fertilisation is a unique feature exhibited only by angiosperms. It involves both syngamy and
triplefusion.
5. (d) Pinus is a monoecious plant comprising of both male and female cones on same plant.
6. (b) Ectocarpusexhibits haplodiplontic life cycle while Fucus has diplontic life cycle.
7. (c) Chlamydomonas has haplontic life cycle hence, shows zygotic meiosis.
8. (a) Volvox is motile colonial fresh water green alga. It formsspherical colonies.
9. (c) Sequoia semeperviransis one of the tallest trees.
10. (d) Bryophytes neither have pollen nor flowers and rely on water to carry the male gametes (sperm) to

77
 the femalegametes (eggs). The antherozoids (male gametes of pteridophytes) are armed with hair-like or
whip-like ciliaor flagellae and are able to swim through water; they do not travel great distances and are
only released when free water is available.
11. (b) In meiosis, the number of chromosomes are reduced by half producing haploid daughter cells.
In bothprocesses microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis, the microspore mother cell and the
megaspore mothercell undergoes meiosis to produce haploid microsporeand megaspore respectively.
12. (d) Two sperms and a vegetative cell are produced by male gametophyte in angiosperms.
Malegametophyte orpollen grain contain one generative cell, which further divides mitotically to form
two sperms. Whereas, avegetative produces an elongated pollen tube to deliver the sperm in embryo sac.
13. (b) Selaginella is a heterosporus pteridophyte containing micro & megaspores. In Cycas, corolloid root
has thecyanobacteria - Anabaena.

14. (c) Pinus belongs to gymnosperms in which male and female gametophytes do not have an independent
Freeliving existance. They remain within the sporangia which are of two types — microsporangia
andmegasporangia.
15. (a) The spores are non motile in Mucor.
16. (c) Mannitol or laminarin is the stored food in phaeophyceae(brown algae).
17. (b) Male gametes are flagellated in Ectocarpus(phaeophyceae). They possess heterokont,
lateralflagella.
18. (d) Sphagnum, a moss, provides peat that has long been used as fuel. It has the capacity to retain water
for longperiods and as such used to cover the plant roots during transportation.
19. (c) Chara is a green alga found attached to bottoms of shallow water of ponds, pools and lakes. Male sex
organ is called antheridium. Female sex organ is calledoogonium. Oogonium is borne at the top of the
fourcelled filament.
20. (b) Chlorella and Spirullinaare unicellular algae, rich in proteins and are used as food supplements by
Spacetravellers.
21. (d) In Spirogyra, sexual reproduction occurs through conjugation. Gametes are non-flagellated
Morphologically similar but physiologically different (isogamy with physiological anisogamy).
27. Floridean starch is reserve food material of red algae, it is similar to the structure of amylopectin and glycogen
28. Equisetum is pteridophyte in which sporophylls are organisedin from of strobili or cones
29. Chlorella and Spirulina are algae used as single cell proteins
30. Plants like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two kinds of spore i.e., microspores and macrospores.
They are known as heterosporous.Most of the pteridophytes produce single type of spores and are called
homosporousSorus are brownish or yellowish cluster of sporeproducing structures located on the lower
surface offern leaves.
31. Some Liverworts
32. Chara
33. Ectocarpus is pheophyceae member which stores Mannitol
34. Carrageen is present in the cell walls of red algae
35. Ulothrix – is green alga and stored food is starch
36. Rhodophyceae
37. Spirogyra is a green algae, haplontic life cycle.
Fern is a pteridophyte – Life cycle shows dominant diploid sporophyte, alternating with reduced
free living gametophytic stage. So its Haplo-diplontic life cycle
Funaria – belongs to Bryophyta. Its a moss plant. Exhibits haplodiplontic lifecycle. The free
living haploid gametophyte bears the sporophytic plant body.
Cycas – Gymnosperms.
Gymnosperms exhibit dominant diploid saprophytic plant body, with highly reduced
male/female gametophyte.

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 1.ANIMAL KINGDOM

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79
80
Basis of classification
The classification of the animal kingdom is based on the different essential
characteristics such as level of organization, habitat, symmetry.
Levels of Organization

 Cellular Level of Organization

 Tissue Level of Organization
 Organ Level of Organization
 Organ system Level of Organization

Patterns of organ systems

 Digestive System (Incomplete Digestive System and Complete Digestive
System)
 Circulatory System
 Open Type
 Closed Type
Body symmetry
 Bilateral Symmetry
 Radial Symmetry
 Asymmetrical

Levels of Organisation

All members of Animalia are multicellular, heterotrophic eukaryotes. But, all of

them do not exhibit the same pattern of organization of cells. The cells in their
body are of several types. These are organized into several functional units of
progressively increasing complexity.

Cellular Level
In this level, the body shows some division of labour among cells. They are
remarkably independent and can change their form and function. It is found in
sponges. The body consists of many cells arranged as loose cell aggregates
but, the cells do not form tissues.
Tissue Level
Here, in coelenterates, the arrangement of cells is more complex. The cells
performing the same function are arranged into tissues, hence is called tissue
level of organization.
Organ Level
In Platyhelminthes and other higher phyla, tissues are grouped together to form
organs, each specialized for a particular function, i.e., organ level organization
is present.
Organ System Level
In animals like annelids, arthropods, molluscs, echinoderms and chordates,

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 organs have associated to form functional systems, each system concerned
with a specific physiological function. This is called organ system level of
organisation. Organ systems in different groups of animals exhibit various
patterns of complexities.
Like the digestive system in Platyhelminthes has only a single opening to the
outside of the body that serves as both mouth and anus and is thus, called
incomplete.
A complete digestive system has two openings, i.e., mouth and anus.
Symmetry
The symmetry refers to the arrangement of parts on the opposite sides of the
body of a three dimensional animal.
On the basis of symmetry, animals can be of following types:
Asymmetrical:
Animals in which, any plane passes through the center does not divide them
into equal halves such animals are called asymmetrical, e.g., Sponges.
Symmetrical:
The body of some animals can be divided into two similar equal halves by one
or more planes. Such animals are called symmetrical
The symmetry can be further divided as:
Radial Symmetry
When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the
organism into two identical halves, it is called radial symmetry, e.g.,
Coelenterates, ctenophores and echinoderms.

Bilateral Symmetry:
In some animals, body can be divided into identical left and right halves in only
one plane. This is called bilateral symmetry, e.g., Annelids, arthropods, etc.

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Diploblastic and Triploblastic Organisation
Germ layers are group of cells behaving as a unit during early stages of
embryonic development. It differentiate to give rise to all the tissues/ organs of
the fully formed individuals.
On the basis of germ layers animals are classified as follows:

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Diploblastic
Animals in which the cells are arranged in two embryonic layers an external
ectoderm and an internal endoderm, are called diploblastic animals. In
addition, an undifferentiated layer, mesoglea is present in between the
ectoderm and the endoderm. e.g., Coelenterates.
Triploblastic
The animals in which the developing embryo has a third germinal layer
mesoderm, in between the ectoderm and endoderm are called triploblastic
animals, e.g., All animals from phylum-Platyhelminthes to phylum-Chordata.
Coelom
The body cavity (between the body wall and gut wall) which is lined by
mesoderm is called coelom. The presence or absence of coelom is very
important in classification. On the basis of coelom, animals can be classified in
three different groups.
Acoelomates
The animals in which the body cavity is absent are called acoelomates, e.g.,
Poriferans, platyhelminthes, coelenterates, ctenophors and flatworms.
Pseudocoelomates
In some animals, the body cavity is not lined by mesoderm. Instead, the mesoderm is
present as scattered pouches in between the ectoderm and endoderm. Such
a body cavity is called pseudocoelom and the animals possessing them are
called pseudocoelomates, e.g., Aschelminthes.
Coelomates
The animals having true coelom are called coelomates. A true coelom arises
within mesoderm and is therefore, lined by mesodermal tissues, i.e., externally by
parietal peritoneum and internally by visceral peritoneum.

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Body Plan
Animals have three types of body plans. These are:
Cell aggregate plan: The body consists of a cluster or aggregation of cells which
have rudimentary differentiation but are not organized into tissues or organs. The
cells are specialized, organised into tissues and show division of labour. It is found
in coelenterates and flatworms.
Blind sac body plan
A blind sac body plan is characterized by a digestive cavity that has a single
aperture, which functions as mouth and anus. The cells are specialized and they
have a division of labour. Digestion is both intracellular and extracellular.
Coelenterates are diploblastic animals and possess a blind sac body plan. The
body has a single aperture that functions as mouth and anus. The opening is
guarded by tentacles which helps to catch the prey. The digestion takes place
in the gastrovascular cavity.

Tube Within a Tube Body Plan

Overview of Tube Within A Tube Body Plan. Embryological development: Most of
the metazoans possess tubes within the tube body plan and it mainly relies on
the development of germ layers and the central cavity coelom.
Segmentation
In some animals, the body is externally and internally divided into segments or
somites with a serial repetition of at least some organs.
There are two types of segmentation:
Metameric Segmentation:

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 A segmentation that simultaneously divides body both externally and internally
is called metamerism or metameric segmentation. This kind of segmentation is
found in annelids, arthropods and chordates.
Pseudometamerism:
It is found in tapeworm, the body is divisible into parts or segments called
proglottides. They develop from the neck but are not embryonic in or T n r a
repetition which appears due to repeated budding as known as false
segmentation or pseudometamerism.
Notochord
It is a mesodermally derived rod-like structure formed on the dorsal side during
embryonic development in some animals.
Animals with notochord are called chordates and those animals which do not
form this structure are called non-chordates, e.g., Porifera to echinoderms.
Cephalisation

It is the differentiation of head in anterior part of the body. It involves the

concentration of nervous tissue and sense organs in the head.
Appendages
The projecting structures of the body that perform specific functions like
locomotion, capturing of food, sensation, etc., are called appendages, eg.,
Wings, fins, limbs, tentacles, parapodia, setae, etc.
Digestive System
Digestive tract is the passage through which food is taken for digestion,
absorption and egestion. The digestive tract that has a single opening for both
ingestion and egestion is called incomplete digestive tract, eg., in flatwprms and
coelenterates.
The digestive tract with two external openings, one for ingestion and other for
egestion is called complete digestive tract. It is present in aschelminthes and
higher animals.

Respiratory System
Respiration occurs in different ways in different animals:
 The tiny aquatic animals like Amoeba, Hydra, etc., respire through the body
surface. This is called body surface respiration.
 Larger aquatic animals have special organs called gills for respiration. This is
called branchial respiration, e.g., In prawns, fishes and mussels.
 The land animals respire through lungs. This is called pulmonary respiration. It
occurs in frogs, snails, lizards, birds, and mammals.
 Insects have tracheal respiration, which occurs through trachea i.e., an
intercommunicating tube through which gas exchange occurs.
 In animals like earthworm, leech, frogs etc., moist skin acts as respiratory
surface. This is called cutaneous respiration.

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  Scorpions have book lungs and king crabs have book gills for respiration.
 In frog, gas exchange also occurs through the lining of buccopharyngeal
cavity. Hence, called buccopharyngeal respiration.
 Frogs have three modes of respiration, i.e., Cutaneous, buccopharyngeal
and pulmonary.
Excretory System

1. Excretory system is involved in the removal of nitrogenous waste products

from the body of an organism with the help of excretory organs.
2. The excretion occurs in different ways in different organisms. Such as
3. The excretory organs are absent in those organisms where organization level
is below the tissue level. Here, each individual cell takes part in excretion.
4. In animals like sponges, coelenterates, all the cells are in contact with water.
Excretion occurs by general body surface.
5. In vertebrates, kidneys are the excretory organs.

Based on excretory products animals can be classified into four categories as given
below:

 Aminotelic, excretory product is amino acids, e.g., Starfish, Unio, etc.

 Ammonotelic, excretory product is ammonia, e.g., most invertebrates and
some molluscs.
 Ureotelic, excretory product is urea, e.g., Cartilaginous fishes, snail, prawn,
mammals and aquatic reptiles.
 Uricotelic, excretory product is uric acid, e.g., Insects, terrestrial
crustaceans, lizards, snakes, birds etc.
Nervous System

The nervous system is the aggregation of nerve cells that help in coordinating
and controlling various activities of the body.
Endocrine System

The endocrine glands are also called ductless glands. These secrete hormones.
Endocrine glands occur in all vertebrates and in someinvertebrates (like insects).

Sensory System

This system consists of specialized cells, tissues and organs which can pick up a
stimulus and transmit the same to the nervous system.
Sensory system consists of different structures in different organisms, e.g.,
Antennal (tactile and smell), tentacles (tactile), skin (tactile), statocyst

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 (balancing), ear (hearing), olfactory epithelium (smell), taste buds (taste), eyes
(vision), lateral line organs (current receptors), etc.

Skeletal System

Skeletal system is a hard, internal or external framework that provides support

and shape to the body. Some animals which are devoid of a skeleton have soft
body, e.g., Platyhelminthes, aschelminthes, annelida.

Skeleton system can be of following types:

Exoskeleton:
It is the hard supporting and protective framework present on exterior of the
body. It is made of non-living matter, e.g., External shells of molluscs, cuticle of
arthropods, scales of fishes and reptiles, feathers of birds, hair, hoofs, nails, horns
and claws of mammals.
Endoskeleton:
It is a hard supporting framework present in the interior of the body. In
invertebrates such as sponges, it is made up of calcareous or siliceous spicules. In
vertebrates, it is composed of hard living tissues called cartilages and bones.
Endoskeleton supports whole body of an organism.
Sex
Animals generally have sex organs to produce sexual reproduction. When both
male and female sex organs are found in some individual, it is called
hermaphrodite or bisexual or monoecious, e.g., Liver fluke, tapeworm,
earthworm, leech, etc.
The animals with either female or male sex organ is known as unisexual or
dioecious, e.g., Frog, lizards, birds, dog, etc. When male and female can be
distinguished on the basis of external features, the condition is called sexual
dimorphism, e.g., Lion and lioness, man and women, peacock and peahen, etc.
Reproduction
Reproduction in organisms can be either asexual or sexual.
Asexual Reproduction:
This kind of reproduction does not involve fusion of gametes. It is found in lower
animals like sponges, coelenterates, annelids, platyhelminthes. The common
methods are budding, fission, fragmentation and regeneration.
Sexual Reproduction:
It involves formation and fusion of gametes. The male gametes called sperms are
motile while, the female gametes called ova are generally non-motile.
Fertilization
External Fertilization:
Animals such as many invertebrates, some marine fishes and most amphibians,
shed both eggs and sperms into water, where fertilization and development

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 occur. This is called external fertilization.
Internal Fertilization:
In land animals and some aquatic animals, the sperms are introduced by the
male into reproductive tract of female during copulation. This is called internal
fertilization.
Fertilization occurs in the genital organs of the female.
Oviparous Animals
Egg-laying animals are called oviparous animals. In these animals’ fertilization is
internal, but embryonic development is external. In external embryonic
development, the embryo develops outside the female body. In these animals,
the females lay eggs, in which embryonic development takes place. The
developing embryo gets nutrition from the reserve food. This condition is called
oviparity. The young ones hatch out of eggs after full development.
Viviparous Animals
Animals that give birth to young ones are called viviparous animals. In these
animals both fertilization and embryonic development are internal. In internal
embryonic development, the embryo develops inside the female body. The
developing embryos get total nutrition and oxygen from the mother. This
condition is called matrotrophy. In these animals, the young ones are delivered
out of the female womb after full development.
Examples of viviparous animals are a few snakes and mammals except duckbill
platypus and echidna.
Non chordate
 They are cylindrical, triploblastic, coelomate, or pseudocoelomate
animals.
 Respiration in these animals takes place through gills, trachea or body
surface.
 Most of the times, sexes cannot be distinguished among the members.
 Modes of reproduction involve sexual and asexual Fertilization is external,
though internal fertilization also occurs in.
 The body of non-chordates generally includes an open type of circulatory
system.
Characteristic Features of Phylum Porifera:
1. They are generally marine aquatic organisms, with a few freshwater
species.
2. Their bodies are asymmetrical.
3. Body shape can be cylindrical, vase-like, rounded or sac-like.
4. They are diploblastic animals with two layers, the outer dermal layer and
the inner gastral layer. There is a gelatinous, non-cellular mesoglea, in
between these two layers.
5. The body has many pores called the ostia and a single large opening
called osculum at the top.

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Class Common Name of Some Sponges
Biological Name Common Name
Sycon Crown Sponge
Spongilla Freshwater Sponge
Euplectella Venus flower basket
Euspongia Bath Sponge
Cliona Boring Sponge
Pheronema Bowl Sponge
Haliclona Finger Sponge
Phylum Coetentcrata (Cnidana)
There are about 9000 species of cnidarians. The name Cnidaria (Knide nettle or
sting cells) is derived from the stinging cell or cnidoblasts present on the
ectoderm of tentacles and body of these animals.

Advancement Over Sponges

The cnidarians or coelenterates exhibit advancement over sponges, as they
possess a tissue level of organization of the body with well defined layers of cells
and a digestive cavity.
Phylum Ctenophora
Phylum-Ctenophora (Ketene comb; pores bearing) or comb jellies or sea walnuts
are exclusively marine forms. The term ‘Ctenophora’ was coined by Georges
Cuvier. It includes about 50 species.
General Features important general features ‘phylum Ctenophora are below:

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  Habitat and Habit These are of exclusively marine forms. They are found
solitary; pelagic or free swimming.
 Body Organization They are diploblastic, acoelomate with tissue grade of
organization. Body is soft, delicate, transparent and gelatinous, like jelly
fishes without segmentation.
 Body Symmetry They are biradially symmetrical. The arrangement of comb
plates gives the appearance of radial symmetry, the tentacles and
branching of gastrovascular canals show bilateral symmetry.
 Digestive System Digestion is both extra cellular and intracellular. Skeletal,
circulatory, respiratory and excretory systems are absent.

Phylum Platyhelminthes
Phylum Platyhelminthes (Platy flat; helminth worm) include flatworms. The group
include the first simplest triploblastic group of animals. Gegenbaur coined the
term ‘Platyhelminthes’. It includes about 12,000 species of animals. They have
leaf like or ribbon like body.
General Features:
Some important general features of phylum-Platyhelminthes are discussed below:
 Habit and Habitat Majority of forms are parasitic (tapeworms, liver flukes,
blood flukes), etc., and free-living forms (planarians). Hooks and suckers are
present in parasitic forms.
 Symmetry The body is bilaterally symmetrical with definite orientation like
anterior and posterior end.
 Cephalization Primitive cephalization is present in free-living flatworms.
 Germ Layers They are triploblastic.
 Body Cavity They are acoelomate. The space between the body wall and
body organ is filled by.

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Phylum Aschelminthes
Phylum Aschelminthes or Nemathelminthes or Nematoda (Nema thread;
helminth worms) includes roundworms. They are commonly called as
nematodes.
General Feature of Phylum Aschelminthes:
Some important general features of phylum- aschelminthes are discussed below:
 Habitat and Habit They are mostly free living and may occur in water or
within the soil. There are several parasitic species which live within the body
of animals or plants, e.g., Guinea worms, whipworms, eyeworms, etc.
 Symmetry They show bilateral symmetry and have organ system level of
organization.
 Germ Layers They are triploblastic animals and have tube within tube body
plan.
 Body Walt The body wall contains an outer cuticle, syncytial epidermis and
a muscle layer. Circular muscles are absent.
Advancement Over Flatworms
Aschelminthes show advancement over flatworms as they contain complete
alimentary canal and sexes are separate.
Disease Caused by Aschelminthes:
 Ascaris lumbricoides or giant intestinal roundworm is an endoparasite of the
small intestine of humans. It causes ascariasis.
 Wuchereria (filaria) or filarial worm is an endoparasite in the lymphatic
vessels and lymph nodes of humans. It causes elephantiasis in the legs, arms,
scrotum, etc.
 Ancyclostoma duodenale or hookworm is an endoparasite in the small
intestine of humans. It causes ancylostomiasis disease.
 Loa loa the eyeworm lives in subdermal connective tissue of man. It causes
loiasis disease characterised by subcutaneous smelling mosdy around the
eyes.

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Phylum Annelida
Phylum—Annelida (Annulus — ring; lidos — form) includes segmented worms. The
& term ‘Annelida’ was first coined by Lamarck (1809). It includes about 12,000
species of animals.
General Features of Phylum Annelida:
 Habit and Habitat They may be aquatic, terrestrial and free-living or
parasitic.
 Body Wall The outermost covering of body is thin and moist cuticle
secreted by the epidermis.
 Metamerism The body is divided into segments or metameres by ring like
grooves-the annuli. It is called metameric segmentation. The segmentation
is external as well as internal.
 Symmetry Annelids are bilaterally symmetrical.

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Phylum Arthropoda
Phylum-Arthropoda (Arthron – jointed; podos — foot) include the first and simplest
segmented animals. These are commonly called as jointed legged animals. It is
the largest group of animals that include about 1,000,000 insect species, 1,02,248
spiders and scorpion species, 1,03,248 arachnoid species and 47,000 crustacean
species representing about 80% of total known animal species.

Some important general features of phylum Arthropoda are discussed below:

 Habitat and Habit They may be aquatic or terrestrial. They may occur as
free-living or parasitic forms e.g., Bed bugs, ticks, mosquitoes, etc.
 Body Parts Body is segmented externally. It has distinct head, thorax and
abdomen. Head bears many fused segments and sense organs.
 Symmetry and Body Organization Arthropods are bilaterally symmetrical.
They are triploblastic with organ system level of organization.
 Appendages They have jointed, paired appendages, which are present in
some or all somite’s or segments. These perform various functions like
walking, clinging, jumping, feeding, etc.
Phylum Mollusca
The phylum—Mollusca (Molluscs — soft bodied) includes the soft bodied,
unsegmented, acoelomate animals. These are called molluscs or shelled
animals. Johnston (1650) coined. the term ‘Mollusca’. Mollusca is the second
largest animal phylum and includes about 85,000 species. The study of molluscs is
called ‘Malacology’.
Some important general features of phylum mollusca are discussed below:
 Habit and Habitat Molluscs are mostly of marine forms (Sepia, Octopus,
Chiton, etc.) Some are freshwater (e.g., Unio and Pila) and some are also
terrestrial forms (e.g., Land snails). Few molluscs are parasites also, e.g.,
Glochidium larva, etc.
 Symmetry These are generally bilaterally symmetrical and some are
asymmetrical due to torsion or twisting during growth.
 Germ Layers and Organization They are triploblastic and possess organ
system level of organization.
 Body Form They have unsegmented, soft body covered by a calcareous
shell, which is differentiated into head, muscular foot and visceral hump.

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Phylum Echinodermata
Phylum—Echinodermata (Echinos—spines; derma—skin) includes the spiny
skinned animals, which are exclusively marine. Jacob Klein (1734) coined the
term ‘Echinodermata’. It includes about 6,000 species.
Some important general features of phylum—Echinodermata are discussed below:
 Habit and Habitat These are marine forms and are bottom dwellers.
 Symmetry The adults have radial (pentamerous) symmetry but, the larval
forms have bilateral symmetry.
 Germ Layers and Organization They are triploblastic and exhibit organ
system grade of organization.
 Head It is absent in echinoderm and body also lacks segmentation.

Phylum Hemichordate
Hemichordate (Hemi – half; chordate- notochord) was earlier placed as a sub-
phylum under Phylum-Chordata. But, now it is considered as a separate phylum
under Non-chordate. These are also called half chordates. This phylum consists of
a small group of worm-like animal.
Some important general features of phylum—hemichordate are discussed below:
 Habit and Habitat They are exclusive marine and mostly live in burrows.
 Symmetry and Body Organization They are bilaterally symmetrical and

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 triploblastic. They have organ system level of organization.
 Body Form They are soft-bodied, cylindrical and unsegmented body is
divisible into proboscis, collar and trunk. The body cavity is true coelom. A
true notochord is absent.
 Digestive Systems Digestive system is complete.

The subphylum Vertebrata is further divided as follows:

Class Cyclostomata
 Cyclostomata are ectoparasites on some fishes.
 Elongated body & The presence of 6-15 pairs gills sites.
 Cyclostomes have a sucking and circular mouth without jaws.
 Scales on body and paired fins.

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  Circulation is of closed type.
 They are marine but migrate for spawning to fresh water.
Examples: Petromyzon (Lamprey) and Myxine (Hagfish).

Class – Chondrichthyes
 Marine and streamlined body endoskeleton is cartilaginous.
 The skin is tough ventrally mouth gills are separated.
 Heart is two-chambered one auricle and one ventricle.
 They are Cold blooded, Sexes are separate & having internal fertilization
many of them are viviparous.
Examples:Scoliodon (Dog fish), Pristis (Saw fish), Carcharodon (Great white shark),
Trygon (Sting ray).

Class – Osteichthyes
 Both marine and fresh water fishes with bony endoskeleton.
 Body is streamlined, terminal mouth, four pair of gills.
 Skin is covered with cycloid scales.
 Heart is two-chambered one auricle and one ventricle.
 cold-blooded animals, Sexes are separate, having external fertilization &
mostly oviparous and development is direct.
Examples: Marine – Exocoetus (Flying fish), Hippocampus (Sea horse); Freshwater –
Labeo (Rohu), Catla (Katla), Clarias (Magur); Aquarium – Betta (Fighting fish),
Pterophyllum (Angel fish).

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Class – Amphibia
 They can live in aquatic and terrestrial habitats, two pair of limbs.
 Body divide into head and trunk, tail may be present in some, skin is moist
without scales, A tympanum represents the ear.
 Alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive tracts open into a common
chamber called cloaca.
 Respiration by gills, lungs and through skin, heart is three chambered two
auricles and one ventricle.
 Cold blooded, Sexes are separate, fertilization is external oviparous and
development is indirect.
Examples: Bufo (Toad), Rana (Frog), Hyla (Tree frog), Salamandra (Salamander),
Ichthyophis (Limbless amphibia).

Class – Reptilia
 The mode of locomotion is creeping or crawling terrestrial animals body is
covered by dry skin, epidermal scales or scutes.
 Do not have external ear openings Tympanum represents ear, Limbs when
present is two paired, heart is three chambered but four chambered in
crocodiles.
 Snakes and lizard’s scales on skin, Sexes are separate. Fertilization is internal
oviparous and development is direct.

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Examples: Chelone (Turtle), Testudo (Tortoise), Chameleon (Tree lizard), Calotes
(Garden lizard), Crocodilus (Crocodile), Alligator (Alligator). Hemidactylus (Wall
lizard), Poisonous snakes – Naja (Cobra), Bangarus (Krait), Vipera (Viper).
Class – Aves
 Aves (birds) are the presence of feathers, They possess beak forelimbs are
modified into wings, hind limbs have scales and are modified for walking,
swimming or clasping.
 Endoskeleton is fully ossified (bony) and the long bones are hollow with air
cavities (pneumatic). digestive tract of birds has additional chambers crop
and gizzard.
 Heart is four chambered, warm-blooded respiration by lungs Sexes are
separate. Fertilization is internal. They are oviparous and development is
direct.
Examples: Corvus (Crow), Columba (Pigeon), Psittacula (Parrot), Struthio (Ostrich),
Pavo (Peacock), Aptenodytes (Penguin), Neophron (Vulture).
Class – Mammalia
 Presence of mammary glands milk producing glands by which young ones
is nourished, two pairs of limbs, Skin is hairy, External ears or pinnae are
present, Heart is four chambered, They are homoiothermous.
 Respiration is by lungs, Sexes are separate and fertilization is internal. They
are viviparous with few exceptions and development is direct.
 Examples: Oviparous-Ornithorhynchus (Platypus); Viviparous - Macropus
(Kangaroo), Pteropus (Flying fox), Camelus (Camel), Macaca (Monkey),
Rattus (Rat), Canis (Dog), Felis (Cat), Elephas (Elephant), Equus (Horse),
Delphinus (Common dolphin), Balaenoptera (Blue whale), Panthera tigris
(Tiger), Panthera leo (Lion).

NCERT LINE BY LINE QUESTIONS

BASIS OF CLASSIFICATION
1. Which of the following is a basic feature of all the organisms of Animalia? [Pg-46,E]
(a.) Multicellular structure
(b.) Sensory and neuromotor system

99
 (c.) Terrestrial habitat
(d.) Locomotion
2. Which of the following lack tissue grade organization? [Pg-46,E]
(a.) Metazoans
(b.) Eumetazoans
(c.) Parazoans
(d.) None of these
3. Match the columns. [Pg-46,47,M]

Column-I Column-II

(A) Organ level (1) Pheretima

(B) Cellular aggregate level (2) Fasciola

(C) Tissue level (3) Spongilla

(D) Organ system level (4) Obelia

Codes-
(A) (B) (C) (D)
A) 2 4 3 1
B) 2 3 4 1
C) 4 1 2 3
D) If both assertion and reason are false.
4. Choose the correct option [Pg-47,H]
(a.) Ctenophores and Platyhelminthes possess complete digestive system.
(b.) Aschelminthes to chordates, all possess organ system level of organization along
with complete digestive system.
(c.) Coelenterates and Aschelminthes possess organ system level of organization along
with complete digestive system.
(d.) Poriferans may possess complete digestive system.
5. The entry of food and exit of waste takes place from separate openings in[Pg-47,M]
(a.) organisms having incomplete digestive system
(b.) coelenterates, ctenophores and Platyhelminthes
(c.) organisms having complete digestive system
(d.) organisms having cellular level of organization
6. Which of the following is incorrect? [Pg47,M]
(a.) Some division of labour (activities) occur among the cells in the members of phylum
porifera.
(b.) Division of labour (activities) is completely absent among the cells in poriferans.
(c.) Open circulatory system is found in Tunicates, hemichordates, and
noncephalopodmolluscs.
(d.) All of these
7. Choose the incorrect option. [Pg-47,M]
(a.) Complete digestive system - Two openings, mouth and anus

100
 (b.) Incomplete digestive system - Single opening system
(c.) Open circulatory system - Blood is circulated through tubes
(d.) Closed circulatory system - Arteries veins and capillaries present
8. Choose the correct body symmetry shown in the diagram.

(a.) A – Radial, B – Bilateral

(b.) A – Bilateral, B – Pentamerous
(c.) A – Radial, B – Pentamerous
(d.) A – Bilateral, B – Radial
9. The diagram below shows the diploblastic and triploblastic germ layers in the animals.
Identify the correct option in which they are found.

(a.) A – Radial, B – Bilateral

(b.) A – Bilateral, B – Pentamerous
(c.) A – Radial, B – Pentamerous
(d.) A – Bilateral, B – Radial
10. Choose the true statement: [Pg-47,M]
(a.) Animals like annelids, arthropods, Aschelminthes, molluscs, hemichordates and
chordates possess bilateral symmetry.
(b.) Most of the animals possess bilateral symmetry.
(c.) Platyhelminthes was the first phylum during evolution to exhibit bilateral symmetry.
(d.) All of these

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11. Study the types of animals with respect to the presence or absence of body cavities:

[Pg-47,M]
(a.) A – Molluscs, B – Chordates
(b.) A – Annelida, B – Porifera
(c.) A – Coelenterates, B – Platyhelminthes
(d.) A – Molluscs, B – Porifera
12. Which of the following option is wrong? [Pg-47,M]
(a.) Coelenterates and ctenophores are diploblastic.
(b.) Animals from Platyhelminthes to chordates are triploblastic.
(c.) Radially symmetric animals remain attached to a surface by their aboral surface.
(d.) Mesoglea is an undifferentiated layer which do not form any tissue or organ.
13. Choose the incorrect match [Pg-47,M]
(a.) Tube-within-tube body plan: Nemathelminthes, Annelida, Arthropoda, Mollusca,
Echinodermata, Chordata
(b.) Cell-aggregate type body plan: Coelenterates
(c.) Blind-sac type body plan: Platyhelminthes and coelenterates
(d.) None of these
14. Which of the following is/are the function of coelom? [Pg-48,H]
(a.) Absorb shock or provide hydrostatic skeleton
(b.) Support shock or provide hydrostatic skeleton
(c.) Allow muscles to grow independently of the body wall
(d.) All of these
15. The diagram below shows the diploblastic and triploblastic germ layers in the animals.
Identify the correct option in which they are found.

(a.) A – Molluscs, B – Chordates

(b.) A – Annelida, B – Porifera
(c.) A – Coelenterates, B – Platyhelminthes
(d.) Molluscs, B – Porifera

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16. Choose the incorrect option [Pg-48,H]
(a.) True coelom is a body cavity which arises as a cavity in the embryonic mesoderm.
(b.) Digestive cavity is found in acoelomates, pseudocoelomates as well as
coelomates.
(c.) The body cavity of arthropods and non- cephalopod molluscs is called hoemocoel.
(d.) There is no cavity between the body wall and gut wall in echinoderms.
17. Metamerism is present in [Pg-47,M]
(a.) annelids
(b.) arthropods
(c.) chordates
(d.) all of these
18. Choose the incorrect match: [Pg-47,M]
(a.) Coelenterates – Radial symmetry
(b.) Molluscs – Radial symmetry in adults
(c.) Platyhelminthes – Triploblastic
(d.) Ctenophores – Triploblastic
19. Choose the correct label for A, B, C and D in the broad Classification of Kingdom
Animalia based on common fundamental features as given below.

A B C D

A) Bilateral Porifera Ctenophora Coelomat e

B) Radial Porifera Ctenophora Acoeloma te

C) Bilateral Porifera Ctenophora Coelomat e

D) Radial Ctenophora Porifera Acoeloma te

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20. Choose the incorrect statement.
(I) Notochord is ectodermally derived rod-like structure.
(II) Notochord is formed on the dorsal side during embryonic development.
(III) The animals from porifera to Echinoderms are without notochord.
(IV) In some chordates, notochord is replaced by the vertebral column and these
chordates are called vertebrates. [Pg-48,M]
(a.) I and II (b.) I, II, and III
(c.) II, III and IV (d.) I only
21. Identify the correct labels A and B.

Notochord Nerve Cord

A Part of nervous system

Found in chordates only Found in chordates as well as non- chordates
Dorsal side in chordates B

A) A= Exoskeleton, B= Dorsal in chordates as well as in non-chordates

B) A= Endoskeleton; B= Ventral in chordates as well as in non-chordates
C) A= Exoskeleton; B= Ventral in chordates and dorsal innonchordates
D) A= Endoskeleton; B= Dorsal in chordates and ventral in nonchordates
22. True coelom appear in which of the following during evolution? [Pg-48,E]
(a.) Echinodermata (b.) Annelida
(c.) Platyhelminthes (d.) Aschelminthes
23. The layer absent in the embryos of diploblastic animals is [Pg-47,E]
(a.) ectoderm (b.) endoderm (c.) mesoderm (d.) mesoglea
24. Nerve cells and tissue level of organization first appeared in [Pg-46,E]
(a.) coelenterates (b.) ctenophora (c.) chordate (d.) porifera
25. In some animal groups, the body is found divided into compartments with at least some
organs. This characteristic feature is called [Pg-48,E]
(a.) segmentation (b.) metamerism (c.) metagenesis (d.) metamorphosis
26. Body cavity is the cavity present between body wall and gut wall. In some animals the
body cavity is not lined by mesoderm. Such animals are called [Pg-48,E]
(a.) acoelomate (b.) pseudocoelomate
(c.) coelomate (d.) haemocoelomate
27. Match the following Columns

Column-I (Phylum) Column-II (Characteristic Features)

(A) Porifera (1) Canal system

(B) Aschelminthes (2) Water vascular system

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 (C) Annelida (3) Muscular pharynx

(D) Arthropoda (4) Joined appendages

(E) Echinodermata (5) Metameres

Select the correct option

(A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
A) 1 3 5 4 2
B) 1 2 3 4 5
C) 5 4 3 2 1
D) 4 3 1 2 5
28. Which of the following animals are true coelomates with bilateral symmetry? [Pg47,E]
(a.) Adult echinoderms (b.) Aschelminthes
(c.) Platyhelminthes (d.) Annelids
29. Assertion: The primary character of chordates is the presence of dorsal hollow nerve
cord. [Pg-48,H]
Reason: Vertebral column is derived from the notochord.
(a.) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b.) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c.) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d.) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
30. Assertion: Animals with radial symmetry has more advantage in detecting food and
danger. Reason: It allows animal to be able to respond to stimulus from any direction.
[Pg-47,H]
(a.) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b.) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c.) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d.) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
31. Assertion: Aschelminthes represent pseudocoelomates. Reason: In aschelminthes,
mesoderm is present as scattered pouches in between ectoderm and endoderm. [Pg-
48,H]
(a.) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b.) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c.) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d.) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
PORIFERA
32. Sponges are [Pg-49,E]
(a.) with water canal system (b.) sexually reproducing by formation of
gametes
(c.) both (a) and (b) (d.) sessile or free-swimming

33. In case of poriferans, the spongocoel is lined with flagellated cells called [Pg49,E]
(a.) ostia (b.) oscula (c.) choanocytes (d.) mesenchymal cells

105
34. Body having meshwork of cells, internal cavities lined with food filtering flagellated cells
and indirect development are the characteristics of phylum [Pg49,E]
(a.) coelenterate (b.) porifera (c.) Mollusca (d.) protozoa

35. In most simple type of canal system of porifera, water flows through which one of the
following ways? [Pg-49,M]
(a.) Ostia → Spongocoel → Osculum → Exterior
(b.) Spongocoel → Ostia → Osculum → Exterior
(c.) Osculum → Spongocoel → Ostia → Exterior
(d.) Osculum → Ostia → Spongocoel → Exterior

36. Examine the figures A, B, and C.

In which one of the four options all the animals (Poriferans) are correct?
(a.) A - Sycon, B - Euspongia, C - Spongilla
(b.) A - Euspongia, B - Spongilla, C - Sycon
(c.) A - Spongilla, B - Sycon, C - Euspongia
(d.) A - Euspongia, B - Sycon, C – Spongilla
37. Which of the following is a freshwater sponge? [Pg-50,E]
(a.) Euspongia (b.) Euplectella (c.) Spongilla (d.) Sycon
38. In poriferans, the rudimentary division of labour is found between the [Pg-49,E]
(a.) tissue (b.) cells (c.) organs (d.) organ-system
39. Which of the following is not a characteristic of class Porifera? [Pg49,M]
(I) Development is indirect (larval stage is present).
(II) Mostly asymmetrical and usually marine
(III) Primitive multicellular animals with cellular level of organization.
(IV) Choanocytes line the spongocoel and the canals. (V) Sexes are separate
(a.) I and IV (b.) II only (c.) V only (d.) III and IV
40. Choose the correct characteristic for sponges. [Pg-49,M]
(a.) They are highly regenerative
(b.) They are universally radially symmetrical
(c.) The contain clarions spicules but lack the siliceous one
(d.) They are found only in fresh water

106
 COELENTERATA
41. Cnidocytes are [Pg-50,H]
(a.) also called cnidoblast or nematocyte
(b.) explosive cells each of which contain giant secretory organelle called nematocyst
(c.) stinging cells
(d.) with all the above features
42. Consider the following statements about cnidarians: [Pg-50,H]
(I) They have tissue level of organization and triploblastic.
(II) Digestion is extracellular and intracellular.
(III) Corals secrete calcium bicarbonate form a skeleton.
(IV) Corals may harbour some photosynthetic dinoflagellates for taking nutrition.
(V) They possess a central gastrovascular cavity with a single opening mouth in
hypostome.
(a.) Statements I and III are correct
(b.) Statements II, IV and V are correct
(c.) Statements I, II and III are correct
(d.) Statements III and IV are incorrect
43. Here two basic body forms of cnidarians are given.

(a.) A and B are false swimming forms

(b.) A and B are sessile form
(c.) A produce B asexually and B form the ‘A’ sexually
(d.) B produce A sexually and A form the ‘B’ sexually
44. Match the columns.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Gorgonia (1) Sea fan
(B) Adamsia (2) Sea pen
Portuguese
(C) Physalia (3) man of
war

Sea
(D) Pennatula (4) anemon
e

Select the correct option

(A) (B) (C) (D)
A) 1 3 4 2

107
 B) 1 2 3 4
C) 4 3 2 1
D) 3 4 1 2
45. ‘Stinging capsules’ or nematocytes are found in [Pg-50,E]
(a.) sea anemone (b.) sea pen (c.) sea fan (d.) all of these
46. Assertion: Choanocytes or collar cells line the spongocoel and the canals in poriferans.
Reason: Poriferans possess spicules or spongin fibers. [Pg-49,H]
(a.) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b.) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c.) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d.) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

CTENOPHORA
47. Ctenophores [Pg-51,E]
(a.) perform external fertilization
(b.) have indirect development
(c.) both (a) and (b)
(d.) have separate sexes
48. Identify the correct option specifying the names of the animals A, B, C and D.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

A) Pleurobranchia Tapeworm Taenia Aurelia
B) Fasciola Tapeworm Liverfluke Aurelia
C) Pleurobranchia Roundworm Taenia Adamsia
D) Fasciola Roundworm Liverfluke Adamsia
PLATYHELMINTHES
49. In tapeworms [Pg-51,M]
(a.) flame cells are absent
(b.) both exoskeleton and endoskeleton present
(c.) hooks and suckers present
(d.) body is radially symmetrical
50. Which of the following is not a Platyhelminthes [Pg-51,E]
(a.) Wuchereria (b.) Taenia (c.) Faxiola (d.) Planaria
51. Ascaris is characterized by [Pg-52,M]
(a.) the absence of true coelom but presence of metamerism
(b.) the presence of neither true coelom nor metamerism

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 (c.) the presence of true coelom but the absence of metamerism
(d.) the presence of true coelom and metamerism
52. Which of the option is correct for the statements given below. [Pg-51,E]
(I) Commonly called sea walnuts or comb jellies.
(II) Bioluminescence is well marked.
(III) Body bear eight external rows of ciliated comb plates. (IV) They have flame cells for
osmoregulation and excretion.
(V) Alimentary canal is complete with a well-developed muscular pharynx.
Ctenophores Platyhelminthes Aschelminthes
A) I, II, III IV V
B) IV I, II III, V
C) I, II III, IV V
D) IV, V II, III I
53. Phylum Platyhelminthes members are [Pg-51,M]
(a.) dorsoventrally flattened, thus called flatworms
(b.) bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and acoelomates
(c.) with organ system level of organization
(d.) with all the above features
54. Assertion: Taenia Solium and Dugesia belong to Platyhelminthes. [Pg-51,H]
Reason: Platyhelminthes are coelomates.
(a.) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b.) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c.) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d.) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
55. Assertion: The organisms of Platyhelminthes are usually hermaphrodite. Reason: These
organisms possess internal as well as external fertilization. [Pg-51,H]
(a.) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b.) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c.) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d.) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
ASCHELMINTHES
56. Consider the following statements about aschelminthes: [Pg-52,E]
(I) Their body is circular in crosssection, so are called round worms.
(II) Alimentary canal is incomplete
(III) Muscular pharynx is present
(IV) They are hermaphrodites Which of the following is correct?
(a.) I and III (b.) II and IV
(c.) I, II and IV (d.) IV only
57. Choose the incorrect option. [Pg50,51,52,M]
(a.) Mesoglea is present in between ectoderm and endoderm in Obelia.
(b.) Asterias exhibits radial symmetry.

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 (c.) Fasciola is pseudocoelomate animal.
(d.) Taenia is a triploblastic animal
58. Out of the given cells, which of them can differentiate and perform different functions?
[Pg-52,M]
(a.) Choanocytes (b.) Interstitial cells
(c.) Gastrodermal cells (d.) Nematocysts
59. Blood sucking leech is [Pg-52,E]
(a.) Nereis (b.) Hirudinaria (c.) Pheretima (d.) All of these
60. Which one of the following endoparasites of humans does show viviparity? [Pg52,E]
(a.) Ancylostoma duodenale (b.) Enterobius spiralis
(c.) Trichinella spiralis (d.) Ascaris lumbricoides
61. Assertion: Aschelminthes and Annelids possess bilateral symmetry. [Pg-52,M]
Reason: Both Aschelminthes and Annelids are coelomates.
(a.) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b.) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c.) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d.) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
ANNELIDA
62. Which of the following animals are true coelomates with bilateral symmetry? [Pg52,E]
(a.) Adult echinoderms (b.) Aschelminthes
(c.) Platyhelminthes (d.) Annelids
63. The name ‘Annelida’ is given to animal phylum having [Pg-52,E]
(a.) parapodia (b.) metameric segments
(c.) nephridia (d.) all of these
64. In Annelids [Pg-52,M]
(a.) neural system consists of paired ganglia connected by lateral nerves to a double
ventral nerve cord
(b.) reproduction occur both asexually and sexually
(c.) like Nereis, Pheretima and Hirudinaria have monoecious condition
(d.) Aquatic forms are completely absent.
65. Match the columns

Column-I Column-II

(A) Gills (1) King crab

(B) Tracheal system (2) Crab, prawn

(C) Book gills (3) Butterfly, cockroach

(D) Book lungs (4) Scorpion, spider

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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 A) 1 2 3 4
B) 2 3 1 4
C) 4 3 2 1
D) 3 1 4 2
66. Choose the incorrect statement.
(a.) In cockroaches and prawns, excretion of waste material occurs through
malphigian tubules. [Pg55,M]
(b.) In ctenophores, locomotion is mediated by comb plates. [Pg-51]
(c.) In fasciola, flame cells take part in excretion. [Pg-51]
(d.) Earthworms are hermaphrodites and yet cross fertilization takes place among them.
[Pg-52]
67. Consider the following statements: [Pg52,M]
(I) Triploblastic, bilateral symmetry
(II) Metamerically segmental and coelomate animals
(III) Dioecious
(IV) Closed circulatory system
(V) Lateral appendages
(VI) Annelida

Which of the following information’s belongs to the given animal.

(a.) I, II, IV, VI (b.) I, III, IV, V (c.) II, III, IV, V (d.) III, IV, V, VI
ARTHROPODA
68. Choose the incorrect set with respect to arthropods. [Pg-53,M]
(a.) Limulus, locusta, culex (b.) Bombyx, Apis, lacifer
(c.) Pinctada, Aplysia, Dentalium (d.) Aedes, Anopheles, Apis
69. Balancing organ of aquatic arthropods is [Pg-53,E]
(a.) Cnidoblasts (b.) choanocytes
(c.) scleroblasts (d.) statocysts
70. Which one of the following features is not present in the phylum-Arthropods? [Pg53,E]
(a.) Metameric segmentation (b.) Parapodia
(c.) Jointed appendages (d.) Chitinous exoskeleton
71. Which one of the following characteristics is mainly responsible for diversification of
insects on land? [Pg53,E]
(a.) Segmentation (b.) Bilateral symmetry
(c.) Exoskeleton (d.) Eyes
72. Which of the following statement is correct? [Pg-53,E]
(a.) Insect hemolymph has no role in oxygen transport in most cases.
(b.) Insects hemolymph is mostly colourless.

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 (c.) Both(a.) and(b.)
(d.) None of these
73. Consider the following statements aboutArthropods. [Pg-53,M]

(I) Open circulatory system is found in most arthropods.

(II) Arthropods contain Haemolymph which directly bathes in internal tissues and
organs.
(a.) I is true but II is false (b.) I is false but II is true
(c.) Both I and II are true (d.) Both I and II are false
74. Moulting [Pg-53,E]
(a.) is also called ecdysis
(b.) occurs to shed chitin at regular intervals by many arthropods
(c.) is the shedding of cuticle in many invertebrates
(d.) all of these
75. Maggot is the larva of [Pg-53,E]
(a.) housefly (b.) crab (c.) moth (d.) butterfly
MOLLUSCA
76. Choose the incorrect statement for phylum Mollusca. [Pg-53,H]
(a.) Body is covered by a calcareous shell and unsegmented.
(b.) Feather like gills present for excretion and respiration.
(c.) The anterior head region has sensory tentacles.
(d.) Mostly terrestrial, triploblastic and acoelomates.
77. Choose the correct names for the following.

A B C D

(a) Scorpion Prawn Loligo Asterias

(b) Scorpion Prawn Octopus Ophiura

(c) Locust Butterfly Loligo Asterias

(d) Locust Prawn Squid Ophiura

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78. Assertion: In many gastropods, the arms and the mental cavity are placed anteriorly
above the head. Reason: During embryonic development in many gastropods, one
side of the visceral mass grows faster than the other side. This uneven growth rotates the
visceral organs up to 180° in many gastropods. [Pg-53,H]
(a.) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b.) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c.) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d.) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

79. Assertion: In molluscs, feathers like gills are present in the mantle cavity. Reason: These
gills have respiration and excretory function. [Pg-53,H]
(a.) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b.) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c.) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d.) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

80. Which of the following statements represents the incorrect feature of Echinodermata?
[Pg-54,M]
(a.) They are triploblastic and coelomate animals.
(b.) All are marine with cellular level of organization.
(c.) Endoskeleton of calcareous ossicle.
(d.) None of these

81. Which of the following is the feature of water vascular system in Echinoderms? [Pg-54,E]
(a.) Locomotion (b.) Respiration
(c.) Capture and transport of food (d.) All of these

82. Choose the correct statement for star fish. [Pg-54,M] (I) Sexes are separate and
reproduction is sexual (II) Development is indirect with freeswimming larva (III) Mouth is
present on the upper (dorsal) side and anus on the lower (ventral) side. (IV) Their body
bear jaw-like structure which is called oral arms.
(a.) I and III (b.) I, II and IV
(c.) I, II and III (d.) III and IV

83. Which one for the following animals does not undergo metamorphosis? [Pg-54,E]
(a.) Moth (b.) Tunicate
(c.) Earthworm (d.) Starfish

84. Choose the correct statement for the following animals.

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 (a.) All the animals are aquatic, free living
(b.) All are true coelomates
(c.) ‘A’ has radial symmetry but remaining have bilateral symmetry
(d.) ‘A’ is monoecious but remaining are dioecious

85. Which of the following is incorrect statement for Hemichordata? [Pg-54,M]

(a.) They are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and coelomate.
(b.) Circulation is of open type.
(c.) Sexes are separate, fertilization is external and development is indirect.
(d.) None of these

86. Select the feature which is/are not present in Hemichordates. [Pg-54,E]
(a.) Stomochord
(b.) Worm-like body
(c.) Gills
(d.) All of these

87. The correct classification of given animal is [Pg-54,E]

(a.) Chordata – Vertebrata – Craniata
(b.) Chordata – Craniata
(c.) Chordata – Acraniata
(d.) Non- chordata – Hemichordata

88. The body of Balanoglossus is divisible into [Pg-54,E]

(a.) proboscis, tunic and trunk
(b.) collar, trunk and tunic
(c.) proboscis, collar and trunk
(d.) proboscis, stomochord and trunk

89. An important characteristics that hemichordates share with chordates is[Pg-54,E]

(a.) absence of notochord
(b.) ventral tubular nerve cord
(c.) pharynx with gill slits
(d.) pharynx without gill slits

CHORDATA

90. Which of the following is not found in the phylum chordate [Pg-55,M]
(a.) A dorsal hollow nerve chord
(b.) Lateral paired gill slits during development
(c.) A notochord at some stage of development
(d.) An external skeleton

91. Animals belonging to phylum-chordata are fundamentally characterized by the

presence of structure noted as A, B, C and D. Identify A, B, C and D.

114
 (a.) A - Notochord, B - Nerve cord, C - Gill slits, D - post anal part
(b.) A - Nerve cord, B - Notochord, C - Gill slits, D - Post anal part
(c.) A - Nerve cord, B - Notochord, C - Post anal part, D - Gill Slits
(d.) A - nerve cord, B - Gill slits, C - Notochord, D - post anal part
92. Choose the incorrect vertebrate character. [Pg-55,E]
(a.) Ventral muscular heart
(b.) Kidneys for excretion and osmoregulation
(c.) Paired appendages which may be fins or limbs
(d.) None of these
93. The following flow chart for division of sub phylum vertebrata fill in the parts A, B, C and
D and choose the correct option.

A B C

A) Ostracodermi Pisces Tetrapoda

B) Cyclostomata Pisces Tetrapoda

C) Ostracodermi Cyclostomata Pisces

D) Pisces Tetrapoda Cyclostomata

94. Select the correct difference between the notochord in the following:

Urochordata Cephalochordata

A) Present only in larval tail Extend from head to tail throughout life

115
B) present only in adult Present only in larval tail

C) Persistent throughout their life Present only in adult

D) Extend from head to tail throughout life Present only in larval tail

95. Consider the following statements. [Pg56,M]

(I) Lancelets are jawless, primitive fishlike vertebrates.
(II) In lancelets notochord, tubular nerve cord and pharyngeal gills slits are present
throughout their life.
(a.) I is true, but II is false
(b.) I is false, but II is true
(c.) Both I and II are true
(d.) Both I and II are false

96. Which of the following represents the correct combination without any exception?

Characteristic Class

Mammary gland; hair on body; pinnae; two pairs of

A) Mammalia
limbs

Mouth ventral; gills without operculum skin with

B) placoid Chondrichthyes
scales; persistent notochord

Sucking and circular mouth, jaws absent

C) integument Cyclostomata
without scales; paired appendages

Body covered with feathers; skin moist and

D) glandular; lungs with
Aves
air sacs forelimbs from wings

97. Among the following edible fishes, which one is a marine fish having rich source of
omega-3 fatty acids? [Pg-57,E]
(a.) Mystus (b.) Mangur (c.) Mrigala (d.) Mackerel
98. Which one is not cartilaginous fish? [Pg57,E]
(a.) Carcharoden (great white shark), Trygon (sting ray)
(b.) Exocoetus (flying fish), catla (katla), clarias (Mangur)
(c.) Scolidon (dog fish)
(d.) Pristis (saw fish)

116
99. Following are few examples of bony fishes. Choose the odd one out as marine bony
fish. [Pg-57,E]
(a.) Flying fish (b.) Hippocampus (sea horse)
(c.) Both (a) and (b) (d.) Labeo (rohu), catla, clarias
100. Which of the following is not a characteristic of class chondrichthyes? [Pg-56,M]
(a.) Gill slits are separated and without operculum.
(b.) Predaceons with powerful jaws.
(c.) Notochord is persistent throughout life.
(d.) Airbladder present.
101. Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding
group of animals? [Pg-56- 59,H]
(a.) Viviparous Mammalia
(b.) Possess a mouth with an upper and a lower jaw Chordata
(c.) Three-chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle Reptilia
(d.) Cartilaginous endoskeleton Chondrichthyes
102. Bony fishes are [Pg-57,E]
(a.) having external fertilization (b.) mostly oviparous
(c.) with direct development (d.) all of these
103. Bony fishes stay at any particular depth in water without spending energy due to [Pg-
57,E]
(a.) Operculum (b.) Neuromuscles (c.) Pneumatic bones (d.) Swim bladder
104. Choose the incorrect statement? [Pg56,M]
(a.) Both cartilaginous and bony fishes are dioecious
(b.) Cartilaginous fishes show sexual dimorphism
(c.) Male cartilaginous fish have claspers
(d.) Female cartilaginous fish have claspers
105. Choose the correct option for the given figures.

(a.) Animal A is salamandra and B is chameleon.

(b.) Both A and B belongs to class Reptilia.
(c.) Fertilization is external in both.
(d.) Animal A has 2-chambered heart and B has 3-chambered heart.
106. Choose the incorrect option for the following animal.

117
 (a.) Cloaca present
(b.) Dioecious, external fertilization, oviparous, indirect development
(c.) Body divisible into head and trunk
(d.) Eyes are without eyelids.
107. Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm? [Pg-57,58,E]
(a.) Camelus (b.) Chelone (c.) Macropus (d.) Psittacula
108. Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterized by crop and gizzard in its
digestive system. [Pg-58,E]
(a.) Aves (b.) Reptilia (c.) Amphibia (d.) Osteichthyes
109. Which among these is the correct combination of aquatic mammals? [Pg56,57,M]
(a.) Seals, dolphin, sharks (b.) Dolphins, seals, trygon
(c.) Whales, dolphins, seals (d.) Trygon, whales, seals
110. Which one of the following characteristic is not shared by birds and mammals? [Pg-
58,59,E]
(a.) Breathing using lungs (b.) Viviparity
(c.) Warm-blooded nature (d.) Ossified endoskeleton
111. Which of the following animals is not viviparous? [Pg-59,E]
(a.) Flying fox (bat) (b.) Elephant
(c.) Platypus (d.) Whale
112. Choose the correct option having animals with four chambered heart? [Pg58,59,E]
(a.) Amphibian, reptiles, birds (b.) Crocodiles, birds, mammals
(c.) Lizards, crocodiles, turtles (d.) Lizards, mammals, birds
113. The animal pair with non-glandular skin are [Pg-58,E]
(a.) snake and frog (b.) crocodile and tiger
(c.) frog and pigeon (d.) chameleon and turtle
114. Which of the following characteristic is shared by both birds and mammals? [Pg-
58,59,M]
(a.) Pigmented skin (b.) Pneumatic bones
(c.) Viviparity (d.) Warm-blooded body
115. Which of the following sets of animals belongs to a single Taxonomic group? [Pg-59,E]
(a.) Man, monkey, chimpanzee
(b.) Cuttlefish, jellyfish, silver fish, dog fish, starfish
(c.) Bat, pigeon, butterfly
(d.) Silkworm, tapeworm, earthworm
116. Match the following columns.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Cyclostomes (1) Hemichordata

118
 (B) Aves (2) Urochoradata

(C) Tunicates (3) Agnatha

(D) Balanoglossus (4) Pisces

(E) Osteichthyes (5) Tetrapod

Codes

A B C D E
A)1 2 3 4 5
B) 2 3 4 1 5
C) 3 5 2 1 4
D) 3 1 5 2 4

117. Which of the following is incorrect for Petromyzon? [Pg-56,M]

(a.) Cranium and vertebral column are cartilaginous
(b.) They are freshwater organisms but migrate for spawning to sea water
(c.) After spawning within few days, they die
(d.) Their larvae, after metamorphosis, return to ocean
118. Match the name of the animal in Column I with one characteristic in Column II and the
phylum/class in column III to which it belongs.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(a) Petromyzon Ectoparasite Cyclostomata

(b) Ichthyophis Terrestrial Reptilia

(c) Limulus Body covered by chitinous exoskeleton Pisces

(d) Adamsia Radially symmetrical Porifera

119. Choose the incorrect subphylum of PhylumChordata [Pg-55,E]

(a.) Hemichordata (b.) Vertebrata (c.) Cephalochordata (d.) Urochordata
120. Protochordates [Pg-55,E]
(a.) include Urochordata and cephalochordate (b.) are exclusively marine
(c.) have notochord throughout life (d.) All of these
121. Choose the incorrect option for chordates. [Pg-54,E]
(a.) Paired pharyngeal gill slits (b.) Coelomate diploblastic
(c.) Post anal tail (d.) Closed circulatory system
122. Choose the correct option for the animals shown below.

119
 (a.) The organism belongs to cephalochordate and genus Ascidia.
(b.) Circulatory system is open type.
(c.) Development is always direct.
(d.) Fresh water dwelling.
123. The skin of amphibians[Pg-57,E]
(a.) can be smooth or rough (b.) are usually with Scales
(c.) possess eutaneous glands (d.) both (a) and (b)
124. In amphibians [Pg-57,E]
(a.) mole copulatory organs are absent (b.) metamorphosis is usually absent
(c.) tadpole stage is universally present (d.) cranial nerves are absent
125. Read the following statements. [Pg57,58,H]
(I) Retention of larval trait is called neoteny.
(II) The largest amphibian is Cryptobrances.
(III)Seymousia is a connecting link between amphibian and reptiles.
(IV) Larva of Ambystoma is called axolotl.
(V) Axolotls are amphibians formed without undergoing metamorphosis. Choose the
correct statement
(a.) I and IV (b.) II and III (c.) I, II and III (d.) I, II, III and IV
126. Match the columns.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Chameleon (1) Tortoise

(B) Testudo (2) Tree lizard

(C) Calotes (3) Garden lizard

(D) Chelone (4) Turtle

A B C D
A) 1 2 3 4
B) 4 3 2 1
C) 2 1 3 4
D) 3 1 4 2

120
127. Choose the incorrect statement for class Reptilia. [Pg-58,M]
(a.) Sexes are separate.
(b.) Kidneys are metanephric.
(c.) Limbs are always present and are two pairs.
(d.) Possess creeping or crawling mode of locomotion.
128. Birds [Pg-58,E]
(a.) are poikilotherms (b.) have respiration performed only by the
air sacs
(c.) are bipeds (d.) endoskeleton is ossified partially
129. Find the incorrect match [Pg-58,59,M]
(a.) Crow – Corvus (b.) Pigeon – Columba
(c.) Parrot – Psittacula (d.) Penguin – Pavo
130. Which of the following is incorrect? [Pg58,M]
(a.) Aves possess poor olfactory system.
(b.) Aves are partially homeotherms.
(c.) Aves bones are hollow with air cavities.
(d.) Aves have sexes separate, fertilization is internal, oviparous with direct
development.
131. Syrinx present in birds [Pg-58,E]
(a.) helps in producing sound
(b.) lie near the junction of trachea and bronchi
(c.) both(a.) and(b.)
(d.) helps in excretion of urea
132. The most unique mammalia character is [Pg-58,E]
(a.) the presence of two pairs of limbs
(b.) reproducing young ones
(c.) the presence of mammary glands
(d.) the presence of skin
133. The skin of the mammals is unique in possessing [Pg-59,E]
(a.) glands (b.) epidermal layer
(c.) hair (d.) both(a.) and(c.)
134. Heart is always four chambered in[Pg59,E]
(a.) mammals (b.) aves
(c.) reptiles (d.) both (a) and (b)
135. Choose the correct statements from the following: [Pg-59,M]
(a.) Mammals, birds, reptiles and amphibians possess 12 pairs of cranial nerves.
(b.) In aquatic mammalian males, testes lie outside the body cavity in scrotal sacs
(c.) The neck of mammals generally possess 5 cervical vertebrae
(d.) Archeopteryx is a fossil animal.
136. Choose the odd one out. [Pg-60,M]
(a.) Prototheria – Ornithorlynchus (b.) Marsupilia – Macropus
(c.) Metatheria – Maceaea (d.) Eutheria – Homo
137. Choose the correct option for A, B, C and D.

121
 Prototherians Metatherians Eutherians
A Viviparous Viviparous
Nipples absent on
B Nipples present
mammary glands
Vagina and uterus Vagina and uterus
C
present present

Ear is devoid of pinna Pinna is present D

Scrotum absent Scrotum present Scrotum present

A) A = Oviparous
B = Nipples present
C = Vagina and uterus absent
D = Pinna is absent in aquatic forms
B) A = Oviparous
B = Nipples present
C = Vagina and uterus absent
D =Pinna is universally forms
C) A = Viviparous
B = Nipples present
C = Vagina and uterus absent
D = Pinna is absent in aquatic forms
D) A = Oviparous
B = Nipples absent
C = Vagina and uterus absent
D = Pinna is present only in aquatic forms.
138. Tetrapods [Pg-57-60]
(a.) lack paired appendages and pentadactyl limbs
(b.) universally possess gills
(c.) possess sense organ functional in air
(d.) dwell only in terrestrial zones
139. Identify A, B, C and D in the table given below.

Amphibians Reptiles Birds Mammals

Scalesusually abse Present onhind

A Absent
nt limbs

Cloaca
Cloaca present Cloaca present B
absent

Erythrocytes Erythrocytes
RBC circular
oval,biconvex and RBCoval,biconvex oval, biconvex
biconcave and
and nucleate d x and
non-nucleated
nucleated nucleated

122
 Three chambered Fourchambered
Three chambered
C heart withleft
heart
heart systemicarch

Externalear Externalear maybe External ear with

D
absent present pinnapresent

(a.) A = Scales absent B = Cloaca mainly present C = Four chambered heart with left
systemic arch D = External ear absent
(b.) A = Scales present B = Cloaca mainly absent C = Three chambered heart D =
External ear absent
(c.) A = Scales absent B = Cloaca mainly present C = Three chambered heart with right
systemic arch D = External ear present
(d.) A = Scales present B = Cloaca mainly absent C = Four chambered heart with right
systemic arch D = External ear present

140. Assertion: All vertebrates are chordates.

Reason: Vertebrates possess notochord during embryonic period. [Pg-57,H]
(a.) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b.) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c.) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d.) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
141. Assertion: All metatherians are placental mammals.
Reason: All placental mammals have menstrual cycle. [Pg59,H]
(a.) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b.) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c.) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d.) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

142. Assertion: Duck bill platypus is not a true mammal.

Reason: True mammals are all viviparous while platypus are egg laying. [Pg-59,60,H]
(a.) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b.) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c.) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d.) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
143. Assertion: Bats and whales are classified as mammals.
Reason: Bats and whales have four chambered heart. [Pg-59,60,H]
(a.) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b.) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c.) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d.) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

123
144. Assertion: Mammalian teeth are heterodont.
Reason: Mammals possess more than a single tooth [Pg-59,H]
(a.) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b.) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c.) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d.) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
145. Assertion: Reptiles are referred to as poikilotherms.
Reason: Reptiles possess eggs with shells which help them to adapt in land environment.
(a.) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b.) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c.) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d.) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
146. Assertion: Birds possess moist skin.
Reason: Birds possess oil glands throughout their body.
(a.) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(b.) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(c.) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d.) Assertion is false, but Reason is true

NEET PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following animals does not undergo metamorphosis? [2018]
(a) Earthworm (b) Tunicate (c) Starfish (d) Moth
2. Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm? [2018]
(a) Macropus (b) Chelone (c) Psittacula (d) Camelus
3. Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterised by crop and gizzard in its
digestive system. [2018]
(a) Amphibia (b) Reptilia (c) Osteichthyes (d) Aves
4. In case of poriferans, the spongocoel is lined with flagellated cells called __________.
[2017]
(a) oscula (b) choanocytes (c) mesenchymal cells (d) ostia
5. An important characteristic that hemichordates share with chordates is [2017]
(a) ventral tubular nerve cord. (b) pharynx with gill slits.
(c) pharynx without gill slits. (d) absence of notochord.
6. Which among these is the correct combination of aquatic mammals? [2017]
(a) Dolphins, Seals, Trygon (b) Whales, Dolphins, Seals
(c) Trygon, Whales, Seals (d) Seals, Dolphins, Sharks
7. Which of the following features is not present in the phylum- arthropoda? [2016]
(a) Chitinous exoskeleton (b) Metameric segmentation
(c) Parapodia (d) Jointed appendages
8. Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding
group of animals?

124
 [2016]
(a) Cartilaginous – Chondrichthyes endoskeleton (b) Viviparous –
Mammalia
(c) Possess a mouth – Chordata with an upper and a lower jaw
(d) 3 - chambered heart – Reptilia with one incompletely divided ventricle
9. Which one of the following characteristics is not shared by birds and mammals?[2016]
(a) Ossified endoskeleton (b) Breathing using lungs
(c) Viviparity (d) Warm blooded nature
10. Which of the following characteristics is mainly responsible for diversification of insects
on land? [2015]
(a) Bilateral symmetry (b) Exoskeleton (c) Eyes (d)
Segmentation
11. Metagenesis refers to [2015]
(a) alteration of generation between asexual and sexual phases of an organisms.
(b) occurrence of a drastic change in form during post-embroyonic development.
(c) presence of a segmented body and parthenogenetic mode of reproduction.
(d) presence of different morphic forms.
12. Body having meshwork of cell, internal cavities lined with food filtering flagellated cells
and indirect development arethe characteristics of phylum:
[2015]
(a) Porifera (b) Mollusca (c) Protozoa (d) Coelenterate
13. Which of the following represents the correct combination without any exception?
[2015]

14. A jawless fish, which lays eggs in fresh water and whose ammocoetes larvae after
metamorphosis return to the ocean is [2015]
(a) Myxine (b) Neomyxine (c) Petromyzon (d) Eptatretus
15. Which of the following animals is not viviparous? [2015]
(a) Elephant (b) Platypus (c) Whale (d) Flying fox (bat)
16. Select the taxon mentioned that represents both marine and fresh water species.
[2014]
(a) Echinoderms (b) Ctenophora (c) Cephalochordata (d) Cnidaria

125
17. Which one of the following living organisms completely lacks a cell wall?
[2014]
(a) Cyanobacteria (b) Sea – fan (Gorgonia) (c) Saccharomyces
(d) Blue–green algae
18. Planaria possesses high capacity of _________. [2014]
(a) metamorphosis (b) regeneration
(c) alternation of generation (d) bioluminescence
19. A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce electric current is: [2014]
(a) Pristis (b) Torpedo (c) Trygon (d) Scoliodon
20. Match the following organisms with their respective characteristics:- [NEET-2019]
(a) Pila (i) Flame cells
(b) Bombyx (ii) Comb plates
(c) Pleurobrachia (iii) Radula
(d) Taenia (iv) Malpighian tubules
Select the correct option from the following :-
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (4) (iiii) (ii) (iv) (i)
21. Match the following genera with their respective phylum: [NEET-2019 ODISSA]
(a) Ophura (i) Mollusca
(b) Physalia (ii) Platyhelminthes
(c) Pinctada (iii) Echinodermata
(d) Planaria (iv) Coelenterata
Select the correct option:
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), d-(ii) (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), d-(ii)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), d-(ii) (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), d-(i)
22. Which of the following animals are true coelomates with bilateral symmetry?
[NEET-2019 ODISSA]
(1) Adult Echinoderms (2) Aschelminthes (3) Platyhelminthes (4) Annelids
23. Which of the following options does correctly represent the characteristic features of
phylumAnnelida ? [NEET-2020 COVID]
(1) Triploblastic, unsegmented body and bilaterally symmetrical.
(2) Triploblastic, segmented body and bilaterally symmetrical.
(3) Triploblastic, flattened body and acoelomate condition.
(4) Diploblastic, mostly marine and radially symmetrical.
24. Match the following group of organisms with their respective distinctive characteristics
and select thecorrect option : [NEET-2020 COVID]

Organisms Characteristics
(a) Platyhelminthes (i) Cylindrical body with no segmentation
(b) Echinoderms (ii) Warm blooded animals with direct development
(c) Hemichordates (iii) Bilateral symmetry with incomplete digestive system
(d) Aves (iv) Radial symmetry with indirect development
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
25. Match the following columns and select the correct option: [NEET-2020 COVID]
Column - I Column - II
(a) Aptenodytes (i) Flying fox
(b) Pteropus (ii) Angel fish
(c) Pterophyllum (iii)Lamprey

126
 (d) Petromyzon (iv)Penguin
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

26. All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates, why?
[NEET-2020 COVID]
(1) Notochord is replaced by vertebral column in adult of some chordates.
(2) Ventral hollow nerve cord remains throughout life in some chordates.
(3) All chordates possess vertebral column.
(4) All chordates possess notochord throughout their life.
27. Which of the following statements are true for the phylum – Chordata? [NEET-2020]
a) In Urochordata notochord extends from head to tail and it is present throughout
their life
b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during the embryonic period only
c) Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow
d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla :Hemichordata, Tunicata and
Cephalochordata
1) (b) and (c) 2) (d) and (c) 3) (c) and (a) 4) (a) and (b)
28. Match the following columns and select the correct option [NEET-2020]
Column – I Column – II
(a) Gregarious, polyphagous pest (i) Asterias
(b) Adult with radial symmetry and larva (ii) Scorpion
with bilateral symmetry
(c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana
(d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d0
1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) 2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) 4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
29. Match the following columns and select the correct option [NEET-2020]
Column-I Column-II
a) 6-15 pairs of gill slits i) Trygon
b) Heterocercal caudal fin ii) Cyclostomes
c) Air Bladder iii) Chondrichthyes
d) Poison sting iv) Osteichthyes
(a) (b) (c) (d)
1) i iv iii ii
2) ii iii iv i
3) iii ii iii i
4) iv ii iii i
30. Bilateral symmetrical and acoelomate animals are exemplified by [NEET-2020]

1) Annelida 2) Ctenophora 3) Platyhelminthes 4) Aschelminthes

31. Match List-I with List-II [NEET-2021]

List-I List-II

127
 (a) Metamerism (i) Coelenterata
(b) Canal plates (ii) Ctenophora
( c) Comb plates (iii) Annelida
(d) Cnidoblasta (iv) Porifera
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) (b) ( c) (d)
1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
32. Read the following statements [NEET-2021]
a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths
b) Round worms have organ –system level of body organization
c) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion
e) Water vascular system is characteristic of Echinoderms
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct 2) (a), (d) and (e) are correct
3) (b), (c) and (e) are correct 4) (c) , (d) and (e) are correct
33. Which one of the following organisms bears hollow and pneumatic long bones ?
[NEET-2021]
1) Hemidactylus 2) Macropus 3) Ornithorhynchus 4) Neophron
34. Match the following: [NEET-2021]
List – I List – II
a) Physalia i) Pearl oyster
b)Limulus ii) Portuguese Man of War
c) Ancylostoma iii) Living fossil
d) Pinctada iv) Hookworm

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii 2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i 3) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii 4) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
35. Exoskeleton of arthropods in composed of: [NEET-2022]
1) Cutin 2) Cellulose 3) Chitin 4) Glucosamine
36. In which of the following animals, digestive tract has additional chambers like crop
and gizzard? [NEET-2022]
1) Corvus, Columba, Chameleon 2) Bufo, Balaenoptera, Bangarus
3) Catla, Columba, Crocodilus 4) Pavo, Psittacula, Corvus
37. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R). [NEET-2022]
Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.
Reason (R): Notochord is replaced by vertebral column in the adult vertebrates.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

128
 NCERT LINE BY LINE QUESTIONS - ANSWERS
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A C D B C B C A C D
Q. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. A C B D A D A D B D
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. D B C A B B A D B A
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. A C C B A A C B C A
Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. D B C A D B C C C A
Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. B A A C C A C A B D
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans. C A D A B D A A D B
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. C B C D A A B A B A
Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. D B A A D A D C C D
Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. D D D A B C D B C B
Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans. D B A D A B C A C A
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans. C B D D A C B A A C
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Ans. B A A A D C B D D B
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans. A C D D C A D D D D
Q. 141 142 143 144 145 146
Ans. D D B A C D
NEET PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS-ANSWERS
1 (a) 2 (b) 3 (d) 4 (b) 5 (b) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (a) 9 (c) 10 (b)
11 (a) 12 (a) 13 (a) 14 (c) 15 (b) 16 (d) 17 (b) 18 (b) 19 (b) 20 (2)
21 (2) 22 (4) 23 (2) 24 (1) 25 (3) 26 (1) 27 (1) 28 (3) 29 (2) 30 (3)
31 (2) 32 (3) 33 (4) 34 (2) 35 (3) 36 (4) 37 (1)

NEET PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS-EXPLANATIONS

1. (a) Metamorphosis refers to transformation of larva into adult. Animal that perform
metamorphosis are said to have indirect development. Metamorphosis in insects
includes the transformation of a maggot into an adult fly and a caterpillar into a

129
 butterfly and, in amphibians,the changing of a tadpole into a frog. In earthworm
development is direct which means no larval stage are there and hence no
metamorphosis.
2. (b) The two extremes in the animal kingdom are endothermic homeotherms and
ectothermic poikilotherms. Most mammals, including humans, as well as most birds are
endothermic homeotherms, while most fish, invertebrates, reptiles, and amphibians
are ectothermic poikilotherms. Chelone (Turtle) belongs to class reptilia which is
poikilotherm or cold blooded.
3. (d) The digestive tract of aves has additional chambers in their digestive system as crop
and gizzard. Crop is
concerned with storage of food grains, whereas gizzard is a masticatory organ in birds
used to crush food grain.
4. (b) In poriferans (sponges) choanocytes (collar cells) form lining of spongocoel. Flagella
present in collar cells provide circulation to water in water canal system.
5. (b) Pharyngeal gill slits are present in hemichordates and in chordates. Notochord is
present in chordates only. Ventral tubular nerve cord is present in non-chordates.
6. (b) Sharks and Trygon(sting ray) are the members of cartilaginous fish while whale, dolphin
and seals are
aquatic mammal.
7. (c) All arthropods possess a stiff exoskeleton (external skeleton) composed primarily of
chitin. Arthropod
bodies are divided into segments. Parapodia are paired, lateral appendages
extending from the body segments. Arthropod appendages may be either biramous
(branched) or uniramous (unbranched). They do not possess jointed appendages.
8. (a) Chondrichthyes always have cartilaginous endoskeleton. Most mammals are
viviparous, giving
birth to young ones. However, the five species of monotreme, the Platypus and the
Echidna, lay eggs.
Chordates have jawless animals (agnatha) as well.Most reptiles have 3 chambered
heart. Crocodilians
have 4 chambered hearts. Turtles have 3 chambered heart but with an incomplete
wall in the single ventricle, so their hearts are functionally 4 chambered.
9. (c) Viviparity is not shared by birds and mammals. Viviparity is a process of giving birth to
young that develop within the mother’s body rather than hatching from eggs. All
mammals except the monotremes are viviparous.
10. (b) The exoskeleton of insects consists of chitinous cuticle. It gets hardened due to the
deposition of
calcium. It prevents dessication and gives protection.
11. (a) Metagenesis is defined as alternation of generation found in phylum cnidaria
(eg.Obelia). In this
phenomenon one generation of an organism reproduces asexually, followed by a
sexually reproducing generation.
12. (a)
13. (a) (i) Aves possess dry skin, without glands except oil gland near the base of tail. (ii)
Pinnae are not found in aquatic animals and egg laying mammals.
(iii) In cyclostomes, unpaired appendages (joints) are found.
14. (c) Petromyzon marinus, commonly known as sea lamprey lays eggs in fresh water and its
larvae, after
metamorphosis, return to the ocean (saline water).

130
15. (b) Platypus is an oviparous (egg laying animal). It belongs to the class-mammalia.
16. (d) Members of ctenophora, cephalochordata and echinodermata are exclusively
marine.
17. (b) Gorgonia ( sea-fan) is an animal. All animals lack cell wall.
18. (b) Planaria is a flatworm which possesses a high capacity of regeneration.
19. (b) Torpedo is a sluggish fish. It is carnivorous. The preyis killed due to electric shock. The
shock can also be harmful for human beings.
27. In vertebrata, notochord is present during embryonic period only as it is replaced by
vertebral column. In chordates, central nervous system is dorsal and hollow.
28. Locusta is a gregareous pest.
In Echinoderms, adults are radially symmetrical but larvae are bilaterally symmetrical.
Scorpions respire through book lungs.
Bioluminescence is well marked in ctenophores.
29. Cyclostomes shows 6-15 pairs of gill slits for respiration
Air bladder is present in class Osteichthyes
Trygon, a cartilaginous fish, possesses poison sting
Heterocercal caudal fin is present in class Chondrichthyes
30. Platyhelminthes are bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate animals with organ level
of organisation.
31. Matchings:
List-I List-II
(a) Metamerism (i) Annelida
(b) Canal (ii) Porifera
System
( c) Comb plates (iii) Ctenophora
(d) Cnidoblasta (iv) Cnidaria
32. 1. Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate animals.
2. Round worms have organ system level of body organisation
3. Water vascular system is characteristic of echinoderms
33. Hemidactylus – wall lizard – reptile
Macropus - Mammal
Ornithorhynchus - Mammal (Oviparous)
Neophron - Bird - Pneumatic bones
34. Physalia - Portuguese Man of War
Limulus - Living fossil
Ancylostoma - Hookworm
Pinctada - Pearl oyster
35 Exoskeleton of arthropods is composed of CHITIN

NCERT- XI Page No – 149

36 Pavo, Psittacula, Corvus are birds having additional chambers like crop & gizzard
37 Reason explains Assertion

131
 4. Morphology of
flowering plants

Biology Smart Booklet - NMA Edu

Tech
Theory + NCERT MCQs + NEET PYQs132
133
Morphology
Morphology is the branch of biological science that deals with the study of
form, size, colour, structure and relative position of various parts of organisms.

Morphology Flowering Plants

The plant body consists of a main axis, which may be branched or
unbranched bearing lateral appendages.
The flower
1. Flower is the reproductive part of angiospermic plants for sexual means
of reproduction.
2. A typical flower has four whorls arranged on a swollen end of stalk or
pedicel called thalamus. They are Calyx, Corolla, Androecium and
Gynoecium.
3. When a flower has both androecium and gynoecium, the flower is
called bisexual and flower having either androecium or gynoecium only
is called unisexual.
4. When flower can be divided into two equal radial halves in any radii
passing through center the symmetry of flower is called actinomorphic
(radial symmetry) as in Mustard, Datura, and Chili.
5. When flower can be divided into two similar parts only in one vertical
plane it is zygomorphic as in Pea, Gulmohar, Cassia etc.
6. When Floral appendages are in multiple of 3, 4 or 5 they are called
trimerous, tetramerous and pentamerous respectively. Flower with
bracts are called bracteates and without it ebracteate.
Based on the position of ovary with respect to other floral part on

134
 thalamus, flowers are of following types:

 Hypogynous flower: Ovary occupies the highest position. The ovary in

such case is called superior. E.g., Mustard, brinjal and china rose.
 Perigynous flowers: If the gynoecium is situated at the center and other
parts are on the rim at same height. Ovary is called half-inferior.
 Epigynous flowers: The margin of thalamus grows to completely cover
the ovary. Ovary is said to be inferior.
Calyx
Calyx is the outermost whorl of the flower; its members are called sepals. They
are generally green and leafy; protect the flower in bud stage. It may be
gamosepalous (sepals united) or polysepalous (sepals free).
Corolla
consists of petals, brightly colored to attract the insects for pollination. They
may be gamopetalous or polypetalous.
 The mode of arrangement of sepals or petals in floral bud with respect
to the other members of same whorl is called aestivation. In valvate,
the whorls of sepals or petals touch each other as in Calotropis. In
Twisted aestivation, the whorls overlap each other as in China rose.
 In Imbricate aestivation, margin overlap each other but not in
particular fashion as in Gulmohur.
 In pea and bean flowers, there are five petals- the largest (standard)
overlaps the two lateral petals (wings) which in turn overlap two
smallest anterior petals (keel). This type of aestivation is known as
vexillary or papilionaceous.

135
The Androecium
 Androecium represent the male reproductive parts of flower, consists
of stamens. Each stamen consists of filament and anther. Pollen grains
are produced in pollen sac. Sterile stamen is called Stemenode.
 When stamens are attached with petals it is called epipetalous
(Brinjal). Stamen may be free (polyandrous) or may be united in one
bundle (monoadelphous), two bundles (diadelphous), more than two
(polyadelphous).
Placentation
The arrangement of ovules within the ovary is called placentation.

The Gynoecium
 Female reproductive part of flower consists of one or more carpels.
Each carpel is made up of stigma style and ovary.
 When more than one carpel is present, it may be free (apocarpous) as
in lotus and rose or fused together (syncarpous) as in mustard and
tomato.
 After fertilization, ovules change into seeds and ovary mature into fruits.
Flowers can either be:
 Complete
 Incomplete
A complete flower is the one that consists of sepals, petals, stamens and
pistil. On the contrary, an incomplete flower is the one that lacks one or more
of these structures.
A complete flower consists of two different parts
 Vegetative Part
 Reproductive Part
Vegetative Parts of a Flower
Petals: This is a bright-colored part that attracts bees, insects, and birds. Color
of petals varies from plant to plant; some are bright while some are pale
colored. Thus, petals help us to differentiate one flower from another.
Sepals: Sepal is the green-colored part beneath the petals to protect rising
buds. Some flowers have fused petals-sepals while a few have separated
petals-sepals.
Reproductive Parts of a Flower

136
Stamen: This is the male reproductive organ and is also known as Androecium. It
consists of two parts namely: anther and filaments. the anther is a yellowish,
sac-like structure, involved in producing and storing the pollens the filament is
a slender, threadlike object, which functions by supporting the anther.
Pistil: This is the innermost part and the female reproductive organ of a flower which
comprises three parts -stigma, style and ovary. This is collectively known as
the pistil.
1. Stigma: It is the topmost part or receptive tip of carpels in the
gynoecium of a flower.
2. Style: It is the long tube-like slender stalk that connects stigma and the
ovary.
3. Ovary: It is the ductless reproductive gland that holds a lot of ovules. It is
the part of the plant where the seed formation takes place.
Carpels: The carpel is the fourth whorl of the flower present in the center. The
carpels contain the pistil, the female reproductive part of the flower. It
comprises the ovary, style, and stigma. The egg or the ovule is present in the
ovary. After fertilization, sometimes the ovary turns into the fruit to keep the
seed. At the top of the ovary is a vertical structure called style that supports
the stigma. The dispersed pollens stick to the stigma and travel down to the
ovary through the style.
Functions Of Flower
1. Gametophytes develop in the flowers.
2. The flowers can produce diaspores without fertilization.
3. After fertilization, the ovary of the flower develops into a fruit
containing a seed.
4. The most important function of flowers is reproduction. They help in the
union of male and female gametes.
5. Flowers provide nectar to certain birds and insects, which in turn help in
the transfer of pollen from one flower to the other.
6. Flowers may promote selfing, i.e., the union of sperms and eggs from
the same flower, or cross-fertilization, i.e., the union of sperms and eggs
from different flowers.
Semi -Technical description of a typical flowering plant
The plant is described beginning with its habit, vegetative characters – roots,
stem and leaves and then floral characters inflorescence and flower parts.
The floral formula is represented by some symbols. In the floral formula, Br stands for
bracteate K stands for calyx, C for corolla, P for perianth, A for androecium
and G for Gynoecium. Fusion is indicated by enclosing the figure within
bracket and adhesion by a line drawn above the symbols of the floral parts.
Family Fabaceae
This family was earlier known as Papilionoideae. Herbs, shrubs or tree root with
root nodules. Pinnately compound leaves with reticulate venation.

137
Economic importance
Plants belonging to this family are sources of pulses like Gram, Arhar, Bean.
Pea etc. and edible oils like groundnut, soybean, etc.
Family Solanaceae
Plant body herbs or shrubs, rarely small trees, commonly known as potato
family. Leaves simple or pinnately compound. Reticulate venation.

Many of them are source of food (potato, tomato, Brinjal etc.), spices (Chilli) etc.
Family Liliaceae
 Commonly known as Lily family. Monocots, perennial herbs. Leaves
alternate with parallel venation.
 Underground bulbs, corms or rhizomes.
 Flower bisexual, actinomorphic, sepals and petals are absent, having
perianth.

It includes ornamental plants (Tulip), Medicine (aloe) and vegetable

(colchicine).
Pollination
Pollination is the process in which the pollens are transferred from anther to
stigma. The process of pollination can occur through a different medium.

The fruit
Mature and ripened ovary developed after fertilisation is fruit. If a fruit is
formed without fertilisation of ovary it is called parthenocarpic fruit.
Fruit consists of seeds and pericarp. Thick and fleshy pericarp is three layered
called epicarp, mesocarp

Dicotyledonous Seeds

138
 Dicotyledonous Seed is made up of a seed coat and an embryo. Embryo is
made up of embryonal axis, radicle and cotyledons.
Seed coat has two layers outer testa and inner tegmen. Hilum is scar through
which seed is attached to the ovary. Small pore above the hilum is called
micropyle.

Monocotyledonous seeds
In monocotyledonous seed, outer covering of endosperm separate the
embryo by a proteinous layer called aleurone layer. Single cotyledon is
called as scutellum having a short axis bearing Plumule and radicle. Plumule
and radicle are closed inside sheaths called as coleoptile and coleorhiza
respectively.

The Leaf
Leaves originate from shoot apical meristem and are arranged in an
acropetal order a typical leaf consists of three parts - Leaf base, Petiole,
Lamina. Leaf is attached with stem by Leaf Base which may bear two small
leaf like structure called stipule.

139
Simple Leaves
A leaf having a single or undivided lamina is called Simple leaf. The incisions
do not touch the mid rib. Example- Mango, Guava etc.
Compound leaves
When the incision of lamina reach up to the midrib and breaking it into a
number of leaflets, it is called Compound leaves.
Pinnately compound leaves: In a Pinnately compound leaves, a number of leaflets
are present on common axis called rachis. Example- Neem.

Palmately compound leaves: In Palmately compound leaves, the leaflets are

attached at common point. Example- Silk cotton.

Venation

140
 The arrangement of veins and veinlets in the lamina of leaf.
Types of Venation:
Reticulate Venation: Veinlets form a network as in leaves of dicotyledonous
plants (China rose, peepal).

Parallel Venation: Veins are parallel to each other as in leaves of

monocotyledonous plants (grass, maize, sugarcane).

The Stem
Stem is the aerial part of the plant and develops from plumule of the embryo.
It bears nodes and internodes.
Functions of stem:
Exposure of leaves, conduction of water and minerals, translocation of food,
exposure of flowers and fruits.
Modification of stems:
 Underground stem of potato, ginger and turmeric are modified to store
food. They also act as organ of perennation in unfavorable conditions.
 Stem tendril help plants to climb as in cucumber, pumpkins, and grapes.
 Axillary buds of stem may modify into woody, straight and pointed
thorns as in Citrus and Bougainvillea.
 Plants of arid regions modify their stem to flatted (Opuntia), fleshy
cylindrical (Euphorbia) having chlorophyll for photosynthesis.

141
The Root
In plants, root is the non-green (due to absence of chlorophyll), cylindrical
and descending part that normally grows downwards into the soil. It does not
bear leaves, buds and not distinguished into nodes and inter nodes.
Functions of Roots:
The major functions of roots are as follows:
 Fixation Root provides fixation to the plants with soil.
 Absorption Roots absorb water and minerals from the soil and provide it
to all parts of the body.
 Storage Roots of many plants store food for the use of other plant parts
and for animals.
 Aeration Plants growing in waterlogged soil or marshy areas have
special roots, i.e., pneumatophores for respiration.
 Conduction Roots transport water and minerals in upward direction for
the uses of stems and leaves.
The main axis is divided into two parts:
 Root system: The underground root system develops from the radicle
embryo and helps in fixation of the plant as well as absorption of water
and minerals.
 Shoot system: The shoot system is the aerial part of the plant, which is
found above the root and ground level. The shoot system includes the
stem, leaves, bud, flower, fruits and the seeds. Shoot system is one of
the important systems of a plant.
Main functions of root system:
 Absorption of water and minerals from the soil.
 Provides anchorage to plant parts.
 Stores reserve food material and synthesizes plant growth regulators.
Various types of root:
 Tap root: Originates from radicle. Dicotyledonous plants e.g., mustard,
gram, mango.
 Fibrous root: Originates from base of the stem. Monocotyledonous
plants e.g., wheat, paddy.

142
  Adventitious root: Originates from parts of the plant other than radicle.
Banyan tree (Prop roots) Maize (Stilt roots).
Regions of Roots:
 The apex of root is covered by a thimble like structure called root cap,
it protect the tender apex of root while making way through soil.
 Above the root cap is region of meristematic activity having small cells
with dense cytoplasm.
 The part above the region of meristematic activity is region of
elongation where cells under go elongation and enlargement to
increase the length of root.
 Region of maturation contain root hairs that help in absorption of
water and minerals.

Modification of roots:
Roots are modified for storage, nitrogen fixation, aeration and support.
 Tap root of carrot, turnip and adventitious root of sweet potato get
swollen to store food.
 Prop root of Banyan and Stilt root of maize and sugarcane have
supporting root coming out from lower node of stems.
 In Rhizophora, Pneumatophores help to get oxygen for respiration as it
grows in swampy areas.

143
Inflorescence
A flower is a significant part of a plant tailored for reproduction. In addition, it
is an essential part of the bouquet, decorations, celebrations, garden, rituals,
etc. Among different parts of a plant, the flower is the most attractive part
due to its beauty and fragrance.
Racemose Inflorescence
In this type of inflorescence, the flowers branch laterally on the floral axis.
Here the floral axis keeps on growing and the flowers develop in an
acropetal pattern.

Cymose Inflorescence
In this type of inflorescence, the flower is the terminating point of each floral
axis. In Cymose inflorescence, flowers follow the basipetal pattern of growth.

144
 NCERT LINE BY LINE QUESITONS
Unit-2
1. Curly top virus spreads a plant via- (Pg. 64, E)
A) Xylem B) Phloem C) Vascular bundle D) None of these
2. The book ‘Plant Anatomy’ was publishedby Esau in – (Pg. 64, E)
A) Same year as she did her doctorate B) 1960
C) 1954 D) 1957
3. Which of referred as ‘Webster’s of plantbiology’ – an encyclopedia (Pg. 64, E)
A) Plant anatomy B) Anatomy of angiospermic plant
C) Anatomy of seed plants D) A & B both
4. Esau was ______ woman to receive‘National Academy of science ’ (Pg. 64, E)
A) 7th B) 6 th C) 5th D) 1th
5. Statement – I: Esau got National Academyof Science in 1957Statement – II: In 1989, Esau
receivedNational Medal of Science in 1989. (Pg. 64, E)
A) Statement – I & statement – II are bothcorrect
B) Statement – I & statement – II are bothincorrect
C) Statement – I is correct and statement– II is incorrect
D) Statement – I is incorrect andstatement – I is correct
6. Morphology is study of (Pg. 65, E)
A) External structure of an organism B) Internal structure of an organism
C) Systematics D) A & B booth
Paragraph – 5.1
The Root
7. Radical form- (Pg. 65, E)
A) Root system of plant B) Floral part of plant
C) Shoot system of plant D) A & B both
8. The lateral roots arise from primary rootis- (Pg. 65, E)
A) Primary root B) Secondary root
C) Tertiary root D) A & B both
9. Choose the given statement which issuitable for following figure (Pg. 66, E)

A) It comprises of primary & secondaryroot

B) Such roots are observed in mustard

145
 C) These roots are replace by largenumber root
D) A & B both
10. From given set of example choose, howmany of following are example of fibrousroot and
adventitious root respectively.
Sweet potato, carrot, turnip, wheat, grass,Monstera, banyan tree (Pg. 66, E)
A) 1, 4 B) 1, 3 C) 2, 3 D) 3, 2
11. Adventitious roots arise from- (Pg. 66, E)
A) Radicle B) Base of stem in tuft as in wheat
C) Part of plant other than radicle as inmustard
D) Secondary root
12. Root is characterized by (Pg. 66, E)
A) Presence of node & internode B) Mainly (-ve) phototropism
C) Mainly (-ve) geotropism D) Mainly (-ve) hydrotropism
13. Which of the following is not the mainfunction of root system is/are (Pg. 66, E)
A) Absorption of sap from soil
B) Providing proper anchorage to plantparts.
C) Synthesis of plant growth regulators
D) None of these
14. Identify given diagram (Pg. 66, M)

A) B) C)
A) Tap root Fibrousroot Adventitious root
B) Tap root Adventitious root Fibrousroot
C) Adventitious root Fibrousroot Tap root
D) Fibrousroot Tap root Adventitious root
Paragraph-5.1.1
Regions of the Root
15. In aquatic plant the apex of root is coveredby (Pg. 67, E)
A) Thimble parenchymatous root cap B) Root pocket
C) Coleorhiza D) Coleoptile
16. Identify region of root tip (Pg. 67, M)

A) A = Region of maturation, B = Region ofelongation, C = Region of meristematic

activity, D = Root cap

146
 B) A = Region of elongation, B = Region ofmeristematic activity, C = Root cap, D
= Protective covering
C) A = Region of meristem, B = Region ofmaturation, C = Region of elongation,
D = Root cap
D) A = Region of growing cell, B = Regionof mature cell, C = Region of dividing
cell, (D = Protective covering
17. Root hair arise from – (Pg. 67, E)
A) Cortical cell of region of maturation
B) Epidermal cell of region of maturation
C) Cortical cell of region of elongation
D) Epidermal cell of region of elongation
18. Choose mismatch pair (Pg. 67, H)
Column – I Column – II
A) Region ofmeristematic - Small thin walldense
B) Region ofelongation - Responsible forgrowth of root inlength
C) Region ofmaturation - Proximal to regionof elongation
D) Root hair - Differentiated andmature
cellproximal to regionof maturation

Paragraph-5.1.2
Modification of Root:
19. Pneumatophores are helpful in- (Pg. 67, E)
A) Transpiration B) Getting oxygen for respiration
C) Absorption of water D) Assimilation of food
20. Silt roots and pneumatophores areobserved in- (Pg. 67, E)
A) Maize, Rhizophora B) Maize, Rhizopus
C) Sugarcane Rhizopus D) A & B both
21. Mechanical root observed in – (Pg. 67, E)
A) Sugarcane B) Maize
C) Banyan tree D) All of these
22. For food storage root get modified in – (Pg. 67, E)
A) Potato B) Sweet potato
C) Ginger D) A & B both
23. Match the following – (Pg. 67, H)
Column – I Column – II
A) Conical root (I) Raddish
B) Napiformroot (II) Turnip
C) Tuberousroot (III) Sweet potato
D) Fusiform root (IV) carrot
a b cd abcd
A) IV II III I B) IV III II I

147
 C) III IV I II D) III IV I II
24. Modification of root Asparagus is meantfor – (Pg. 67, E)
A) Storage of food B) Mechanical support
C) Respiration D) Climbing support
25. Slit root arise from – (Pg. 67, E)
A) Lower nodes of Zea mays B) Lower internode of sugarcane
C) Lower internode of Zea mays D) Upper node of sugarcane
26. Pneumatophores are (Pg. 67, E)
i) Positive geotropism ii) Negative geotropism
iii) Grown in marshy area iv) Found in mangroves
v) Positive phototropism vi) Negative phototropism
A) i, iii, iv, vi B) ii, iii, iv, v C) i, iii, v D) ii, iv, vi
Paragraph-5.2
Stem:
27. Stem distinguish from root in – (Pg. 68, E)
A) Presence of node & internode B) Absence of node & internode
C) Presence of hairs for water absorption D) Absence of bud
28. Stem are develop from – (Pg. 68, E)
A) Radicle of germinating seed B) Plumule of germinating seed
C) Cotyledons of germinating seed D) Coleoptile
29. The region of stem where leaves are bornare _____ (Pg. 68, E)
A) Nodes B) Internode
C) Both node & internode D) Floral bud
30. Stems are generally – (Pg. 68, E)
A) (+ve) geotropism, (-ve) hydrotropism,(+ve) phototropism
B) (-ve) geotropism, (-ve) hydrotropism,(+ve) phototropism
C) (+ve) geotropism, (+ve) hydrotropism,(+ve) phototropism
D) (+ve) geotropism, (-ve) hydrotropism, (-ve) phototropism
Paragraph-5.2.1
Modification of stem:
31. Underground modified stem of potato isknown as- (Pg. 68, E)
A) Tuber B) Rhizome C) Corm D) Bulb
32. Stem store food for- (Pg. 68, E)
A) Favourable condition growth B) Unfavourable condition growth
C) Flowering condition D) A & C both
33. Choose odd on with respect to stemmodification – (Pg. 68, E)
A) Zaminkand B) Colocasia C) Bougainvillea D) Turmeric
34. How many of following stem modificationdoes develop from axillary buds (Pg. 68, M)
Colocasia, grapevines, cucumber,pumpkin, Opuntia, Citrus, Watermelon,Bougainvillea
A) 7 B) 6 C) 5 D) 4
35. Ginger and turmeric are example of – (Pg. 68, E)

148
 A) Rhizome B) Rhizoid C) Corm D) Roots
36. Photosynthetic green flattened modifiedstem xerophyte is in – (Pg. 68, E)
A) Acacia B) Euphorbia C) Opuntia D) Hydrilla
37. Stem is modified for protection in – (Pg. 68, E)
A) Citrus thorn B) Bougainvillea spine
C) Opuntia thorn D) A and C
38. Statement – I: Some plants of arid regionmodify their stems into fleshy cylindrical
structure as in Euphorbia
Statement – II: In grapevines, stem tendrilare for help plant to climb (Pg. 68, M)
A) Statement – I and Statement – II arecorrect.
B) Statement – I is correct while statement– II is not correct
C) Statement – I is incorrect whilestatement – II is correct
D) Statement – I and statement – II areincorrect
39. Stem tendril of pumpkin develop from- (Pg. 68, E)
A) Accessory bud B) Axillary bud
C) Extra – axillary bud D) Floral bud
40. Choose the correct statement about stemmodification of mint (Pg. 69, E)
A) A slender lateral branch arises frombase of main axis and after growingunderground for
some time archupward to touch the ground.
B) A slender lateral branch arises frombase of main axis and after growingaerially for some
time arch downwardsto touch the ground.
C) Stem modification is same as instrawberries
D) Stem modification mint is known assucker
41. Match the following: (Pg. 69, H)
Column – I Column – II
I) Strawberry A. Sucker
II) Jasmine B. Offset
III) Pistia C. Runner
IV) Pineapple D. Stolon
A) I – C, II – D, III – B, IV – A B) I – B, II – C, III – A, IV – D
C) I – C, II – A, III – B, IV – D D) I – A, II – B, III – C, IV – D
42. Choose odd one with respect to stemmodification- (Pg. 69, E)
A) Chrysanthemum B) Banana
C) Pineapple D) Strawberry
43. In pineapple – (Pg. 69, E)
A) The lateral branches originate frombasal and underground portion of main
stem, grow horizontally beneath thesoil and then come out obliquelyupward giving rise to
leafy shoot.
B) The lateral branch arises time archdownward to touch the ground growingaerially for
some time arch downwardto touch the ground

149
 C) A lateral branch with short internodeand each node bearing a rosette ofleaves and a tuft
of roots.
D) None of these
44. In Oxalis stem is modified for – (Pg. 69, E)
A) Storage B) Support
C) Protection D) Vegetative propagation
45. Lateral branch with short internode &each node bearing a rosette of leaves anda tuft of root
found in – (Pg. 69, E)
A) Pistia B) Eichhornia C) Grasses D) A & B both
Paragraph-5.3
The leaf
46. Choose the correct response: (Pg. 69, E)
A) Leaf develop at the node and bears abud in its axile
B) Leaves originate from SAM arearranged in acropetal orders.
C) Leaf is lateral gernerally flattenedvegetative structure for photosynthesis
D) All of these
47. Stipules are – (Pg. 70, E)
A) Two lateral small leaf like structure
B) Four lateral small leaf like structure
C) One lateral small leaf like structure
D) Many lateral small leaf like
48. The leaf base expanded into a sheathcrossing the stem partially or wholly in–(Pg. 70, E)
A) Monocot B) Dicot
C) All angiosperms plant D) Gymnosperms
49. Pulvinus is – (Pg. 70, E)
A) Swollen leaf base of legume
B) Swollen petiole of legume and chinaRose
C) Swollen lamina D) Swollen stipule
50. Label – A, B, C, D, E (Pg. 70, M)

A B C D E
A) Lamina Stipule Petiole Axillarybud Leafbase
B) Lamina Stipule Petiole Axillarybud Leafbase
C) Lamina Pulvinus Pedicel Axillarybond Leafbase
D) Lamina Stipule Pedicel Extraaxillarybond Leafbase
Paragraph-5.3.1
Venation
51. Arrangement of vein & veinlet in lamina ofleaf (Pg. 70, E)

150
 A) Venation B) Phyllotaxy C) Aestivation D) None of these
52. Leaves of dicotyledonous plants generallycharacterized by - (Pg. 70, E)
A) Presence of parallel venation
B) Veins which are parallel to each otherwithin a lamina.
C) Presence of reticulate venation
D) A & B both
53. Identify the leaf venation and type of leaf. (Pg. 70, E)

A) Parallel venation; monocot mainly

B) Parallel venation; dicot mainly
C) Reticulate venation; dicot mainly
D) Reticulate venation; monocot mainly
Paragraph-5.3.2 Types of leaves:
54. A leaf is simple (Pg. 70, E)
A) When its lamina is entire
B) When its lamina is incised, the incisiondo not touch the midrib
C) A & B both D) None of these
55. When the incisions of lamina reach tomidrib breaking leaf into a number ofleaflet is not-
(Pg. 70, E)
A) Compound leaf B) Simple leaf
C) Pinnate leaf D) Palmate leaf
56. Identify A and B (Pg. 70, M)

A) A = pinnately compound leaf; Neem B =palmately compound leaf; Silk cotton

B) A = palmately compound leaf; Silkcotton B = pinnately compound leaf;Neem
C) A = pinnately compound leaf; Silkcotton B = palmately compound leaf;Neem
D) A = palmately compound leaf; Neem B= pinnately compound leaf; Silk cotton
57. Midrib of pinnately compound leaf is – (Pg. 70, E)
A) Mid-vein B) Rachis C) Petiole D) None of these
58. Leaflet of pinnately compound leaf ariseon- (Pg. 70, E)
A) Common point i.e. at tip of petiole
B) Common axis

151
 C) Common point i.e. at tip of rachis
D) A & C both
59. Leaflet of ________ arise on common pointi.e. at tip of petiole (Pg. 71, E)
A) Pinnately compound leaf B) Palmately compound leaf
C) Simple leaf D) All of these
Paragraph-5.3.3 Phyllotaxy
60. Phyllotaxy is pattern of arrangement of____ on the ____ (Pg. 71, E)
A) Leaf, stem B) Phloem, stem
C) Vein, leaf D) None of these
61. Identify types of phyllotaxy shown by givendiagram (Pg. 71, M)

A) B) C)
A) Opposite Alternate Whorled
B) Alternate Opposite Whorled
C) Alternate Whorled Opposite
D) None of these
62. Choose correct statement – (Pg. 71, E)
A) In alternate type; a single leaf arises ateach node.
B) In opposite type; a pair leaves arises ateach node.
C) In whorled type; more than two leavesarises at each node.
D) All of these
63. Sunflower show- (Pg. 71, E)
A) Alternate phyllotaxy B) Opposite phyllotaxy
C) Whorled phyllotaxy D) None of these
Paragraph-5.3.4
Modification of leaves:
64. In Australian acacia (Pg. 71, E)
A) Lamina modification B) Petiole modified
C) Stipule modified D) All of these
65. Select the correct option: (Pg. 71, E)

A) Both A & B are modified by leaves

B) A is tendrils for climbing

152
 C) B is spines for defence D) All of these
66. Pitcher of pitcher plant is modified – (Pg. 71, E)
A) Leaf B) Stem C) Root D) Fruit
Paragraph-5.4
The inflorescence:
67. Flower is modified – (Pg. 71, E)
A) Node B) Internode C) Leaf D) Shoot
68. Choose the correct statement (Pg. 71, E)
A) In flower, SAM changes to floralmeristem
B) In flower, internode do not elongate
C) The axis get condensed in flower.
D) All of these
69. The arrangement of flowers on the floralaxis is – (Pg. 71, E)
A) Phyllotaxy B) Inflorescence
C) Aestivation D) Placentation
70. On the basis whether floral apex getsdevelop into flower or continues to grow,inflorescence
are mainly of- (Pg. 72, E)
A) 3 types B) 4 types C) 2 types D) None of these
71. In racemose- (Pg. 72, E)
A) Main axis continues to grow B) Flower are in basipetal order
C) Main axis terminate into flower D) B & C both
72. Choose the correct statement about givenfigure (Pg. 72, E)

A) It is of racemose type inflorescence

B) Flowers are in basipetal order
C) Flowers are in acropetal order
D) Example of Cassia
73. Given diagram is of – (Pg. 72, M)

A) Racemose inflorescence B) Cymose inflorescence

C) Cymose inflorescence of Cassia D) B & C both
Paragraph-5.5

153
 The flower:
74. A complete flower consist of – (Pg. 73, E)
A) One whorl B) Two whorls
C) Three whorls D) Four whorls
75. Flower stalk is known as – (Pg. 72, E)
A) Pedicel B) Thalamus C) Petiole D) Stipules
76. Thalamus is not – (Pg. 72, E)
A) Swollen end of pedicel B) Different whorl arranged on it
C) Accessory whorl D) Receptacle for different whorl
77. Choose the correct statement- (Pg. 72, E)
A) Calyx, corolla, are accessory organ
B) Androecium, gynoecium arereproductive organ
C) Perianth present in lily D) All of these
78. Perianth is (Pg. 72, E)
A) Indistinct calyx & corolla B) Fused corolla & androecium
C) Reproductive organ D) None of these
79. Bisexual flowers is – (Pg. 72, E)
A) When a flower has both androecium &gynoecium
B) Present in Solanaceae, Liliaceae
C) Present in mustard and Pea
D) All of these
80. How many of following showActinomorphic, Zygomorphic respectively. (Pg. 72, E)
Mustard, datura, chilli, Pea, Canna, bean,gulmohur, Cassia
A) 3, 4 B) 4, 3 C) 4, 4 D) None of these
81. Statement – I: when a flower can bedivided into two equal radial halves in anyradial plane
passing through the centre itis actinomorphic flower
Statement – II: when a flower can bedivided into two similar halves only in one
particular vertical plane, it is zygomorphic (Pg. 72, E)
A) Statement – I & II are correct B) Statement – I is correct
C) Statement – II is correct only D) Statement – I & II are incorrect
82. Cassia show - (Pg. 72, E)
A) Racemose inflorescence, zygomorphic
B) Racemose inflorescence,actinomorphic
C) Cymose inflorescence, actinomorphic
D) Cymose inflorescence, zygomorphic
83. Flower with leaf that found the base ofpedicel are – (Pg. 72, E)
A) Bracteate B) Ebracteate C) Petiolate D) Sessile
84. Flower with floral appendages 3 ormultiple of 3 are said – (Pg. 72, E)
A) Tetramerous B) Trimerous
C) Triploid D) Pentamerous
85. In hypogynous flower which of followingfloral part takes highest position (Pg. 73, E)

154
 A) Calyx B) Corolla C) Androceium D) Pistil
86. Which of following is mismatched (Pg. 73, E)
Column-I Column-II
1. Mustard

A)
2. Brinjal

B)
3. Peach

C)
4. Cucumber

D)

87. Superior ovary found in – (Pg. 73, E)

A) Hypogynous flower B) Perigynous flower
C) Epigynous flower D) Cucumber
88. Choose the correct about perigynousflower – (Pg. 73, E)
A) Gynoecium is situated in centre
B) Apart from gynoecium, rest parts arelocated on rim of thalamus almost at
same level
C) Ovary is half inferior D) All of these
89. How many of following are example ofperigynous, hypogynous and epigynousrespectively.
(Pg. 73, E)
Mustard, china Rose. Brinjal, plum,peach, rose, guava,cucumber, ray floret sunflower, Pea,
Asparagus
A) 3, 3, 5 B) 3, 3, 3 C) 3, 5, 3 D) 5, 3, 3
90.

(Pg. 73, E)
A) Hypogynous flower B) Epigynous
C) Perigynous D) China rose
Paragraph-5.5.1
Parts of flower

155
91. Flower consist of – (Pg. 73, E)
A) Four reproductive whorl B) Four whorl
C) Four accessory whorl D) All of these
Paragraph-5.5.1.1 Calyx
92. The outermost whorl of flower is – (Pg. 73, E)
A) Calyx B) Corolla C) Bract D) Thalamus
93. Choose the correct statement- (Pg. 73, E)
A) Sepals are members of calyx B) Petals are members of calyx
C) Sepal are plural of corolla D) None of these
94. Sepals united in ________ and sepals arefree in _____ condition (Pg. 73, E)
A) Gamosepalous, Polysepalous B) Polysepalous, Gamosepalous
C) Polysepalous, Polysepalous D) Gamosepalous, Gamosepalous
Paragraph-5.5.1.2 Corolla
95. Corolla are – (Pg. 73, E)
A) Composed of petal B) United by sepals
C) Composed of tepals D) Usually for bud protection
96. Polypetalous is condition with _____ whilegamopetalous is for _____ (Pg. 74, E)
A) Free petal; fused petal B) Fused petal; free petal
C) Free petal; free petal D) Fused petal; fuced petal
97. Label (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) (Pg. 74, M)

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

A) Gynoecium Androecium Pedicel Corolla Calyx
B) Gynoecium Androecium Corolla Calyx Pedicel
C) Androecium Gynoecium Calyx Corolla Pedicel
D) Androecium Gynoecium Corolla Calyx Pedicel
98. The mode of arrangement of sepals orpetals in floral bud with respect to theother members
of same whorl is termed as– (Pg. 74, E)
A) Placentation B) Aestivation
C) Phyllotaxy D) Inflorescence
99. Given diagram represent – (Pg. 74, E)

A) Twisted aestivation B) Imbricate aestivation

C) Vexillary aestivation D) Valvate aestivation

156
100. In Calotropis- (Pg. 74, E)
A) Sepals or petals in a whorl just touchone another at the margin, withoutoverlapping
B) One margin of the appendage overlapsthat of the next one
C) Margin of sepals or petals overlap oneanother but not in particular direction
D) None of these
101. “Keel” present in – (Pg. 74, E)
A) Valvate B) Imbricate C) Papilionaceous D) Twisted
102. In Pea find odd one out – (Pg. 74, E)
A) ‘Standard’ is largest petals B) ‘Standard’ overlaps the two lateral Keel.
C) ‘Keel’ are smallest anterior petals. D) Keel are fused
103. The aestivation in gulmohur is – (Pg. 74, E)
A) Valvate B) Twisted C) Imbricate D) Vexillary
104. Find odd one with respect to aestivation (Pg. 74, E)
A) China rose B) Cassia C) Lady’s finger D) Cotton
Paragraph-5.5.1.3
Androecium
105. Androecium composed of – (Pg. 75, E)
A) Sepals B) Petal C) Stamen D) Carpel
106. Each anther is usually _____ and each lobehas _____ chambers, pollen sacs (Pg. 75, E)
A) Bilobed; two B) Bilobed; four C) Tetralobed; four D) None
107. Staminode is – (Pg. 75, E)
A) Fertile stamen B) Sterile stamen C) Both A & B D) None of these
108. How many of following statements aretrue. (Pg. 75, M)
(i) Stamens united into one bundle i.e.monoadelphous
(ii) Monoadelphous is in china Rose,diadelphous is in Pea andpolydephous is in Citrus
(iii) Variation in the length of filamentswithin a flower as in Salvia & mustard
(iv) Two bundle of stamens arediadelphous and when stamen areunited into two or more
bundle i.e.polyadelphous
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
Paragraph-5.5.1.4 Gynoecium
109. Female reproductive part of flower is – (Pg. 75, E)
A) Androecium B) Gynoecium C) Petal D) Sepal
110. Pollen grains receptive surface is – (Pg. 75, E)
A) Stigma B) Style C) Ovary D) Ovule
111. Placenta attach- (Pg. 75, E)
A) Ovule to ovary B) Ovary to thalamus
C) Ovary and other floral part D) None of these
112. Apocarpous is- (Pg. 75, E)
i) Free carpel ii) Fused carpel
iii) Present in rose iv) Present in lotus
v) Present in tomato

157
 A) i, iii, iv B) i, iii, v C) ii, iii, iv D) ii, iv, v
113. After fertilization, the ovary develop into______ and ovule matures into a ______.
(Pg. 75, E)
A) Fruit; fruit B) Seed; fruit C) Fruit; seed D) Seed; seed
114. Placentation is arrangement of _____within the _______. (Pg. 75, E)
A) Ovary; ovule B) Placenta; embryosac
C) Ovule; ovary D) None of these

115. (Pg. 75, E)

A) Such placentation seen in Argemone

B) The placenta is axial and the ovules areattached to it in an unilocular ovary
C) Such placentation seen in china rose
D) The placenta is axial and the ovules areattached to it in multilocular ovary asin Dianthus
116. Match the column I and column II (Pg. 75, E)
Column I Column II
1 Parietal a. Pea
2 Axile b. Lemon
3 Marginal c.Argemone
4 Basal d.Primrose
5 Free - central e. Sunflower
A) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a, 4 – e, 5 – d B) 1 – d, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – b, 5 – e
C) 1 – e, 2 – d, 3 – a, 4 – c, 5 – b D) 1 – b, 2 – e, 3 – a, 4 – d, 5 – c
117. Choose the correct statement – (Pg. 75, M)
A) Unilocular ovary becomes twochambered due to the formation offalse septum as in
mustard
B) In Argemone ovary is two chambereddue to the formation of true septum
C) Axile placentation found inmultilocular ovary as in tomato
D) A & C both
118. Dianthus have – (Pg. 75, E)

119. In Marigold – (Pg. 75, E)

158
 A) Same placentation found in sunflower
B) Placenta develop at base of ovary
C) Single ovule is attached to ovary
D) All of those
Paragraph-5.6The fruit
120. Parthenocarpic fruit is – (Pg. 76, E)
A) Develop after fertilization from ovary
B) Develop without fertilization
C) Develop after fertilization fromthalamus
D) A & C both
121. Pericarp differentiated into – (Pg. 76, E)
A) Outer thin epicarp, middle fleshy ediblemesocarp and an inner stony hard
endocarp in Mango
B) Outer fleshy epicarp, middle stonyhard endocarp in mango
C) Outer thin epicarp, middle stony hardmesocarp and an inner seed in mango
D) None of these
Paragraph-5.7The seed
122. Seed of wheat is made up of – (Pg. 76, E)
A) A radicle, an embryonal axis & onecotyledon
B) A radicle, an embryonal axis & twocotyledon
C) Embryo only D) Only one cotyledon
Paragraph-5.7.1
Structure of a dicotyledonous seed
123. Find odd one with respect to endosperm (Pg. 76, E).
A) Pea B) Gram C) Castor D) Bean
124. How many are correct statement aboutdicot seed? (Pg. 77, E)
i) Testa, an inner layer is one of twolayers of seed coat
ii) Seed were attached to fruit by hilum
iii) Micropyle is small pore below hilum
iv) Castor is endospermic seed
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
Paragraph-5.7.2
Structure of monocotyledonousseeds
125. How many of following is wrong statedstatement? (Pg. 77, E)
i) Generally monocot seeds are non-endospermicseed
ii) Orchid is example of dicot seed
iii) In maize, seed coat fused with fruitwalliv) Orchid is endospermic seed
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
126. Label a, b, c, d, e (Pg. 77, M)

159
 a b c d e
A) Scutellum Coleorhiza Plumule Radicle Coleoptile
B) Scutellum Coleorhiza Radicle Plumule Coleoptile
C) Scutellum Coleoptile Radicle Plumule Coleorhiza
D) Scutellum Coleoptile Plumule Radicle Coleorhiza
127. Aleurone layer is – (Pg. 77, E)
A) Carbohydrate enrich layer B) Proteinous layer
C) Lipid enrich layer D) A and B
128. Scutellum present in (Pg. 77, E)
A) Orchid B) Castor C) Pea D) Gram
Paragraph-5.8
Semi-technical description of a
typical flowering plant-
129. Number of androecium in mustard is – (Pg. 78, E)
A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 5
130. How many of following is incorrect aboutBrassicaceae (mustard) actinomorphic,
zygomorphic, bisexual, K4, superior ovary,C2+2, C(4) (Pg. 78, E)
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
Paragraph-5.9 Description of some
important family
Paragraph 5.9.1 Fabaceae
131. Fabaceae was earlier called as – (Pg. 78, E)
A) Leguminosae B) Papilionoideae
C) Both A & B D) Fabaceae
132. Given diagram is- (Pg. 79, E)

A) L.S of carpel of pea B) Fruit of pea

C) T.S. of carpel of pea D) Androecium of Pea
133. Calyx of fabaceae show- (Pg. 79, E)
A) Polypetalous B) Polysepalous
C) Valvate aestivation D) Both B & C

160
134. Androecium of Fabaceae is – (Pg. 79, E)
A) Ten in number B) 9 are united
C) 1 is free D) All of these
135. How many of following is endospermicseed- (Pg. 79, E)
Arhar, groundnut, Indigofera, muliathi,Sesbania, Trifolium
A) O B) 1 C) 2 D) 3
136. The correct floral formula of sunhemp is- (Pg. 79, E)

Paragraph-5.9.2
Solanaceae
137. Which of the following is potato family? (Pg. 79, E)
A) Fabaceae B) Solanaceae C) Liliaceae D) Brassicaceae
138. Find out one with respect to Solanaceae (Pg. 80, E)
A) Alternate phyllotaxy B) Exstipulate
C) Reticulate venation D) Pulvinate
139. In Solanum, inflorescene is- (Pg. 80, E)
A) Racemose B) Cymose C) Solitary D) B and C
140. How many of following term is not correctlystated about tobacco’s family.
Bicarpellary, obligately placed,apocarpous, superior ovary, bilocular,placenta swollen with
many ovules, free –central placentation, drupe fruit (Pg. 80, E)
A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3
141. Persistant calyx found in- (Pg. 80, E)
A) Brinjal B) Pea C) Onion D) Colchicine

142.
is floral formula of how many of following-
Aloe, belladonna, ashwagandha, muliathi,sunhemp, Indigofera, Gloriosa (Pg. 80, E)
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
143. Makoi plant – (Pg. 80, E)
A) Solanum nigrum B) Solanum tuberosum
C) Allium D) Petunia
Paragraph-5.9.3
Liliaceae

161
144. Given diagram is – (Pg. 81, E)

A) Flower of Allium B) Inflorescence of Allium

C) Inflorescence of dicot family D) Racemose
145. How many of following are endospermousseed.
Aloe, Asparagus, Tulip, Potato, Tomato,Pea, Petunia, Chilli, Sesbania, Trifolium,
Lupin, Muliathi, Ashwagandha, Colchicine,Gloriosa (Pg. 81, E)
A) 10 B) 8 C) 15 D) 5
146. Onion show- (Pg. 81, E)
A) Axile placentation B) Parietal placentation
C) Free central placentation D) Basal placentation
147. Gynoceium of Aloe is not- (Pg. 81, E)
A) Tricarpellary B) Apocarpous
C) Syncarpous D) Superior ovary
148. Floral formula of Colchicum autumnaledoes not show- (Pg. 81, E)

A) B) C) G(3) D) All of these

149. Choose mismatched – (Pg. 81, H)
Column-I Column-II
Asparagus(vegetables)

A)
Mustard

B)
Pisumsativum

C)

162
 Brassicaceae

D)

150. The floral feature of angiospermrepresented in summarized form as- (Pg. 81, E)
A) Floral diagram B) Floral formula
C) A and B D) None of these

NEET PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS

1. Sweet potato is a modified _______. [2018]
(a) stem (b) adventitious root (c) rhizome (d) tap root
2. Pneumatophores occur in _______. [2018]
(a) halophytes (b) free-floating hydrophytes
(c) submerged hydrophytes (d) carnivorous
plants
3. Plants which produce characteristic pneumatophores and show vivipary belong to
_______. [2017]
(a) halophytes (b) psammophytes (c) hydrophytes (d) mesophytes
4. In Bougainvillea, thorns are the modifications of _______. [2017]
(a) adventitious root (b) stem (c) leaf (d) stipules
5. Which of the following is not a stem modification? [2017]
(a) Pitcher of Nepenthes. (b) Thorns of citrus.
(c) Tendrils of cucumber. (d) Flattened
structures of Opuntia.
6. Coconut fruit is a _______. [2017]
(a) Berry (b) Nut (c) Capsule (d) Drupe
7. The morphological nature of the edible part of coconut is _______.
[2017]
(a) cotyledon (b) endosperm (c) pericarp (d) perisperm

163
8. Stems modified into flat green organs performing the functions of leaves are known
as _______ [2016]
(a) cladodes (b) phyllodes (c) phylloclades (d) scales
9. The standard petal of a papilionaceous corolla is also called _______. [2016]
(a) carina (b) pappus (c) vexillum (d) corona
10. Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the_______.
[2016]
(a) anther (b) connective (c) placenta (d) thalamus or
petal
11. Cotyledon of maize grain is called _______. [2016]
(a) plumule (b) coleorhiza (c) coleoptile (d) scutellum
12. Tricarpellary syncarpous gynoecium is found in flowers of _______.
[2016]
(a) liliaceae (b) Solanaceae (c) fabaceae (d) poaceae
13. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched? [2015]

14. Leaves become modified into spines in: [2015]

(a) Pea (b) Onion (c) Silk cotton (d) Opuntia
15. Flowers are unisexual in: [2015]
(a) Cucumber (b) China rose (c) Onion (d) Pea
16. Perigynous flowers are found in: [2015]
(a) Cucumber (b) China rose (c) Rose (d) Guava

17. Which one of the following fruits is parthenocarpic? [2015]

(a) Apple (b) Jackfruit (c) Banana (d) Brinjal
18. The wheat grain has an embryo with one, large, shieldshaped cotyledon known as
_______. [2015]
(a) coleorrhiza (b) scutellum (c) coleoptile (d) epiblast
19. Axile placentation is present in _______. [2015]
(a) lemon (b) pea (c) Argemone (d) Dianthus
20. Among china rose, mustard, brinjal, potato, guava, cucumber, onion and tulip, how
many plants have superior ovary? [2015]
(a) Six (b) Three (c) Four (d) Five
21. Coconut water from a tender coconut is [2015]
(a) free nuclear endosperm. (b) innermost layers of the seed coar.
(c) degenerated nucellus. (d) immature
emryo.

164
22. is the floral formula of _______. [2015]
(a) Sesbania (b) Petunia (c) Brassica (d) Allium
23. Keel is the characteristic feature of flower of :
[2015]
(a) Indigofera (b) Aloe (c) Tomato (d) Tulip
24. An example of edible underground stem is: [2014]
(a) Carrot (b) Groundnut (c) Sweet potato (d) Potato
25. When the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another without any particular
direction, the condition is termed as: [2014]
(a) Vexillary (b) Imbricate (c) Twisted (d) Valvate
26. Placenta and pericarp are both edible portions in _______. [2014]
(a) apple (b) banana (c) tomato (d) potato
27. An aggregate fruit is one which develops from [2014]
(a) multicarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium. (b) multicarpellary, apocarpus
gynoecium.
(c) complete inflorescence. (d) multicarpellary, superior ovary.
28. Which one of the following statement is correct? [2014]
(a) The seed in grasses is not endospermic. (b) Mango is a parthenocarpic fruit.
(c) A proteinaceous aleurone layer is present in maize grain.
(d) A sterile pistil is called a staminode.
29. Placentation, in which ovules develop on the inner wall of the ovary or in peripheral
part, is (NEET-2019)
(1) Basal (2) Axile (3) Parietal (4) Free central
30. Which of the following shows whorled phyllotaxy ? (NEET-2019 ODISSA)
(1) Mustard (2) China rose (3) Alstonia (4) Calotropis
31. Bicarpellary ovary with obliquely placed septum is seen in (NEET-2019 ODISSA)
(1) Brassica (2) Aloe (3) Solanum (4) Sesbania
32. Match the placental types (column-I) with their examples (column-II)
(NEET-2019 ODISSA)
Column-I Column-II
(a) Basal (i) Mustard
(b) Axile (ii) China rose
(c) Parietal (iii) Dianthus
(d) Free central (iv) Sunflower
Choose the correct answer from the following options:
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
33. Which of the following is the correct floral formula of Liliaceae? (NEET-2020 COVID)

(1) (2)

165
 (3) (4)
34. Correct position of floral parts over thalamus in mustard plant is :(NEET-2020 COVID)

(1) Gynoecium occupies the highest position, while the other parts are situated
below it.
(2) Margin of the thalamus grows upward, enclosing the ovary completely, and other
parts arise below the ovary.
(3) Gynoecium is present in the centre and other parts cover it partially.
(4) Gynoecium is situated in the centre, and other\ parts of the flower are located at
the rim of the
thalamus, at the same level.
35. In some plants thalamus contributes to fruitformation. Such fruits are termed as
(NEET-2020 COVID)
(1) False fruits (2) Aggregate fruits (3) True fruits (4)
Parthenocarpic fruit
36. Identify the correct features of Mango and Coconut fruits. (NEET-2020 COVID)
(i) In both fruit is a drupe
(ii) Endocarp is edible in both
(iii) Mesocarp in Coconut is fibrous, and in Mango it is fleshy
(iv) In both, fruit develops from monocarpellary ovary
Select the correct option from below:
(1) (i), (iii) and (iv) only (2) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (3) (i) and (iv) only (4) (i) and (ii)
only
37. The roots that originate from the base of the stem are (NEET-2020)
1) Lateral roots 2) Fibrous roots 3) Primary roots 4) Prop
roots
38. Ray florets have: (NEET-2020)
1) Half inferior ovary 2) Inferior ovary 3) Superior ovary 4) Hypogynous
ovary
39. The ovary is half inferior in (NEET-2020)
1) Plum 2) Brinjal 3) Mustard 4) Sunflower
40. Diadelphous stamens are found in: [NEET-2021]
1) Citrus 2) Pea 3) China rose and citrus 4) China rose
41. Match List – I with List – II [NEET-2021]
List – I List – II
a) i) Brassicaceae

b) ii) Liliaceae

166
 c) iii) Fabaceae

d) iv) Solanaceae

a b c d
1) i ii iii iv
2) ii iii iv i
3) iv ii I iii
4) iii iv ii i
42. Which one of the following plants show vexillary aestivation and diadelphous
stamens?
1) Colchiumautumnale 2) Pisum sativum [NEET-2022]
3) allium cepa 4) Solanum nigrum
43. The flowers are Zygomorphic in: [NEET-2022]
a) Mustard b) Gulmohar c) Cassia d) Datura
e) Chilly
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) a, b, c only 2) b, c only 3) d, e only 4) c, d, e only
44. Identify the correct set of statements: [NEET-2022]
a) The leaflets are modified into pointed hard thorns in citrus and Bougainvillea
b) Axillary buds form slender and spirally coiled tendrils in cucumber and pumpkin
c) Stem is flattened and fleshy in opuntia and modified to perform the function of
leaves
d) Rhizophora shows vertically upward growing roots that help to get oxygen for
respiration
e) Subaerially growing stems in grasses and strawberry help in vegetative
propagation.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1) b and c only 2) a and d only
3) b, c, d and e only 4) a, b, d and e only

167
 NCERT LINE BY LINE QUESTIONS – ANSWER

1) B 2) C 3) C 4) B 5) A 6) D 7) A 8) B 9) D 10) B
11) C 12) B 13) D 14) B 15) B 16) A 17) B 18) D 19) B 20) A
21) D 22) B 23) A 24) A 25) A 26) B 27) A 28) B 29) A 30) B
31) A 32) B 33) C 34) B 35) A 36) C 37) A 38) A 39) B 40) B
41) A 42) D 43) A 44) D 45) D 46) D 47) A 48) A 49) A 50) A
51) A 52) C 53) A 54) C 55) B 56) A 57) B 58) B 59) B 60) A
61) B 62) D 63) A 64) B 65) D 66) A 67) D 68) D 69) B 70) C
71) A 72) B 73) A 74) D 75) B 76) C 77) D 78) A 79) D 80) A
81) A 82) A 83) A 84) B 85) D 86) B 87) A 88) D 89) B 90) B
91) B 92) A 93) A 94) A 95) A 96) A 97) D 98) B 99) D 100) A
101) C 102) B 103) C 104) B 105) C 106) A 107) B 108) D 109) B 110) A
111) A 112) A 113) C 114) C 115) C 116) A 117) D 118) C 119) D 120) B
121) A 122) A 123) C 124) B 125) C 126) A 127) B 128) A 129) C 130) D
131) B 132) A 133) C 134) D 135) A 136) B 137) B 138) D 139) D 140) D
141) A 142) B 143) A 144) B 145) A 146) A 147) B 148) B 149) B 150) C

168
 NEET PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS -KEY
1 (b) 2 (a) 3 (a) 4 (b) 5 (a) 6 (d) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (c) 10 (d)
11 (d) 12 (a) 13 (b) 14 (d) 15 (a) 16 (c) 17 (c) 18 (b) 19 (a) 20 (a)
21 (a) 22 (b) 23 (a) 24 (d) 25 (b) 26 (c) 27 (b) 28 (c) 29 (3) 30 (3)
31 (3) 32 (3) 33 (3) 34 (1) 35 (1) 36 (1) 37 (2) 38 (2) 39 (1) 40 (2)
41 (4) 42 (2) 43 (2) 44 (3)

NEET PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS -Explanations

1. (b) Sweet potato is a modified adventitious root for storage of food. Rhizomes are
underground modified stem. Tap root is primary root directly elongated from the
radicle.
2. (a)
3. (a) Halophytes growing in saline soils show vivipary for seed germination and have
pneumatophores for
gaseous exchange.
4. (b) 5. (a)
6. (d) Coconut fruit is a drupe. A drupe is a fleshy fruit with thin skin and central stone
containing the seed.
7. (b) The edible part of coconut is its endosperm. Coconut has double endosperm,
liquid endosperm and cellular.
8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (d) 11. (d) 12. (a)
13. (b) Binary fission usually takes place in Amoeba, Paramecium and Euglena.
14. (d)
15. (a) The flowers of cucumber are unisexual, it means they have only male flowers or
only female flowers.
16. (c) Ovary is partly superior and partly inferior in perigynous flower.
17. (c) Parthenocarpic fruits (e.g., banana) are produced without fertilisation of ovule.
18. (b)
19. (a)
20. (a) Superior ovary is found in china rose, mustard, brinjal, potato, onion and tulip.
Guava and cucumber have
inferior ovary.
21. (a) Coconut water is the free nuclear endosperm.
22. (b) Floral formula of Petunia (solanaceae) is

23. (a) Indigofera is a member of family fabaceae. It has keel type of floral structure in
which two anterior fused petals are present.
24. (d)
25. (b) If the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another but not in any particular
direction as in Cassia andgulmohur, the aestivation is called imbricate.
26. (c) In tomato, edible part is pericarp and placenta.

169
27. (b) Aggregate fruits (etaerio) develop from the multicarpellary apocarpous ovary.
They are of followingtypes- etaerio of follicles, etaerio of achenes, etaerio of
berries, etaerio of drupes.
28. (c)
37. The roots that originate from the base of the stem are adventitious roots or fibrous
roots

38. Ray florets are present in head inflorescence of asteraceae, these followers
contains inferior ovary

39 Peach, Plum and rose shows half inferior ovary

40. Diadelphous stamens are found in Fabaceae members – pea

41. The floral formula of

So a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) is correct matching.

42. Pisumsativum show vexillary aestivation and diadelphous stamens
43. In Cassia&Gulmohar flowers are Zygomorphic
In mustard, Datura and chilli the flowers are actinomorphic
44 B, C, D & E statements are correct
In citrus and Bougainvillea the stem is modified into pointed hard thorns

170
 6. ANATOMY OF
FLOWERING PLANTS

Biology Smart Booklet

Theory + NCERT MCQs + NEET PYQs

171
172
 ANATOMY OF FLOWERING PLANTS
Anatomy
Anatomy is the study of internal structure of organisms. Plant anatomy includes
organization and structure of tissues. Tissue is a group is cells having a common
origin and usually performing a common function.

The Tissue
A group of cells having a common origin and usually performing common
function are called tissues.
There are two types of tissues (i) Meristematic (ii) Permanent.

Meristematic Tissues: The meristematic tissue is made up of the cells which

have the capability to divide. Meristems in plants are restricted to a
specialized regions and responsible to the growth of plants.

Permanent Tissues: The permanent tissues are derived from meristematic

tissue, are composed of cells, which have lost the ability to divide and have
become structurally and functionally specialised.

Meristematic tissues:
There are three types of Meristem:

 Apical meristem
 Intercalary meristem
 Lateral meristem

Apical meristem: Meristematic tissue is a simple tissue composed of group of

similar and immature cells which can divide and form new cells. The meristem
which occurs at tips of roots and shoots are called apical meristem.

Intercalary meristem: Intercalary meristem occurs between mature tissues

especially in grasses. Both apical meristems and intercalary meristems are
primary meristems because they appear early in life of a plant and help to form
the primary plant body.

Lateral meristem: The meristem which occurs on the sides and takes part in
increasing girth of the plants are called Lateral meristem. Intrafascicular
cambium in the primary lateral meristem. Vascular cambium, cork cambium
are secondary meristem.

Axillary bud: The buds which are present in the axils of leaves (Consist of cells
left behind from shoot apical meristem) and are responsible for forming
branches of flowers.

Permanenttissues

173
The permanent tissues are derived from meristematic tissue, are composed of
cells, which have lost the ability to divide and have become structurally and
functionally specialized.

Parenchyma: Parenchyma is a simple permanent living tissue which is made

up of thin-walled isodiametric cells. Each cell encloses a large central vacuole
and peripheral cytoplasm containing nucleus. They are found in non-woody
and soft areas of stem, root, leaves, fruits and flowers. They store the food and
provide turgidity to softer parts of plant.

Collenchyma: Collenchyma consists of cells which are much thickened at

corner due to cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin. Oval, spherical or polygonal
often contain chlorophyll. They provide mechanical support to the growing
parts of the plants like young stem.

Sclerenchyma: Sclerenchyma are supportive tissue having highly thick-walled

cells with little or no protoplasm due to deposition of cellulose or lignin. They
are of two types: fibers and sclereids. They provide mechanical support to

174
mature plant organs to tolerate bending, shearing, compression etc.

Complex tissue: Permanent tissues having all cells similar in structure and
function are called simple permanent tissues and those having different kinds
of cells are called complex tissue.

Xylem: Xylem consists of tracheid’s vessels, xylem fibers and xylem

parenchyma. It conducts water and minerals from roots to other parts of
plant.

Phloem: Phloem consists of sieve tube elements, companion cells, phloem

fibers and phloem parenchyma; Phloem transports the food material from
leaves to various parts of the plant.

175
Endarch: Primary xylem is of two types- protoxylem and metaxylem. In stem,
protoxylem lies in centre and metaxylem towards periphery. This type of primary
xylem is called endarch.
Exarch: In roots, protoxylem lies in periphery and metaxylem lies towards the
center. This type of primary xylem is called exarch.

Tissue System
The tissue system is divided into three categories based on a division of labor.
Each system usually consists of a combination of tissue organizations that
perform specific functions.

Epidermal Tissue System

 It forms the outermost covering of whole plant body, which consists of
epidermal cells, stomata, epidermal appendages (trichomes and hairs).
 Epidermis is single layered, parenchymatous with waxy thick layers of
cuticle to prevent water loss.
 Stomata is present in epidermis of leaves. It regulates the transpiration and
gaseous exchange. In dicots, stomata are bean-shaped having two guard
cells closing the stomatal pore. In monocots, stoma is dumbbell shaped.
Guard cells contain chloroplasts and help in opening and closing of
stomata.
 Guard cells are surrounded by subsidiary cells. The stomatal aperture,
guard cells and the surrounding subsidiary cells are together called
stomatal apparatus.
 Epidermis also contains a number of hairs. Root hairs are unicellular
elongation of epidermal cells. Trichomes are present on stems, which are
multicellular, branched or un-branched preventing water loss due to
transpiration.

The ground Tissue System

 All the tissue between epidermis and vascular bundle forms the ground
tissues. It consists of simple permanent tissues. Parenchyma is present in
pericycle, cortex, pith and medullary rays in stem and roots.

176
  In leaves the mesophyll, chloroplast containing cell, forms the ground
tissues.

The vascular tissue system

It includes vascular bundles which are made up of xylem and phloem.

Anatomy of Root
Dicot Root Monocot Root
Cortex is comparatively narrow. Cortex is very wide.
Endodermis is less thicknened Endodermal cells are highly thickened
casparian strips are more Casparian strips are visible only in young
prominent. roots.
The xylem and phloem bundles Xylem and phloem are more than 6
varies from 2 to 5. (polyarch).
Pith is absent or very small. Well developed pith is present.
Secondary growth takes place. Secondary growth is absent.

Casparian Strips
The tangential as well as radial walls of endodermal cells of dicot roots have
deposition of water impermeable, waxy material, suberin in the form of
casparian strips.

Anatomy of Stem

177
 Dicot Stem Monocot Stem
The ground tissue is differentiated The ground tissue is made up of similar cells
into cortex, endodermis, pericycle
and pitch.
The vascular bundles are arranged The vascular bundles are scattered
in a ring. throughout the ground tissue.
Vascular bundles are open, without Vascular bundles are closed, by
Surrounded bundle sheath and wedge- sclerenchymatous bundle sheath,
shaped outline. oval or rounded in shape.
The stem shows secondary growth due to Secondary growth is absent.
presence of cambium between xylem and
phloem.

Secondary growth dicot stem

An increase in the girth (diameter) in plants. Vascular cambium and cork
cambium (lateral meristems) are involved in secondary growth.

 Formation of cambial ring: Intrafascicular cambium + interfascicular

cambium.
 Formation of secondary xylem and secondary phloem from cambial ring.
 Formation of spring wood and autumn wood.
 Development of cork cambium(phellogen).

Secondary growth in dicot roots

Secondary growth in dicot roots occur with the activity of secondary meristems
(vascular cambium). This cambium is produced in the stele and cortex, and
results in increasing the girth of dicot roots.
Spring wood
It is also called early wood in which cambium is active Vessels with wide cavities
& Light in colour, low density presence of Xylary elements more.
Autumn Wood
Also called late wood in which cambium is less active presence of Xylary
elements is less Vessels are narrow & Dark, high density.
Heartwood
Central or innermost region of stem which is hard, durable and resistant to
attack of Microorganisms and insects & Not involved in conduction of water,
gives mechanical support to stem.
Sapwood
Peripheral region stem, light in colour Involved in conduction of water and
mineral.
Anatomy of Leaf

178
 Dorsiventral (Dicot) Leaf Isobilateral (monocot) Leaf
Stomata are absent. Stomata present on both sides.
Mesophyll is differentiated into two Mesophyll is undifferentiated.
parts.
Bundle sheath is single layered. Bundle sheath is double layered
Hypodermis of the mid-rib region, is Hypodermis of the mid-rib region is
collenchymatous. sclerenchymatous.
Stomata have kidney shaped guard Stomata have kidney shaped dumb cells.
cells.

Cork Cambium
 Meristematic tissue which develops in the cortex region is called cork
cambium or phellogen.
 The phellogen cuts off cells on both sides. The outer cells differentiate to
form cork or phellem while the inner cells differentiate into secondary
cortex or phelloderm.
 Phellogen, phellem and phelloderm are collectively called periderm.
 Due to activity of the cork cambium, pressure builds up on the remaining
layers peripheral
Lenticels
 At certain regions, the phellogen cuts off closely arranged
parenchymatous cells on the outer side instead of cork cells. These
parenchymatous cells soon rupture the epidermis, forming a lens-shaped
openings called lenticels.
 Lenticels permit the exchange of gases between the outer atmosphere
and the internal tissue of the stem.
Secondary Growth in Roots
 The vascular cambium of the dicot root originates from the tissue located
just below the phloem bundles. A portion of pericycle tissue present
above the protoxylem forms a continuous wavy ring. It gradually
becomes circular. Rest of the steps are similar as in dicot stem.
 Secondary growth takes place in stems and roots of gymnosperms. No
secondary growth occurs in monocots.

179
 NCERT LINE BY LINE QUESTIONS
Paragraph 6.1 The Tissues
Paragraph 6.1.1 Meristematictissues:
1. Apical meristems (Pg. 84, E)
A) Occur at root tip B) Produce primary tissues
C) Regenerate parts of plant D) Both A & B
2. During leaf formation and stem elongation, some cells of apical meristem left behind form-
(Pg. 84, E)
A) Primary cell. B) Intercalary meristem
C) Axillary bud D) Interfascicular cambium
3. Intercalary meristem (Pg. 85, E)
A) Occur in grasses B) Occur between mature tissue
C) Both A & B D) None
4. Primary meristem (Pg. 85, E)
A) Appear later in life of plant B) Appear early in life of plant
C) Regenerates parts of plant D) Both B & C
5. Primary body of plant is formed by- (Pg. 85, E)
A) Meristem B) Vascular cambium
C) Both A & B D) None
6. Lateral meristem are- (Pg. 85, E)
A) Type of primary meristem
B) Appearing early in life of plant
C) Responsible for producing secondary tissues
D) Both A & B
7. Secondary meristem include- (Pg. 85, E)
A) Fascicular vascular cambium B) Cork cambium
C) Secondary phloem D) Both A and B
8. Meristem that occur in mature region of root and shoot of plant- (Pg. 85, E)
A) Apical meristem B) Intercalary meristem
C) Lateral meristem D) None of these
9. Identify the correct labels- (Pg. 85, E)

180
 A) (i) – cortex, (ii) – Protoderm, (iii) –initial of central cylinder & cortex
B) (i) – Protoderm, (ii) – cortex, (iii) – central cylinder
C) (i) – central cylinder, (ii) – cortex, (iii) – Protoderm
D) (i) – central cylinder, (ii) – Protodrem, (iii) – cortex
10. Identify the axillary bud in given figure – (Pg. 85, E)

A) (i) B) (ii) C) (iii) D) Both (ii) and (iii)

Paragraph – 6.1.2 Permanent
Tissue
11. Cell of permanent tissue (Pg. 86, E)
A) Divide regularly to repair damage B) Divide occasionally
C) Do not divide generally D) Both (B) and (C)
12. Simple tissue are – (Pg. 86, E)
A) Meristematic tissues having all cells similar in structure and function
B) Meristematic tissues having different types of cells
C) Permanent tissues having all cells similar in structure and function
D) Permanent tissues having many different type of cells
13. Complex tissues are – (Pg. 86, E)
A) Meristematic tissues having all cells similar in structure and function
B) Permanent tissues having all cells similar in structure and function
C) Meristematic tissues having different types of cells
D) Permanent tissues having different types of cells.
Paragraph – 6.1.2.1 Simple tissue
14. Simple tissues are made of (Pg. 86, E)
A) Some types of cells of similar origin
B) Only one type cells
C) Different types of cells of same origin
D) Different types of cells of different origin
15. Major component within organs is formed by – (Pg. 86, E)
A) Collenchyma B) Sclerenchyma
C) Parenchyma D) All of these
16. Walls of parenchyma are made of– (Pg. 86, E)
A) Proteose B) Cellulose C) Keratin D) Pectin
17. Parenchyma performs functions – (Pg. 86, E)

181
 A) Photosynthesis B) Storage
C) Secretion D) All of the above
18. Parenchyma cells are generally – (Pg. 86, E)
A) Of varying diameters, with no intercellular space
B) Of similar diameters, with no intercellular space
C) Of similar diameters, with small intercellular space
D) Both B and C
19. Where does collenchyma occur? (Pg. 86, E)
A) Below endodermis in most monocots
B) Below epidermis in most monocots
C) Below epidermis in most dicots
D) Below endodermis in most dicots
20. Cell of collenchyma are thickened at corners due to deposition of (Pg. 86, E)
A) Cellulose B) Hemicellulose
C) Pectin D) All of these
21. Collenchyma cells – (Pg. 86, E)
A) May be polygonal and never contain chloroplasts.
B) May be polygonal and often contain chloroplasts
C) May be oval and contain chloroplasts
D) Both B and C
22. Collenchyma cells (Pg. 86, E)
A) Have no intercellular spaces
B) Have large intercellular spaces
C) May or may not have intercellular spaces
D) None of these
23. Mechanical support in plants is provides by (Pg. 86, E)
A) Parenchyma B) Collenchyma
C) Sclerenchyma D) Both B and C
24. Choose the best option (Pg. 86, M)
A) All collenchymatous cells Assimilate food
B) No collenchymatous cells assimilate food
C) Some collenchymatous cells do not assimilate food
D) All collenchymatous cells do not assimilate food
25. Collenchyma provide mechanical support to – (Pg. 86, E)
A) Young stem B) Petiole of leaf organs only
C) Organs only D) All of these
26. Identify the given figure (Pg. 86, E)

A) (i) – parenchyma, (ii) – fibre, (iii) – sclereid, (iv) – collenchyma

B) (i) – sclereids, (ii) – fibre, (iii) – parenchyma, (iv) collenchyma
C) (i) – collenchyma, (ii) – sclerids, (iii) – fobres, (iv) – parenchyma
D) (i) – collenchyma, (ii) fibre, (iii) – sclereids, (iv) – parenchyma
27. Sclenenchyma cells are – (Pg. 86, E)
A) Usually dead with protoplast B) Usually dead without protoplast

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 C) Usually living with protoplast D) Usually living without protoplast
28. Read the given statements – (Pg. 86, M)
(i) Sclereids are found in leaves of tea.
(ii) Fibres generally occur single in various plant parts.
(iii) Sclerenchyma provides mechanical support to young stems.
(iv) Parenchyma cells have thick walls.
(v) Collenchyma cells are thickened at corners.
How many are correct
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 1
29. Pulp of pear has which type of sclerenchyma cells- (Pg. 87, E)
A) Sclereids B) Fibres C) Tracheids D) Trichomes
Paragraph – 6.1.2.2
Complex Tissues
30. Complex tissues are – (Pg. 87, E)
A) Made of one of cells, working as unit
B) Made of many types of cells, working as a unit
C) Made of one type of cells, working separately
D) Made of many types of cells, working separately
31. Xylem has following functions except– (Pg. 87, E)
A) Conducting water from roots to upper plant part
B) Conducting minerals from leaves to roots
C) Providing mechanical strength to plant parts
D) Conducting sap from roots to leaves
32. Xylem tissue consists of- (Pg. 87, E)
A) Sieve tube, companion cells, fibres, parenchyma
B) Sieve cells, vessels, fibres, parenchyma
C) Vessels, tracheids, sieve tube, fibres
D) Vessels, tracheid, fibres, parenchyma
33. Gymnosperms lack- (Pg. 87, E)
A) Xylem vessels B) Companion cells
C) Sieve tubes and companion cells D) All of the above
34. Phloem of gymnosperms possess- (Pg. 87, E)
A) Albuminous cells B) Companion cells
C) Sieve tube D) Both (B) and (C)
35. Xylem has all dead cells except- (Pg. 87, E)
A) Xylem parenchyma B) Xylem fibres
C) Xylem vessels D) Xylem tracheids
36. Ray parenchymatous cells help in – (Pg. 87, E)
A) Radial conduction of food B) Axial conduction of water
C) Axial conduction of food D) Radial conduction of water
37. Food materials can be stored in xylem parenchyma in all of these forms except –
(Pg. 87, E)
A) Starch B) Fat C) Tannin D) None
38. In stems, (Pg. 87, E)
A) Protoxylem lies towards centre and metaxylem towards periphery, called endarch
B) Protoxylem lies towards centre and metaxylem towards periphery, called exarch
C) Metaxylem lies towards centre and protoxylem towards periphery called endarch
D) Metaxylem lies towards centre and protoxylem towards periphery called exarch

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39. In roots – (Pg. 87, E)
A) Protoxylem lies towards centre and metaxylem towards periphery, called endarch
B) Protoxylem lies towards centre and metaxylem towards periphery, called exarch
C) Metaxylem lies towards centre and protoxylem towards periphery called endarch
D) Metaxylem lies towards centre and protoxylem towards periphery called exarch
40. A maturāe sieve elements – (Pg. 88, E)
A) Have peripheral nucleus
B) Have peripheral cytoplasm and no nucleus
C) Have no vacuole and no nucleus
D) Have large vacuole and peripheral nucleus
41. Phloem fibres – (Pg. 88, E)
A) Are made of parenchyma B) Are made of collenchyma
C) Present in primary phloem D) Present in secondary phloem
42. Which of the statements about Phloem is correct? (Pg. 88, M)
A) Protoploem consists of narrow sieve tube
B) Metaphloem consists of narrow sieve tubes
C) Protopholem consists of bigger sieve tubes
D) Both protophloem and metaphloem have bigger sieve tubes.
Paragraph – 6.2
The tissue system
43. The three types of tissue systems – epidermal ground and vascular systems are classified based
on their- (Pg. 88, E)
A) Function B) Location C) Structure D) Both (B) and (C)
Paragraph – 6.2.1
Epidermal tissue system
44. Outer layer of primary plant body is – (Pg. 88, E)
A) Epiblema B) Epidermis C) Epicarp D) Ectodermis
45. Waxy layer on epidermis- (Pg. 89, E)
A) is called trichome B) is called epiblema
C) is absent in roots D) help in exchange of gases
46. Consider the following statements – (Pg. 89, E)
i) Epidermal cells are parenchymatous.
ii) Epidermis is usually two – layered.
iii) Stomata are usually present inepidermis of stem.
iv) Outer walls of guard cells are thick andinner walls are thin.
v) Subsidiary cells are epidermal cells.
How many of these statements areincorrect?
A) 2 B) 1 C) 3 D) 4
47. Stomatal apparatus consists of – (Pg. 89, E)
A) Stomatal aperture only B) Stomatal aperture and guard cells
C) Subsidiary cells D) Both (B) and (C)
48. Epidermal cells modify to form (Pg. 89, E)
A) Trichomes only B) Trichomes, Root hairs, Stomata
C) Trichomes, Root hair, Subsidiary cells D) Root hairs only
49. Trichomes – (Pg. 89, E)
A) Present on stem and are multicellular
B) Present on root and are multicellular
C) Present on stem and are unicellular

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 D) Present on root and are unicellular
Paragraph – 6.2.2
The ground Tissue System
50. All tissues are included in ground tissueexcept – (Pg. 89, E)
A) Cortex B) Pith C) Pericycle D) Epidermis
51. In leaves, mesophyll is present in – (Pg. 89, E)
A) Epidermal tissue system B) Ground tissue system
C) Vascular tissue system D) Both (A) & (B)
Paragraph – 6.2.3
The Vascular Tissue System
52. In dicots stem, which condition is present (Pg. 90, E)
A) Cambium present between xylem &phloem, known as closed type vascularbundle
B) Cambium absent between xylem &phloem, known as closed type vascularbundle.
C) Cambium present outside xylem &phloem, known as open type vascularbundle
D) Cambium present between xylem &phloem, known as open type vascularbundle.
53. A : Monocot have closed type of vascularbundles
R : monocots do not show secondarygrowth (Pg. 90, H)
A) Both A and R are correct and R iscorrect explanation of A
B) Both A & R are correct and R is not theexplanation of A
C) A is correct and R is incorrect
D) Both A & R are incorrect
54. Read given statements in context of givenfigure (Pg. 90, E)

i) A is xylem and B is phloem

ii) A is phloem and B is xylem
iii) Primary xylem in figure is endarchtype.
iv) Primary in figure is exarch type.
Choose the correct statements
A) (i) and (iii) B) (i) and (iv) C) (ii) and (iii) D) (ii) and (iv)
55. The given figure can be vascular bundle of (Pg. 90, E)

A) Shoot of sunflower B) Shoot of grass

C) Root of sunflower D) Root of grass
Paragraph – 6.3
Anatomy of Dicot & Monocot Plants
56. For understand the tissue organization ofroots, stems and leaves better, it is convenient to
study– (Pg. 90, E)

185
 A) Longitudinal section of young andgrowing zones of organs
B) Transverse section of young & growingzones of organs
C) Longitudinal section of mature zones oforgans
D) Transverse section of mature zones oforgans
Paragraph – 6.3.1
Dicotyledonous Root
57. Choose correct order of cells from outsideto inside in a sunflower root- (Pg. 90, E)
A) Epidermis – endodermis – cortex –pericycle
B) Epiblema – cortex – endodermis –pericycle
C) Epiblema – cortex – pericycle –endodermis
D) Epidermis – endodermis – pericycle –cortex
58. Suberin is deposited on – (Pg. 90, E)
A) Tangential walls of epidermal cells
B) Radial walls of cortical cells
C) Tangential walls of endodermal cells
D) radial walls of epidermal cells
59. The substance that casparian strips ismade up of is – (Pg. 91, E)
A) waxy B) water – impermeable
C) suberin D) all of these
60. Initiation of lateral roots in dicot duringsecondary growth occurs in – (Pg. 91, E)
A) Endodermal cells B) Pericycle
C) Medullary ray D) Conjunctive tissue
61. Initiation of vascular cambium in dicotroot during secondary growth occurs from–
(Pg. 91, E)
A) Thin walled parenchymatous cells
B) Thick walled collenchyma cells
C) Thinn walled endodermal cells
D) Thick walled parenchyma cells
62. Which of the following is true about
A) Parenchymatous and lie outsidephloem
B) Parenchymatous and lie outsideendodermis
C) Collenchymatous and lie betweenxylem and phloem
D) Parenchymatous and lie between xylem& phloem
63. Endodermis is present in dicot root in (Pg. 91, E)
A) Two layer with little intercellularspaces
B) Two layer without any intercellularspaces
C) Single layer with little intercellularspaces
D) Single layer without any intercellularspaces
64. Cortex of dicot root consists of – (Pg. 91, E)
A) Multi layers of thick walledparenchyma
B) Multi layers of thin walled parenchyma
C) Single layer of thick walledparenchyma
D) Single layer of thin walled parenchyma
65. Innermost layer of cortex in dicot root is – (Pg. 91, E)
A) Pericycle B) Hypodermis C) Endodermis D) Pith
66. Parenchyma cells are generally thinwalled. An example of thick-walledparenchyma in dicot
root is (Pg. 91, E)
A) Pith B) Pericycle C) Endodermis D) Hypodermis

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67. Stele includes (Pg. 91, E)
A) Endodermis, pericycle, pith
B) Endodermis, pericycle, vascularbundles
C) Pericycle, vascular bundle, pith
D) Endodermis, vascular bundle, pith
68. Identify the figure (i) & (ii) (Pg. 91, E)

A) (i)– T.S of dicot root(ii) – T.S of monocot root

B) (i) – T.S of dicot stem(ii) – T.S of monocot stem
C) (i) – T.S of monocot root(ii) – T.S of dicot root
D) (i) – L.S of monocot stem(ii) – L.S of dicot root
69. Identify the correct labels of monocot root T.S (Pg. 91, E)
A) (i)- cortex, (ii)- endodermis, (iii)-pericycle
B) (ii)- cortex, (i)- endodermis, (iii)-pericycle
C) (iii)- cortex, (ii)- endodermis, (i)-pericycle
D) (i)- cortex, (iii)- endodermis, (ii)-pericycle

Paragraph – 6.3.2
Monocotyledonous Root
70. Xylem bundles in monocot root- (Pg. 91, E)
A) Are fewer than dicot root B) Are less than six
C) Are polyarchy D) All of the above
71. Secondary growth in monocot roots occur- (Pg. 91, E)
A) By vascular cambium B) By interfascicular cambium
C) Both A & B D) None of these
Paragraph – 6.3.3
Dicotyledonous Stem
72. Epidermis of dicot stem- (Pg. 91, E)
A) Is called epiblema B) Lacks stomata
C) Has a thin layer of cuticle D) Lacks trichomes
73. Cortex in dicot stem is found between- (Pg. 92, E)
A) Epidermis and endodermis B) Endodermis and pericycle
C) Pericycle and pith D) Endodermis and pith
74. Hypodermis of dicot stem is made of- (Pg. 92, E)
A) Parenchyma B) Collenchyma
C) Sclerenchyma D) All of these
75. Starch sheath is found in dicot stem in- - (Pg. 92, E)
A) Endodermis B) Cortex C) Pericycle D) Pith
76. Cortical cells dicot stem has- (Pg. 92, E)
A) No intercellular spaces
B) Inconspicuous intercellular spaces

187
 C) Conspicuous intercellular spaces
D) Very large intercellular spaces
77. Pericycle of dicot stem is present in theform of- (Pg. 92, E)
A) Semi – square patches of collenchyma
B) Semi – lunar patches of sclerenchyma
C) Semi – lunar patches of collenchyma
D) Semi – lunar patches of parenchyma
78. Medullary rays are – (Pg. 92, E)
A) Axially placed, parenchymatous
B) Axially placed, collenchymatous
C) Radially placed, parenchymatous
D) Radially placed, collenchymatous
79. Location of medullary rays – (Pg. 92, E)
A) Above endodermis
B) Between endodermis and pericycle
C) Between pericycle and cortex
D) Between vascular bundles
80. In sunflower stem, vascular bundle is- (Pg. 93 E)
A) Conjoint, closed, exarch protoxylem
B) radial, open, endarch protoxylem
C) conjoint, open, exarch protoxylem
D) conjoint, open, endarch protoxylem
81. which of these is incorrect about pith ofdicot stem? (Pg. 93, E)
A) Parenchymatous cells B) No intercellular space
C) Central portion of stem D) Large intercellular space
82. Identify the correct labels (Pg. 92, E)

A) (i)- protoxylem, (ii)- cambium, (iii)-phloem, (iv)- metaxylem

B) (ii)- protoxylem, (iv)- cambium, (i)-phloem, (iii)- metaxylem
C) (iv)- protoxylem, (i)- cambium, (ii)-phloem, (iii)- metaxylem
D) (iii)- protoxylem, (iv)- cambium, (i)-phloem, (ii)- metaxylem
83. Identify endodermis in the given figure- (Pg. 92, E)

A) (i) B) (ii) C) (iv) D) (iii)

188
 Paragraph – 6.3.4
Monocot Stem
84. Select the correct match of columns A & B (Pg. 93, M)
Column A Column B
i Hypodermis ofgrasses stem 1) parenchyma
ii Hypodermis ofsunflowerstem 2) Collenchyma
iii Bundlesheath ofgrasses stem 3) Sclerenchyma
iv Ground tissueof grassesstem
A) (i)- 2, (ii)- 3 B) (iv)- 1, (iii)- 1 C) (iii)- 3, (i)- 3 D) (ii)- 1, (iv)- 3
85. In monocot stem, (Pg. 93, E)
A) Peripheral vascular bundles aregenerally smaller than central ones
B) Central vascular bundles are generallysmaller than peripheral ones
C) Both peripheral and central are almostsame sized
D) None of these
86. Phloem parenchyma is absent in- (Pg. 93, E)
A) Gymnosperms B) Monocots C) Both D) None
87. The given figure is (Pg. 92, E)

A) Monocot root B) Dicot root C) Monocot stem D) Dicot stem

Paragraph – 6.3.5
Dorsiventral leaf (Dicot)
88. Read the given statements and choose thenumber of correct statements (Pg. 93, M)
(i) Leaf of dicot lack cuticle
(ii) Stomata on adaxial side of epidermis ismore in number than abaxial side
(iii) Mesophyll is the ground tissue in dicotleaf
(iv) The adaxial epidermis may lackstomata
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
89. In the leaf of sunflower, mesophyll lies- (Pg. 93, E)
A) Between epidermis and cortex
B) Between adaxial epidermis and abaxialepidermis
C) Between endodermis and pericycle
D) Between pericycle and vascularbundles
90. Which of the given statements about dicotleaf is incorrect? (Pg. 93, M)
A) The abaxial palisade parenchyma ismade of elongated cells
B) Spongy parenchyma is oval or round
C) The spongy parenchyma has largespaces between cells
D) The parenchyma on adaxial side of leafare arranged vertically & parallel toeach other
91. Consider the statements given below- (Pg. 93, M)
a) Size of vascular bundle in leaf dependupon size veins
b) Vascular bundles in leaf aresurrounded by bundle sheath cells
A) (a) is correct & (b) is incorrect B) (a) is incorrect & (b) is correct

189
 C) Both are correct D) Both ate incorrect
92. Identify the correct option in context ofgiven figures (Pg. 93, E)

A) (i)- dicot stem, (ii)- monocot stem

B) (i)- dicot leaf, (ii)- monocot leaf
C) (i)- monocot stem, (ii)- dicot stem
D) (i)- monocot leaf, (ii)- dicot leaf

Paragraph – 6.3.6
Isobilateral Leaf (Monocot)
93. Which of the following is correct forisobilateral leaves? (Pg. 94, E)
A) Present in all angiosperms
B) Two different types of mesophyll arefound
C) Stomata on both surfaces of mesophyll
D) Has similar sizes of vascular bundles
94. In grasses, large, empty, colourless cellsare called- (Pg. 94, E)
A) Subsidiary cells B) Complementary cells
C) Cortical cells D) None of these
95. Identify the incorrect statement in regardsto bulliform cells- (Pg. 94, E)
A) Present on abaxial side B) Empty cells
C) Makes leaf curl inward when flaccid
D) Helps to minimize water loss
96. Identify correct labels for given figure. (Pg. 94, E)

A) (i)- adaxial epidermis (ii)- abaxialepidermis, (iii)- xylem (iv)- phloem

B) (ii)- adaxial epidermis (i)- abaxialepidermis, (iii)- xylem (iv)- phloem
C) (i)- adaxial epidermis (ii)- abaxialepidermis, (iv)- xylem (iii)- phloem
D) (ii)- adaxial epidermis (i)- abaxialepidermis, (iv)- xylem (iii)- phloem
Paragraph – 6.4
Secondary growth
97. Increase in girth of plant- (Pg. 94, E)
A) Involves lateral meristem B) Involves intercalary meristem
C) Involves apical meristem D) All of these
Paragraph – 6.4.1
Vascular Cambium
98. Vascular cambium- (Pg. 94, E)

190
 i) Is meristematic
ii) Present in patches between xylem andphloem in young stem
iii) Present as a single layer between xylemand phloem in young stem
iv) Forms complete ring laterHow many of the above statements arecorrect-
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
Paragraph – 6.4.1.1
Formation of cambial ring
99. In dicot stem, cambium cells presentbetween xylem & phloem is- (Pg. 94, E)
A) Intrafasicular cambium B) Interfascicular cambium
C) Cork cambium D) Cortical cambium
100. Interfasicular cambium is formed by- (Pg. 94, E)
A) Pericycle cells B) Endodermal cells
C) Medullary cells D) Complementary cells
Paragraph – 6.4.1.2
Activity of Cambial Ring
101. Cambial ring cuts off new cells- (Pg. 95, E)
A) Towards inner side only B) Towards outer side only
C) Towards inner and outer side both D) Along its own axis
102. Cambial ring cuts off new cells – (Pg. 95, E)
A) Towards pith, called secondary phloem
B) Towards pith, called secondarycambium
C) Towards pith, called secondarymedullary rays
D) Towards pith, called secondary xylem
103. Cambial ring cut off – (Pg. 95, E)
A) More cells on outer side B) More cells on inner side
C) Equal cells on both sides D) Cells randomly
104. Assertion: secondary xylem form acompact mass.
Reason: cambium is lesser active on outerside comparatively.
Choose the best option- (Pg. 95, H)
A) Assertion & Reason both are correctand Reason is correct explanation for
Assertion.
B) Assertion & Reason both are correctand Reason is not the correctexplanation for Assertion
C) Assertion is correct but Reason isincorrect
D) Assertion is incorrect but Reason iscorrect
105. Secondary medullary rays are- (Pg. 95, E)
A) Narrow bands of parenchyma
B) Narrow bands of meristem
C) Wide bands of parenchyma
D) Wide bands of meristem
106. Which of these is correct about activity ofcambial ring? (Pg. 95, E)
A) Secondary xylem crushes primaryxylem
B) Secondary xylem crushes primaryphloem
C) Secondary xylem crushes secondaryphloem
D) Both B & C
107. Identify the secondary xylem in the figure- (Pg. 95, E)

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 A) (i) B) (ii) C) (iii) D) (iv)
Paragraph – 6.4.1.3
Spring wood and autumn wood
108. Activity of cambium is under control of- (Pg. 96, E)
A) Physiological factors B) Environmental factors
C) Both A & B D) Depend on season only
109. In spring, cambium produce (Pg. 96, E)
A) Less xylary elements, having vesselswith wider cavities
B) More xylary elements, having vesselswith wider cavities
C) Less xylary elements, having vesselswith narrow cavities
D) More xylary elements, having vesselswith narrow cavities
110. Select the characters of autumn wood fromthe list- (Pg. 96, E)
i) Light in colour ii) Dark in colour
iii) Low density iv) High density
v) Wider vessels vi) Narrow vessels
A) i, iii, v B) i, iv, vi C) ii, iv, vi D) ii, iii, v
111. Annual rings are constituted by- (Pg. 96, E)
A) Alternate concentric rings of 3 types ofwoods
B) continuous concentric rings of 3 typesof woods
C) Alternate concentric rings of 2 types ofwoods
D) continuous concentric rings of 2 typesof woods.
Paragraph – 6.4.1.4
Heartwood & Sapwood
112. Heartwood is- (Pg. 96, E)
A) Light in colour B) Dark in colour
C) Alternately light & dark in colour D) None of these
113. Consider the following statements aboutheartwood- (Pg. 96, E)
i) Lighter in colour
ii) Comprises dead elements
iii) Suberized walls
iv) Resistant to attack of micro-organisms
v) Conducts water and providemechanical support to plant
How many of the statements are correct?
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
Paragraph – 6.4.2
Cork Cambium
114. Assertion: Cork cambium is needed dueto activity of vascular cambium
Reason: Phellogen is present belowendodermis
Select the appropriate answer- (Pg. 96, E)
A) Both Assertion & Reason are correct
B) Assertion is correct and Reason iswrong

192
 C) Assertion is wrong and Reason iscorrect
D) Both Assertion and Reason are wrong
115. Phellogen is made of- (Pg. 96, E)
A) Narrow, thick-walled, meristematiccells
B) Narrow, thin-walled, parenchyma
C) Narrow, thick-walled, parenchyma
D) Narrow, thin-walled, meristem
116. Phellogens cuts- (Pg. 96, E)
A) Cork on inner side and phelloderm onoutside
B) Phellem on inner and secondary cortexon outside
C) Bark on outside and secondary cortexon inside
D) Phellem on outside and phelloderm oninside
117. Cork is impervious to water due to (Pg. 96, E)
A) Lignin B) Suberin C) Keratin D) Cellulose
118. Bark includes – (Pg. 97, E)
A) Secondary xylem and periderm
B) Secondary phloem and periderm
C) Pericycle and vascular cambium
D) Pith and stele
119. Phlloderm is – (Pg. 97, E)
A) Parenchymatous B) Collenchymatous
C) Sclerenchymatous D) Meristematic
120. Lenticles are (Pg. 97, E)
A) Circle – shaped B) Rectangular
C) Lens – shaped D) Polygonal shaped
121. Select the correct labels – (Pg. 97, E)

A) (i) – complimentary cells B) (ii) – cork cambium

C) (iii) – secondary cortex D) (iv) – epidermis
Paragraph – 6.4.3
Secondary Growth in Roots
122. In sunflower root. Vascular cambium isoriginated from tissues – (Pg. 97, E)
A) Below phloem bundle B) Of pericycle
C) Of interfascicular cambium D) Both (A) & (B)
123. Secondary growth does not occur in – (Pg. 98, E)
A) Gymnosperm stem B) Gymnosperm root
C) Monocot D) All of these
124. Identify the cambial ring – (Pg. 98, E)

A) (i) B) (iii) C) (iv) D) (ii)

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 NEET PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS
1. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are produced by___________. [2018]
(a) apical meristems (b) vascular cambium (c) axillary meristems (d) phellogen

2. Casparian strips occur in: [2018]

(a) Epidermis (b) Pericycle (c) Endodermis (d) Cortex
3. Plants having little or no secondary growth are__________. [2018]
(a) grasses (b) deciduous angiosperms (c) cycads (d) conifers
4. Stomata in grass leaf are __________. [2018]
(a) dumb-bell shaped (b) kidney shaped (c) barrel shaped (d) rectangular
5. Identify the wrong statement in context of heartwood. [2017]
(a) It is highly durable.
(b) It conducts water and minerals efficiently.
(c) It comprises dead elements with highly lignified walls.
(d) Organic compounds are deposited in it.
6. The vascular cambium normally gives rise to _________. [2017]
(a) primary phloem (b) secondary xylem
(c) periderm (d) phelloderm
7. Which of the following facilitates opening of stomatal aperture? [2017]
(a) Decrease in turgidity of guard cells.
(b) Radial orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall of guard cells.
(c) Longitudinal orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall of guard cells.
(d) Contraction of outer wall of guard cells.
8. Which of the following is made up of dead cells? [2017]
(a) Collenchyma (b) Phellem(c) Phloem (d) Xylem parenchyma
9. Root hairs develop from the region of ______. [2017]
(a) elongation (b) root cap (c) meristematic activity (d) maturation
10. Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called _______. [2016]
(a) complementary cells (b) subsidiary cells
(c) bulliform cells (d) lenticels
11. Vascular bundles in monocotyledons are considered closed because [2015]
(a) cambium is absent. (b) there are no vessels with perforations.
(c) xylem is surrounded all around by phloem.
(d) a bundle sheath surrounds each bundle.
12. A major characteristic of the monocot root is the presence of [2015]
(a) scattered vascular bundles.
(b) vasculature without cambium.
(c) cambium sandwiched between phloem and xylem along the radius.
(d) open vascular bundles.
13. Read the different components from (A) to (D) in the list given below and identify the correct
order of the components with reference to their arrangement from outer side to inner side in a
woody dicot stem[2015]
(A) Secondary cortex (B) Wood (C) Secondary phloem (D) Phellem
(a) A, B, D, C (b) D, A, C, B (c) D, C, A, B (d) C, D, B, A

194
14. In a ring girdled plant
[2015]
(a) the root dies first. (b) the shoot and root die together.
(c) neither root nor shoot will die. (d) the shoot dies first.
15. Transmission tissue is characteristic feature of _________.
[2015]
(a) solid style (b) dry stigma (c) wet stigma (d) hollow style
16. You are given a fairly old piece of dicot stem and a dicot root. Which of the following
anatomical structures will you use to distinguish between the two?
[2014]
(a) Secondary xylem (b) Secondary phloem (c) Protoxylem (d) Cortical cells
17. Tracheids differ from other tracheary elements in
[2014]
(a) having casparian strips. (b) being imperforate.
(c) lacking nucleus. (d) being lignified.
18. Grass leaves curl inwards during very dry weather. Select the most appropriate reason from the
following:
(NEET-2019)
(1) Closure of stomata (2) Flaccidity of bulliform cells
(3) Shrinkage of air spaces in spongy mesophyll (4) Tyloses in vessels

19. Which of the statements given below is not trueabout formation of Annual Rings in trees?
(NEET-2019)
(1) Annual ring is a combination of spring wood and autumn wood produced in a year.
(2) Differential activity of cambium causes light and dark bands of tissue - early and late wood
respectively
(3) Activity of cambium depends upon variation in climate.
(4) Annual rings are not prominent in trees of temperate region.
20. In the dicot root the vascular cambium originates from :- (NEET-2019
ODISSA)
(1) Tissue located below the phloem bundles and a portion of pericycle tissue above
protoxylem.
(2) Cortical region.
(3) Parenchyma between endodermis and pericycle.
(4) Intrafascicular and interfascicular tissue in a ring.
21. Regeneration of damaged growing grass following grazing is largely due to :- (NEET-2019
ODISSA)
(1) Lateral meristem (2) Apical meristem (3) Intercalary meristem (4) Secondary
meristem
22. Large, empty colourless cells of the adaxial epidermis along the veins of grass leaves are
(NEET-2020 COVID)
(1) Lenticels (2) Guard cells (3) Bundle sheath cells (4) Bulliform
cells
23. Which of the following statements about cork cambium is incorrect? (NEET-2020
COVID)
(1) It forms secondary cortex on its outerside (2) It forms a part of periderm
(3) It is responsible for the formation of lenticels (4) It is a couple of layers thick

195
24. The transverse section of a plant shows following anatomical features. (NEET-2020)

a) large number of scattered vascular bundles surrounded by bundle sheath.

b) Large conspicuous parenchynchymatous ground tissue,
c) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed
d) Phloem parenchyma absent.
Identify the category of plant and its part.
1) Dicotyledonous root 2) Monocotyledonous stem
3) Monocotyledonous root 4) Dicotyledonous stem
25. Identify the incorrect statement (NEET-2020)
1) Due to deposition of tannins resins, oils etc., heart wood is dark in colour
2) Hart wood does not conduct water but gives mechanical support
3) Sapwood is involved in conduction of water and minerals from root leaf.
4) Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylem and is lighter in colour.
26. Match List-I with List – II [NEET-2021]
List-I List-II
(a) Lenticels (i) Phellogen
(b) Cork cambium (ii) Suberin deposition
(c) Secondary cortex (ii) Exchange of gases
(d) Cork (iv) Phelloderm

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(4) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
27. Match list- 1 with list-II [NEET-2021]
List-I List-II
a) Cells with active cell division capacity i) Vascular tissues
b) Tissue having all cells similar in ii) Meristematic tissue
structure and function
c) Tissue having different types of cells iii) Sclereids
d) Dead cells with highly thickened walls iv) Simple tissue
and narrow lumen
Select the correct answer from the options given below
1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i 2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii,d-iv 3) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i 4) a-ii, b-iv, c-I, d-iii

28. Select the correct pair [NEET-2021]

1) In dicto leaves, vascular bundles are surrounded by large Conjunctive tissue
thick-walled cells
2) Cells of medullary rays that form part of cambial ring Interfascicular cambium
3) Loose parenchyma cells rupturing the epidermis and forming Spongy parenchyma
a lens – shaped opening in bark

196
 4) Large colorless empty cells in the epidermis of grass leaves Subsidiary cells
29. In old trees the greater part of secondary xylem is dark brown and resistant to insect
attack due to: [NEET-2022]
(a) secretion of secondary metabolites and their deposition in the lumen of vessels
(b) deposition of organic compounds like tannins and resins the central layers of stem
(c) deposition of suberin and aromatic substances in the outer layer of stem
(d) deposition of tannins, gum, resin and aromatic substances in the peripheral layers
of stem
(e) presence of parenchyma cells, functionally active xylem elements and essential oils
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) (a) and (b) only 2) (c) and (d) only
3) (d) and (e) only 4) (b) and (d) only
30. Read the following statements about the vascular bundles: [NEET-2022]
a) In roots, xylem and phloem in a vascular bundle are arranged in an alternate
manner along the different radii
b) Conjoint closed vascular bundles do not possess cambium
c) In open vascular bundles, cambium is present in between xylem and phloem
d) The vascular bundles of dicotyledonous stem possess endarch protoxylem
e) In monocotyledonous root, usually there are more than six xylem bundles present
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) a, b and d only 2) b, c, d, and e only
3) a, b, c and d only 4) a, b, c, d and e only
31. The anatomy of springwood shows some peculiar features. Identify the
correct set of statements about springwood. [NEET-2022]
a) It is also called as the earlywood
b) In spring season cambium produces xylem elements with narrow vessels
c) It is lighter in colour
d) The springwood along with autumnwood shows alternate concentric rings forming
annual rings
e) It has lower density
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) a, b, d and e only 2) a, c, d and e only
3) a, b and d only 4) c, d and e only

NCERT LINE BY LINE QUESTIONS – ANSWERS

1) D 2) C 3) C 4) D 5) A 6) C 7) D 8) C 9) A 10) C
11) D 12) C 13) D 14) B 15) C 16) B 17) D 18) D 19) C 20) D
21) D 22) A 23) D 24) C 25) A 26) D 27) B 28) A 29) A 30) B
31) B 32) D 33) A 34) A 35) A 36) D 37) D 38) A 39) D 40) B
41) D 42) A 43) D 44) B 45) C 46) C 47) D 48) C 49) A 50) D
51) B 52) D 53) B 54) C 55) A 56) D 57) B 58) C 59) D 60) B
61) D 62) D 63) D 64) B 65) C 66) B 67) C 68) C 69) B 70) C

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 71) D 72) C 73) A 74) B 75) A 76) C 77) B 78) C 79) D 80) D
81) B 82) B 83) D 84) C 85) A 86) B 87) C 88) B 89) B 90) A
91) C 92) D 93) D 94) D 95) A 96) C 97) A 98) D 99) A 100) C
101) C 102) D 103) B 104) A 105) A 106) D 107) C 108) C 109) B 110) C
111) C 112) B 113) A 114) B 115) D 116) D 117) B 118) B 119) A 120) C
121) B 122) D 123) C 124) B

NEET PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS-ANSWERS

1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (a) 4 (a) 5 (b) 6 (b) 7 (b) 8 (b) 9 (d) 10 (b)
11 (a) 12 (b) 13 (b) 14 (a) 15 (a) 16 (c) 17 (b) 18 (2) 19 (4) 20 (1)
21 (3) 22 (4) 23 (1) 24 (2) 25 (4) 26 (1) 27 (4) 28 (2) 29 (1) 30 (4) 31 (2)

NEET PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS-EXPLANATIONS

1. (b) Secondary tissues are generated from the growth of a cambium. Vascular cambium gives rise
to secondary xylem to the inside, and to secondary phloem to the outside.
2. (c) Casparian strip is a band of cell wall material deposited in the radial and transverse walls of
the endodermis. Casparian strip is made of suberin and sometimes lignin.
3. (a) Grasses are monocots and monocots usually do not have secondary growth. Palm like
monocots haveanomalous secondary growth.
4. (a) Grass being a monocot, has dumb-bell shaped stomata in their leaves.
5. (b) Heartwood is inactive physiologically due to deposition of organic compounds and formation
of tyloses, so it will not conduct water and minerals.
6. (b) During secondary growth in plants, vascular cambium gives rise to secondary xylem and
secondary phloem. Phelloderm is formed by cork cambium. Periderm is the corky outer layer
formed in secondary thickening.
7. (b) Cellulose microfibrils are arranged radially rather than longitudinally which makes it easy for
the stomata to open.
8. (b) Cork cambium undergoes periclinal division and cuts off thick walled suberised dead cells
towards outside
i.e., phellem (cork) and it cuts off thin walled living cells
i.e., phelloderm on inner side.
9. (d) In roots, the root hairs develop from the zone of maturation. This zone is differentiated zone
thus, bearing root hairs.
10. (b) Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are known as subsidiary or accessory
cell.
11. (a) Vascular bundles in monocotyledons are considered closed due to absence of cambium.
12. (b) Monocot root shows radial and closed vascular bundle (xylem & phloem).
13. (b) The correct sequence from outerside to inner side in a woody dicot stem is as follows:
Phellem - Secondary cortex - Secondary phloem- Wood
14. (a) In a ring girdled plant, roots die first due to damage of phloem causing inhibition of
translocation of food.
15. (a) A solid style has transmission tissue which has large intercellular spaces. It allows growth of
pollen tube in pistil.

198
16. (c) Anatomically fairly old dicotyledonous root is distinguished from the dicotyledonous stem by
position of protoxylem. In dicot roots, the protoxylem is located near the periphery of the
vascular cylinder while in dicot stem, the protoxylem is located near the centre of vascular
bundle i.e., the xylem is endarch.
17. (b) The walls of vessels (tracheary elements) are lignified and less thicker than tracheids. The
lumen is wider. Vessels differ from tracheids in having cell fusions arising through the
dissolution of end walls.
24. All anatomical features related to monocotyledonous stem
25. Sapwood is the outermost secondary xylem and is lighter in colour
26 Lenticels are meant for exchange of gases.
Phellogen is also known as cork cambium.
Phelloderm is also called secondary cortex because it is the cortex that develops during
secondary growth. Cork has deposition of suberin in their cell walls when they get mature.
27. ii-iv-i-iv
28. • When the cells of medullary rays differentiated, they give rise to the new cambium called
interfascicular cambium.
• Loose parenchyma cells rupturing the epidermis and forming a lens-shaped opening in bark
are called complementary cells.
• Large colourless empty cells in the epidermis of grass leaves are called bulliform cells.
• In dicot leave, vascular bundles are surrounded by large thick walled cells called bundle
sheath cells.
29: a & b are correct
deposition of suberin and aromatic substances in the inner layer of stem
deposition of tannins, gum, resin and aromatic substances in the central layers of stem
secondary xylem does not have presence of parenchyma cells, functionally active xylem
elements
30. all are correct

31. ‘b’ is false. The spring wood is lighter in colour and has a lower density whereas the autumn
wood is darker and has a higher density

199
 7.STRUCTURAL
ORGANISATION IN ANIMALS

Biology Smart Booklet

Theory + NCERT MCQs + NEET PYQs
200
201
 STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION IN ANIMALS
Tissue
In multicellular organism a group of similar cells along with intercellular
substances perform a specific function. Such organization is called tissue.

EpithelialTissue
This tissue provides covering or lining for some part of the body. Cells are
compactly packed without intercellular space.

Simple Epithelial: Composed of single layer of cells & Functions as lining for
body cavities, ducts and tubes.
Squamous Epithelium: Single thin layer of flattened cells found in walls of
blood vessels, air sacs of lungs.
Cuboidal Epithelium: Single layer of cube like cells found in ducts of glands
and tubular parts of nephron.
Columnar Epithelium: Single layer of tall and slender cells & free surface may
have microvilli & found in lining of stomach and intestine.

Ciliated Epithelium: Columnar or cuboidal cells with cilia move particles or

mucus in specific direction, in bronchioles, fallopian tubes.

Cell junctions
In nearly all animal tissues, specialized junction provide structural and functional
links between its individual cells.

Three Types of Cell junctions:

i. Tight junctions: Plasma membranes of adjacent cells are fused at intervals.
They help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue.
ii. Adhering junctions: Perform cementing function to keep neighbouring cells
together.
iii. Gap junction: Facilitate the cells to communicate with each other by
connecting the cytoplasm of adjoining cells for rapid transfer of ions, small
molecules and sometimes big molecules.

Compound Epithelium

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  Made of more than one layer of cells.
 Provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses.
 Cover dry surface of skin, moist cavity, pharynx, inner lining of ducts of
salivary glands and pancreatic ducts.

Glandular Epithelium
 Exocrine glands
 Endocrine glands

Exocrine glands
 Secrete mucus, saliva, oil, milk digestive enzymes.
 Products released through ducts.

Endocrine glands
 Secrete hormones.
 Secrete directly into the fluid bathing the gland.

Connective tissue
They are most abundant and widely distributed tissues which link and support
the other tissues. All connective tissues except blood cells, secrete fibers of
structural protein called collagen or elastin to provide elasticity and flexibility.

Loose Connective Tissue:contain cells and fibers loosely arranged in semi-

fluid ground substance. It includes areolar tissue and adipose tissue.

Areolar Tissue

 Present beneath the skin.

 Contains fibroblasts, macrophages and mast cells.
 Serves as a support framework for epithelium.

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 Adipose Tissue

 Located beneath the skin.

 Cells are specialized to store fats.

DenseconnectiveTissue: Dense connective Tissue contains fibers and

fibroblast compactly packed. The orientation of fibers may be regular or
irregular pattern In dense regular connective tissues collagen fibers are present
in rows between parallel bundles of fibers as in tendons and ligaments.

Tendon
 Tendon connects bones to skeletal muscles.
 It is made up of white fibrous tough tissue.

Ligament
 Ligament connects one bone to another bone.
 It is made up of yellow elastic tissue with collagen fibers.

Cartilage
 They are soft skeletal tissue.
 chondrocyte are enclosed in small cavities with matrix.
 They are present in tips of nose, outer ear, between vertebral bones.

Bone
 Bones are hard skeletal tissue.
 They are rich in Calcium salt and collagen fibers.
 They form the skeletal framework of vertebrates like limbs, legs, etc.

Blood
Blood is fluid connective tissue containing plasma, red blood cells, white blood
cells and platelets. It helps in transportation of various substances between
organs.

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Muscle Tissue
Each muscle is made up of long cylindrical fibers arranged parallel to each
other. Fibers are composed of fine fibrils called myofibrils. Muscle fibers contract
and relax in response to stimulation.

Skeletal Muscle

 They are also known as striated, voluntary muscles.

205
  Multinucleated with light and dark bands.
 They are attached with bones.
 They are fibrous and un-branched, cylindrical in shape.

Smooth Muscle

 They are known as unstriated or involuntary muscles.

 They are uninucleate without bands.
 They are present in vessels, oesophagus.
 They are fibrous and un-branched, spindle shaped.

Cardiac Muscle

 They are known as heart muscles and involuntary in nature.

 Uninucleate with faint light and dark bands.
 They are present in wall of heart.
 They are fibrous and branched, cylindrical in shape.

Neural Tissue
 The unit of neural system is neuron. Neuroglial cell protects and supports
the neuron.
 When neuron get stimulated, electrical impulses are generated that
travel along the plasma membrane (axon).

Cockroach
Periplaneta americana (Phylum-Arthropoda, Class-Insecta)

Habitat: Cockroach is a terrestrial, nocturnal, ominivorous, unisexual, oviparous

insect. Body covered by a chitinous, hard exoskeleton of hard plates called
sclerities.

Morphology
 Head: Triangular, formed by fusion of 6 segments. Bears a pair of
antennae, compound eyes. Mouth parts consists of labrum (upper lip), a

206
 pair of mandibles, a pair of maxillae, labium (lower lip), hypharynx (acts as
tongue).
 Thorax: 3 segments; prothorax, mesothorax and metathorax. Bears 2 pairs
of wings
 Forewings: tegmina (mesothoracic).
 Hindwings: transparent, membranous (metathoracic) 3 pairs of legs in
thoracic segments. (one pair in each thoracic segment.)
 Abdomen: 10 segments. Bears a pair of long, segmented anal cerci in both
sexes and a pair of short, unjoined anal styles in males only 7th segment is
boat shaped. Also has anus and genital aperture at the hind end. Genital
aperture surrounded by external genitalia called gonapophysis or
phallomere.

MaleCockroach: Abdomen long and narrow, All nine sterna visible & Anal
style present.

FemaleCockroach: Abdomen short and broad, Seven sterna visible. (7th

sternum fused with 8th and 9th sterna) & Anal style absent.

Alimentarycanal: Divided into foregut, midgut and hindgut. Mouth →

Pharynx → Oesophagus → Crop (stores food) → Gizzard (grinding of food) →
Hepaticcaecae (at junction of fore and midgut; secretes digestive juice) →
Hindgut (ileum, colon, rectum) → Anus.

Blood vascular system: Open type, visceral organs bathed in haemolymph

(colourless plasma and haemocytes). Heart consists of enlongated muscular
tube and differentiated into funnel shaped chambers with ostia on either side.
Blood from sinuses enters heart through ostia and is pumped anteriorly to sinuses
again. Blood is colorless (haemolymph).

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 Repiratory system: Network of trachea which open through 10 pairs of spiracles.
Spiracles regulated by sphincters. Oxygen delivered directly to cells.
Excretion and osmoregulation: by malpighian tubules; uricotelic (Uric acid as
excretory proudct).
Nervous system: Consists of series of fused segmentally arranged ganglia joined
by paired longitudinally connectives on the ventral side, three ganglia in thorax,
six in abdomen. Brain represented by supraoesophageal ganglion. Each eye
consist s of 200 hexagonal ommatidia.
Reproductive system
Male reproductive system: Pair of testes (4th-6th segments) → vas deferens →
ejaculatory duct → male gonophore. Glands–Seminal vesicle (stores sperms),
mushroom shaped gland (6th-7th segment).
Female reproductive system:
A pair of ovaries (with 8 ovarian tubules) → Oviduct → Genital chamber.
Sperms transferred through spermatophores female produces 9–10 Ootheca.
Fertilized eggs encased in capsules called oothecae (contains 14-16 eggs on
an average) development of P. americana paurometabolous incompleted
metamorphosis). Nymph grows by moulting 13 times to reach adult form.
Interaction with man:
Pests as destroy food and contaminate it.
Can transmit a variety of bacterial diseases (Vector).

NCERT LINE BY LINE QUESTIONS

PARA – 7.1.1 EPITHELIAL TISSUES
1. Consider the following statements: [Pg-100,101,E]
a) A tissue is composed of similarcells which perform specificfunctions.
b) Epithelial tissues arecharacterized by a free surfacetoward body fluid or outsideenvironment.
Select the correct option.
A) a is true, b is false B) Both a and b are true
C) a is false, b is true D) Both a and b are false
2. Simple epithelium consists of [Pg-101,E]
A) large intercellular spaces
B) single layer of cells
C) flat cells without nucleus
D) all of these
3. Human skin is composed of [Pg-101,E]
A) compound epithelium
B) squamous epithelium
C) columnar epithelium
D) ciliated epithelium
4. Match the following columns. [Pg-101,M]

208
 Column-I Column-II
a Squamous epithelium (1) Stomach and intestine
b Cuboidal epithelium (2) Lungs and blood vessels
c Columnar epithelium (3) Tubular parts of nephrons
Select the correct option
A b c
A) 3 1 2
B) 1 2 3
C) 2 3 1
D) 3 2 1
5. The inner walls of large blood vessels areformed by [Pg-101,E]
A) pseudostratified epithelium
B) squamous epithelium
C) ciliated epithelium
D) columnar epithelium
6. What is the similarity between cuboidal epithelium and columnar epithelium?
A) They are composed of two layers ofcells.
B) They are composed of phagocytic cells.
C) They perform the functions ofsecretion and absorption.
D) All of these
7. Identify the tissues A and B shown in thefollowing diagram: [Pg-101,E]

Select the correct option

A B
A) Squamous epithelium Columnar epithelium
B) Cuboidal epithelium Squamous epithelium
C) Columnar epithelium Cuboidal epithelium
D) Compound epithelium Pseudostratified

8. Efficient gaseous exchange in the airsacs of the lungs occur due to thepresence of [Pg-101,E]
A) numerous microvilli B) ciliated epithelium
C) flat cells D) columnar epithelium
9. The inner surface of hollow organs arelined by [Pg-101,E]
A) columnar epithelium
B) compound epithelium
C) squamous epithelium
D) ciliated epithelium
10. The ciliated epithelial cells are requiredto move particles or mucus in a specificdirection. In humans,
these cells aremainly present in [Pg-101,E]
A) fallopian tubes and pancreatic duct
B) Eustachian tube and salivary duct
C) bronchioles and fallopian tubes
D) bile duct and bronchioles
11. Match the following columns.

209
 Column-I Column-II
a. Goblet cells (1) Multicellular glandular epithelium
b. Salivary glands (2) Unicellular glandular epithelium
c. Buccal cavity (3) Compound epithelium
d. PCT (4) Cuboidal epithelium
Select the most appropriate option.
a b c d
A) 2 1 3 4
B) 3 2 4 1
C) 4 3 1 2
D) 1 4 2 3
12. All the listed glands pour their secretionsinto ducts except [Pg-102,E]
A) salivary gland B) digestive glands
C) pineal gland D) mammary glands
13. Select the incorrect statement.[Pg-102,E]
A) Multicellular glandular epithelium isformed of clusters of cells.
B) Compound epithelium is activelyinvolved in secretion and absorptionof substances.
C) Pancreatic and salivary ducts areinternally lined by compound ofepithelium.
D) None of these
14. Cell junctions [Pg-102,M]
a) Are formed in epithelial tissues
b) Provide structural and functional linkbetween adjacent cells of tissues
c) Are alternatively called gap junctions
Select the most appropriate option.
A) a, b, c are correct
B) Only a is correct
C) b and c are correct
D) a and b are correct
15. Match the following cell structure with its characteristic feature: [Pg-102,M]
Column-I Column-II
a. Tight junctions (1) Cement neighbouring cells together to form sheet
b. Adhering junctions (2) Transmit information through chemical to another cells
c. Gap junctions (3) Establish a barrier to prevent leakage of fluid across epithelial cells
d. Synaptic junctions (4) Cytoplasmic channels to facilitate communications between adjacent
cells
Select the most appropriate option.
a b c d
A) 4 3 1 2
B) 2 4 1 3
C) 4 2 1 3
D) 3 1 4 2
16. The function of the gap junction is to[Pg-102,E]
A) stop substance from leaking across atissue.
B) perform cementing to keepneighbouring cells together.
C) facilitate communication betweenadjoining cells by connecting thecytoplasm for rapid transfer of
ions,small molecules and some largemolecules.
D) separate two cells from each other.
17. Assertion: Squamous epithelium helpsin the diffusion of gases in lungs.
Reason: Squamous epithelium bearsmicrovilli. [Pg-101,H]
A) Both assertion and reason are true,assertion is incorrect explanation ofassertion
B) Both assertion and reason are true,reason is not the correct explanationof assertion

210
 C) Assertion is true, reason is false
D) Both assertion and reason are false
18. Assertion: Compound epithelium iscomposed of two or more layers of cells.
Reason: Compound epithelium hasprotective functions. [Pg-102,H]
A) Both assertion and reason are true,assertion is incorrect explanation ofassertion
B) Both assertion and reason are true,reason is not the correct explanationof assertion
C) Assertion is true, reason is false
D) Both assertion and reason are false
PARA-7.1.2CONNECTIVE TISSUES
19. Select the incorrect statement regardingconnective tissues: [Pg-102,103,E]
A) It helps to connect and support othertissues of the body.
B) Blood is a fluid connective tissue.
C) It is composed of structural proteinfibres, viz, collagen or elastin.
D) Their ground substance is composedof polypeptides and its derivatives.
20. Areolar tissue is a type of [Pg-103,E]
A) loose connective tissue B) compound epithelium
C) dense connective tissue D) specialized connective tissue
21. Areolar tissues contain [Pg-103,E]
A) T lymphocytes tissue and Blymphocytes B) fibroblast, macrophages, mast cells
C) fibroblast cells only D) fibroblasts and fat globules
22. Fat-storing adipose tissue is [Pg-103,E]
A) loose connective tissue B) dense regular connective tissue
C) dense irregular connective tissue D) specialized connective tissue
23. Consider the following statements:[Pg-103,M]
a) In dense connective tissues,fibroblasts are compactly packed.
b) In dense regular connective tissues,collagen fibers are arranged inparallel rows.
Select the correct option
A) a is true, b is false B) a is false, b is true
C) Both a and b are false D) Both a and b are true
24. In the below diagram of areolarconnective tissue, the different cells andparts have been indicated by
alphabets.
Choose the answer in which thesealphabets correctly match with the partsand cells they indicate – [Pg-
103,E]

A B C D
A) Adipocyte Collagen fibres Microfilament Mast cells
B) Macrophage Collagen fibres Microfilament Mast cells
C) Macrophage Collagen fibres Microtubule RBC
D) Macrophage Fibroblast Collagen fibres Mast cells

25. Ligaments contain [Pg-103,E]

A) loose bundles of fibres
B) large fat storage areas
C) parallelly arranged collagen fibres
D) irregularly placed elastin fibres

211
26. Match the following columns: [Pg-103,104,E]
Column-I Column-II
a Skin (1) Loose connective tissue
b Tendon (2) Specialized connective tissue
c Adipose tissue (3) Dense regular connective Tissue
d Cartilage (4) Dense irregular connective tissue
Select the correct option
a b c d
A) 3 1 2 4
B) 4 3 1 2
C) 2 4 3 1
D) 1 2 4 3
27. The intracellular material of cartilage is[Pg-104,E]
A) solid and pliable
B) solid and non-pliable
C) hollow and soft
D) hollow and jelly-like
28. Select the incorrect statement: [Pg-104,E]
A) Most of cartilage in vertebrate embryogets replaced by bones in adults.
B) Chondrocytes are cartilage cellswhich are found in between collagenfibres.
C) Cartilage form the human noseexcept its tips.
D) Bones of vertebral column arecomposed of cartilage.
29. Bones are hard and non-pliable due tothe presence of [Pg-104,E]
A) calcium salts B) elastin fibres
C) chondrocytes D) all of these
30. The spaces in which osteocytes arepresent are called [Pg-104,E]
A) osteoclast B) sinuses C) lacunae D) canaliculi
31. The fluid connective tissue contains all ofthe following cells, except [Pg-104,E]
A) platelets B) fibroblasts C) WBCs D) RBCs
32. Match the following columns: [Pg-103,104,E]
Column-I Column-II
a Adipose tissue (1) Blood
b Hyaline cartilage (2) Macrophages and mast cells
c Fluid connective tissue (3) Fat storage
d Areolar tissue (4) Nose
Select the correct option
a b c d
A) 4 3 2 1
B) 2 4 1 3
C) 1 2 3 4
D) 3 4 1 2
PARA-7.1.3 AND 7.1.4
MUSCLE TISSUE AND NEURAL TISSUE
33. Myofibrils are [Pg-104,E]
A) contracted muscle fibres B) structural components of all musclefibres
C) striated muscle fibres D) skeletal muscle fibres
34. Skeletal muscles are [Pg-104,E]
A) striated in appearance
B) smooth in appearance
C) involuntary muscles
D) both A and C

212
35. Go through the following figures. [Pg- 105,E]

Identify these muscles (A, B and C).

A B C
A) Smooth muscles Striated muscles Cardiac muscles
B) Cardiac muscles Smooth muscles Striated muscles
C) Striated muscles Smooth muscles Cardiac muscles
D) Involuntary muscles Voluntary muscle Heart muscle
36. Involuntary muscle fibers in humanbody are found in [Pg-105,E]
A) heart B) blood vessels C) intestine D) all of these
37. Consider the following statements: [Pg-105,M]
a) All involuntary muscles are smooth inappearance.
b) All striated muscles are voluntarymuscles.
Select the correct option
A) a) is true, b) is false
B) Both a) and b) are true
C) a) is False, b) is true
D) Both a) and b) are false
38. Which type of tissue correctly matches with its locations? [Pg-103,104,105,E]
Tissue Location
A) Areolar tissue Tendons
B) Transitional epithelium Tip of nose
C) Cuboidal epithelium Lining of stomach
D) Smooth muscle Wall of intestine
39. The muscular layer lining the stomachand intestine is [Pg-105,E]
A) striated in appearance
B) smooth in appearance
C) multinucleated
D) characterized by intercalated discs
40. Heart cells have the ability to contract asa unit to the presence of [Pg-105,E]
A) multinucleate condition B) fusiform shape
C) intercalated discs D) striations
41. The structural and functional unit ofnervous system is [Pg-105,E]
A) neuron B) neuroglia C) oligodendrocyte D) ganglia
42. The neurons in the neural system areprotected by [Pg-105,E]
A) dendrites B) neuroglial cells C) axons D) Nissl’s granules
43. Assertion: Both skeletal muscles andcardiac muscles are striated appearance.
Reason: Cardiac muscles are involuntaryin nature. [Pg-104,105,H]
A) Both assertion and reason are true,assertion is incorrect explanation ofassertion
B) Both assertion and reason are true,reason is not the correct explanationof assertion
C) Assertion is true, reason is false
D) Both assertion and reason are false
44. Assertion: Neurons are excitable cells.

213
 Reason: Neurons are found abundantlythroughout the body. [Pg-105,H]
A) Both assertion and reason are true,assertion is incorrect explanation ofassertion
B) Both assertion and reason are true,reason is not the correct explanationof assertion
C) Assertion is true, reason is false
D) Both assertion and reason are false
PARA-7.4
COCKROACH
45. Identify A to E. [Pg-111,E]

A B C D E
A) Pronotum Mesothorax Metathorax Tegmina Pleura
B) Pronotum Mesothorax Metathorax Tegmina Sterna
C) Pronotum Mesothorax Metathorax Tegmina Anal cerci
D) Pronotum Mesothorax Metathorax Tegmina Anal style
46. The body of cockroach can bemorphologically distincted as [Pg-111,E]
A) head and abdomen
B) head, thorax and abdomen
C) head, abdomen and tail
D) head and trunk
47. Consider the following statements: [Pg-111,M]
a) Body of cockroach is covered by hardexoskeleton made up of chitin.
b) In male cockroach, the wings extendbeyond the abdomen.
Select the correct option
A) a is true, b is false B) Both a and b are false
C) a is false, b is true D) Both a and b are true
48. The chitinous exoskeleton of arthropodsis formed by the polymerization of [Pg-111,E]
A) lipoglycans
B) keratin sulphate and chondroitinsulphate
C) D – glucosamine
D) N – acetyl glucosamine
49. Hardened plates of exoskeleton incockroaches are known as [Pg-111,E]
A) capsids B) spicules C) sclerites D) metamere
50. Dorsal and ventral sclerites in cockroachare [Pg-111,E]
A) tergites and sternites, respectively
B) sternites and pleurites, respectively
C) pleurites and tergites, respectively
D) pleurites and sternites, respectively
51. The triangular head of cockroach [Pg-112,E]
(1) bear compound eyes
(2) is formed by the fusion of twosegments
(3) bear chewing and lapping mouthparts
Select the correct option

214
 A) 1, 2, 3 are correct B) Only 1 is correct
C) 2 and 3 are correct D) 1 and 2 are correct
52. The mouth parts of cockroach contain[Pg-112,E]
A) two mandibles, two maxillae, labrum,labium and hypopharynx
B) two mandibles and maxillae each, twolabrum and labium each
C) one mandible and maxilla each,labarum and hypopharynx
D) one mandible, labarum, labium andhypopharynx

53. Select the incorrect statement regardingcockroach: [Pg-112,E]

A) Hypopharynx acts as a tongue.
B) Head is mobile in all directions due toflexible neck.
C) Antennae possess sensory receptorsto monitor the environment.
D) Thorax is greatly reduced and nondivisible.
54. Paired walking legs in cockroaches arefound on [Pg-112,E]
A) each thoracic segments
B) mesothorax and metathorax
C) prothorax and metathorax
D) metathorax only
55. Forewings and hindwings in cockroachesarises from [Pg-112,E]
A) mesothorax and metathorax B) prothorax
C) metathorax D) prothorax and metathorax
56. Match the following columns. [Pg-112,E]
Column-I Column-II
a Scleride (1) Forewings
b Tegmina (2) Simple eye
c Ocellus (3) Exoskeleton plate
Select the correct option
a b c a b c
A) 3 2 1 B) 2 1 3
C) 3 1 2 D) 2 3 1
57. How the forewings of cockroaches aredistinguished from the hindwings? [Pg-112,E]
A) Forewings are leathery whilehindwings are membranous.
B) Forewings are much longer whilehindwings are vestigial.
C) Forewings are much reduced andhindwings are highly evolved.
D) Forewings are transparent whilehindwings are opaque.
58. In female cockroach [Pg-112,E]
A) forewings help in flight B) abdomen consists of 8 segments
C) seventh sternum is boat shaped D) all of these
59. Which of the following sterna form thebrood pouch in female cockroach? [Pg-112,E]
A) 8th, 9th B) 7th, 8th, 9th C) 6th, 7th, 8th D) 8th, 9th, 10th
60. Which of the following features is used toidentify a male cockroach from a femalecockroach?
[Pg-112,E]
A) Presence of a boat shaped sternum onthe 9th abdominal segment
B) Presence of caudal styles
C) Forewings with darker tegmina
D) Presence of anal cerci
61. Select the incorrect statement: [Pg-112,M]
A) Genital pouch in male cockroach isdorsally bounded by 9th and 10thterga.
B) Male genital pouch contains genitalpore only.

215
 C) 10th segment in male and femalecockroach possess anal cerci.
D) Female genital pouch containscollateral glands.
62. Which among the following structuresare found in male cockroaches only? [Pg-112,E]
A) Collateral glands and anal cerci
B) Anal cerci and spermathecal pores
C) Spermathecal pores and collateralglands
D) Gonapophysis and anal styles
63. Match the following columns: [Pg-112,M]
Column-I Column-II
a Anal cerci (1) 7th in females
b Boat-shaped sternum (2) 9th segment in males
c Anal styles (3) 10th segment
d Genital pouch (4) Bounded by 9th and 10th terga in males
Select the correct option

a b c d
A) 4 2 1 3
B) 2 3 4 1
C) 1 4 3 2
D) 3 1 2 4
64. What is the correct arrangement ofstructures in Cockroach’s alimentarycanal? [Pg-113,E]
A) Oesophagus, Gizzard, Crop
B) Gizzard, Oesophagus, Crop
C) Crop, Oesophagus, Gizzard
D) Oesophagus, Crop, Gizzard
65. Match the following. [Pg-113,M]
Column-I Column-II
a Proventriculus (1) Food storage
b Crop (2) Grinding food particles
c Hepatic Caeca (3) Secretion of digestive juices
d Malpighian tubules (4) Removal of excretory products
Select the correct option
a b c d
A) 4 3 2 1
B) 2 1 3 4
C) 2 4 1 3
D) 3 2 4 1
66. How many chitinous teeth are present inthe gizzard of cockroach? [Pg-113,E]
A) Two B) Six C) Ten D) Fourteen
67. Refer to the given diagram of cockroach’salimentary canal: [Pg-113,E]

Which of the following options representcorrect name and characteristic oflabelled structures?
A) A – Gizzard – Food grinding structure
B) C – Hepatic ceca – Secretary digestiveJuices

216
 C) D – Ileum – Food absorption
D) E – Malpighian tubules – 6–8 blindtubules
68. Select the correct sequence of organs inthe alimentary canal of cockroachstarting from mouth. [Pg-
113,E]
A) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Gizzard → Crop → Ileum → Rectum
B) Pharnyx → Oesophagus → Gizzard → Ileum → Crop → Colon → Rectum
C) Pharnyx → Oesophagus → Ileum → Crop → Gizzard → Colon → Rectum
D) Pharnyx → Oesophagus → Crop → Gizzard → Ileum → Colon → Rectum
69. During anatomical studies of cockroach, how would you differentiate malpighian tubules (A) from
gastric caeca (B)? [Pg-113,E]
A) A – 6–8 in number, B – 200–300 in number
B) A – Present at the junction of midgut and hindgut B – Present at the junction of foregut and midgut
C) A – Blind, black-coloured tubules B – Hollow, yellow-coloured tubules
D) All of these
70. Select the incorrect statement regarding cockroach: [Pg-113,E]
A) Cockroaches possess open circulating system.
B) Blood vessels are highly developed and open into heart.
C) Visceral organs found in hemocoel are bathed in hemolymph.
D) Alary muscles associated with heart are contractile muscles.

71. The heart of cockroach possess [Pg- 113,E]

A) 10 chambers B) 8 chambers
C) 13 chambers D) 12 chambers
72. Match the following columns. [Pg-113,M]

Select the correct option

a b c d
A) 2 4 3 1
B) 3 2 4 1
C) 1 4 2 3
D) 4 3 1 2
73. Select the incorrect statement regardingcockroach [Pg-113,114,E]
A) Exchange of gases occurs by diffusionat the tracheoles.
B) Malpighian tubules remain lined byglandular and ciliated cells.
C) Uricose glands are principalreproductive glands in femalecockroach
D) Fat bodies and nephrocytes help inexcretion of nitrogenous waste
74. The principal nitrogenous waste incockroach is [Pg-114,E]
A) ammonia B) vasa C) guanine D) uric acid
75. The body cells in cockroach dischargetheir nitrogenous waste in thehemolymph mainly in the form of
[Pg-114,E]
A) calcium carbonate B) ammonia C) potassium urate D) urea
76. How many ganglia are found in thethorax and abdomen of male cockroach?[Pg-114,E]
A) 3 and 6 B) 6 and 4 C) 5 and 5 D) 6 and 3
77. Consider the following statements:[Pg-114,M]

217
 a) Cockroaches remain alive for severalhours even after its head is cut off.
b) Nervous system of cockroach isdorsally placed along the whole body.
Select the correct option
A) a is true, b is false B) Both a and b are true
C) a is false, b is true D) Both a and b are false
78. Which of the following statements isincorrect? [Pg-114,M]
A) Female cockroach possesses sixteenovarioles in the ovaries.
B) Cockroaches exhibit mosaic visionwith less sensitivity and moreresolution.
C) A mushroom-shaped gland is presentin the 6th-7th abdominal of malecockroach.
D) A pair of spermatheca is present inthe 6th segment of female cockroach.
79. Match the following columns [Pg-114,E]
Column-I Column-II
a Testes (1) 2nd –6th segment
b Ovaries (2) 4th –6th segment
c Spermatheca (3) 6th segment
d Mushroomglands (4) 6th–7th segment
Select the correct option
a b c d
A) 3 2 4 1
B) 2 1 3 4
C) 4 3 1 2
D) 1 4 2 3
80. The bundles of sperms are called[Pg-114,E]
A) phallomere B) gonapophysis C) spermathecal D) spermatophores

81. Phallomere in cockroaches [Pg-114,E]

A) helps to store spermatophores
B) is chitinous external genitalia
C) is accessory reproductive gland
D) represents ejaculatory duct
82. Ovarioles are [Pg-114,E]
A) bundles of ova B) ovarian tubules
C) immature ovaries D) capsule containing fertilized ova
83. Match the following columns.[Pg-114,M]
Column-I Column-II
a Ovarioles (1) Opening of ejaculatoryduct
b Gonopore (2) Chain of developing ova
c Phallomere (3) Bundles of sperms
d Spermatophore (4) External genitalia
Select the correct option
a b c d
A) 3 2 1 4
B) 4 3 2 1
C) 1 4 3 2
D) 2 1 4 3
84. Which of the following structure encasethe fertilized eggs of cockroaches?[Pg-114,E]
A) Spermatheca B) Ovariole C) Cocoon D) Ootheca
85. Select the incorrect statement.[Pg-114,115,M]
A) Female cockroaches produce oneootheca at a time.
B) The nymphs of cockroach resembleadults.
C) The nymphs of cockroach moultsabout 13 times to reach adult form.

218
 D) Only adult cockroaches have wings.
86. The following figure is related to headregion of cockroach. Identify A to F. [Pg-112,E]

A B C D E F
A) Compound eye Ocellus MaxillA Mandible Labrum Labium
B) Ocellus Compound eye MandiBle MaxilLa Labrum Labium
C) Ocellus Compound eye Mandible MaxilLa Labium Labrum
D) Ocellus Compound eye Maxilla Mandible Labium Labrum
87. Match the following columns. [Pg-113,114,115,M]
Column-I Column-II
a Collateralgland (1) Stimulatory organ inmale
b Titillator (2) Anal appendage whichhelps in oviposition
c Gonapophysis (3) Helps in the formationof egg cases
Select the correct option
a b c
A) 2 3 1
B) 1 2 3
C) 3 1 2
D) 2 1 3
88.

The above figure is related with mouth parts of cockroach. Identify A to E –

A B C D E
A) Maxilla Hypopharynx Labium Mandible Labrum
B) Mandible Labium Maxilla Labrum Hypopharynx
C) Labrum Mandible Hypopharynx Maxilla Labium
D) Labium Hypopharynx Labrum Maxilla Mandible

219
89.

Identify structures A to D –
AB C D
A) Gizzard Crop Hepatic caecae Malpighiantubules
B) Crop Gizzard Hepatic caecae Malpighiantubules
C) Crop Gizzard Malpighiantubules Hepaticcaecae
D) Gizzard Crop Malpighiantubules Hepaticcaecae

90.

The above figure shows open circulatorysystem of cockroach. Identify A, B and C.

AB C
A) Posterioraorta Alary muscles Chambers ofhear
B) Anterioraorta CiliarymusclesChambers ofhear
C) Anterioraorta Alary muscles Chambers ofhear
D) Anterioraorta CiliarymusclesChambers ofHear

220
91.

Identify A to F in above diagram –

A) B) C) D)
A Testis Testis Testis Testis
B Collateral gland Collateralgland Phallicgland Phallic gland
C Ejaculatory duct Ejaculatory duct Ejaculatory duct Ejaculatoryduct
D Analcercus Terga Analcerci Caudal style
E Caudalstyle Caudalstyle Caudalstyle Caudal style
F Pseudopenis Pseudopenis Pseudopenis Pseudopenis
92. Figure refers to reproductive system offemale cockroach. The correct labellingsindicated by alphabets
are respectively-[Pg-115,E]

A B C
A) Spermatheca Collateralglands, Gonapophyses
B) Phallic gland Collateralglands, Gonapophyses
C) Spermatheca Seminalvesicles, Gonapophyses
D) Spermatheca Collateralglands, Tegmina
PARA-7.3 AND 7.5
EARTHWORM AND FROG
93.

221
 Go through the above figure. Identify A toF.
A) B) C) D)
A. Peristomium Prostomium Prostomium Prostomium
B. Prostomium Peristomium Peristomium Peristomium
C. Clitellum Clitellum Endosteum Endosteum
D Anus Anus Anus Cloaca
E Metameres Metameres Metameres Metameres
F Ring ofsetae Ring ofsetae Ring ofsetae Ring of setae
94.

Choose the correct option of labelling from the options given-

A B C
A) Excretory pore Female genitalpore Male genitalpore
B) Male genitalpore Female genitalpore Genitalpapilla
C) Female genitalpore Genital papilla Male genitalpore
D) Female genitalporeMale genitalpore GenitalPapilla

222
95.

Choose the correct option of labelling from the options given-

A) B) C) D)
A. Pharynx Gizzard Pharynx Pharynx
B. Stomach Pharynx Gizzard Gizzard
C. Gizzard Stomach Stomach Stomach
D.Caecae Caecae Caecae Liver
E. Lymphgland Lymphgland Lymphgland Villi
F. Typhlosole Typhlosole Typhlosole Typhlosole
96. Go through the blood vascular system ofearthworm given in the followingdiagram - [Pg-109,E]

A) B) C) d)
A Dorsal vessel Ventral vessel Dorsal vessel Ventral vessel
B Lateral hearts Lateral hearts Lateral hearts Lateral hearts
C Lateral Lateraloesophary Anterioloop AnteriorLoop
oesopharyngeal heart ngealheart
D Ventralvessel Dorsalvessel Ventralvessel DorsaVessel
E Anterior Anterior Lateraloesophar Lateraloesopharyn
loop loop yngealheart geal heart

223
97.

I. Septal nephridia
II. Pharynx
III. Forest of integumentary nephridia
IV. lntegumentary nephridia
V. Tufts of pharyngeal nephridia
Identify the structures labeled A to E inthe diagram given above from the list I toV -
A B C D E
A) II I III IV V
B) II V IV III I
C) II IV V I III
D) II III IV I V
98. Identify A to D in the figure – [Pg-110,E]

224
 A B C D
A) Testis Seminalvesicle Accessorygland Prostategland
B) Seminalvesicle Testis Accessorygland Prostategland
C) Testis Seminalvesicle Prostategland Accessorygland
D) Seminalvesicle Testis Prostategland Accessorygland

99. Refer to the diagram of nephridial systemin earthworm. [Pg-109,E]

Select the option representing correctcharacteristic of the labelled structure:

A) C – Septal nephridia – Open intointestine
B) A – Pharyngeal nephridia – Open tooutside
C) B – Integumentary nephridia –Densely found on first two segments
D) All of these
100. The above figure is associated withdiagrammatic representation of internalorgans of frog. Identify A to
E. [Pg-117,E]

225
 A) B) C) D)
A Gallbladder Gallbladder Gallbladder Gallbladder
B Lung Lung Lung Lung
C Ovary Fatbodies Testis Fat bodies
D Testis Testis Kidney Kidney
E Rectum Rectum Rectum Rectum
101. Go through the following figureindicating the male reproductive systemof frog. Identify A to D [Pg-
119,E]

A B C D
A. Bidder'scanal Adrenalgland Urinogenitalduct Rectum
B. Bidder'scanal Adrenalgland Urinogenitalduct Cloaca
C. Vasaefferentia Adrenalgland Urinogenitalduct Cloaca
D. Vasaefferentia Thyroidgland Urinogenitalduct Cloaca

102. The above figure is related with femalereproductive system of frog. Identify A toD. [Pg-119,E]

A B C D

226
 A) Ovary Ureter Oviduct Ovisac
B) Ovary Urinogenitalduc Bidder'scanal Ovisac
C) Ovary Urinogenitalduc Ovisac Oviduct
D) Ovary Urinogenitalduc Bidder'scanal Oviduct
103. Identify A, B and C respectively – [Pg-116,E]

A) Trunk, Tympanum, Web

B) Neck, Brown eye spot, Web
C) Trunk, Tympanum, Hind limb
D) Neck, Tympanum, Hind limb

NEET PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following features is used to identify a male cockroach from a female cockroach?
[2018]
(a) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the 9th abdominal segment.
(b) Presence of caudal styles.
(c) Presence of anal cerci.
(d) Forewings with darker tegmina.
2. Frog’s heart when taken out of the body continues to beat for sometime. [2017]
Select the best option from the following statements.
(A) Frog is a poikilotherm. (B) Frog does not have any coronary circulation.
(C) Heart is “myogenic” in nature (D) Heart is autoexcitable.
Options
(a) Only (D) (b) (A) and (B) (c) (C) and (D) (d) Only (C)
3. Which of the following features is not present in Periplaneta americana? [2016]
(a) Schizocoelom as body cavity.
(b) Indeterminate and radial cleavage during embryonic development.
(c) Exoskeleton composed of N-acetylglucosamine.
(d) Metamerically segmented body.
4. Which type of tissue correctly matches with its location? [2016]
Tissue Location
(a) Smooth muscle Wall of intestine (b) Areolar tissue Tendons
(c) Transitional epithelium Tip nose (d) Cuboidal epithelium Lining of stomach
5. The terga, sterna and pleura of cockroach body are joined by __________. [2015]
(a) muscular tissue (b) arthrodial membrane (c) cartilage (d) cementing glue

227
6. The body cells in cockroach discharge their nitrogenous waste in the haemolymph mainly in the
form of _________. [2015]
(a) potassium urate (b) urea (c) calcium carbonate (d) ammonia
7. Choose the correctly matched pair. [2014]
(a) Tendon–Specialised connective tissue (b) Adipose tissue – Dense connective tissue
(c) Areolar tissue – Loose connective tissue (d) Cartilage–Loose connective tissue
8. Choose the correctly matched pair. [2014]
(a) Inner lining of salivary ducts – Ciliated epithelium
(b) Moist surface of buccal cavity – Glandular epithelium
(c) Tubular parts of nephrons – Cuboidal epithelium
(d) Inner surface of bronchioles – Squamous epithelium
9. Consider following features: (NEET-2019)
(a) Organ system level of organisation (b) Bilateral symmetry
(c) True coelomates with segmentation of body
Select the correct option of animal groups which possess all the above characteristics.
(1) Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata (2) Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca
(3) Arthropoda , Mollusca and Chordata (4) Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata
10. The ciliated epithelial cells are required to move particles or mucus in a specific direction. In
humans,these cells are mainly present in : (NEET-2019)
(1) Bile duct and Bronchioles (2) Fallopian tubes and Pancreatic duct
(3) Eustachian tube and Salivary duct (4) Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes

11. Select the correct sequence of organs in the alimentary canal of cockroach starting from mouth:
(NEET-2019)
(1) Pharynx  Oesophagus  Crop  Gizzard  Ileum  Colon  Rectum
(2) Pharynx  Oesophagus  Gizzard  Crop  Ileum  Colon  Rectum
(3) Pharynx  Oesophagus  Gizzard  Ileum  Crop  Colon  Rectum
(4) Pharynx  Oesophagus  Ileum  Crop  Gizzard  Colon  Rectum
12. Match the following cell structure with its characteristic feature: (NEET-2019 (ODISSA))
(a) Tight junctions (i) Cement neighbouring cells together to form sheet
(b) Adhering Junctions (ii) Transmit information through chemical to another cells
(c) Gap junctions (iii) Establish a barrier to prevent leakage of fluid across epithelial cells
(d) Synaptic junctions (iv) Cytoplasmic channels to facilitate communication between adjacent
cells
Select correct option from the following
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), d-(iii) (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), d-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), d-(ii) (4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), d-(ii)
13. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? (NEET-2019 (ODISSA))
(1) Cockroaches exhibit mosaic vision with less sensitivity and more resolution.
(2) A mushroom- shaped gland is present in the 6th-7th abdominal segments of male cockroach.
(3) A pair of spermatheca is present in the 6th segment of female cockroach.
(4) Female cockroach possesses sixteen ovarioles in the ovaries.
14. In cockroach, identify the parts of the foregut incorrect sequence :- (NEET-2020(COVID-19)
(1) Mouth  Oesophagus  Pharynx  Crop  Gizzard
(2) Mouth  Crop  Pharynx  Oesophagus  Gizzard
(3) Mouth  Gizzard  Crop  Pharynx  Oesophagus

228
 (4) Mouth  Pharynx  Oesophagus  Crop  Gizzard
15. Match the following columns with reference to cockroach and select the correct option :
(NEET-2020(COVID-19)
Column - I Column - II
(a) Grinding of (i) Hepatic caecal the food particles
(b) Secrete gastric (ii) 10thsegmentjuice
(c) 10 pairs (iii) Proventriculus
(d) Anal cerci (iv) Spiracles
(v) Alary muscles
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(v), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) (4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

16. Select the incorrectly matched pair from following: (NEET-2020(COVID-19)

(1) Chondrocytes - Smooth muscle cells (2) Neurons - Nerve cells
(3) Fibroblast - Areolar tissue (4) Osteocytes - Bone cells
17. If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for few days because (NEET-2020)
1) the head holds a 1/3rd of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the dorsal part of
its body
2) the supra-oesophageal ganalia of the cockroach are situated in ventral part of abdomen
3) the cockroach does not have nervous system
4) the head holds a small proportion nervous system while the rest is situated along the ventral
part of its body.

18. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified from (NEET-2020)

1) Compound epithelia cells 2) Squamous epithelial cells
3) Columnar epithelial cells 4) Chondrocyte
19. Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli is found in (NEET-2020)
1) eustachina tube 2) lining of intestine
3) ducts of salivary glands 4) Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
20. Which of the following characteristics is incorrect with respect to cockroach?[NEET-2021]
1. Hypopharynx within the cavity enclosed by the mouth parts
2. In females , 7 th – 9th sterna together form a genital pouch.
3. 10th abdominal segment in both sexes , bears a pair of anal cerci.
4. A ring of gastric ceaca is present at the junction of midgut and hind gut
21. Which of the following statements wrongly represents the nature of smooth muscle?
[NEET-2021]
1) They are involuntary muscles
2) Communication among the cells is performed by intercalated discs
3) These muscles are present in the wall of blood vessels
4) These muscle have no striations

229
22. Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop the leakage of the substances across a tissue
and facilitation of communication with neighbouring cells via rapid transfer of ions and
molecules. [NEET-2021]
1) Tight (c) junctions and Gap junctions, respectively
2) Adhering junctions and Tight junctions, respectively
3) Adhering junctions and Gap junctions, respectively
4) Gap junctions and Adhering junctions, respectively
23. Following are the statements about prostomium of earthworm [NEET-2021]
a) It serves as a covering for mouth
b) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which it can crawl.
c) It is one of the sensory structures d) It is the first body segment
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1) a, b and d are correct 2) a, b, c and d are correct
3) b and c are correct 4) a, b and c are correct
24. Tegmina in cockroach, arises from: [NEET-2022]
1) Prothorax 2) Mesothorax
3) Metathorax 4) Prothorax and Mesothorax
25. Which of the following is not a connective tissue? [NEET-2022]
1) Blood 2) Adipose tissue 3) Cartilage 4) Neuroglia
26. Match List-I with List-II [NEET-2022]
List-I List-II
(a) Bronchioles (i) Dense Regular Connective Tissue
(b) Goblet cell (ii) Loose Connective Tissue
(c) Tendons (iii) Glandular Tissue
(d) Adipose Tissue (iv) Ciliated Epithelium
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) (a) –(iv), (b) –(iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii) 2) (a) –(i), (b) – (ii), (c) – (iii), (d) – (iv)
3) (a) –(ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i) 4) (a) –(iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
NCERT LINE BY LINE QUESTIONS – ANSWERS
1) B 2) B 3) A 4) C 5) B 6) C 7) A 8) C 9) D 10) C
11) A 12) C 13) C 14) A 15) D 16) C 17) C 18) B 19) D 20) A
21) B 22) A 23) D 24) D 25) C 26) B 27) A 28) C 29) A 30) C
31) B 32) D 33) B 34) A 35) C 36) D 37) D 38) D 39) B 40) C
41) A 42) B 43) D 44) B 45) C 46) B 47) D 48) D 49) C 50) A
51) B 52) A 53) D 54) A 55) A 56) C 57) A 58) D 59) A 60) B
61) B 62) D 63) D 64) D 65) B 66) B 67) B 68) D 69) C 70) B
71) C 72) D 73) C 74) D 75) C 76) A 77) A 78) A 79) B 80) D
81) B 82) A 83) D 84) D 85) A 86) B 87) A 88) C 89) B 90) C
91) C 92) A 93) B 94) C 95) C 96) A 97) B 98) A 99) D 100) D
101) A 102) C 103) A

230
 NEET PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS-ANSWERS
1) b 2) c 3) b 4) a 5) b 6) a 7) c 8) c 9) 1 10) 4
11) 1 12) 3 13) 1 14) 4 15) 1 16) 1 17) 4 18) 3 19) 4 20) 4
21) 2 22) 1 23) 4 24) 2 25) 4 26) 1

NEET PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS-EXPLANATIONS

1. (b) Males bear a pair of short, thread like anal styles whichare absent in females. Anal/caudal styles arise
from 9thabdominal segment in male cockroach.
2. (c) The vertebrates possess myogenic heart which is selfcontractile system or autoexcitable, it will thus,
keepworking outside the body for sometime.
3. (b) Periplanata americana shows spiral and determinatetypes of cleavage during embryonic development
whichis a feature of protostomes.
4. (a) Wall of intestine is made of smooth muscle. Tendonsconsist of dense regular connective tissue fascicles
encased in dense irregular connective tissue sheaths.Tip of nose consists of squamous epithelium.
Liningof epithelium is made of columnar epithelium.
5. (b) Between the various sclerite, a flexible membrane exists which is known as arthrodial membrane.
6. (a) The body cells in cockroach discharge their nitrogenous waste in the haemolymph as a solution of
sodium or potassium urate (a weak alkaline fluid).
7. (c) Tendon is dense regular connective tissue. Adipose tissue is a type of loose connective tissue located
mainly beneath the cells. Cartilage is a type of specialised connective tissue.
8. (c)
(i) Inner lining of salivary ducts - Compound epithelium.
(ii) Moist surface of buccal cavity - Compound epithelium.
(iii) Tubular parts of nephorns - Cuboidal epithelium.
(iv) Inner surface of bronchioles - Ciliated epithelium.
17. The head holds a small proportion of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the ventral part of
its body
18. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified from columnar epithelial cells.
19 Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of microvilli is found in proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
20. In cockroach gastric or hepatic caeca are present at the junction of fore gut and midgut. Gastric caeca at
the junction of mid gut and hind gut is incorrect
21. * Option (2) is incorrect because intercalated discs are found only in cardiac muscle tissue.
* Smooth muscle fibres are non-striated and involuntary in nature and are present in the wall of blood
vessels, uterus, gall bladder, alimentary canal etc.
22. Adhering junctions help to stop the leakage of the substances across a tissue and Gap junctions help in
facilitation of communication with neighbouring cells via rapid transfer of ions and molecules
23 * The anterior end of the earthworm has mouth which has covering called prostomium.
* Prostomium acts as a wedge to force open cracks in the soil.
* Prostomium has receptors, so it is sensory in function.
* The first body segment of earthworm is the peristomium
24. Tegmina-1st pair of wings arise from Mesothorax
25. Neuroglia is supporting cells of neural tissue.
26. Branchioles – Cilated epithelium
Goblet – Glandular tissue
Tendon – Dense regular CT
Adipose – loose C.T

231
 8.CELL THE UNIT OF LIFE

Biology Smart Booklet

Theory + NCERT MCQs + NEET PYQs
232
233
 CELL THE UNIT OF LIFE
Cell
A cell is defined as the most basic, structural and functional unit of all living
organisms. Essentially, a cell is a structure that contains organelles which provide
necessary functions to sustain itself. However, not all cells are the same.

Prokaryotic cells

 Membrane-bound nucleus is absent.

 Cells are smaller in size.
 Single chromosome is present.
 Membrane-bound organelles are absent.

Eukaryotic cells

 Membrane-bound nucleus is present.

 Cells are larger in size.
 More than one chromosome is present.
 Membrane-bound organelles are present.

234
Animal cell
 Cell membrane is composed of lipids that are arranged in bilayer. The
lipid component is mainly composed of phosphoglycerides. Later it was
found that protein is also present in cell membrane. Ratio of protein and
lipids varies in different cells.
 Membrane protein may be integral or peripheral. Integral protein remains
buried in membrane but peripheral protein lies on the surface.
 Singer and Nicholson (1972) proposed fluid mosaic model. According to
this model, the quasi-fluid nature of lipid enables lateral movement of
protein within the bilayer of lipids.

Eukaryotic cells: Eukaryotic cells Possess an organized nucleus with nuclear

envelope and have a variety of complex locomotory and cytoskeletal
structures.

Active Transport
The transport involves an expenditure of energy by the cells, It occurs against
the concentration gradient. It is a rapid process.

Passive Transport
The cells do not spend energy in passive transport, this transport is always along
the concentration gradient. It is comparatively slow process.

Endoplasmic Reticulum
Endoplasmic Reticulum are the tubular structure scattered in the cytoplasm.
Rough endoplasmic reticulum bears ribosomes on its surface. RER is involved in
protein synthesis and secretion. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum does not bear
ribosomes on its surface. SER is involved in lipid synthesis and steroidal hormones.

235
Golgi apparatus
Golgi apparatus was first observed by Camillo Golgi in 1898 near nucleus. They
consist of many flat, disc-shaped sacs or cisternae stacked parallel to each
other. Golgi apparatus performs the function of packaging of materials and its
transportation. A number of protein synthesized by ribosomes are modified in
cisternae of Golgi apparatus. Golgi apparatus is the site for synthesis of
Glycoproteins and glycolipids.

Lysosomes
Lysosomes are membrane-bound vesicular structures formed by the process of
packaging in the Golgi apparatus. They are rich in hydrolytic enzymes- lipase,
protease, carbohydrates active at acidic PH. These enzymes are capable of

236
digesting carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids.

Vacuoles
Vacuoles are membrane-bound space found in cytoplasm containing water,
sap and excretory product. They are bound by single membrane. They form
contractile vacuole and food vacuole in many organisms.

Mitochondria
Mitochondria is double membrane-bound structure with the outer membrane
and inner membrane dividing its lumen in two compartments. The inner
membrane forms a number of infoldings called cristae towards the matrix.

Plastids
Plastids are found in plant cells and in Euglenoids.

Plastids are three types:

Chloroplast (Contain chlorophyll and caratenoids).

Chromoplast (Contain carotene and xanthophyll).

Leucoplast (Colorless plastids).

 Chloroplast: Contains chlorophyll pigment and carotenoids and performs

photosynthesis
 Chromoplast: Contains carotene and xanthophylls. They impart a specific
color to flowers and fruits and help in pollination and dispersal of seeds
 Leucoplast: They are colorless and store various food products, e.g.,
amyloplasts- store starch, proteinoplasts or aleuroplasts- store proteins,
elaioplasts- store fat.

237
 NCERT LINE BY LINE QUESTIONS
Cell Structure and Function
1. In living organisms detailed descriptionthat brings out their knowledge of diversityis about
Pg-125, easy
A) Their form B) Their appearance
C) Both D) None
2. What brought out the unit of diversity thecellular organisation of all life form:
Pg-125, easy
A) Theory of evolution B) Species theory
C) Cell theory D) Darwinian theory
3. What is not true about physico-chemicalapproach:- Pg-125, easy
A) Established by analysis of living tissuefor element and compounds.
B) Explains what type of organiccompounds is present in livingorganism.
C) Explains the abnormal process thatoccur during any diseased condition.
D) This approach is known as forwardbiology.
Cell :- The Unit Of Life
4. Unicellular organism are capable of Pg-125, easy
A) Independent existence
B) Performing the essential functions oflife.
C) Both
D) Does not ensure independent living
5. Living cell was firstly seen and describedby:- Pg-125, easy
A) Robert Hooke B) Anton von Leeuwenhoek
C) Robert Koch D) Robert Brown
Paragraph – 8.2
Cell Theory
6. Cell theory was proposed by:- Pg-126, easy
A) Matthias Schleiden and TheodoreSchwann
B) Schleiden; Schwann and Virchow.
C) Rudolf Virchow D) Sutton and Boveri
7. All the plants are composed of differentkinds of cells which forms the tissue of theplant, this
statement was given by:- Pg-125, easy
A) A German botanist ; Rudolf Virchow .
B) A British zoologist ; Matthias Schleiden
C) A British zoologist ; Theodore Schwann
D) A German botanist; Matthias Schleiden
8. Who studied the different types of animalcells to propose cell theory:- Pg-126, easy
A) A British zoologist; Matthias Schleiden
B) A German botanist; TheodoreSchwann.
C) A physicist; Rudolf Virchow.
D) A British zoologist; Theodore Schwann.
9. A thin outer layer studied by TheodoreSchwann nowadays known as:- Pg-126, easy
A) Plasma membrane B) Cell wall

238
 C) Glycocalyx D) Middle lamella
10. Based on studies of Matthias Schleiden;what is the unique character of plant cell?
A) Cell wall B) Middle lamella
C) Glycocalyx D) None of these Pg-126, easy

11. The hypothesis that the bodies of animalsand plant are composed of cells and their
products was proposed by:- Pg-126, easy
A) Schleiden and Schwann B) Rudolf Virchow
C) Schwann only D) Virchow and Schleiden
12. Scientist who gave the final shape to celltheory? Pg-126, easy
A) Schleiden B) Schwann
C) Virchow D) Schleiden & Schwann
13. Which of the following is related to celltheory :- Pg-126, medium
i) All living organisms are composed ofcells and product of cells.
ii) Proposed by Schleiden and Schwann.
iii) Modified by Rudolf Virchow
iv) All cells arise from pre – existing cell.
v) “Omnis cellula – e – cellula”
A) Only one of the above B) Only two of the above
C) Only four of the above D) All five
Paragraph – 8.3
An Overview of Cell
14. What is the delimiting boundary around ahuman cheek cell? Pg-126, easy
A) Cell membrane B) Protoplasm
C) Protoplast D) Cell wall
15. What is the Semi – fluid matrix inside thecell? Pg-126, easy
A) Cell membrane B) Protoplast
C) Cytoplasm D) Nucleus
16. How many of the following statements arenot true:- Pg-126, medium
i) All cells have membrane bound nucleiand nucleolus.
ii) Nucleus contains the chromosome
iii) DNA is the Genetic material.
iv) Cytoplasm is the main arena of cellularactivities in plant and animal cells.
A) Only (ii), (iii), & (iv) B) Only (ii) & (iv)
C) Only (i) & (iii) D) Only (i)
17. Besides the nucleus; the _____cell haveother membrane bound distinctstructures.
A) Eukaryotic B) Prokaryotic
C) Both (a) and (b) D) None of these Pg-126, easy
18. What is the non – membranous organellepresent in both Eukaryotic as well as
Prokaryotic cell Pg-126, easy
A) Endoplasmic reticulum B) Protein
C) Mitochondria D) Ribosomes of 80s’ type
19. Animal cells have another non –membrane bound cellular organelleknown as:-
Pg-126, easy
A) Microbodies B) Nucleus
C) Lysosome D) Centrosome
20. Which of the following is not incorrect? Pg-127, medium
A) Mycoplasma is the smallest cell -> 0.3μm in width.

239
 B) Bacteria could be 3 μm to 5 μm inlength
C) Human RBCs are about 7.0mm indiameter.
D) Cell’s shape is independent of theirwork they perform.
Paragraph – 8.4
Prokaryotic Cell
21. The prokaryotic cells are represented by:- Pg-127, easy
A) Bacteria B) BGA
C) Mycoplasma & PPLO D) All of these
22. All prokaryotic cell have this cellularboundary surrounding the cell –membrane except in
mycoplasma Pg-127, easy
A) Glycocalyx B) Protoplast
C) Cell wall D) Cytoplasm
23. Which of the following is related toprokaryotic cell:- Pg-127, easy
A) Have no well defined nucleus
B) Have basically naked genomicmaterial.
C) An addition to genomic DNA; the extra– genomic DNA is also present known
as plasmid.
D) All of the above
24. Which of the following confirms certainunique phenotypic characters to somebacteria
Pg-127, easy
A) Chromosomal material
B) Extra chromosomal material
C) Mitochondrial DNA
D) Genetic material present in chloroplast
25. A special form of cell membrane ; which isthe characteristic of prokaryotes is:-
Pg-128, easy
A) Plasmid B) Cell wall
C) Cell membrane D) Mesosomes.
26. Which of the following is membrane lessbodies other than Ribosomes.
Pg-128, easy
A) Cell wall B) Inclusion
C) Mesosomes D) Chromatophores
27. Which of the following is the essentialinfolding’s of cell membrane Pg-128, easy
A) Inclusion B) Mesosome C) Chromatophores D) Plasmid
Paragraph – 8.4.1
Cell Envelope and it’s modification
28. What is the sequence of cell envelope inmost of the prokaryotic cell (Outer toInner)
Pg-128, easy
A) Glycocalyx ->cell membrane -> cellwall.
B) Cell membrane -> cell wall ->Glycocalyx
C) Cell wall -> Glycocalyx -> cellmembrane
D) Glycocalyx ->cell wall -> cellmembrane.
29. The prokaryotic cell have a singleprotective unit made up of Pg-128, easy
A) Glycocalyx + cellulosic cell wall + cellmembrane
B) Peptidoglycan cell wall + cellmembrane + Glycocalyx
C) Chitinous cell wall + cell membrane +Glycocalyx
D) Silicous cell wall + Glycocalyx + cellmembrane
30. How many of the following statements arecorrect:- Pg-128, easy
i) Glycocalyx is outermost layer.

240
 ii) All three layer have same function.
iii) Bacteria can be classified on the basisof differences in the cell envelope.
iv) Bacteria can be classified on the basisof response to the staining procedure
A) Only one B) Only two C) Only three D) All four
31. The bacteria that take up gram stain are Pg-128, easy
A) Gram positive type. B) Gram negative type.
C) Both type
D) Neither gram positive nor gramnegative.
32. The bacteria that do not take up gramstain are Pg-128, easy
A) Gram positive type. B) Gram negative type.
C) Either gram positive or gram negative
D) Neither gram positive nor gramnegative
33. Which of the following in a bacterialenvelope is a loose sheath of slimy layer
Pg-128, easy
A) Glycocalyx B) Cell wall C) Cell membrane D) None of the above
34. Glycocalyx could be a thick and toughlayer and known as:- Pg-128, easy
A) Slimy layer B) Cyst
C) Capsule D) None of the above
35. Which of the following determines theshape of a bacteria cell:- Pg-128, easy
A) Glycocalyx B) Capsule
C) Cell membrane D) Cell Wall
36. How many of the following in not incorrectregarding a cell membrane in prokaryotes
Pg-128, medium
i) Selectively permeable in nature
ii) Structurally similar to eukaryotic cellmembrane
iii) Interacts with outer world.
iv) Innermost layer of cell envelope
v) Living layer.
A) Only (ii), (iii) & (iv) B) Only (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) & (v)
C) Only (i), (iii), (iv) & (v) D) Only (i), (iv) & (v)
37. How many of the following is themembranous extensions into the cell ofbacteria:-
Pg-128, easy
Mesosomes, Tubules, Vesicles,Lamellae, Chromatophores,Inclusions
A) 6 B) 3 C) 5 D) 4
38. How many functions from the following,the mesosomes can perform
Pg-129, easy
i) DNA replication ii) Respiration
iii) DNA distribution to daughter cells iv) Secretion
v) Increases surface area vi) Contains enzymatic content.
A) Only four B) Only Three
C) All six D) Only five
39. In cyanobacteria, there are some anothermembranous extensions exceptmesosomes are:
Pg-129, easy
A) Inclusion B) Fat globules
C) Chromatophores D) All of the above
40. What are structures related to Bacterialflagellum:- Pg-129, easy
A) Basal body & filament B) Basal body, Hook & filament.
C) Hook & filament D) Filament only.
41. Longest portion of flagellum is:- Pg-129, easy

241
 A) Basal body B) Hook
C) Filament D) None of the above
42. Which of the following structure helps inmotility in bacterial cell:- Pg-129, easy
A) Cell membrane B) Pili
C) Fimbriae D) Flagella
43. Which of the following is not a surfacestructure :- Pg-129, easy
A) Fimbriae B) Pili C) Flagella D) Inclusion
44. Which of the following is small bristle likefibres sprouting out of the cell:-
Pg-129, easy
A) Pili B) Cilia C) Flagella D) Fimbriae
45. Which of the following is elongated tubularproteinaeciousstructure:- Pg-129, easy
A) Pili B) Inclusion
C) Mesosome D) Fimbriae
46. Which of the following help the bacteriaattach to rocks in streams:- Pg-129, easy
A) Inclusion B) Mesosome C) Fimbriae D) Pili
Paragraph – 8.4.2
Ribosomes and Inclusion Bodies
47. Ribosomes are associated with thestructures in a bacterial cell:- Pg-129, easy
A) t – RNA strand B) Golgi body
C) Cell membrane D) E.R
48. Ribosomes in the bacterial cell are Pg-129,
A) 20nm to 30 nm in size.
B) Made up of two subunits(Larger 60s’ &smaller 40s’)
C) Made up of two subunits(Larger 50s’ &smaller 30s’)
D) Associated with E.R and cell membrane
49. A polysome is:- Pg-129, easy
A) Several mRNA bound to a singleRibosome.
B) Several subunits of ribosomes attachedto each other.
C) Several ribosomes attached to a singlestrand of mRNA
D) Several mRNA attached to each other.
50. Which of the following structure translatethe mRNA into proteins: in a bacterialcell:-
Pg-129, easy
A) Inclusions of cytoplasm B) Ribosomes of E.R
C) Ribosomes of Polysome. D) Polysomes of Ribosome.
51. Inclusion bodies in a prokaryotic cell are:- Pg-129, easy
A) Reserve material containing structure
B) Cell membrane infoldings
C) Membrane bound structure
D) All of the above
52. What are example of inclusion bodies:- Pg-129, easy
i) Mesosome ii) Chromatophores
iii) Gas vacuole iv) Phosphate granules
v) Cyanophycean granules vi) Glycogen granules
A) Only (ii), (iii) & (iv) B) Only (iii), (iv) & (v)
C) Only (iii), (iv), (v) & (vi) D) Only (iv), (v) & (vi)
53. Inclusion bodies can be found in Pg-129, easy
A) All type of cells B) All eukaryotic cell
C) BGA & green photosynthetic bacteria D) Prokaryotic cell.
Paragraph – 8.5

242
 Eukaryotic cell
54. All of the above except are eukaryoticexcept:- Pg-129, easy
A) Protista B) Plants C) Monera D) Animals
55. How many of the following statements aretrue regarding Eukaryotic cell. Pg-129, easy
i) Cytoplasm has extensivecompartmentalization
ii) Presence of membrane bound organelle
iii) Organised nucleus
iv) A variety of complex locomotory andcytoskeletal structures.
v) Genetic material is organised intochromosomes
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
56. Statement – I:-Plant cells differs fromanimals cells.
Statement – ii:-The former one possescell walls, plastids & a large vacuole whichis absent in
latter one. Pg-129, easy
A) Both statements are correct.
B) Both statement are incorrect.
C) Statement – I is correct but statement– II is incorrect.
D) Statement – I is incorrect butstatement – II is correct.
57. Centrioles are present in Pg-129, easy
A) Animal cells B) Plant cells
C) Both animal and plant cells.
D) All other than plant cells.
58. Which of the following correctly explain thediagram. Pg-130, medium

A) 1 -> Nuclear membrane 2 -> vacuole 3-> peroxisome 4 -> cell wall
B) 1 -> Microvilli 2 -> cell wall 3 ->cytoplasm 4 -> Plasma membrane
C) 1 -> Vacuole 2 -> cytoplasm 3 ->Microvilli 4 -> cell wall
D) None of the above
Paragraph – 8.5.1
Cell Membrane
59. The detailed structure of the membranewas studied:- Pg-131, easy
A) Only after the advent of the electronmicroscope in 1950s.
B) Enabled to deduce the possiblestructure of plasma membrane
C) Both D) None
60. Which of the following cell’s study enabledthe scientists to deduce the possiblestructure of
Plasma membrane? Pg-131, easy
A) RBC B) Cork cell C) WBCs D) Bacterial Cell
61. Cell membrane is mainly composed of Pg-131, easy
A) Lipids and Proteins B) Proteins & Cholesterols
C) Lipids & Carbohydrates D) Carbohydrates & Proteins
62. What is the correct arrangement of Lipidmolecules in the cell membrane Pg-131, easy
A) Polar head -> Outside, non – polar tails-> Inner side.
B) Non – polar head -> Outside Polar tail -> Inner side

243
 C) Polar tail -> Outside non – polar head -> Inner side
D) Polar tail -> inner side non – polar head-> outer side
63. What ensures that the non – polar tail isprotected from aqueous environment?
Pg-131, easy
A) Polar head -> Outside non – polar tails-> Inner side.
B) Non – polar head -> Outside Polar tail -> Inner side
C) Polar tail -> Outside non – polar head -> Inner side
D) Polar tail -> inner side non – polar head-> outer side
64. The constituents of cell membrane are:- Pg-131
i) Phospholipid ii) Carbohydrate
iii) Proteins iv) Cholesterol
v) Phosphoproteins
A) Only (i), (ii) & (iv) B) Only (ii), (iv) & (v)
C) Only (ii), (iii), (iv) & (v) D) Only (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)
65. Which of the following study revealed thatcell membrane also contains proteins
&carbohydrate:- Pg-131, easy
A) Electron microscopic study.
B) Phase – Contrast microscopic study.
C) Biochemical investigation study
D) Cobalt – chloride paper test study.
66. Which of the following statement isincorrect:- Pg-131, easy
A) The tail is hydrophobic of saturatedhydrocarbons.
B) The tail is hydrophilic of saturatedhydrocarbons.
C) The tail is hydrophobic of unsaturatedhydrocarbons.
D) The tail is hydrophilic of unsaturatedhydrocarbons
67. Which of the following statement isincorrect:- Pg-131, easy
A) The ratio of proteins and lipids variesconsiderably in different cells.
B) In erythrocytes; it has approximately52% proteins and 40% lipids.
C) On the basis of ease of extractionmembrane proteins are of extrinsic andintrinsic type.
D) None of the above
68. The improved model of the structure of cellmembrane was proposed by:-
Pg-132, easy
A) Messelson& Stahl B) Schleiden & Schwann
C) Anton von Leeuwenhoek D) Singer and Nichloson
69. The quasi–fluid nature of lipid enables:- Pg-132, easy
A) Flip–flop movement of proteins withinthe lipid bilayer.
B) Lateral movement of proteins withinthe lipid bilayer.
C) Flip–flop movement of lipid crossingthe protein bilayer.
D) lateral movement of lipid crossing theprotein bilayer.
70. One of the most important function of theplasma membrane is:- Pg-132, easy
A) Transport of molecules across it. B) Flip – flop movement.
C) Secretion D) Cell enlargement.
71. What ability explains the fluidity of cellmembrane:- Pg-132, easy
A) Quasi – fluid nature of cell membrane.
B) Lateral movement of proteins.
C) Cell growth, formation of intercellularjunctions; secretion; endocytosis; celldivision
D) All of the above.
72. The plasma membrane is:- Pg-132, easy
A) Semi – permeable in nature B) Impervious in nature

244
 C) Impermeable in nature D) Selectively permeable in nature.
73. How many of the following functions thecell membrane can perform:-
Active transport; Osmosis; Passivetransport. Pg-132, easy
A) Only one B) Only two C) All D) None
74. Na+ - K+ pump transports molecules Pg-132, easy
A) By passive transport B) By active transport
C) By utilisation of ATP D) Both B & C
Paragraph – 8.5.2
Cell Wall
75. The outer covering of fungi and plants is:- Pg-132, easy
A) Glycocalyx B) Cell wall C) Cell membrane D) All
76. What is the function of cell wall:- Pg-132, easy
A) Gives shape to the cell B) Protects the cell
C) Cell – to – cell interaction D) All of the above
77. What are chemical composition of algal cellwall
Cellulose, Galactans, Mannans, Calciumcarbonate, Chitin
Pg-132, easy
A) Only two of them B) Only three of them
C) Only four of them D) All five of them
78. Cell wall of plants consists of:- Pg-132, easy
A) Cellulose & Pectin’s only
B) Cellulose, hemicellulose & Pectin’s only
C) Cellulose, hemicellulose, Pectin &Proteins.
D) Hemicellulose & Proteins only.
79. Which of the following is capable of growth Pg-132, easy
A) Primary cell wall B) Secondary cell wall
C) Tertiary cell wall D) All of them
80. Secondary cell wall is formed Pg-132, easy
A) Outside the primary cell wall. B) Inside the cell membrane
C) Inside the plasmodesmata. D) Inside the primary cell wall.
81. Which of the following in plant acts as gluebetween neighbouring plant cells:-
Pg-132, easy
A) Ca – Pectate B) Mg – Pectate
C) Ca & Mg – Pectate D) None of the above
82. Which of the following is traversed byplasmodesmata:- Pg-132, easy
A) Cell wall & cell membrane
B) Cell membrane & Glycocalyx
C) Cell membrane, cell wall, Glycocalyx &Middle lamella.
D) Cell wall & middle lamella.
Paragraph – 8.5.3
Endomembrane System
83. What are the constituent ofEndomembrane system:- Pg-133, easy
A) Endoplasmic reticulum B) Golgi body & E.R.
C) E.R; Golgi body; Lysosome & Vacuole. D) E.R, Golgi body & Lysosome.
84. Why Mitochondria, Chloroplast &Peroxisome are not the part of Endo –system:-
Pg-133, easy
A) They are autonomous organelles.
B) They are semi – autonomousorganelles.
C) They are not coordinated withEndomembrane system.

245
 D) They have their own genetic material.
85. Which of the following is the network oftiny-tubular structure scattered incytoplasm:-
Pg-133, easy
A) E.R B) Golgi body C) Lysosome D) Vacuole
86. Which of the following structure dividesthe intercellular space into twocompartments:-
Pg-133, easy
A) E.R B) Golgi body C) Lysosome D) None of the above
87. The extra luminal & luminal compartmentrepresents:- Pg-133, easy
A) Cytoplasm & inside ER B) Inside ER & cytoplasm
C) Outside ER & cytoplasm D) Cytoplasm & outside ER
88. The ER having Ribosomes attached to itsouter surface is known as Pg-133, easy
A) RER B) SER C) Both D) None
89. RER is frequently observed in cells,actively involved in:- Pg-133, easy
A) Protein Synthesis B) Lipid synthesis
C) DNA synthesis D) Glucose synthesis
90. Which of the following is continuous withthe outer membrane of nucleus:- Pg-133, easy
A) R.E.R B) S.E.R C) Golgi body D) Lysosome
91. Steroidal hormones are synthesised by:- Pg-133, easy
A) R.E.R B) Lysosome C) S.E.R D) Ribosome

92. Golgi body was firstly observed by Pg-133, easy

A) Camillo Golgi in 1898 B) Camillo Golgi in 1897
C) Camillo Golgi in 1895 D) Camillo Golgi in 1993.
93. Golgi body is Pg-133, easy
i) Reticular structure. ii) Densely stained structure
iii) Made up of cisternae, Tubule & Vesicle
iv) Concentric cisternae
A) Only (i) & (iii) B) Only (ii), (iii) & (iv)
C) All of the above D) Only (iii) & (iv)
94. What is the diameter of cisternae of Golgibody:- Pg-133, easy
A) 0.5μm to 1.0μm B) 0.1 μm to 2.0 μm
C) 0.2 μm to 2.5 μm D) 0.3 μm to 2.0 μm
95. The convex – face of cisternae of Golgi bodyis also known as:- Pg-134
i) Cis – face ii) Forming face iii) Trans – face iv) Maturing face
A) (i) & (ii) B) (ii) & (iii) C) (iv) & (iii) D) (i) & (iv)
96. Which of the following statement iscorrect:- Pg-134, easy
A) Cis & Trans faces are same but interconnected.
B) Cis & Trans faces different & not interconnected
C) Cisternae is 0.1 to 2.0 μm in diameter.
D) None of the above
97. Golgi body principally performs thefunctions of:- Pg-134, easy
A) Secretion B) Packaging of materials.
C) Both D) None
98. Materials to be packed in the ______Fuseswith the ______face:- Pg-134, easy
A) Cis – face and Trans – face
B) Trans – face and cis – face
C) E.R and cis – face
D) E.R and trans – face
99. A number of proteins synthesized byribosomes on the _____(i)_____ are modified

246
 in the ____(ii)____of the ____(iii)____ Pg-134, easy
A) (i) ER (ii) Golgi body (iii) cisternae
B) (i)Golgi body (ii) cisternae (iii)ER
C) (i) cisternae (ii) RE (iii) Golgi body
D) (i) ER (ii) cisternae (iii) Golgi body
100. The vesicular structure formed by theprocess of packing in Golgi apparatus is:-
Pg-134, easy
A) Vacuole B) ER C) Lysosome D) All
101. The isolated lysosomal vesicle have beenfound to be very rich in Pg-134, easy
i) Lipases ii) Proteases iii) Carbohydrases
A) Only i) & ii) B) Only ii) & iii) C) Only i) & iii) D) All
102. Enzymes present in lysosomes areaccumulatively known as:- Pg-134, easy
A) Acid proteases B) Lipases C) Acid hydrolases D) Carbohydrases
103. The membrane bound space in cytoplasmis known as:- Pg-135, easy
A) ER B) Golgi body C) Lysosome D) Vacuole
104. Vacuole contains hydrolases; lipases;proteases; water; sap; excretory products& material not
useful for the cell Pg-135, easy
A) Only four of the above B) Only three of the above
C) Only five of the above D) All of them.
105. The membrane of vacuole is Pg-134, easy
A) Single membrane B) Tonoplast C) Both D) none

106. In a plant cell vacuole can occupy up to______% space of cell Pg-134, easy
A) 70 B) 80 C) 90 D) 50
107. In plant tonoplast facilitates the transportof a number of ___(i)___; ____(ii)_____
theconcentration gradient. Pg-134, easy
A) (i) Solutes (ii) Along B) (i) ions (ii) Along
C) (i) ions (ii) against D) (i) solutes (ii) against
108. How many of the following statements arenot wrong:- Pg-134, medium
i) Concentration of same ions inside thevacuole is significantly higher.
ii) In amoeba contractile vacuole helps inosmoregulation & excretion.
iii) In Protistans, food vacuoles are formedby engulfing the food particle.
A) Only two B) Only one C) All three D) None
Paragraph – 8.5.4
Mitochondria
109. Which of the following statement is correctabout mitochondria:-Pg-134, medium
A) Easily visible under the microscope;without stain.
B) Number of mitochondria per cell isinvariable
C) Number of mitochondria depends onthe physiological activity of cell.
D) All of the above.
110. How many of the following statement iscorrect regarding mitochondria-Pg-134, medium
i) A sausage – shaped str. ii) Diameter is 0.2 – 1.0 μm
iii) Avg. Diameter is 0.5 μm iv) Length is 1.0 – 4.1 μm
A) One B) Two C) Three D) Four
111. Each mitochondria is ___X_____membrane bound structure; dividing itslumen into ____Y___
distinct compartment Pg-135, easy
A) X→ single Y→one B) X →double Y→one
C) X→singleY→two D) X → double Y→two
112. Matrix of mitochondria is:- Pg-135, easy

247
 A) Filled with a dense homogenoussubstance.
B) Outer aqueous compartment
C) Space present between Inner andOuter membrane of Mitochondria
D) Present within the outer membrane ofmitochondria
113. The outer membrane of mitochondriaforms the ____ limiting boundary of theorganelle, while
the inner membrane formsa number of_____ Pg-135, easy
A) Discontinuous ; infoldings B) Infoldings; Cristae
C) Continuous ; Cristae D) Cistae ; Infoldings
114. Which of the following increase the surfacearea:- Pg-135, easy
A) Matrix B) Inner membrane
C) Outer membrane D) Cristae
115. How many of the following statements arecorrect:- Pg-135, easy
i) Only outer membrane has enzyme forETS
ii) Only inner membrane has enzymes.
iii) Outer membrane is devoid of enzymes.
iv) Mitochondria matrix has enzyme ofkerb’s cycle.
v) Mitochondria is the site of aerobicrespiration
vi) Matrix also possess SS – DNA molecule& few RNA molecules.
A) Only two B) Only four C) Only five D) Only three
116. The matrix of mitochondria possess:- Pg-135, easy
Single circular DNA molecules;A few RNA molecules; 70s’ ribosomes;
Components required for the synthesis ofproteins.
A) Only two of them B) Only three of them
C) All of them D) None of them
117. Mitochondria divides by:- Pg-135, easy
A) Endomitosis B) Meiosis C) Budding D) Fission
Paragraph – 8.5.5
Plastids
118. Plastids are found in:- Pg-135, easy
A) Only plants cells B) Only Euglenoids
C) Both Plants and Euglenoids D) Plants; Euglenoids & Cyanobacteria.
119. Classification of plastids are based on- Pg-135, easy
A) Chromatophores B) Mesosomes
C) Inclusions D) Pigments
120. Which of the following is responsible fortrapping of light energy Pg-135, easy
A) Chlorophyll like a, b, c etc. B) Carotenoids
C) Chlorophylls & carotenoids D) Chromosomes
121. Carotenoids is group of Pg-135, easy
A) Chlorophyll pigments B) Chlorophylls & carotene
C) Carotenes and xanthophyll’s
D) Carotenes ; xanthophyll’s & otherpigments.
122. Leucoplast is :- Pg-135, easy
A) Unmodified plastids B) Contains stored nutrients
C) Imparts colour to the plant cell D) Imparts colour to the cyanobacteria
123. What are types of chloroplast:- Pg-135, easy
i) Chromoplast ii) Leucoplast
iii) Amyloplast iv) Aleuroplast
v) Elaioplast
A) Three of the above B) Four of the above

248
 C) Five of the above D) None of the above
124. Elaioplast contains Pg-135, easy
A) Proteins and fats B) Fats and starch
C) Fats and oils D) Fats ; Protein and oils.
125. Aleuroplast contains Pg-136, easy
A) Proteins and fats B) Fats and oils
C) Proteins & starch D) Protein only
126. Majority of chloroplast of the green plantsare found in :- Pg-136, easy
A) Mesophyll cells of roots B) Mesophyll cells of stems
C) Mesophyll cells of leaves D) Mesophyll cells of flowers.
127. Mesophyll cells are:- Pg-136, easy
A) Lens – shaped; Oval; Spherical only
B) Oval &spherical only
C) Discoidal & ribbon – shaped
D) None of them
128. What is dimension of chloroplast :- Pg-136, easy
A) Length 2 – 4 μm& width 5 – 10 μm
B) Length 1 – 2 μm& width 2 – 4 μm
C) Length 5 – 10 μm& width 2 – 4 μm
D) Length 2 – 4 μm& width 1 – 2 μm
129. Number of chloroplast per cell may varyfrom_______ per cell of chlamydomonas to
________ per cell in mesophylls. Pg-136, easy
A) 20 – 40; 1 – 5 B) 1 ; 20 – 40
C) 10 – 20; 20 – 40 D) 5; 10 – 20

130. Common features of mitochondria &chloroplasts are :- Pg-136, easy

A) Number of membrane & type of DNAmolecules only
B) Number of membrane; Ribosomes typeand DNA molecule type
C) Types of thylakoid & genetic material.
D) Types of thylakoid, genetic materialand permeability of membrane.
131. What are types of thylakoid inside thechloroplast:- Pg-136, easy
A) Intergranal thylakoid and stromalamellae
B) Granum thylakoid only
C) Stroma thylakoid only
D) None of the above
132. Flat membranous tubules connecting thethylakoids in chloroplast is known as:-
Pg-136, easy
A) Granal thylakoid B) Grama
C) Stroma thylakoid / lamellae D) All of the above
133. The membrane of chloroplast encloses aspace known as:- Pg-136, easy
A) Matrix B) Cytoplasm C) Lumen D) All of them
134. The stroma of chloroplast contains:- Pg-136, easy
(i) Enzyme for carbohydrate & proteinssynthesis.
(ii) Small single stranded DNA molecule.
(iii) Ribosomes of 70’s type.
A) Only one the above B) Only two of the above
C) Only three of the above D) None of the above
135. Chlorophyll pigments are present in the:- Pg-136, easy

249
 A) Matrix B) Stroma C) Membrane D) Thylakoid
136. The ribosomes of chloroplast are:- Pg-136, easy
A) Same as Eukaryotic cell B) 70’s type with single subunit
C) 70’s type with two subunits D) All of the above
Paragraph – 8.5.6
Ribosomes
137. Which of the following statements are trueregarding ribosomes :- Pg-136, easy
i) Granular structure
ii) First observed as dense particles byGeorge Palade in 1953
iii) Composed of m – RNA & proteins.
iv) Surrounded by a single unit membrane
A) Two of them B) Three of them
C) All of them D) Only one of them
138. What are the types of Ribosomes in aProkaryotic and Eukaryotic cell. Pg-136, easy
A) 70s’ and 80s’ B) 80s’ and 70s’
C) 70s’ and 70s’ D) 80s’ and 80s’
139. How many subunits are presents in aribosome Pg-136, easy
A) Two; one large and one smallersubunits
B) Three; two large and one smallersubunits
C) Only one subunits
D) Three; one large and two smallersubunits.
140. Subunits 50s’ and 30s’ are found in Pg-136, easy
A) 60s’ type B) 70s’ type C) 80s’ type D) 90s’ type
141. What is sedimentation co-efficient Pg-136, easy
A) Svedberg unit B) Measurement of density
C) Measurement of size D) All of these

142. What type of ribosome are found inEukaryotic cell Pg-136, easy
A) 70s’ type only B) 80s’ type only
C) Both 70s’ and 80s’ type D) 70s’ ; 80s’ & 60s’ type
Paragraph – 8.5.7
Cytoskeleton
143. Cytoskeleton refers to the :- Pg-136, easy
A) Cilia and flagella only
B) Network of filamentous proteinaeciousstructure
C) Microtubules only D) Both (A) & (C)
144. Microtubules; microfilaments &intermediate filaments are constituentsof:-
Pg-136, easy
A) Ribosomes B) Central sheath
C) Cytoskeleton D) Cytolamellae
145. Cytoskeleton in a cell is involved infunctions like Pg-136, easy
A) Mechanical supports B) Motility
C) Maintenance of the shape of cell D) All of the above
Paragraph – 8.5.8
Cilia and Flagella
146. Which of the following statements inuntrue:- Pg-137, easy
A) Cilia and flagella are hair likeoutgrowth

250
 B) Cilia are small and works like oars.
C) Flagella are longer and responsible forcell movement.
D) None of them
147. Statement – (I): both eukaryotic andprokaryotic cells contains flagella.
Statement – (II): eukaryotic flagella arestructurally different from prokaryoticflagella.
Pg-137, easy
A) Both statements are correct
B) Both statements are not correct
C) Statement – (I) is correct but statement– (II) is wrong
D) Statement – (I) is wrong but statement– (II) is correct
148. The core of cilia and flagella is known as Pg-137, easy
A) Central sheath B) Central microtubule
C) Axoneme D) Bridge
149. The microtubules in the cilia and flagella:- Pg-137, easy
A) Runs parallel to each other.
B) Forms the axoneme and outermembrane
C) Both (A) & (B)
D) Arranged centrally only
150. What is arrangement of microtubules inthe cilium and flagellum Pg-137, easy
A) 9 – peripheral & 3 – central B) Two – peripheral & 9 – central
C) 9 – peripheral & two central D) All peripheral
151. The central sheath is:- Pg-137, easy
A) Connected to inter doublet bridges
B) Encloses peripheral doublets
C) Connected to peripheral microtubules
D) All of the above
152. Which of the following statement regardingcilia and flagella are not correct:-
Pg-137, easy
A) Peripheral doublets are inter connectedby linker
B) Linker are also known as inter doubletbridge
C) Both emerges out from a centriole likestructure
D) Linker are also known as basal body
Paragraph 8.5.9
Centrosome and centrioles
153. Centrosome and centrioles can be foundin:- Pg-137, easy
A) Animal cells only B) Plant cells only
C) Both animal & plant cells D) In plant & Bacterial cells
154. Centrioles in the centrosome are:- Pg-137, easy
A) Parallely arranged to each other
B) Perpendicularly arranged to each other
C) Arranged like a cart wheel
D) Made up of triplets of centrallyarranged microtubules
155. The basal body of centriole has microtubular arrangement of:- Pg-137, easy
A) 9 + 0 B) 9 + 2 C) 9 + 3 D) 3 + 9
156. The central part of the proximal region ofthe centriole is:- Pg-137, easy
A) Known as radial spoke B) Known as a central hub
C) Connected to the peripheral doublets D) All of the above
157. The structure that give rise to the spindlefibers during cell division in animal cellis:-
Pg-137, easy

251
 A) Cilia B) Flagella C) Both D) Centriole
Paragraph 8.5.10
Nucleus
158. i) Nucleus as an organelle was firstdescribed by Robert brown
ii) Stained by the basic dyes, the materialis known as chromatin by Robert brown
iii) Double membrane bound structure
How many of the above statement are nottrue about the nucleus & its material:-
Pg 138, easy
A) Only one B) Only two C) Only three D) Only four
159. The nucleus has highly extended andelaborate nucleoprotein fibers known as:-
Pg 138, easy
A) Nucleoli B) Chromosome C) Chromatin D) Nuclear matrix
160. The contents of an inter phase nucleusare:- Pg 137, easy
Nucleoli ; chromatin ; nuclear matrix; twomembranes
A) Only two of the above B) Only three of the above
C) Only four of the above D) Only of the above
161. What forms the barrier between thecytoplasmic content and nuclear matrix:-
Pg 137, easy
A) The outer membrane only B) The inner membrane only
C) The perinuclear space D) All of the above
162. i) The outer membrane of nucleus iscontinuous with rest of the cellularorganelles
ii) The inner membrane is continuous withE.R Pg 138, easy
iii) Their are interruption known as porespresent in outer membrane of nucleus
iv) Pores are formed by the fusion of bothof the membranes.
How many of the above statements areincorrect:-
A) 2 B) 1 C) 3 D) 4
163. The nuclear pores facilitates :- Pg 138, easy
A) Movement of RNA & protein moleculesin only one direction
B) Only proteins in both direction
C) Proteins in one direction & RNA in bothdirections
D) None of the these

164. Few of the mature cells have no anynucleus:- Pg 138, easy

A) Their function are not specific
B) Are dead cells with cytoplasm
C) Their function are controlled by someanother cells.
D) All of the above
165. Statement – (I): The nucleus per cell variesper cell.
Statement – (II): Normally there is only onenucleus per cell. Pg 138, medium
A) Both (I) & (II) are true & (II) is correctexplanation of (I)
B) Both (I) & (II) are true but (II) is not thecorrect explanation of (I)
C) (II) is wrong but (I) is true. D) (I) is wrong but (II) is true.
166. The nucleus matrix contains:- Pg 138, easy
A) Nucleoplasm and chromatin
B) Nucleoplasm, Chromatin andMitochondria
C) Nucleoplasm, chromatin &E.R
D) None of the above
167. What is not true about the nucleolus:- Pg 138, easy

252
 A) Spherical structure present in thenucleoplasm ‘
B) Membrane less structure.
C) Also known as Ribosomal factory of thecell.
D) None of the above
168. At which phase of cell cycle the nucleolushas a loose and indistinct network of
nucleoprotein fibers known as chromatin:- Pg 138, easy
A) Prophase B) Anaphase C) Interphase D) Metaphase
169. Cell show structured chromosomeduring:- Pg 139, easy
A) All phases except anaphase B) All phases except metaphase
C) All phases except Inter phase D) All phases except m – phase
170. Chromatin contains Pg 139, easy
A) Histones; Non – histones & RNA
B) Histones & non – histone proteins only
C) DNA & some basic proteins
D) Both (A) & (C)
171. A human cell has approximately _____meters long thread of DNA, distributedamong its
_______ chromosomes:- Pg 139, easy
A) 4; 46 B) 2; 46 C) 4; 23 D) 2; 23
172. Each chromosome Pg 139, easy
A) Has primary constriction
B) Is visible only in dividing cells.
C) Has disc shaped structure known askinetochore
D) All of the above
173. Function of centriole is: Pg 139, easy
A) Provides site of attachment to thespindle fibers on chromosome
B) Holds two chromatids of a chromosome
C) Both (A) & (B) D) None
174. What is type of chromosome having amiddle centromere:- Pg 139, easy
A) Metacentric B) Sub – metacentric
C) Acrocentric D) Telocentric
175. What is the type of chromosome having itscentromere near the telomere
Pg 139, easy
A) Metacentric B) Sub – metacentric
C) Telocentric D) Acrocentric

176. Chromosomes having centromere slightlyaway from the middle is:-

Pg 139, easy
A) Metacentric B) Sub – metacentric
C) Telocentric D) Acrocentric
177. Chromosome having one long and oneshort arm are:- Pg 139, easy
A) Metacentric & sub – metacentric
B) Sub – metacentric & acrocentric
C) Acrocentric & telocentric
D) Telocentric & metacentric
178. A non – staining is present on a fewchromosome
A) Secondary constriction or centromere
B) Satellite or centromere
C) Secondary constriction or satellite
D) None of the above

253
 Paragraph – 8.5.11
Micro bodies
179. Membrane bound minute vesiclescontaining enzymes are known as:- Pg 140, easy
A) Chloroplast B) Mitochondria C) Ribosomes D) Micro bodies

NEET PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following is true for nucleolus? [2018]
(a) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells.
(b) It is a membrane-bound structure.
(c) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis.
(d) It takes part in spindle formation.
2. The Golgi complex participates in: [2018]
(a) Fatty acid breakdown (b) Formation of secretory vesicles
(c) Activation of amino acid (d) Respiration in bacteria
3. Which of the following events does not occur in rough endoplasmic reticulum? [2018]
(a) Protein folding (b) Protein glycosylation
(c) Phospholipid synthesis (d) Cleavage of signal peptide
4. Select the incorrect match. [2018]
(a) Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents chromosomes
(b) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes
(c) Polytene – Oocytes of amphibians chromosomes
(d) Submetacentric – L-shaped chromosomes chromosomes
5. Which of the following cell organelles is responsible for extracting energy from carbohydrates
to form ATP? [2017]
(a) Ribosome (b) Chloroplast (c) Mitochondrion (d) Lysosome
6. Mitochondria and chloroplast are [2016]
1. semi-autonomous organelles.
2. formed by division of pre-existing organelles and they contain DNA but lack protein
synthesising machinary.

254
 Which one of the following options is correct?
(a) Both 1 and 2 are true (b) 2 is true but 1 is false
(c) 1 is true but 2 is false (d) Both 1 and 2 are false
7. Microtubules are the constituents of : [2016]
(a) Cilia, Flagella and Peroxisomes (b) Spindle fibres, Centrioles and Cilia
(c) Centrioles, Spindle fibres and Chromatin (d) Centrosome, Nucleosome and Centrioles
8. Which one of the following cell organelles is enclosed by a single membrane? [2016]
(a) Mitochondria (b) Chloroplasts (c) Lysosomes (d) Nuclei
9. A protoplast is a cell: [2015]
(a) Without nucleus (b) Undergoing division
(c) Without cell wall (d) Without plasma membrane
10. Which one of the following is not an inclusion body found in prokaryotes? [2015]
(a) Cyanophycean granule (b) Glycogen granule (c) Polysome (d) Phosphate
granule
11. Which of the following are not membrane-bound? [2015]
(a) Ribosomes (b) Lysosomes (c) Mesosomes (d) Vacuoles
12. Identify the correct order of organisation of genetic material from largest to smallest. [2015]
(a) Genome, chromosome, nucleotide, gene
(b) Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide
(c) Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, gene
(d) Chromosome, gene, genome, nucleotide
13. Balbiani rings are sites of: [2015]
(a) Nucleotide synthesis (b) Polysaccharide synthesis
(c) RNA and protein synthesis (d) Lipid synthesis
14. Match the columns and identify the correct option. [2015]
Column-I Column-II
A. Thylakoids I. Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus
B. Cristae II. Condensed structure of DNA
C. Cisternae III. Flat membranous sacs in stroma
D. Chromatin IV. Infoldings in mitochondria
(a) A – III; B – IV; C – I; D – II (b) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II
(c) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – I (d) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
15. Cellular organelles with membranes are [2015]
(a) chormosomes, ribosomes and endoplasmic reticulum.
(b) endoplasmic reticulum, ribosomes and nuclei.
(c) lysosomes, Golgi apparatus and mitochondria.
(d) nuclei, ribosomes and mitochondria.
16. Satellite DNA is important because it [2015]
(a) Shows high degree of polymorphism in population and also the same degree of
polymorphism in an individual, which is heritable from parents to children.
(b) Does not code for proteins and is same in all members of the population.
(c) Codes for enzymes needed for DNA replication.
(d) Codes for proteins needed in cell cycle.

255
17. DNA is not present in: [2015]
(a) Ribosomes (b) Nucleus (c) Mitochondria (d) Chloroplast
18. Nuclear envelope is a derivative of : [2015]
(a) Membrane of Golgi complex (b) Microtubules
(c) Rough endoplasmic reticulum (d) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
19. Select the correct matching in the following pairs. [2015]
(a) Smooth ER – Synthesis of lipids (b) Rough ER – Synthesis of glycogen
(c) Rough ER – Oxidation of fatty acids (d) Smooth ER – Oxidation of phospholipid
20. The function of the gap junction is to [2015]
(a) Facilitate communication between adjoining cells by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid
transfer of ions, small molecules and some large molecules.
(b) Separate two cells from each other.
(c) Stop substance from leading across a tissue
(d) Performing cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.
21. Cell wall is absent in: [2015]
(a) Funaria (b) Mycoplasma (c) Nostoc (d) Aspergillus
22. The chromosomes in which centromere is situated close to one end are: [2015]
(a) Acrocentric (b) Telocentric (c) Sub-metacentric (d)
Metacentric
23. Which structures perform the function of mitochondria in bacteria? [2014]
(a) Nucleoid (b) Ribosomes (c) Cell wall (d) Mesosomes
24. The solid linear cytoskeletal elements having a diameter of 6 nm and made up of a single type
of monomer are known as: [2014]
(a) Microtubules (b) Microfilaments (c) Intermediate filaments (d) Lamins
25. The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in water is chiefly regulated by: [2014]
(a) Mitochondria (b) Vacuoles (c) Plastids (d) Ribosomes
26. Match the following and select the correct answer. [2014]
Column I Column II
A. Centriole I. Infoldings in mitochondria
B. Chlorophyll II. Thylakoids
C. Cristae III. Nucleic acids
D. Ribozymes IV. Basal body cilia or flagella
(a) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III (b) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III
(c) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV (d) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
27. The shorter and longer arms of a submetacentric chromosome are referred to as (NEET-2019)
(1) s-arm and l-arm respectively (2) p-arm and q-arm respectively
(3) q-arm and p-arm respectively (4) m-arm and n-arm respectively
28. Which of the following pair of organelles does not contain DNA :- (NEET-2019)
(1) Mitochondria and Lysosomes (2) Chloroplast and Vacuoles
(3) Lysosomes and Vacuoles (4) Nuclear envelope and Mitochondria
29. Which of the following statement is not correct? (NEET-2019)
(1) Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic enzymes.
(2) The hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes are active under acidic pH.

256
 (3) Lysosomes are membrane bound structures.
(4) Lysosomes are formed by the process of packaging in the endoplasmic reticulum.
30. The concept of " Omnis cellula-e cellula" regarding cell division was first proposed by:
(NEET-2019)
(1) Rudolf Virchow (2) Theodore Schwann (3) Schleiden (4) Aristotle
31. Which of the following cell organelles is present in the highest number in secretory cells?
(NEET-2019 ODISSA)
(1) Mitochondria (2) Golgi complex (3) Endoplasmic reticulum (4) Lysosomes
32. Non-membranous nucleoplasmic structures in nucleus are the site for active synthesis of
(NEET-2019 ODISSA)
(1) Protein synthesis (2) mRNA (3) rRNA (4) tRNA
33. Which of the following nucleic acids is present in an organism having 70S ribosomes only?
(NEET-2019 ODISSA)
(1) Single stranded DNA with protein coat
(2) Double stranded circular naked DNA
(3) Double stranded DNA enclosed in nuclear membrane
(4) Double stranded circular DNA with histone proteins
34. Match the column-I with column-II :- (NEET-2019
ODISSA)
Column-I Column-II
(a) Golgi apparatus (i) Synthesis of protein
(b) Lysosomes (ii) Trap waste and excretory products
(c) Vacuoles (iii) Formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids
(d) Ribosomes (iv) Digesting biomolecules
Choose the right match from options given below :-
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
35. "Ramachandran plot" is used to confirm the structure of :- (NEET-2019
ODISSA)
(1) RNA (2) Proteins (3) Triacylglycerides (4) DNA
36. Inclusion bodies of blue- green, purple and green photosynthetic bacteria are (NEET-2020
COVID-19)
(1) Contractile vacuoles (2) Gas vacuoles (3) Centrioles (4) Microtubules
37. The biosynthesis of ribosomal RNA occurs in : (NEET-2020 COVID-19)
(1) Ribosomes (2) Golgi apparatus (3) Microbodies (4) Nucleolus
38. The size of Pleuropneumonia - like Organism (PPLO) is : (NEET-2020 COVID-19)
(1) 0.02 mm (2) 1-2 mm (3) 10-20 mm (4) 0.1 mm
39. Which of the following statements about inclusion bodies is incorrect? (NEET-2020)

1) These represent reserve material in cytoplasm

2) They are not bound by any membrane

3) These are involved in ingestion of food particles

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 4) They lie free in the cytoplasm

40. Which is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells?

(NEET-2020)

1) Polysomes 2) Endoplasmic reticulum

3) Peroxisomes 4) Golgi bodies

41. When the centromere is situated in the middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the
chromosome is referred as: [NEET-2021]
(1) Telocentric (2) Sub-metacentric (3) Acrocentric (4) Metacentric
42. Which of the following is an incorrect statement? [NEET-2021]
(1) Microbodies are present both in plant and animal cells.
(2) The perinuclear space forms a barrier -between the materials present inside the nucleus and
that of the cytoplasm
(3) Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and RNA molecules in both directions between
nucleus and cytoplasm.
(4) Mature sieve tube elements possess a conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic
organelles.

43. Match List-I with List-II [NEET-2021]

List-I List-II
a) Cristae i) Primary constriction in chromosome
b) Thylakoids ii) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus
c) Centromere iii) Infoldings in mitochondria
d) Cisternae iv) Flattened membranous sacs in stroma of plastids
1) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii 2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i,d-ii
3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-I 4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
44. The organelles that are included in the endomembrane system are : [NEET-2021]
1. Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, Lysosomes and vacuoles
2. Golgi complex, Mitochondria, ribosomes and Lysosomes
3. Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria and Lysosomes
4. Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria , Ribosomes and Lysosomes
45. Match List – I with List – II [NEET-2022]
List – I List – II
a) Metacentric chromosome i) Centromere situated close to the end forming
one extremely short and one very long arms
b) Acrocentric chromosome ii) Centromere at the terminal end
c) Sub-metacentric iii) Centromere in the middle forming two equal
arms of chromosomes
d) Telocentric chromosome iv) Centromere slightly away from the

258
 middle forming one shorter arm and one longer
arm
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c)- (iv), (d) – (ii)
2) (a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c)- (ii), (d) – (iv)
3) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c)- (iv), (d) – (i)
4) (a) – (i), (b) – (ii), (c)- (iii), (d) – (iv)
46. Which of the following statements with respect to Endoplasmic Reticulum is incorrect?
[NEET-2022]
1) RER has ribosomes attached to ER
2) SER is devoid of ribosomes
3) In prokaryotes only RER are present
4) SER are the sites for lipid synthesis

NCERT LINE BY LINE QUESTIONS – ANSWERS

1) C 2) C 3) D 4) C 5) B 6) A 7) D 8) D 9) A 10) A
11) A 12) C 13) D 14) A 15) C 16) A 17) A 18) C 19) D 20) B
21) D 22) C 23) D 24) B 25) C 26) D 27) B 28) D 29) B 30) C
31) A 32) B 33) A 34) C 35) D 36) D 37) D 38) C 39) C 40) B
41) C 42) D 43) D 44) D 45) D 46) C 47) C 48) C 49) C 50) C
51) A 52) C 53) D 54) C 55) D 56) A 57) C 58) A 59) C 60) A
61) A 62) A 63) A 64) D 65) C 66) A 67) A 68) D 69) B 70) A
71) D 72) D 73) C 74) B 75) B 76) D 77) C 78) C 79) A 80) D
81) A 82) D 83) C 84) C 85) A 86) A 87) A 88) A 89) A 90) A
91) C 92) A 93) C 94) A 95) A 96) B 97) B 98) C 99) D 100) C
101) D 102) C 103) D 104) A 105) C 106) C 107) C 108) C 109) C 110) D
111) D 112) B 113) C 114) D 115) A 116) C 117) D 118) C 119) D 120) C
121) D 122) B 123) D 124) C 125) D 126) C 127) D 128) C 129) B 130) B
131) A 132) C 133) C 134) A 135) D 136) C 137) B 138) A 139) A 140) B
141) D 142) B 143) B 144) C 145) D 146) D 147) A 148) C 149) A 150) C
151) C 152) D 153) C 154) B 155) A 156) B 157) D 158) A 159) C 160) C
161) D 162) B 163) D 164) C 165) B 166) A 167) D 168) C 169) C 170) D
171) B 172) D 173) C 174) A 175) C 176) B 177) C 178) C 179) D

259
 NEET PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS-ANSWERS
1) c 2) b 3) c 4) c 5) c 6) c 7) b 8) c 9) c 10) c
11) a 12) b 13) c 14) a 15) c 16) a 17) a 18) c 19) a 20) a
21) b 22) a 23) d 24) b 25) b 26) a 27) 2 28) 3 29) 4 30) 1
31) 2 32) 3 33) 2 34) 1 35) 2 36) 2 37) 4 38) 4 39) 3 40) 4
41) 4 42) 4 43) 2 44) 1 45) 1 46) 3

NEET PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS-EXPLANATIONS

1. (c) The nucleolus (plural nucleoli) is a large, distinct, spheroidal subcompartment of the
nucleus of eukaryote cells that is the site of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) synthesis and assembly of
ribosomal subunits.
2. (b) Golgi complex after processing, packages them in vesicles, and either stores them for later
use or sends them out of the cell. It is also the organelle that builds lysosomes
(cell digestion machines).
3. (c) Phospholipid synthesis does not take place in rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER). Smooth
endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is involved in lipid synthesis.
4. (c) Polytene chromosomes are found in salivary glands of insects of order Diptera
5. (c) The site of aerobic oxidation of carbohydrates in cells to generate ATP are mitochondria.
6. (c) Mitochondria & chloroplast are semi-autonomous cell organelle which are formed by
division of pre-existing organelle & contain DNA but they also contain protein
synthesizing machinery, thus (1) is true & (2) is false.
7. (b)
8. (c) Double membrane bound organelles are mitochondria, chloroplasts, endoplasmic
reticulum, golgi body, and nucleus. Single membrane bound organelles are lysosomes,
peroxisomes, and vacuoles. Organelles lacking any membrane are ribosomes, centrioles,
nucleolus.
9. (c) Cell wall is absent in a protoplast.
10. (c) Polysomes are found in eukaryotes and are defined as a cluster of ribosomes attached to a
mRNA molecule. Polysomes are number of ribosomal complexes situated
on mRNA.
11. (a) Ribosomes are not membrane-bound cell organelle.
12. (b) Genome > chromosomes > gene > nucleotide.
13. (c) RNA and protein synthesis occur in Balbiani rings.
14. (a)
15. (c) Lysosomes, golgi apparatus and mitochondria are the cell organelles which have
membranes.
16. (a) Satellite DNA displays high degree of polymorphism in population and also the same
degree of polymorphism in an individual, which is inherited from parents to children
(offsprings).
17. (a) Ribosomes are composed of ribonucleic acid and proteins and are not surrounded by any
membrane. These are the site for protein synthesis.
18. (c) In late prophase, nuclear envelope disappears and reappears in late telophase from rough
endoplasmic reticulum (RER).
19. (a) Lipid synthesis takes place in smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

260
20. (a) The function of the gap junction is to facilitate communication between adjoining cells by
connecting the cytoplasm for rapid transfer of ions, small molecules and some large molecules.
21. (b) Mycoplasma lacks cell wall.
22. (a) In acrocentric chromosomes, one arm is very short but another is long.
23. (d) In some bacteria (e.g., Bacillus subtilis), the plasma membrane form certain invaginations or
infoldings called mesosomes in the cytoplasm. The mesosomes have various functions, viz.,
respiratory, secretory etc.
24. (b) Microtubule, microfilament and intermediate filaments along with ER form cytoskeleton.
Microfilaments are nonliving, solid and consist of actin protein. They are 4-6 nm in diameter.
25. (b) The vacuole is bound by a single membrane called tonoplast. It also functions as
semipermeable membrane. It segregates vacuolar contents from cytoplasm, allows osmotic
entry or exit of water, concentration and storage of nutrients as well as wastes.
26. (a)
39. Phosphate granules, glycogen granules and cyanophycean granules are inclusion bodies. They
are freely present in cytoplasm and are not bound by any membrane
40: Golgi bodies is useful for formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids

41. When the centromere is situated in the middle of two equal arms of chromosomes, the
chromosome is referred as Metacentric. When the centromere is present slightly away from
the middle, it is called sub-metacentric chromosome.When the centromere is present very
close to one end of the chromosome, it is called acrocentric chromosome.When the centromere
is present at terminal position, the chromosome is called telocentric
42. A mature sieve tube elements possess a peripheral cytoplasm and a large central vacuole but
lacks a nucleus. Rest of other statements are correct.
43. iii---iv---i—ii
44. Endo membrane system
Endoplasmic reticulum
Golgi complex , Lysosomes and vacuoles
45. (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c)- (iv), (d) – (ii)
46 In prokaryotes membrane bound organelles are absent

261
 9.BIOMOLECULES

Biology Smart Booklet

Theory + NCERT MCQs + NEET PYQs
262
263
 BIOMOLECULES
Biomolecules
All the carbon compounds that we get from living tissues.

Biomicromolecules: Molecules which have molecular weights less than one

thousand Dalton. They are also known as monomers.
Biomacromolecules: Have molecular weight more than 10000 Daltons
(generally 10,000 Daltons and above). They are generally polymers. A
biomolecule a with molecular weight in the range of ten thousand daltons and
above; found in acid insoluble fraction. e.g. polysaccharides, nucleic acids,
proteins and lipids.

Primary and secondary metabolites

 Primary metabolites: have identifiable functions and play important roles

in normal physiological process eg. Amino acids, nitrogenous bases,
proteins and nucleic acid.
 Secondary metabolites: are product of certain metabolic pathways from
primary metabolites, eg. carotenoids, drugs, alkaloids, essential oils,
rubber, gum, cellulose and resins etc.

Amino acids

Organic compounds containing an amino group and one carboxyl group (acid
group) and both these groups are attached to the same carbon atom called α
carbon and so they are called amino acids.

e.g. In Glycine R = H

In alanine R = CH3

In serine R = CH2 – OH

Twenty types of amino acids. Amino acid exists in Zwitterionic form at different
pHs.

264
Based on number of amino and carboxyl groups, amino acids can be:

Aromatic: Tryptophan, phenylalanine and Tyrosine are aromatic (give smell)

amino acids.

Proteins: Proteins are polypeptide chains made up of amino acids. There are 20
types of amino acids joined together by peptide bond between amino and
carboxylic group. There are two kinds of amino acids.

Essential amino acids are obtained by living organism along with food.

Non-essential amino acids can be prepared by our body from raw materials.

Biological macromolecules

There are three main types of biological macromolecules, according to

mammalian systems:

 Carbohydrates
 Nucleic acids
 Proteins
 Lipids

Carbohydrates: Carbohydrates are polymers of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.

They can be classified as monosaccharides, disaccharides and
polysaccharides. Carbohydrates are found in starch, fruits, vegetables, milk and
sugars. They are an important source of a healthy diet.

Nucleic Acids: The nucleic acids include DNA and RNA that are the polymers of
nucleotides. Nucleotides comprise a pentose group, a phosphate group, and a
nitrogenous base group. All the hereditary information is stored in the DNA. The
DNA synthesized into RNA and proteins.

265
Proteins: Proteins are the polymers of amino acids. These include the carboxylic
and the amino group. There would be no lipids or carbohydrates without
proteins because the enzymes used for their synthesis are proteins themselves.

Lipids: Lipids are a hydrophobic set of macromolecules, i.e., they do not dissolve
in water. These involve triglycerides, carotenoids, phospholipids, and steroids.
They help in the formation of the cell membrane, formation of hormones and in
the and as stored fuel.

Fatty Acids & Saturated

With single bonds in carbon chain, e.g., Palmitic acid, butyric acid.

Unsaturated

With one or more double bonds, e.g., oleic acid, linoleic acid.

Glycerol

A simple lipid, is trihydroxy propane.

Some lipid have fatty acids esterified with glycerol. Example of fatty acid
(Palmitic acid)

(CH3 — (CH2)14 — COOH)

Triglyceride (R1, R2, R3 are alkyl groups in fatty acids.)

Nitrogen bases (Carbon compounds with heterocyclic rings)

Purine: Adenine, Guanine,

Pyrimidine: Cytosine, Uracil, Thymine.

Nucleoside: Nitrogenous base + Sugar e.g., Adenosine, guanosine.

266
 Nucleotide: Nitrogenous base + Sugar + Phosphate group. e.g. Adenylic acid,
Guanylic acid. Thymidylic acid.

Nucleic acids: Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and ribonucleic acid (RNA).

Examples of Macromolecules:

Synthetic Fibres

 Nylon, rayon and spandex consist entirely of macromolecules. These are

created in certain steps:
 The monomers are reacted to make prepolymers or a liquid, primitive
macromolecule. In the next step, the prepolymers are fed through a cell
where it solidifies and attains the desired thickness. This process is called
spinning.

Genetic Transfer: DNA is a genetic material that contains nucleic acids which
code for genetic material. During meiosis, the DNA is no longer a whole, and
the nucleotides that remain are responsible for transferring the genetic
information to the gametes.

Monomers and Polymers

Macromolecules are basically polymers, long chains of molecular sub-units

called monomers. Carbohydrates, proteins and nucleic acids are found as long
polymers. Due to their polymeric nature and large size, they are known as
macromolecules.

Structure of Proteins

 Primary structure: Is found in the form of linear sequence of amino acids.

First amino acid is called N-terminal amino acid and last amino acid is
called C-terminal amino acid.
 Secondary structure: Polypeptide chain undergoes folding or coiling
which is stabilized-by hydrogen bonding. Right handed helices are
observed; e.g., fibrous protein in hair, nails.
 Tertiary structure:Long protein chain is folded upon itself like a hollow
woollen ball. Gives a 3-dimensional view of protein, e.g., myosin.
 Quaternary structure: Two or more polypeptides with their folding’s and
coiling’s are arranged with respect to each other, e.g., Human
haemoglobin molecule has 4 peptide chains - 2 α and 2 β Subunits.

Monosaccharides
Monosaccharides are joined by glycosidic bond, right end is reducing and left
end is non reducing.

Polysaccharides

267
Are long chain of polymers of monosaccharides.

 Starch: Store house of energy in plant tissues. Forms helical secondary

structures, made of only glucose monomers.
 Cellulose: Homopolymer of glucose. It does not certain complex helices.
Cotton fibre is cellulose.
 Glycogen: Is a branched homopolymer, found as storage
polysaccharide in animals.
 Insulin: Is a polymer of fructose.
 Chitin: Chemically modified sugar (amino-sugars) N-acetyl
galactosamine form exoskeleton of arthropods; heterpolymer.

Metabolic Pathways

There are two types of metabolic pathways:

 Anabolic pathways: Lead to formation of more complex structure from a

simpler structure with the consumption of energy, e.g., Protein from amino
acids., also known as biosynthetic pathways.
 Catabolic pathway: Lead to formation of simpler structure from a
complex structure, e.g., Glucose → Lactic Acid + energy The most
important energy currency in living systems is ATP (adenosine tri –
phosphate).

Bonds linking monomers in a polymer

Peptide bond: Formed between the carboxyl (–COOH) group of one amino
acid, and the amino (– NH2) group of the next amino with the elimination of
water moiety, (dehydration).

Glycosidic bond: Bond formed between two carbon atoms of two adjacent
monosaccharides., by dehydration.

Phosphodiester bond: Bond formed in nucleic acids where in a phosphate

moiety links the 3-carbon of one sugar of one nucleotide to the 5-carbon of the
sugar of the succeeding nucleotide. (The bond between phosphate group and
hydroxyl group of sugar)

Enzymes

 Enzymes are commonly proteinaceous substances which are capable of

catalysing chemical reactions of biological origin without themselves
undergoing any change. They are commonly called as biocatalysts.
 The nucleic acids that behave like enzymes are called ribozymes.
 The tertiary structure of protein/Enzyme has pockets or crevice into which
substrate fit to form ES complex.
 The formation of the ES complex is essential for catalysis. E + S = ES → EP →

268
 E+P
 The structure of substrate gets transformed into the structure of product
through formation of transient state structure.
 The major difference between inorganic and organic catalyst is inorganic
catalyst works effectively at high temperature and pressure but enzyme
get damaged at high temperature.
 The external energy required to start a chemical reaction is called
activation energy.

Factors influencing Enzyme Activity:

 Temperature: An enzyme is active within a narrow range of temperature.

Temperature ate which enzyme is most active is called optimum
temperature. The enzyme activity decrease above and below this
temperature.
 pH: Every enzyme has an optimum pH at which it is maximum active.
Most of the intracellular enzymes work at neutral pH.
 Concentration of Substrate: Increase in substrate concentration increases
the rate of reaction due to occupation of more active sites by substrate.
 Competitive Inhibitor: When the molecular structure of inhibitor resembles
the substrate, it inhibits the function of enzymes.

Enzymes are classified as:

i. Oxidoreductases/ Dehydrogenases: S reduced + S’ oxidized S oxidized +

S’ reduced
ii. Transferases: S – G + S’ S + S’ – G
iii. Hydrolases:Catalyses the hydrolysis of peptide, ester, glycosidic bonds et
iv. Lyases: Remove the groups from substrate.
v. Isomerases: Inter conversion of optical, geometrical or positional isomers.
vi. Ligases:Catalyses the linking together of two compounds.

269
 Co-factors

Co-factors are the non-protein constituent of an enzyme which make the

enzyme more catalytically active. The protein portions of enzyme are called
apoenzyme.

 Prosthetic group: These are organic compound which tightly bound to

the apoenzyme.
e. g., Haem is prosthetic group in peroxidase and catalase.
 Coenzyme: These are organic compounds whose association with the
apoenzyme is only transient, usually occurring during the course of
catalysis.
e.g., Coenzyme Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) and NADP
contain vitamin niacin.
 Metal ions: Metal ions form coordination bond with side chains at the
active site and at the same time form one or more coordination bond
with substrate.
e.g., zinc in enzyme carboxy peptidase.

NCERT LINE BY LINE QUESTIONS

1. Elemental analysis on a plant tissue,Animal tissue or a microbial pastereveals:-[Pg-142,E]
A) list of elements like C; H; O & severalothers
B) Respective content per unit mass of aliving tissue
C) Both
D) Diversity of living organism in ourBiosphere.
2. Elemental list could be _____ in _____terms of study on living tissues & earth’scrust:-[Pg-142,E]
A) Same; absolute B) Different; absolute
C) Different; same D) Same; relative
PARAGRAPH – 9.1 HOW TO ANALYSECHEMICAL COMPOSITION?
3. With respect to other elements whichelement is relatively abundant in livingorganism than in earth’s
crust:-[Pg-143,E]
A) C & Ca B) C & H C) S & N D) N & Ca
4. For the chemical compositionanalysis____ is used:-[Pg-142,M]
A) 3 B) 3 –
C) 3 – D) 3 –
5. Filtrate obtained after grinding of livingtissue is also known as:-[Pg-142,M]
A) Slurry B) Acid - soluble
C) Acid insoluble pool D) All
6. Acid – insoluble pool is also known as:-[Pg-142,E]
A)Slurry B) Retentate C) filtrate D) All
7. Analytical techniques applied to thecompound gives us an idea of:-[Pg-143,E]
A) Probable structure of compounds
B) Molecular formula of compounds.
C) Both
D) None

270
8. All the carbon compounds that we getfrom the living tissue can be called:-[Pg-143,E]
A) Biomolecules B) Slurry C) Retentate D) All
9. If the tissue is fully burnt:-[Pg-143,E]
A) All the carbon compounds areoxidised to gaseous forms (CO2 &water vapour).
B) Remaining’s are known as ash.
C) Ash contains inorganic elements &inorganic compounds.
D) All
10. Inorganic elements like sulphate andphosphates are present in [Pg-143,M]
A) Ash of burnt tissue B) Oxidised gaseous form
C) Both D) None
11. α – Amino acids are organic compoundscontaining [Pg-143,M]
A) Amino group and acidic groupsubstituted on different carbon.
B) Keto – group & Hydrogen on differentcarbon.
C) Amino group & acidic groupsubstituted on same carbon.
D) Keto – group & alcohol groupsubstituted on same carbon.
12. How many substituted groups arepresent in an α – amino acid [Pg-143,M]
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
13. The R – group in a proteinaceous amino acid could be [Pg-144,E]
A) Hydrogen B) Methyl group
C) Hydroxy methyl D) Any of the above
14. The chemical and physical properties ofamino acids are essentially of the[Pg-144,E]
A) Amino group B) Carboxyl group
C) The R - group D) All of the above
15. If the R – group of amino acid is methyl[Pg-144,E]
A) Glycine B) Serine C) Alanine D) Any of the above
16. A hydrogen substituted carboncontaining amino acid is :- [Pg-144,E]
A) Glycine B) Alanine C) Both (A) & (B) D) Serine
17. Number of Amino ;Carboxyl & the R – functional groupdetermines:- [Pg-144,M]
A) Acidic nature of Amino acid. B) Basic nature of Amino acid
C) Neutral nature of Amino acid D) Any of the above
18. Which of the following group of aminoacid is aromatic in nature:-[Pg-144,M]
A) tyrosine; phenylalanine
B) tyrosine; tryptophan glutamic acid
C) Glutamic acid; lysine; valine
D) none of the above
19. Which of the following is neutral innature:-[Pg-144,E]
A) Valine B) Serine C) Alanine D) All
20. A particular property of amino acid is theionizable nature of [Pg-144,m]
A) -H B) –NH2 C) CH3 D) All
21. Which of the following determines theparticular property of amino acid is theIonizable nature & structure
of aminoacid:-[Pg-144,M]
A) –NH2 & -COOH B) –COOH only
C) –NH2 only D) none of the above
22. In different solution; of different ____ the______ of amino acid changes. [Pg-144,E]
A) pH; pH B) pH; structure
C) Structure; Structure D) structure; pH
23. Which of the following is a zwitterionicform. [Pg-144,E]

(A) (B)

271
 (C) (D) All of the above
24. Lipids are generally _____ insoluble:-[Pg-144,E]
A) fat B) water C) Lipid D) All
25. Lipids could be a ______ fatty acids or hasa ______ group attached to an R – group.[Pg-144,M]
A) Carboxyl; fatty acid
B) Fatty acid; simple
C) Carboxyl; simple
D) Simple; carboxyl
26. The R – group attached to the carboxylgroup in a lipid could be a [Pg-144,E]
A) –CH3 B) –C2H5 C) Higher number of –CH2 D) All of the above
27. Palmitic acid has _______ number ofcarbons including carboxyl carbon.[Pg-144,E]
A) 16 B) 15 C) 14 D) 12
28. Arachidonic acid has _______ number ofcarbon atoms including the carboxyl[Pg-144,E]
A) 16 B) 20 C) 21 D) 19
29. Fatty acids could be _______ ( with doublebonds) or _______ ( without doublebonds). [Pg-144,M]
A) Saturated; Unsaturated
B) Unsaturated; Saturated
C) Saturated; Saturated
D) Unsaturated; Unsaturated
30. How many of the following is an esterifiedglycerol:-[Pg-144,H]
Monoglyceride;
Diglyceride;
Triglyceride:
Muramic acid
Lignin;
Suberin
A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 3
31. The oil have lower melting point[Pg-144,H]
A) All fats B) triglycerides
C) Gingelly oil D) All
32. A phospholipid have [Pg-144,M]
A) a phosphorous
B) a phosphorylated group
C) Both
D) None
33. The neural tissues have lipids with______ structure [Pg-144,M]
A) More complex B) Less complex
C) More simple D) simple
34. Carbon compounds in living organismhaving heterocyclic rings could be[Pg-144,M]
A) Monoglyceride B) Adenine
C) Cytosine D) Both (B) & (C)
35. Adenine esterified with sugar is knownas [Pg-144,M]
A) Adenylic acid B) Adenosine
C) Adenotine D) None of the above
36. Nucleic acids like DNA & RNA consist of[Pg-144,E]
A) Nucleotide & nucleoside
B) Nucleoside only
C) Nucleotide only
D) Nucleotide & phosphate groups.

272
PARAGRAPH – 9.2 PRIMARY AND
SECONDARY METABOLITES
37. Alkaloids; Flavonoids; Rubber; Essential oils; antibiotics; coloured pigments;scents; Gums spices
How many of the above are primarymetabolites [Pg-146,M]
A) 7 B) 9 C) 5 D) None
38. Few _______ metabolites have ecologicalimportance’s:-[Pg-146,E]
A) Primary & secondary B) Secondary & Primary
C) Only Primary D) Only Secondary
39. The diagram represent:-[Pg-145,E]

A) Ribose B) Glucose C) Both D) None

40. CH3 – (CH2)14 – COOH [Pg-145,E]
A) A glycerol molecule B) A fatty acid
C) An amino acid D) A carbohydrate
41. Which of the following is the compoundrepresents the shown figure :-[Pg-145,M]

A) A purine (Adenine) B) A pyrimidine (Uracil)

C) A purine (Uracil) D) A pyrimidine (Adenine)
42. Which of the following is a Nucleoside:-[Pg-145,E]
A) Adenylic acid B) Uridine
C) Thymidylic acid D) All
43. How many of the following are nitrogenbases:-[Pg-145,M]

i) ii)
iii) Guanine iv) Uracil
A) All four B) Only three C) Only two D) Only one
PARAGRAPH – 9.3
BIOMACROMOLECULES
45. They have molecular weight ranging from18 to around 800 Da.
The above written statement represents:- [Pg-146,M]
A) About Biomacromolecules
B) One feature common to all thosecompounds found in the acidinsoluble fraction.
C) Both

273
 D) None
46. How many of the following statementsare incorrect:-[Pg-146,H]
i) Acid insoluble fraction has only fourtypes of organic compounds.
ii) All the compound in acid insolublefraction have molecular weight inrange of 10,000 Da and above.
iii) Molecular weight less than onethousand Dalton are usually referredto as Micromolecules.
iv) Biomacromolecules are simplyknown as Biomolecules.
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
47. How many of the following statement istrue regarding lipids inBiomacromolecules:-[Pg-146,H]
i) Lipids are polymeric substances.
ii) Have molecular weight less than10,000 Da.
iii) Molecular weight do not exceed800 Da.
A) only i) & ii) B) only iii)
C) All i); ii) & iii) D) only ii) & iii)
48. Which of the following statement is notcorrect:-[Pg-146,M]
A) After grinding cell membrane formsthe vesicles.
B) Vesicles are water soluble.
C) Lipids are not strictlyBiomacromolecules
D) None of the above
49. The acid soluble pool roughly represents______composition. [Pg-146,M]
A) Cytoplasmic B) Nuclear C) Mitochondrial D) None
50. The macromolecules from the cytoplasmand organelles become the [Pg-146,M]
A) Retentate B) Slurry C) Filtrate D) All
51. [Pg-147,E]
Component % of the totalcellular mass
Water 70 – 90
i) 10 – 15
ii) 3
Lipids iii)
iv) 5–7
Ions 1
A) i) protein
ii) carbohydrate
iii) 2
iv) Nucleic acid
B) i) carbohydrate
ii) Nucleic acid
iii) 2
(iv) Protein
C) i) Nucleic acid
ii) Protein
iii) 2
iv) Carbohydrate
D) i) Nucleic acid
ii) carbohydrate
iii) 2
iv) Protein
PARAGRAPH – 9.4 PROTEINS
52. Proteins are:-[Pg-147,E]
A) Polypeptides
B) Linear chains of amino acid linked bypeptide bonds
C) Polymer of amino acids

274
 D) All of them.
53. A protein if a heteropolymer:-[Pg-147,M]
A) It contains only one types of aminoacids.
B) it contains different types of aminoacids.
C) both
D) None
54. Which statement is incorrect:-[Pg-147,H]
A) homopolymers have only one type ofmonomer repeating ‘n’ number oftimes
B) Dietary proteins are source ofessential amino acids.
C) Amino acids could be essential or non– essential
D) essential amino acids are synthesizedin our body.
55. What are functions of proteins:-[Pg-147,M]
i) Carry out many functions in livingorganism
ii) Transporter of nutrients
iii) Fight infections
iv) Regulates in the form of hormones& enzymes
A) only two B) only three C) Only four D) None
56. The most abundant enzyme in animalworld is ___i)____ while in whole of thebiosphere is
___ii)____[Pg-147,148,M]
A) (i) Collagen (ii) PEPcase
B) (i) RuBisCo (ii) PEPcase
C) (i) Collagen (ii) RuBisCO
D) None of them
PARAGRAPH – 9.5 POLYSACCHARIDE
57. Polysaccharide is the part of ____[Pg-149,M]
A) In – soluble fraction
B) Insoluble pellet
C) Retentate
D) All
58. A polysaccharide contains [Pg-148,E]
A) Different Monosacharides
B) Same type of monosaccharide
C) like cellulose
D) All of these
59. Cellulose and starch is a homopolymer of[Pg- 149,M]
A) Glucose B) Fructose B) Galactose D) None
60. Which of the following statement isincorrect :- [Pg- 148,H]
A) starch is a a polysaccharidehomopolymer.
B) Inulin is a polymer of fructose
C) In a polysaccharide chain, Right endis reducing while left end is non –reducing.
D) Starch forms helical secondarystructures.
61. (I) Starch produces blue colour afterbinding with I2 [Pg- 149,H]
(II) Cellulose cannot hold I2
A) Both are wrong
B) Both are correct
C) (I) is correct (II) is incorrect
D) (II) is correct (I) is incorrect
62. Paper made from plant pulp and cottonfibre is [Pg- 149,M]
A) Starch only
B) Cellulose
C) Complex polysaccharide

275
 D) Both (B) & (C)
63. What are examples of homopolymers:-[Pg- 149,M]
A) N – acetyl galactosamine;Glucosamine
B) Amino acids; sugars
C) Chitin
D) None
PARAGRAPH – 9.6 NUCLEIC ACIDS
64. Nucleic acids are:-[Pg- 149,E]
A) Polynucleosides B) Polynucleotides C) Both D) None
65. A nucleotide has ____ chemical distinctcompounds:-[Pg- 149,E]
A) Only one B) Two C) Three D) Four
66. A heterocyclic compound in Nucleic acidis :- [Pg- 149,E]
A) 2 – Base B) Sugar C) Fatty acid D) All
67. Adenine and ______ are _______ purines[Pg- 149,M]
A) Cytosine; Substituted
B) Guanine; Substituted
C) Uracil; Substituted
D) Guanine; Unsubstituted
68. The sugar found in polynucleotides iseither ribose (________) or ________[Pg- 149,M]
A) 2’ deoxyribose; monosaccharide B) Monosaccharide; 2’ deoxyribose
C) Disaccharide; 2’ deoxyribose D) Disaccharide; Monosaccheride
PARAGRAPH – 9.7 STRUCTURE OF PROTEINS
69. In a protein the left end represents:-[Pg- 149,150,E]
A) First amino acid & C – terminal
B) Last amino acid &N – terminal
C) First amino acid & N – terminal
D) Last amino acid & C – terminal
70. In a protein the right end represents[Pg- 149,150,E]
A) First amino acid & C – terminal
B) Last amino acid &N – terminal
C) First amino acid & N – terminal
D) Last amino acid & C – terminal
71. Which of the following statement isUntrue:-[Pg- 150,H]
A) A protein thread is folded in the formof a helix.
B) Only some portion of the proteinthread are arranged in the form of ahelix
C) In proteins only left handed helicesare observed.
D) Both (B) & (C)
72. The long protein chain is also foldedupon itself like a hollow woolen ballknown as:-[Pg- 150,M]
A) Primary structure B) Secondary Structure
C) Tertiary structure D) None of the above
73. Identify the diagram given below[Pg- 150,M]

A) (i) Primary (ii) Secondary

276
 B) (i) Secondary (ii) Tertiary
C) (i) Tertiary (iii) Primary
D) None of the above
74. Protein polypeptides or subunitsarranged with respect to each other of aprotein otherwise called the [Pg-
150,E]
A) Primary structure B) Tertiary structure
C) Quaternary structure D) Secondary structure
75. A adult human Hb (Haemoglobin)consists of ________ subunits.
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
76. ________ subunits of α – type and ____ ofβ – type together constitute the humanhaemoglobin(Hb):-
[Pg- 150,M]
A) 2; 4 B) 2; 2 C) 4; 2 D) 4; 4
PARAGRAPH – 9.8 NATURE OF BOND LINKING MONOMERS IN A POLYMER.
77. In polypeptide amino acids are linked by[Pg- 151,M]
A) H – bond
B) Glycosidic Bond
C) Peptide bond
D) Peptide and H – bond both
78. Choose the correct statement aboutpeptide bond [Pg- 151,H]
A) It is formed when carboxyl(-COOH)group of one amino acids react withcarboxyl (-NH2) group of
other aminoacid.
B) It is formed when amino (-NH2) groupof one amino acid react with carboxyl(-COOH) group of other
amino acid.
C) It is formed when carboxyl group (-COOH) of one amino acid react withamino (-NH2) group of other
aminoacid.
D) It is formed when amino (-NH2) groupof one amino acid react with amino (-NH2) group of other
amino acid.
79. Peptide bond is formed by- [Pg- 151,H]
A) Elimination of water moiety i.e.rehydration
B) Addition of water moiety i.e.rehydration
C) Addition of water moiety i.e.dehydration
D) Elimination of water moiety i.e.dehydration
80. Polysaccharide is formed by linking ofmonosaccharide by- [Pg- 151,M]
A) H – bond B) S – bond C) Peptide Bond D) Glycoside bond
81. Dehydration is cause of formation of –[Pg- 151,M]
A) Peptide bond B)Glycosidic bond
C) Both A & B D) None of these
82. Glycosidic bond is formed betweenmonosaccharide while linking-[Pg- 151,M]
A) Carbon & Carbon B) Carboxyl & amino group
C) Carbon & Hydrogen D) Carbon & Oxygen
83. Match the Column- I & column – II [Pg- 151,H]
Bond Occurrence
(Column- I) Column – II
a. Peptidebond (i) BetweenNitrogenous basesof nucleic acid
b. Glycosidicbond (ii) Between adjacentamino acid
c. Ester bond (iii) Between phosphate& hydroxyl group ofsugar
d. H – Bond (iv) Between adjacentcarbon ofmonosaccharide
A) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv
B) a – ii , b – iv , c – i, d – iii
C) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii
D) a – ii, b – iv, c – iii, d – i

277
84. In nucleic acid phosphate links –[Pg- 151,M]
A) 3’ carbon of both sugar of succeedingsugar
B) 3’ carbon of one sugar & 5’ carbon ofthe other sugar of succeedingnucleotide
C) 5’ carbon of one sugar of succeedingsugar.
D) 5’ carbon of one sugar & 3’ carbon ofother group of succeeding nucleotide.
85. What is / are number of ester bond &phosphodiester bond either side ofnucleic acid respectively- [Pg-
151,M]
A) 1, 2 B) 1, 1 C) 2, 1 D) 2, 2
86. The famous Watson – crick model isrelated to- [Pg- 151,E]
A) Nucleic acid (DNA) B) Protein
C) Carbohydrate D) Enzymes
87. How many of following is / are correctwith respect to Watson – crick model.[Pg- 151,H]
i) DNA exist as a double helix
ii) The strands of polynucleotides areantiparallel.
iii) Backbone is formed by sugar only.
iv) Nitrogen bases faces inside
v) A of one strand bound with U onother strand
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) All fives
88. Choose the correct nitrogen base pairingof DNA [Pg- 152,E]
A) A ≡ T B) A = U C) A = T D) A ≡ U
89. Each step of ascent is represented byhow many pairs of bases according toWatson – crick model. [Pg-
152,E]
A) 1 B) 2 C) Zero D) None of these
90. At each of ascent, the strand turn ___[Pg- 152,E]
A) 63° B) 36° C) 34° D) 3.4°
91. One full turn of helix strand of B –DNA involves how many nitrogen bases [Pg- 152,E]
A) 10 B) 20 C) 2 D) none of these
92. Choose correct statement regarding B –DNA [Pg- 152,H]
A) Pitch would be 36 A°
B) The rise per base pair would be 3.4A°
C) Pitch would be 3.4A°
D) The rise per base pair would be 36A°
93. Cytosine (C) bond with _____by _____ H –Bond. [Pg- 152,E]
A) Guanine (G); 2 B) Thymine; 2
C) Guanine (G); 3 D) Thymine; 3
PARAGRAPH – 9.9 DYNAMIC STATE OF BODY CONSTITUENT’S CONCEPT OF
METABOLISM
94. What is ‘turn over’? [Pg- 152,E]
A) Biomolecules are never beingchanged into some otherbiomolecules and also made fromsome other
biomolecules.
B) Biomolecules are constantly beingchanged into some otherbiomolecules but never made from
some other biomolecules.
C) Biomolecules are never beingchanged into some otherbiomolecules nor being made from
some other biomolecules.
D) Biomolecules are constantly beingchanged into some otherbiomolecules and also made from
some other biomolecules.
95. The breaking & making throughchemical reaction which occurconstantly in living organism are called
[Pg- 152,M]
A) Metabolism B) Anabolism
C) Catabolism D) none of these
96. Amine are formed by- [Pg- 152,M]

278
 A) removal of (-COOH) from amino acid
B) removal of (CO2) from amino acid
C) addition of (CO2) to amino acid
D) addition of (COOH) to amino acid
97. Metabolites are converted into each otherin a series of linked reactionscalled________. [Pg- 152,M]
A) Catabolic pathway only
B) Anabolic pathway only
C) Metabolic pathway
D) None of these
98. Metabolic pathway are- [Pg- 152,E]
A) Linear only
B) Circular only
C) May be linear or circular
D) None of them
99. How many uncatalysed metabolicconversion is / are found in living system[Pg- 152,E]
A) 1
B) More than 1 but less than 100
C) Zero
D) Thousand
PARAGRAPH – 9.10
METABOLIC BASIS FOR LIVING
100. Metabolic pathway that lead to a morecomplex structure from a simplesstructure is / are [Pg- 153,M]
A) Anabolic pathway
B) Catabolic pathway
C) Both A & B
D) None of these
101. Choose the correct about catabolicpathway [Pg- 153,H]
i) Metabolic pathway that lead tosimpler structure from a complexstructure.
ii) Glucose becomes lactic acid inour skeletal muscles
iii) Acetic acid becomes cholesterol.
iv) Metabolic pathway that lead tomore complex structure from asimpler structure.
A) i& iii B) i& ii C) iv & ii D) iv & iii
102. Which of following expect to consumeenergy? [Pg- 153,H]
i) When glucose is degraded tolactic acid
ii) Assembly of protein from aminoacid
iii) Anabolic pathway
iv) Catabolic pathway
A) i& iii B) i& iv B) ii & iii D) ii & iv
103. How many of following is /are correctabout glycolysis [Pg- 153,H]
i) Formation of glucose from lacticacid
ii) Occur in ten(10) metabolic step.
iii) Energy liberated duringdegradation is store in form ofchemical bond.
iv) Formation of lactic acid fromglucose
A) i, ii, iii B)ii, iii, iv C) i& ii D) i& iv
104. Energy currency in living system is –[Pg- 153,E]
A) Adenosine triphosphate B) Glucose
C) Protein D) Enzyme
105. Bioenergetics deals with- [Pg- 153,M]
A) How do living organism derive theirenergy
B) How do living organism store energy &in what form.
C) How do living organism convert energyinto work.

279
 D) All of these
PARAGRAPH – 9.11 THE LIVING STATE
106. The blood concentration of glucose innormal healthy individuals is[Pg- 153,E]
A) Less than 2.4 mmol/L
B) More than 10 mmol/L
C) 4.2 mmol/L – 5.0 mmol/L
D) None of these
107. Living state is – [Pg- 153,M]
A) Equilibrium steady – state to be notto perform work.
B) Non – equilibrium steady – state to benot to perform work.
C) Equilibrium steady – state to be ableto perform work.
D) Non – equilibrium steady – state to beable to perform work.
108. Living process is a constant effort toprevent falling into equilibrium. This isachieved by – [Pg- 153]
A) Energy output B) energy input
C) Both of these D) None of these
PARAGRAPH – 9.12 ENZYMES
109. Enzymes are chemically – [Pg- 154,E]
A) Protein B) Carbohydrate C) Lipid D) Nucleic acid
110. Ribozymes are chemically [Pg- 154,M]
A) Protein B) Lipid C) Carbohydrate D) Nucleic acid
111. What is / are difference betweeninorganic catalyst and enzyme catalyst.[Pg- 154,H]
A) inorganic catalysts work efficiently atlow temperature but enzyme of onlythermophilic organism
workefficiently at low temperature
B) Inorganic catalyst work efficiently athigh temperature but enzyme getdamaged at high temperature
exceptof microbes that are live in sulphursprings
C) Inorganic catalyst are not efficient athigh temperature but enzymes of allliving organism work
efficiently athigh temperature.
D) None of these
112. Choose correct regarding “active site”[Pg- 154,M]
1) Substrate fits
2) Enzymes catalyst through active siteshow low rate
3) It forms by crevices or pocket madeby primary protein only.
4) It form by crevices or pocket madeby tertiary protein structure
A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 2, 4 C) 1, 3 D) 1, 4
PARAGRAPH – 9.12.1 CHEMICAL REACTION
113. Physical change refers to – [Pg- 154,E]
A) Change in shape without breakingbonds.
B) Change in state of matter
C) Ice water water vapour.
D) All of these
114. Chemical change differ from physicalchange in [Pg- 154,M]
A) Dissociation of bond
B) Formation of new bond
C) A & B bond
D) There is no difference in both
115. Hydrolysis of starch into glucose is :-[Pg- 154,M]
A) Inorganic chemical reaction
B) Organic chemical reaction
C) Physical changes
D) A & B both
116. Rate of physical or chemical process referto – [Pg- 154,M]

280
 A) Amount of reactant formed per unittime
B) Amount to product dissociate perunit time
C) Differential of time with respect toproduce
D) Differential of product with respect totime
117. Choose the correct [Pg- 154,H]
A) Rate can be called velocity if thedirection is not specific.
B) Rate of physical & chemical processesare not influenced by temperature
C) Catalysed reaction proceeds at ratesvastly lower than that of uncatalyzed ones.
D) Catalysed reaction proceeds at ratesvastly higher than that of uncatalyzed ones.
118. Choose the correct response [Pg- 154,H]
A) For every increase by 10°C, rate isdouble
B) Rate decrease by one – fourth bydecrease in temperature by 10°C.
C) When enzymes catalysed reaction areobserved the rate would be vastlylower than the same but
uncatalyzed reaction.
D) None of these
119. Choose correct response with respect togiven equation:-[Pg- 155,H]
Carbon dioxide + water ⇌carbonic acid
A) Carbonic anhydrase is enzymerequired for accelerated reaction.
B) In absence of enzyme, still thisreaction is fast enough
C) 200 molecules of H2CO3 being perhour formed by enzyme acceleratedreaction.
D) 600,000 molecules of H2CO3 beingformed every second in absence ofany enzyme.
120. Which of the following is correct chemicalformula for pyruvic acid? [Pg- 155,E]
A) C2H3O4 B) C3H3O3 C) C3H4O3 D) C6H12O6
121. Match column – I and column – II[Pg- 155,M]
Column – I(Metabolicpathway) Column – II(Occurrence)
A. Formation ofalcohol (i) Anaerobic conditionof skeletal muscle
B. Formation ofpyruvic acid (ii) Yeast
C. Formation oflactic acid (iii) Aerobic conditionof normal humancell
A) A - I, B -iii, C -ii B) A-iii, B -ii, C -I
C) A -ii, B -I, C -iii D) None of these
PARAGRAPH – 9.12.2 HOW DO ENZYMES BEING ABOUT SUCH HIGH
RATES OF CHEMICAL CONVERSIONS?
122. Which of the following is correct aboutenzymes [Pg- 155,M]
A) It is 2 – D structure
B) Convert product into substrate
C) They have active site
D) All of these
123. Transition state structure is formedwhen – [Pg- 155,M]
A) Enzyme is free
B) Enzyme bound with product
C) ‘ES’ complex
D) Substrate structure do not changeuntil product formed.
124. Which of following are unstable[Pg- 155,156,M]
A) Enzyme B) Product C) Reactant D) Intermediate structural states.
125. [Pg- 156,E]

281
 (i) (ii) (iii)
A) Activationenergywithoutenzyme Transitionstate Activation energywith enzyme
B) Transitionstate ActivationenergywithoutenzymeActivation energywith enzyme
C) Activationenergy withenzyme ActivationenergywithoutenzymeTransition state
D) Activationenergywithoutenzyme Activationwithenzyme Transition state
126. Choose correct response [Pg-156,E]
i) Y – axis represent potentialenergy
ii) X – axis represent substrate
iii) Y – axis represent progress ofreaction
iv) X – axis represent state throughtransition state
A) i) & ii) B) iii) & iv) C) i) & iv) D) ii) & iii
127. If ‘P’ (product) is at lower level than ‘s’(substrate), the reaction is _______[Pg-156,H]
A) Endothermic reaction
B) Exothermic reaction
C) Spontaneous reaction
D) A & C both
PARAGRAPH – 9.12.3
NATURE OF ENZYME ACTION
128. Which is correct way to representenzyme action [Pg-157,E]
A) E + S  ES ⇌EP ⇌E + P
B) E + S ⇌E + P
C) E + S ⇌ES  EP  E + P
D) E + S  ES  EP ⇌E +P
129. ES complex is _____ and dissociates into _______and__ [Pg-156,E]
A) Long lived; product; changed enzyme
B) Short lived; reactant, changed enzyme
C) Long lived, reactant, unchanged enzyme
D) Short lived, product, unchanged enzyme
130. Arrange in correct sequence of catalyticcycle of an enzyme action- [Pg-157,H]
i) The active site of the enzyme, now inclose proximity of the substratebreaks the chemical bonds of the
substrate and the new enzymeproduct complex is formed
ii) The substrate binds to the active siteof enzyme, fitting into the active site
iii) The enzyme release the products ofthe reaction and the free enzyme isready to bind to another
molecule ofthe substrate
iv) The binding of the substrate inducesthe enzyme to alter its shape, fittingmore tightly around the
substrate.
A) i ii iii iv B) i iii ii iv
C) ii iv iii I D) ii iv i iii
PARAGRAPH – 9.12.4 FACTORS
AFFECTING ENZYME ACTIVITY
131. Which of the following can changeenzyme activities? [Pg-157,H]
A) All such activities that can alter thetertiary structure of the protein

282
 B) Temperature pH
C) Substrate conditions
D) All of these
132. Enzyme activity decline- [Pg-157,H]
A) Above the optimum value B) Below the optimum value
C) A & B both D) Enzyme activity never decline
133. Optimum pH refer to – [Pg-157,E]
A) pH at which enzyme activity is lowest
B) pH at which enzyme activity ishighest
C) pH at which enzyme activity startedimmediately
D) pH at which enzyme activity endedcompletely
134. choose response with respect to enzymeactivities [Pg-157,H]
i) low temperature destroy enzyme
ii) high temperature preserve enzymein a temporarily inactive state
iii) optimum temperature istemperature at which enzymeactivity is highest
iv) As temperature increase, enzymeactivity increase until optimum andthereafter increase in
temperaturelead to decline in enzyme activities
v) As temperature increase enzymeactivities is zero until optimumtemperature & thereafter increase
in temperature lead to increase inenzyme activities
A) i, iii, iv B) ii, v C) i, iv, v D) iii, iv
135. As pH increase, enzyme activity-[Pg-157,M]
A) Constantly increase
B) Constantly decrease
C) No effect
D) Increase until optimum and decreasefurther pH
136. With increase in substrateconcentration, the velocity of theenzymatic reaction – [Pg-158,H]
A) Constantly increase
B) Rise at first until Vmax and furtherno rise
C) No effect
D) Decrease first until Vmax andincrease further
137. After reaching Vmax, the enzymaticreaction does not exceed by any furtherrise in concentration of
substratebecause- [Pg-158,H]
A) Enzymes molecules are fewer thansubstrate molecules
B) After saturation of those enzymemolecules these are no free enzymemolecules to bind with additional
substrate molecules
C) A & B
D) After saturation of those enzymemolecules, enzyme get changed in it’sform.
138. When the binding chemical shut offenzyme activity, the process is called______ and the chemical is
called [Pg-158,M]
A) Inhibition; inhibitor B) Inhibition; cofactors
C) Exhibition, exhibitor D) None of these
139. What effect is observe on enzyme activitydue to inhibitor [Pg-158,M]
A) It fasten enzyme kinetics B) It decline enzyme kinetics
C) It shut off enzyme kinetics D) No effect on enzyme kinetics
140. Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase bymalonate is due to [Pg-158,M]
A) Malonate closely resembles withsubstrate succinate in structure
B) Malonate is competitive inhibitor
C) It binds with active site of succinicdehydrogenase in place of substrate
D) All of these
141. Competitive inhibitors are often used inthe control of – [Pg-158,M]
A) Viral pathogen B) Bacterial pathogen
C) Both A & B D) None of these

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PARAGRAPH – 9.12.5 CLASSIFICATION & NOMENCLATURE OF ENZYME
142. Enzyme are divided into how manyclasses- [Pg-158,E]
A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8
143. Each classes of enzyme were furtherclassification into______ subclass andnamed by ___ digit [Pg-
158,M]
A) 13; 4 – 13 B) 4 – 13; 13 C) 4 – 13; 4 D) 4; 4 – 13
144. S reduced + S’ oxidised ⟶S oxidised + S’reduced [Pg-158,M]
A) Oxidoreductase B) Dehydrogenase
C) Transferase D) A & B both
145. Enzyme catalysing a transfer of a groupi.e. hydrogen between pair of substrate Sand S’ is- [Pg-158,M]
A) Transferase B) Oxidoreductase C) Lyases D) Ligases
146. Transferase enzyme catalyse a transfer of
G between pair substrate S & S’.
G is other than – [Pg-158,E]
A) Oxygen B) Amino C) Hydrogen D) Carbon
147. Hydrolases catalyse –[Pg-158,E]
i) Hydrolysis of ester, ether, peptide,glycosidic,
ii) C – C breakdown
iii) C – halide breakdown
iv) P – N breakdown
A) (i) only B) (i) & (ii) only
C) (iii) & (iv) only D) D) i, ii, iii & iv
148. Lysase catalyse _ _ _ _ _ _ of groups fromsubstrates by mechanism other thanhydrolysis leaving _ _ _
bond. [Pg-158,E]
A. Addition ; double B. Removal ; double
C. Addition ; single D. Removal ; triple
149. Isomerases catalyse inter-conversion of:[Pg-159,E]
A. Optical isomer B. Geometrical isomer
C. Position isomer D. All of these
150. Linking of two compound is achived by-[Pg-159,M]
A) Lyases B) Transferase C) Ligases D) Hydrolase
151. Ligase catalyse- [Pg-159,E]
A) Joining of C-O
B) Oxidation – reduction of substrate
C) Hydrolysis of C-C
D) Conversion of optical isomer
PARAGRAPH – 9.12.6 CO-FACTORS:
152. Cofactors are:-[Pg-159,M]
A) Proteinous part of enzyme
B) Non-proteinous part of enzyme
C) Bound to substrate
D) Bound to enzyme to make enzymecatalytically retard
153. How many kind of cofactors may beidentified-[Pg-159,E]
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) Zero
154. Cofactors are________and apoenzymeare _ _ _ _ part of enzyme. [Pg-159,M]
A) Protein; protein
B) Non-protein; non-protein
C) Protein; non-protein
D) Non-protein; protein
155. Prosthetic group are _ _ _ _ _ and aredistinguished from other cofactors inthat they are _ _ _ _ _ bound
toapoenzyme. [Pg-159,M]
A) Organic compound; tightly

284
 B) Organic compound; loosely
C) Inorganic compound; loosely
D) Inorganic compound; tightly
156. Which of following is/are correct?[Pg-159,H]
(i) Haem is prosthetic group.
(ii) Haem is apoenzyme.
(iii) Haem is not part of active site ofperoxidase.
(iv) Haem catalyse the formation ofhydrogen peroxide from water &oxygen.
(v) Haem is part of active site ofperoxidase.
(vi) Haem catalyse the breakdown ofhydrogen peroxide into water &oxygen.
A) i , iii , vi B) ii , iv , v C) i , v , vi D) ii , v , vi
157. NAD & NADP contain- [Pg-159,E]
A) Vitamin niacin B) Vitamin C C) Vitamin D D) Vitamin K
158. Full form of NAD is:-[Pg-159,E]
A) Nicotinamide adenine nucleotide
B) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleoside
C) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
D) Nicotinamide adenine nucleoside
159. Choose correct response from followingwith respect to carboxypeptidase.[Pg-159,H]
A) Zinc are found as apoenzyme
B) It is proteolytic enzyme
C) Cofactor from covalent bond with sidechain at active site
D) Between cofactor and substrate ionicbond is formed
160. How many coordination found in activityof carboxypeptidase? [Pg-159,M]
A) Only one ; between cofactor and sidechain at active site
B) Two between cofactor and side chainat active site and at to many ; sametime form one or more bond
withsubstrate.
C) Zero
D) Only one ; between cofactor &substrate
161. Find mismatch. [Pg-159,H]
Column-I Column-II
(a) Carboxypeptidase (i) Zinc
(b) NADP (ii) Niacin
(c) Haem (iii) Peroxidase
(d) NAD (iv) Zinc
162. When cofactor is removed from enzyme ;what effect is observed. [Pg-159,H]
A) Catalytic activity lost
B) Catalytic activity enhance
C) Catalytic activity fix at optimum
D) None of these

NEET PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS

1. The two functional groups characteristic of sugars are [2018]
(a) Hydroxyl and methyl (b) Carbonyl and methyl
(c) Carbonyl and hydroxyl (d) Carbonyl and phosphate
2. Which of the following are not polymeric? [2017]
(a) Proteins (b) Polysaccharides (c) Lipids (d) Nucleic acids
3. Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to enzymes? [2017]

285
 (a) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme (b) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
(c) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Co-factor (d) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
4. A typical fat molecule is made up of [2016]
(a) three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid molecule.
(b) one glycerol and three fatty acid molecules.
(c) one glycerol and one fatty acid molecule. (d) three glycerol and three fatty acid molecules.
5. Which one of the following statements is incorrect? [2016]
(a) Sucrose is a disaccharide. (b) Cellulose is a polysaccharide.
(c) Uracil is a pyrimidine. (d) Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid.
6. The amino acid Tryptophan is the precursor for the synthesis of [2016]
(a) melatonin and serotonin. (b) thyroxine and triiodothyronine.
(c) estrogen and progesterone. (d) cortisol and cortisone.
7. Which of the following biomolecules does have phosphodiester bond? [2015]
(a) Monosaccharides in a polysaccharide. (b) Amino acids in a polypeptide.
(c) Nucleic acids in a nucleotide. (d) Fatty acids in a diglyceride.
8. Which one of the following statements is incorrect? [2015]
(a) In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor molecule is not chemically changed by the enzyme.
(b) The competitive inhibitor does not affect the rate of breakdown of the enzyme-substrate
complex.
(c) The presence of the competitive inhibitor decreases the Km of the enzyme for the substrate.
(d) A competitive inhibitor reacts reversibly with the enzyme to form an enzyme- inhibitor
complex.
9. Which one of the following is a non-reducing carbohydrate? [2014]
(a) Maltose (b) Sucrose (c) Lactose (d) Ribose 5 - phosphate
10. Select the statement which is not correct with respect to enzyme action. [2014]
(a) Substrate binds with enzyme at its active site.
(b) Addition of lot of succinate does not reverse the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by
malonate.
(c) A non-competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at a site distinct from that which binds the
substrate.
(d) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase.
11. Which of the following glucose transporters is insulin-dependent? (NEET-2019)
(1) GLUT I (2) GLUT II (3) GLUT III (4) GLUT IV
12. Concanavalin A is : (NEET-2019)
(1) an alkaloid (2) an essential oil (3) a lectin (4) a pigment
13. Consider the following statements : (NEET-2019)
(A) Coenzyme or metal ion that is tightly bound to enzyme protein is called prosthetic group.
(B) A complete catalytic active enzyme with its bound prosthetic group is called apoenzyme.
Select the correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (B) are true. (2) (A) is true and (B) is false.
(3) Both (A) and (B) are false. (4) (A) is false and (B) is true.
14. Which of the following organic compounds is the main constituent of Lecithin?
(NEET-2019 ODISSA)
(1) Arachidonic acid (2) Phospholipid (3) Cholesterol (4) Phosphoprotein
15. Prosthetic groups differ from co-enzymes in that :- (NEET-2019 ODISSA)
(1) they require metal ions for their activity.
(2) they (prosthetic groups) are tightly bound to apoenzymes.
(3) their association with apoenzymes is transient.

286
 (4) they can serve as co-factors in a number of enzyme-catalyzed reactions.
16. Identify the statement which is incorrect. (NEET-2020 COVID-19)
(1) Sulphur is an integral part of cysteine.
(2) Glycine is an example of lipids.
(3) Lecithin contains phosphorus atom in its structure.
(4) Tyrosine possesses aromatic ring in its structure.
17. Identify the substances having glycosidic bond and peptide bond, respectively in their
structure:
(NEET-2020)
1) Inulin, insulin 2) Chitin, cholesterol 3) Glycerol, trypsin 4) Cellulose, lecithin
18. Match the following: (NEET-2020)
(a) Inhibitor of catalytic activity (i) Ricin
(b) Possess peptide bonds (ii) Malonate
(c) Cell wall material in fungi (iii) Chitin
(d) Secondary metabolite (iv) Collagen
Choose the correct option from the following:
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)
1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) 2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) 4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
19. Which of the following statements is correct? (NEET-2020)
1) Adenine does not pair with thymine
2) Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds
3) Adenine pairs with thymine through one H-bond
4) Adenine pairs with thymine through three H-bonds
20. Which one of the following is the most abundant protein in the animals? (NEET-2020)
1) Insulin 2) Haemoglobin 3) Collagen 4) Lectin
21. Identify the basic amino acid from the following (NEET-2020)
1) Valine 2) Tyrosine 3) Glutamic Acid 4) Lysine
22. Which of the following are not secondary metabolites in plants ? [NEET-2021]
1)Amino acids, glucose 2) Vinblastin, curcumin
3) Rubber, gums 4) Morphine, codeine
23. Match List – I with List – II
List – I List – II
a) Protein i) C = C double bonds
b) Unsaturated fatty acid ii) Phosphodiester bonds
c) Nucleic acid iii) Glycosidic bonds
d) Polysaccharide iv) Peptide bonds
a b c d
1) i iv iii ii
2) ii i iv iii

287
 3) iv iii i ii
4) iv i ii iii
24. Identify the incorrect pair [NEET-2021]
1) Toxin - Abrin
2) Lectins - Concadnavalin A
3) Drugs - Ricin
4) Alkaloids - Codeine
25. Following are the statements with reference to ‘lipids’ [NEET-2021]
a) Lipids having only single bonds are called unsaturated fatty acids
b) Lecithin is a phospholipid
c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol.
d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon.
e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1) c and d only 2) b and c only 3) b and e only 4) a and b only
26. Read the following statements on lipids and find out correct set of statements: [NEET-2022]
a) Lecithin found in the plasma membrane is a glycolipid
b) Saturated fatty acids possess one or more c = c bonds
c) Gingelly oil has lower melting point, hence remains as oil in winter
d) Lipids are generally insoluble in water but soluble in some organic solvents
e) When fatty acid is esterified with glycerol, monoglycerides are formed
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) a, b and c only 2) a, d and e only
3) c, d and e only 4) a, b and d only
27. A dehydration reaction links two glucose molecules to produce maltose. If the formula for
glucose is C6 H12O6 then what is the formula for maltose? [NEET-2022]
1) C12 H 20 O10 2) C12 H 24O12 3) C12 H 22O11 4) C12 H 24O11
28. Match List-I with List-II [NEET-2022]
List-I List-II
(Biological Molecules) (Biological functions)
(a) Glycogen (i) Hormone
(b) Globulin (ii) Biocatalyst
(c) Steroids (iii) Antibody
(d) Thrombin (iv) Storage product
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) (a) –(iii), (b) –(ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i) 2) (a) –(iv), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)
3) (a) –(ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i) 4) (a) –(iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii)

288
 NCERT LINE BY LINE QUESTIONS – ANSWERS
1) C 2) A 3) B 4) C 5) A 6) B 7) C 8) A 9) D 10) C
11) C 12) D 13) D 14) D 15) C 16) A 17) D 18) A 19) A 20) B
21) A 22) B 23) B 24) B 25) D 26) D 27) A 28) B 29) B 30) D
31) C 32) C 33) A 34) D 35) A 36) C 37) D 38) D 39) A 40) B
41) A 42) B 43) B 44) C 45) D 46) C 47) B 48) B 49) A 50) A
51) A 52) D 53) B 54) D 55) C 56) C 57) D 58) D 59) A 60) C
61) B 62) D 63) A 64) B 65) C 66) A 67) B 68) B 69) C 70) D
71) C 72) C 73) B 74) C 75) D 76) B 77) C 78) C 79) D 80) D
81) C 82) A 83) D 84) B 85) B 86) A 87) B 88) C 89) D 90) B
91) A 92) B 93) C 94) D 95) A 96) B 97) C 98) C 99) C 100) A
101) B 102) B 103) B 104) A 105) D 106) D 107) C 108) B 109) A 110) D
111) B 112) D 113) D 114) C 115) A 116) D 117) D 118) A 119) A 120) C
121) D 122) C 123) C 124) D 125) C 126) C 127) B 128) C 129) D 130) D
131) D 132) C 133) B 134) D 135) D 136) B 137) C 138) A 139) C 140) D
141) B 142) C 143) C 144) A 145) A 146) C 147) D 148) B 149) D 150) C
151) A 152) B 153) B 154) D 155) A 156) C 157) A 158) C 159) B 160) B
161) D 162) A

NEET PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS-ANSWERS

1) C 2) C 3) A 4) B 5) D 6) A 7) C 8) C 9) B 10) B
11) 4 12) 3 13) 3 14) 2 15) 2 16) 2 17) 1 18) 2 19) 2 20) 3
21) 4 22) 1 23) 4 24) 3 25) 2 26) 3 27) 3 28) 4

NEET PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS-EXPLANATIONS

1. (c) Sugar is a carbohydrate. These are polyhydroxy aldehyde, ketone or their derivatives, which
means they
have carbonyl and hydroxyl groups in its structure.
2. (c) – Nucleic acids are polymers of nucleotides.
– Proteins are polymers of amino acids.

289
 – Polysaccharides are polymers of monosaccharides.
– Lipids are the tri-esters of fatty acids with glycerol.
3. (a) Holoenzyme is conjugated enzyme which consists of a protein part called apoenzyme and a
non-protein called cofactor. Coenzyme are also organic compounds but their association with
apoenzyme is only transient and acts as cofactors.
4. (b)
5. (d) Glycine (abbreviated as Gly or G) is the smallest of the 20 amino acids commonly found in
proteins, and indeed is the smallest possible (having a hydrogen substituent as its side-chain).
The formula is NH2CH2COOH. Its codons are GGU, GGC, GGA, GGG of the genetic code
6. (a)
7. (c) Nucleic acids have phosphodiester bond in a nucleotide.
8. (c) Km increases but Vmax remains the same in competitive inhibition. This is because, on
slightly increasing the substrate concentration, the effect of inhibitor is removed.
9. (b) Sucrose is classified under non reducing sugars because it does not have any free aldehyde or
keto group.
10. (b) Inhibitions of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate is an example of competitive inhibition.
Thus, it is
reversible reaction. On increasing the substrate (succinate) concentration the effect of inhibitor
is removed and Vmax remain same.
17. Inulin is polymer of fructose, these sugars linked by glycosidic bond
Insulin is polymer of amino acids, these amino acids linked by peptide bond
18. (a) Malonate is competitive inhibitor of enzyme succinic dehydrogenese enzyme
(b) Collagen is most abundant animal protein. Amino acids of these proteins are linked by
peptide bonds
(c) Chitin is cell wall material in fungi
(d) Ricin is a secondary metabolite
19. Adenine pairs with thymine through two H-bonds, guanine pairs with cytosine with 3
hydrogen bonds in a DNA molecule
20. The most abundant protein in animals is collagen
21. Lysine is basic amino acid
22. Amino acids, glucose
23. • In a polypeptide or a protein, amino acids are linked by a peptide bond which is formed
when the carboxyl (–COOH) group of one amino acid reacts with amino (–NH2) group of the
next amino acid with the elimination of a water moiety.
• Unsaturated fatty acids are with one or more C = C double bonds.
• In nucleic acids, a phosphate moiety links the 3’-carbon of one sugar of one nucleotide to the
5’-carbon of the sugar of the succeeding nucleotide. The bond between the phosphate and
hydroxyl group is an ester bond. As there is one such ester bond on either side, it is called
phosphodiester bond.
• In a polysaccharide, the individual monosaccharides are linked by a glycosidic bond
24 Option (3) is incorrect because ricin is a toxin obtained from Ricinus plant. Vinblastin and
curcumin are drugs.

290
 *Morphine and codeine are alkaloids.
* Abrin is also a toxin obtained by plant Abrus.
* Concanavalin A is a lectin.
25. * The correct option is (2) because lipids having only single bonds are called saturated fatty
acids and lipids having one or more C = C double bonds are called unsaturated fatty acids.
* Palmitic acid has 16 carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon.
* Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon atoms including the carboxyl carbon.
* Lecithin is a phospholipid found in cell membrane.
* Glycerol has 3 carbons, each bearing a hydroxyl (–OH) group.
26. Lecithin is a phospholipid and saturated fatty acids do not have c = c bends
27. Maltose is a disaccharide formed from two glucose molecules by dehydration
28. Glylcogen – Storage product
Globulin – Anti body
Steroids – Hormone
Thrombin – Biocatalyst

291
 10.CELL CYCLE AND
CELL DIVISION

Biology Smart Booklet

Theory + NCERT MCQs + NEET PYQs
292
293
 CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION
Cell cycle
The sequence of events by which a cell duplicates its genome, synthesizes the
other constituents of cells and eventually divides into two daughter cells is
called cell cycle.

G1 Phase: Cell metabolically active and grows continuously but does not
replicate DNA

S Phase: DNA synthesis occurs, DNA content increases from 2C to 4C, but the
number of chromosomes remains same i.e., 2n.

G2 Phase: Proteins are synthesized in preparation for mitosis while cell b growth
continues.

M Phase (Mitosis Phase): Starts with nuclear division, corresponding to

separation of daughter chromosomes (karyokinesis) and usually ends with
division of cytoplasm, (cytokinesis).

Quiescent stage (G0): In adult animals cells that do not divide and exit G1
phase to enter an inactive stage called G0. Cells at this stage remain
metabolically active but do not proliferate. e.g., Heart cells.

294
 Difference between Mitosis and meiosis
Mitosis Meiosis
Takes place in the somatic cells. Takes place in reproductive cells.
It is a single division which produces two cells. It is a double division which produces
four cells.
Haploid and diploid both kind of cells may Only diploid cells undergo in meiosis
undergo mitosis. cell division.
Crossing over absent. Crossing over takes place.
Pairing of chromosome does not occur. Pairing of homologous chromosome
occurs.

Stages of Mitosis
Since the number of chromosomes in the parent and progeny cells is the same,
it is called as equational division.

Mitosis is divided into four sub stages:

Prophase:

 Replicated chromosomes, each consisting of 2 chromatids, condense

and become visible.
 Microtubules are assembled into mitotic spindle.
 Nucleolus and nuclear envelope disappear.
 Centriole moves to opposite poles.

Metaphase:

 Spindle fibers attached to kinetochores (small disc-shaped structures at

the surface of centromere) of chromosomes.
 Chromosomes line up at the equator of the spindle to form metaphase
plate.

Anaphase:

 Centromeres split and chromatids separate.

 Chromatids move to opposite poles due to shortening of spindle fibers.

Telophase:

 Chromosomes cluster at opposite poles.

 Nuclear envelope assembles around chromosomes clusters’.
 Nucleolus, Golgi Complex, E.R. reforms.

Cytokinesis
Is the division of protoplast of a cell into two daughter cells after karyokinesis
(nuclear division).

295
 Animal Cytokinesis: Appearance of furrow in plasma membrane which
deepens and joins in the center, dividing cell cytoplasm into two.

Plant cytokinesis: Formation of new cell wall begins with the formation of a
simple precursor cell plate which represents the middle lamella between the
walls of two adjacent cells.

Syncytium: When karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis, a multinucleated

condition arises. This is called syncytium.

Significance of Mitosis:

 Growth-addition of cells.
 Maintenance of surface/ volume ratio. Maintain Nucleo –cytoplasmic
ratio.
 Maintenance of chromosomes number.
 Regeneration.
 Reproduction in unicellular organisms, lower plants and some insects.
 Repair and wound healing.
 Vegetative reproduction in plants takes place by mitosis.

Meiosis
 Specialized kind of cell division that reduces the chromosomes number
by half. hence it is called reductional division.
 Occurs during gametogenesis in plants and animals.
 Involves two sequential cycles of nuclear and cell division called Meiosis I
and Meiosis II.
 It results in 4 haploid daughter cells.
 Interphase occurs prior to meiosis which is similar to interphase of mitosis
except the S phase is prolonged.

Meiosis I

296
Prophase I: Subdivided into 5 phases.

Leptotene:

 Chromosomes make their appearance as single stranded structures.

 Compaction of chromosomes continues.

Zygotene:

 Homologous chromosomes start pairing and this process of association

is called synapsis.
 Chromosomal synapsis is accompanied by formation of
Synaptonemal complex.
 Complex formed by a pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is
called bivalent or tetrad.

Pachytene: Crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids of

homologous chromosomes. The enzymes involved in the process is
‘recombinase’. Recombination between homologous chromosomes is
completed. Exchange of genetic material.
Diplotene: Dissolution of synaptonemal complex occurs and the
recombined chromosomes separate separate from each other except at
the sites of crossing over. These X-shaped structures are called chaismata. In
oocytes of some vertebrates diplotene can last for month or years.
Diakinesis: Terminalization of chaismata.
 Chromosomes are fully condensed and meiotic spindles assembled.
 Nucleolus disappear and nuclear envelope breaks down.

Metaphase I
Bivalent chromosomes align on the equatorial plate.

Microtubules from opposite poles of the spindle attach to the pair of

homologous chromosomes.

Anaphase I
Homologous chromosomes, separate while chromatids remain associated at
their centromeres.

Telophase I:
 Nuclear membrane and nucleus reappear.
 Cytokinesis follows (diad of cells).

Interkinesis
Stage between two meiotic divisions, (meiosis I and meiosis II) generally short
lived.

297
Meiosis II: (It resembles the normal mitosis).

Prophase II
 Nuclear membrane disappears.
 Chromosomes again become compact.

MetapahseII
 Chromosomes align at the equator.
 Microtubules from opposite poles of spindle get attached to kinetochores
of sister chromatids.

Anaphase II
Simultaneous splitting of the centromere of each chromosome, allowing them
to move towards opposite poles of the cell.

TelophaseII
 Two groups of chromosomes get enclosed by a nuclear envelope.
 Cytokinesis follows resulting in the formation of tetrad of cells i.e., 4
haploid cells.

Significance of Meiosis:
 Formation of gametes: In sexually reproducing organisms.
 Genetic variability: Variations are very important for evolution.
 Maintenance of chromosomal number: By reducing the chromosome
number in gametes. Chromosomal number is restored by fertilization of
gametes.

298
 NCERT LINE BY LINE QUESTIONS
1. All cells reproduce by dividing into _ _ _ __ , with each parental cells giving rise to_ __ _ _ cells
each time they divide. Easy Page No-162, Paragraph No-1
A) One; four daughter B) Two; two daughter
C) One; two daughter D) Two; four daughter
10.1 Cell Cycle
2. A cell cycle comprises all the listed events,except:
Easy Page No-162, Paragraph No-2
A) Cell growth B) DNA replication
C) Transcription D) Cell division
3. Consider the following statements-
Statement-I: cell growth (in terms ofcytoplasmic increases) is a contingent
process which occur during cell cycle.
Statement-II: DNA synthesis occur onlyduring one specific stage in the cell cycle.
Statement-III: The event of cell cycle areunder genetic control.
Difficult Page No-162, Paragraph No-2
A) Statement-I is false & statement-II andIII are true
B) Statement-I and II are false &statement-III are true
C) All statement are true
D) None of the above stated statement aretrue.
10.1.1 Phases of Cell Cycle
4. Cell of human divide once inapproximately-Easy Page No-163, Paragraph No-1
A) 60 minutes B) 90 minutes C) 24 hours D) None of these
5. Read the following statements andchoose the correct option.
Medium
Page No-163, Paragraph No-1 and 2
Statement A: The M-phase representsthe phase when actual cell divisionoccurs
Statement B: Interphase represents thephase between two successive M-phases
A) Only statement A is correct
B) Only statement B is correct
C) Both the statements are incorrect
D) Both the statements are correct
6. Match the columns and choose the correctoption
Medium
Page No-163, Paragraph No-1,2,3,4 andpage No-164, paragraph No- 1 and 2
Column I Column II
(a) G1 phase (i) Quiescentstage of thecell cycle.
(b) G2 phase (ii) DNAdenoted as2C,increases to4C

299
 (c) Synthesisphase (iii) Proteins aresynthesizedinpreparation
for mitosis
(d) G0 phase (iv) Cell containinitialamount of
DNA i.e., 2C
A) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii B) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
C) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii D) a-ii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
7. An average duration of yeast cell cycle is-
Easy Page No-163, Paragraph No-1
A) 60 minutes B) 90 minutes
C) 20 minutes D) One day
8. Cell cycle is divided into how many basicphases
Easy Page No-163, Paragraph No-1
A) One B) Two C) Four D) Six
9. Which of following is/are enlisted as basicphases of cell cycle?
Easy Page No-163, Paragraph No-3
A) G0 phase B) S phase C) Interphase D) Metaphase
10. The phase of cell cycle during whichmitosis occur is-
Easy Page No-163, Paragraph No-2
A) Interphase B) M-phase C) G-phase D) S-phase
11. The phase between two successive Mphaseis-
Easy Page No-163, Paragraph No-2
A) Interphase B) G-phase C) S-phase D) M-phase
12. The time span of interphase and M-phaseis an average human cell cycle is-
Easy Page No-163, Paragraph No-2
A) 12 hours each
B) 95% M-phase & one hour interphase
C) 8 hour M-phase & 16 hour interphase
D) One hour M-phase &23 hourinterphase
13. The correct sequence of cell is-
Easy Page No-163, Figure No-10.1
A) M -> G2 -> S -> G1 B) S -> G2 -> G1 -> M
C) M -> G1 -> G2 -> S D) G1 -> S -> G2 -> M
14. The process which mark as start & usuallyend of M-phase are-
Medium Page No-163, Paragraph No-3
A) Division of cytoplasm & Karyokinesisrespectively
B) Cytokinesis and division of cytoplasmrespectively
C) Separation of daughter chromosome &cytokinesis respectively
D) Karyokinesis & karyokinesisrespectively
15. Resting phase of cell-cycle is-
Easy Page No-163, Paragraph No-3
A) M-phase B) Interkinesis
C) G1& G2 phase D) Interphase
16. Interphase is divided into_ _ _ phasesfurther.
Easy Page No-163, Paragraph No-3
A) 4 B) 3 C) 2 D) 5
17. Which of following stage corresponds tothe interval between mitosis & initiation of
DNA replication?
Medium Page No-163, Paragraph No-4
A) S-phase B) G2-phase C) M-phase D) G1-phase

300
18. Select the correct statement about G1phase-
Easy Page No-163, Paragraph No-4
A) Cell is metabotically inactive B) DNA does not replicate
C) DNA replicate D) Chromosome number is doubled
19. Correct sequence of phase of M-phase is-
Easy Page No-163, Figure No-10.1
A) Cytokinesis -> Prophase -> Metaphase-> Anaphase -> Telophase
B) Prophase -> Anaphase -> Metaphase -> Telophase -> Cytokinesis
C) G0 -> G1 -> S -> G2 D) None of these
20. What would be amount of DNA (C) andnumber of chromosome (N) in animal cell
just after completion of S phase if theinitial amount is 2C and 2N?
Difficult Page No-163, Paragraph No-4
A) 2C and 2N respectively B) 4C and 4N respectively
C) 4C and 2N respectively D) 2C and 4N respectively
21. Duplication of centriole occur in-
Easy Page No-163, Paragraph No-5
A) M-phase B) G2-phase C) S-phase D) G0-phase
22. The S-phase of animal cell marked by-
Easy Page No-163, Paragraph No-5
A) DNA replication B) Centriole duplication
C) Cell growth and protein synthesis D) A & B
23. The G2 of cell cycle is pronounced by-
Easy Page No-163, Paragraph No-5
A) Cell growth and division B) Cell duplication
C) Protein synthesis & centrioleduplication
D) Cell growth & protein synthesis
24. Find mismatch column.
Difficult Page No-163, Paragraph No-1,2,3,4
Column-I Column-II
A) Karyokinesis Separation ofdaughterchromosome
B) cytokinesis Division ofcytoplasm
C) Interphase Smallest phase ofcell cycle
D) M-phase Mitosis phase
25. The inactive stage of cell cycle is-
Easy Page No-164, Paragraph No-1
A) Quiescent stage B) G1 C) S – Phase D) A & B
26. Choose the correct statement with respectto G0 phase:
Medium Page No-164, Paragraph No-1
A) Also known as quiescent stage andstart after G2 phase
B) Cell of this stage remain unactive andno longer proliferation
C) Cell of this stage remain in active butno longer proliferation unless called todo so depending
on the requirement oforganism
D) Cell of this stage remain active andproliferation till death without anycondition
27. How many chromosome does onionsomatic cell have –
Easy Page No-164, Top box
A) 12 B) 14 C) 16 D) 20
28. What number of chromosome does onionsomatic cell have in G, S, G2 & M – phase
Respectively
Medium Page No-164, Top box

301
 A) 32, 16, 16, 32 B) 16, 32, 16, 16 C) 16, 16, 16, 16 D) None of these
29. Mitotic division occur in –
Easy Page No-164, Paragraph No-2
A) Diploid somatic cell B) Haploid male honey bee
C) A & B D) Gametes
30. Match the following column:
Difficult
Page No-163 & 164, Paragraph No-1,2
Column – I Column – II
a) G1 Phase i) Metabolicallyactive cell, donot proliferate
b) S Phase ii) Content of DNAdoubled
c) G0 phase iii) Proteinsynthesised
d) G2 Phase iv) Metabolicallyactive cell grows
continuously
A) a – iv), b – ii), c – i), d – iii) B) a – i), b – ii), c – iv), d – iii)
C) a – iv), b – iii), c – i), d – ii D) None of these
10.2 M–Phase
31. M – phase refer to –
Easy Page No-164, Paragraph No-3
A) Metaphase B) Meiosis
C) Karyokinesis D) A & B both
32. Most dramatic period of cell cycle is-
Easy Page No-164, Paragraph No-3
A) Gap 1 only B) M-phase C) S-phase only D) Interphase
33. Equational division refer to –
Easy Page No-164, Paragraph No-3
A) Meiosis B) Mitosis
C) Number of cell chromosome in parent & progeny cell is same
D) B & C
34. Karyokinesis of mitosis is divided into________ stages
Easy Page No-164, Paragraph No-3
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 8
35. Correct order of mitotic division is –
Easy Page No-164, Paragraph No-3
A) Metaphase → Anaphase → Prophase →Telophase
B) Prophase → Metaphase → Anaphase →Telophase
C) Anaphase → Telophase → Metaphase →Prophase
D) Telophase → Prophase → Anaphase →Metaphase
10.2.1 Prophase
36. Select the correct option:
I) Prophase is first stage of Karyokinesis.
II) It occur after completion of proteinsynthesis during cell cycle
Easy Page No-164, Paragraph No-4
A) Both (I) & (II) are true B) Both (I) & (II) are false
C) (I) is true but (II) is false D) (I) is false but (II) is true
37. During prophase, which of the followingoccurs?
Medium Page No-164, Paragraph No-4
A) Condensation of chromosomal material
B) Chromosomal material become tangled

302
 C) Centrosome duplication
D) Movement of both centriole at one poleof cell
38. Choose the incorrect match
Difficult Page No-164, Paragraph No-4; Page No-165, Paragraph No-2
A) Beginning of movement ofchromosome to opposite poles –Prophase
B) Two asters with spindle – Mitoticapparatus
C) Attachment of spindle – Metaphase
D) Chromosome move to oppositepoles – Metaphase
39. Mitotic apparatus consist of –
Easy Page No-164, Paragraph No-6
A) Four asters with spindle fibres
B) One asters with spindle fibres
C) Two asters with spindle fibres
D) Centrosome with their microtubuleswithout spindle fibres.
40. How many of following structures areobserved when cells are viewed under the
microscope at end of prophase Golgi body,ER, Nucleolus, Nuclear envelop,
centrosome
Medium Page No-165, Paragraph No-1
A) Zero B) One C) Three D) All of these
41. How do the chromosome appear duringprophase of animal cell during mitosis
Easy Page No-164, Paragraph No-6
A) Consisting of four chromatid whichremain attached to centromere
B) Consisting of two chromatid whichremain attached to centromere
C) Consisting of four chromatid withoutcentromere
D) As chromatin material without anydefined structure
42. Asters formed during prophase are –
Easy Page No-169, Paragraph No-6
A) Composed of microtubules originatefrom centromere
B) Composed of protein which secreted bygolgi body
C) Highly condensed area of chromosome
D) None of these
43. What difference would indicate earlyprophase & late prophase of animal cell.
Difficult Page No-167 and 165, Paragraph No-

Early Prophase Late Prophase

A) Nucleolus &nuclear Nucleolus &
membrane nuclear membrane
present are absent
B) Chromosomes There is no
are highly condensation of
condensed chromosome
C) Nucleolus & Nucleolus &
centrosome are centromere are
present absent
D) Other Other organelles
organelles like like ER, golgi
ER, golgi body complex are
complexes are observed.
not observed

303
44. Identify correct stage of given diagram.
Difficult Page No-165, Figure No-10.2 (a)

A) Late prophase Early prophase

B) EarlyprophaseLate prophase
C) Metaphase Prophase D) Prophase Metaphase
10.2.2 Metaphase
45. The complete disintegration of nuclearenvelop marks start of:
Easy Page No-165, Paragraph No-2
A) Late prophase B) Metaphase
C) Anaphase D) None of these
46. Identify stage of given diagram
Difficult Page No-165, Figure No-10.2

A) Early prophase, metaphase

B) Late prophase, transition to metaphase
C) Early prophase, transition tometaphase
D) Late prophase, metaphase
47. Which stage of cell cycle is best to studychromosome morphology
Easy Page No-165, Paragraph No-2
A) Late prophase B) Early prophase
C) Anaphase D) Metaphase
48. Condensation of chromosome is completedin –
Easy Page No-165, Paragraph No-2
A) Stage where centrosome is duplicated
B) Stage where DNA content doubled
C) Stage where complete integration ofnuclear envelope occurs
D) Stage where complete disintegration ofnucleus envelope occurs
49. Metaphase chromosome is made up of –
Easy Page No-165, Paragraph No-2
A) Two non – sister chromatid which areheld together by centromere
B) Four sister chromatid which are heldtogether by centromere
C) Two sister chromatid which are heldtogether by centromere
D) Four non – sister chromatid which areheld together by centromere
50. Kinetochores are
Easy Page No-165, Paragraph No-2
A) Precursors of microtubules
B) Sites of attachment of spindle fibres
C) Site for origination of spindle fibres
D) Small disc – shaped structure attelomere of chromosome

304
51. Metaphase is characterised by –
Easy Page No-165, Paragraph No-2
A) Some chromosomes coming to lie at thepole
B) One chromatid of each chromosomeconnected by its centromere to spindle
fibres from one pole
C) Sister chromatid connected by itskinetochore to spindle fibres from
opposite poles
D) All of these
52. Identify stage
Difficult Page No-165, Figure No-2 Part b.

A) Transition to metaphase B) Anaphase

C) Metaphase D) Telophase

10.2.3 Anaphase
53. At the onset of anaphase, eachchromosome split into –
Easy Page No-165, Paragraph No-2
A) One chromatid B) Four daughter chromatids
C) Two daughter chromosomes D) Eight chromatids
54. Anaphase is characterised by –
Easy Page No-165, Paragraph No-3
i) Migration of daughter chromatidtoward equator.
ii) centromere of each chromosomeremain directed toward pole
iii) centromere of each chromosomeremain directed toward equator
iv) Chromatid split and centromereseparate
v) Chromatid separate after centromeresplit
A) i, ii, v B) ii, v C) iii, v D) ii, iv
55. Identify stage –
Difficult Page No-166, Figure No-10.2 (c)

A) Anaphase B) Telophase C) Interphase D) Metaphase

10.2.4 Telophase
56. During telophase:
(i) Chromosome cluster at oppositespindle poles
(ii) Two daughter nuclei formed
(iii) Chromosomes lose their individuality
(iv) It is reversal of prophase

305
 (v) Nucleolus is not reformed
Choose the incorrect statement:-
Medium Page No-166, Paragraph No-2
A) i), (ii) B) (iii), (iv) C) (v) only D) none of these
10.2.5 Cytokinesis:
57. Match the following column –
Difficult Page No-166, Paragraph No-3
Column I Column II
a) Syncytium i) Divide thecytoplasm ofanimal cell
b) Cell-plate ii) Occur in liquidendosperm ofcoconut
c) Cellfurrow iii) Method of cytokinesis in plant cell
A) a-iii, b-ii, c-i B) a-ii, b-iii, c-i C) a-i, b-ii, c-iii D) a-ii, b-i, c-iii
58. Cell plate represent –
Easy Page No-166, Paragraph No-3
A) Primary lamella B) Middle lamella
C) Both D) formation of plate by lysosome
10.3 Cytokinesis:
59. Mitosis usually results in
Easy Page No-167, Paragraph No-1
A) haploid daughter cells with identicalgenetical complement
B) growth of multicellular organism
C) diploid daughter cells without identicalgenetical complement
D) haploid daughter cells withoutidentical genetical complement
60. Which one is odd w.r.t. significance ofmeiosis?
Medium Page No-167, Paragraph No-1-4, 170paragraph 2
A) Increase genetic variability inorganisms
B) Helps in restoring of originalchromosome number in a sexuallyreproducing species.
C) Ensure production of haploidphase
D) Cell repair
61. The growth in plant is/are contributed by
Easy Page No-167, Paragraph No-1
A) Mitotic division in apical meristem
B) Meiotic division in lateral meristem
C) Meiotic division in apical meristem
D) A & B both
62. a) The nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio inorganism is restore by mitosis
b) The cells of the upper layer of theepidermis, cells of lining of gut, andblood cells are being
constantlyreplaced by Mitotic division.
Choose the correct option from following :-
Medium Page No-167, Paragraph No-2
A) Statement (a) is true but (b) is false B) Statement (b) is true but (a) is false
C) Statement (a) & (b) are true D) Statement (a) & (b) are false
10.4 Meiosis:
63. Meiosis result in
Easy Page No-167, Paragraph No-3
A) production of gametes
B) reduction in number of chromosomes
C) introduction of variation
D) all of these

306
64. Meiosis ensure the production of…………… phase in life cycle of sexuallyreproduction
organisms whereasfertilization restore ……….. phase.
Easy Page No-167, Paragraph No-3
A) haploid & haploid respectively B) haploid & diploid respectively
C) diploid & diploid respectively D) diploid & haploid respectively
65. Which of the following statement iscorrect?
Medium Page No-167, Paragraph No-3
A) Meiosis involves single cycle of nuclearand cell division
B) Doubling of chromosomes occur onceduring s-phase
C) Recombination between sisterchromatid of non-homologouschromosome
D) Pairing of homologous chromosome
66. At the end of meiosis-II, how many haploidcells are formed?
Easy Page No-167, Paragraph No-3
A) One B) Two C) Zero D) Four
67. Recombination occurs between –
Easy Page No-167, Paragraph No-3
A) sister chromatid of non-homologouschromosome
B) non-sister chromatid of nonhomologous chromosome
C) sister chromatid of homologouschromosome
D) non-sister chromatid of homologouschromosome
10.4.1 Meiosis-I
68. Longest phase of meiosis is :
Easy Page No-168, Paragraph No-1
A) Prophase-I B) Prophase-II
C) Metaphase-I D) Telophase-II
69. During which of the given phases,homologous chromosomes separate, whilesister chromatids
remain associated attheir centromere?
Difficult Page No-169, Paragraph No-1
A) Anaphase of mitosis B) Anaphase II
C) Anaphase I D) Metaphase I
70. Prophase-I of meiosis is divided into…………. phase based on chromosomal
behaviour.
Easy Page No-168, Paragraph No-1
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
71. Identify correct sequence of prophase-I.
Easy Page No-168, Paragraph No-1
A) leptotene, Diplotene, Zygotene B) Zygotene, pachytene, leptotene
C) Diplotene, Zygotene, Pachytene D) None of these
72. A bivalent is
Easy Page No-168, Paragraph No-2
A) Pair of non-homologouschromosomes
B) The complex formed by a pair ofsynapsed homologous chromosomes.
C) Formed during pachytene statge
D) More clearly visible at zygoteneStage
73. Synaptonemal complex dissolves during-
Easy Page No-168, Paragraph No-2
A) Leptotene B) Diakinesis C) Zygotene D) Diplotene
74. During which phase of meiosis centromeresplits?
Easy Page No-169, Paragraph No-2

307
 A) Anaphase I B) Anaphase II C) Telophase II D) Telophase I
75. Choose the correct option with respect toleptotene:
Medium Page No-168, Paragraph No-2
(i) It is the foremost and the short-livedstage of prophase
(ii) It begins when the process ofcompaction of chromosome isaccomplished
(iii) chromosome become visible underlight microscope
(iv) It followed by zygotene
A) One statement that is (ii) is incorrect
B) i, ii and iii are correct while (iv) isincorrect
C) iii & iv are correct while i, ii areincorrect
D) All statement are correct
76. Zygotene is characterized by –
Easy Page No-168, Paragraph No-2
(i) chromosome start pairing
(ii) non-homologous chromosome paired
(iii) synapsis occurs between nonhomologouschromosomes
(iv) formation of synaptomeal complex inhomologous chromosomes
(v) formation of synaptonemal complexin non homologous chromosomes
A) i, ii, v B) i, iii, iv C) i, iv D) i, ii, iii, v
77. Bivalent stage is –
Easy Page No-168, Paragraph No-2
A) complex formed by a pair of synapsedhomologous chromosomes
B) complex formed by a pair of synapsednon-homologous chromosomes
C) complex formed by four pair ofsynapsed homologous chromosomes
D) complex formed by four pair ofsynapsed non-homologouschromosomes
78. Crossing over occurs in –
Easy Page No-168, Paragraph No-2
A) leptotene B) zygotene C) Pachytene D) diplotene
79. Pachytene is stage that is/are :-
Easy Page No-168, Paragraph No-2
A) long lived than zygotene
B) two chromatid of each bivalentchromosomes becomes distinct
C) short lived than leptotene
D) long lived than leptotene & short livedthan zygotene
80. Choose the correct statement fromfollowing:
Medium Page No-168, Paragraph No-2
A) Pachytene is characterised byappearance of recombination nodule
B) Recombination nodule is site ofcrossing over
C) Both A & B
D) Recombination nodule formed indiplotene
81. Given below are statements (I - VI). Choosecorrect set with respect to crossing over.
Medium Page No-168, Paragraph No-2
I) It occurred between sister chromatidof homologous chromosomes.
II) It is enzyme mediated process.
III) Recombinase enzyme involved in it.
IV) It occurs at recombination nodules.
V) It occurs between non sisterchromatid of non-homologouschromosomes.
VI) It occurs between sister chromatid ofnon-homologous chromosomes.
A) I, II, III & IV B) V, II, III & IV C) II, III, IV & VI D) II, III & IV

308
82. Diplotene is not characterized by
Medium Page No-168, Paragraph No-3
A) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex.
B) Tendency of recombined homologouschromosomes of tetrad to separatefrom each other,
except at sites ofcrossover crossovers.
C) Formation of chiasmata
D) Tendency of recombined nonhomologous chromosome of bivalent toseparate from each
other, except atsites of crossover.
83. Chiasmata is –
Easy Page No-168, Paragraph No-3
A) X – shaped structures
B) Formed by recombined chromosomeyet to be separated
C) Site of cross over
D) All of these
84. Which stage of Meiosis – I last for monthsor year in some vertebrate oocytes?
Easy Page No-168, Paragraph No-3
A) Diakinesis B) Diplotene C) Pachytene D) Zygotene
85. Diakinesis marked by –
Easy Page No-168, Paragraph No-4
A) Terminalisation of chiasmata
B) Chromosomes are fully condensed
C) Meiotic spindle assembled
D) All of these
86. Meiotic spindle assembled to prepare –
Easy Page No-168, Paragraph No-4
A) Non homologous chromosomeseparation.
B) Formation of aster ray.
C) Homologous chromosome separation.
D) Both B & C
87. Match the following
Column I Column II
I. Leptotene a) Compaction ofchromosome
II. Zygotene b) Separation ofchromosomeexcept at
crossover
III. Pachytene c) Terminalisationof chiasmata
IV. Diakinesis d) Appearance ofrecombinationof nodules
V. Diplotene e) Synapsis
Difficult Page No-168, Paragraph No-1,2,3,4
A) I-a, II-e, III-d, IV-c, V-b B) I-a, II-b, III-d, IV-c, V-e
C) I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-e, V-b D) None of these
88. Identify stage
Medium Page No-169, Figure No-10.3

309
 A) Homologous chromosome separate,while sister chromatid remainassociated at centromere.
B) Homologous chromosome along withsister chromatid separate.
C) Spindle attached to Kinetochore in thisstage.
D) This stage followed by diakinesis.
89. Spindle fibre attach to kinetochores ofhomologous chromosome in –
Easy Page No-168, Paragraph No-5
A) Metaphase – I of meiosis B) Metaphase – II of meiosis
C) Both A & B D) Anaphase of mitosis
90. Identify stage
Easy Page No-169, Figure No-10.3 & Page No-170, Figure No-10.4
A B

A) a = Anaphase I, b = Anaphase II
B) a = Anaphase II, b = Metaphase II
C) a = Anaphase II, b = Anaphase I
D) a = Anaphase I, b = Anaphase II
91. Dyads of cells are formed in –
Easy Page No-169, Paragraph No-2
A) Telophase – I B) Telophase – II
C) Diakinesis D) Both A & B

10.4.2 Meiosis-II
92. Meiosis – II initiated immediately after
Easy Page No-169, Paragraph No-3
A) Telophase – I B) Prophase
C) Cytokinesis – I D) Chromosome have fully elongated
93. Which of the following resembles withnormal mitosis-
Medium Page No-169, Paragraph No-3
A) Meiosis – I B) Meiosis – II
C) Both D) None of these
94. In the beginning of Meiosis – II, a cellcontain four chromatid. What number ofchromatid is
expected to be in eachdaughter cell at end of telophase – II
Medium Page No-169, Paragraph No-3
A) 4 B) 2 C) 8 D) 16

310
95. Find mismatched column
Difficult Page No-169,314 & 170 Paragraph No-1
Column I Column II
A) Metaphase – II Chromosomes alignat equator and
microtubule fromopposite poles of
spindle get attachedto kinetochores of
non-sister chromatid
B) Prophase – II Nuclear membraneDisappear
C) Telophase – II Formation of tetradof cells
D) Anaphase – II Splitting centromerewhich hold sister
chromatid together,allow them to move
toward opposite poleof cells

96. Movement of chromatid toward oppositepole is achieved by-

Easy Page No-169, Paragraph No-4
A) Shortening of microtubules attached tocentromere
B) Shortening of microtubules attached tokinetochores
C) Elongating of microtubules attached tokinetochores
D) Elongating of microtubules attached tocentromere
10.5 Significance of Meiosis
97. Conservation of specific chromosomenumber of each species is achieved acrossgenerations in
sexually reproducingorganism is done by –
Easy Page No-170, Paragraph No-2
A) Mitosis B) Meiosis only
C) Meiosis & Mitosis D) None of these
98. Choose the correct statement aboutmeiosis
Medium Page No-170, Paragraph No-2
A) Increase genetic variability of anindividual of an organism
B) decrease genetic variability of anorganism from one generation to other
C) Reduction of chromosome by onefourth
D) Play an important role in evolution

NEET PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS

1. The stage during which separation of the paired homologous chromosomes begins is: [2018]
(a) Pachytene (b) Diplotene (c) Zygotene (d) Diakinesis
2. DNA replication in bacteria occurs [2017]
(a) within nucleolus. (b) prior to fission. (c) just before transcription. (d) during S phase.
3. Which of the following options gives the correctsequence of events during mitosis? [2017]
(a) Condensation  nuclear membrane disassembly  arrangement at equator  centromere
division  segregation  telophase
(b) Condensation  crossing over  nuclear membrane disassembly  segregation 
telophase
(c) Condensation  arrangement at equator  centromere division  segregation 
telophase

311
 (d) Condensation  nuclear membrane disassembly  crossing over  segregation 
telophase
4. Anaphase Promoting Complex (APC) is a protein degradation machinery necessary for
proper mitosis of animal cells. If APC is defective in a human cell, which of the following is
expected to occur?
[2017]
(a) Chromosomes will be fragmented. (b) Chromosomes will not segregate.
(c) Recombination of chromosome arms will occur. (d) Chromosomes will not condense.
5. Spindle fibres attach on to: [2016]
(a) Telomere of the chromosome. (b) Kinetochore of the chromosome.
(c) Centromere of the chromosome. (d) Kinetosome of the chromosome.
6. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature during mitosis in somatic cells? [2016]
(a) Spindle fibres (b) Disappearance of nucleolus
(c) Chromosome movement (d) Synapsis
7. In meiosis crossing over is initiated at: [2016]
(a) Pachytene (b) Leptotene (c) Zygotene (d) Diplotene
8. A somatic cell that has just completed the S phase of its cell cycle, as compared to gamete of
the same species, has [2015]
(a) same number of chromosomes but twice the amount of DNA.
(b) twice the number of chromosomes and four times the amount of DNA.
(c) four times the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA.
(d) twice the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA.
9. Choose the correctoption for the following events of meiosis in correct sequence. [2015]
(A) Crossing over (B) Synapsi s
(C) Terminalisation of chiasmata (D) Disappearance of nucleolus
(a) B  A  C  D (b) A  B  C  D
(c) A  B  D  C (d) D  C  B  A
10. Match the description given in column-I with their steps given in column-II and identify the
correctanswer. [2015]
Column-I Column-II
A) Synapsis aligns homologous chromosomes I) Anaphase-II
B) Synthesis of RNA and protein II) Zygotene
C) Action of enzyme recombinase III) G2 - phase
D) Centromeres do not separate but chromatids
move towards opposite poles IV) Anaphase-I
V) Pachytene
(a) A – II; B – III; C – V; D – IV (b) A – I; B – II; C – V; D – IV
(c) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – V (d) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV

312
11. During which phase(s) of cell cycle, amount of DNA i n a cell remains at 4C level if the
initial amount is denoted as 2C?
[2014]
(a) G0 and G1 (b) G1 and S (c) Only G2 (d) G2 and M
12. In ‘S’ phase of the cell cycle, [2014]
(a) amount of DNA doubles in each cell.
(b) amount of DNA remains same in each cell.
(c) chromosome number is increased.
(d) amount of DNA is reduced to half in each cell.
13. The enzyme recombinase is required at which stage of meiosis? [2014]
(a) Pachytene (b) Zygotene (c) Diplotene (d) Diakinesis
14. The correct sequence of phases of cell cycle is : (NEET-2019)
(1) M  G1  G2  S (2) G1  G2  S  M
(3) S  G1  G2  M (4) G1  S  G2  M
15. Cells in G0 phase: (NEET-2019)
(1) exit the cell cycle (2) enter the cell cycle
(3) suspend the cell cycle (4) terminate the cell cycle
16. After meiosis-I, the resultant daughter cells have:- (NEET-2019 ODISSA)
(1) Same amount of DNA as in the parent cell in S phase
(2) Twice the amount of DNA in comparison to haploid gamete.
(3) Same amount of DNA in comparison to haploid gamete
(4) Four times the amount of DNA in comparison to haploid gamete
17. Crossing over takes place between which chromatids and in which stage of the cell cycle?
(NEET-2019 ODISSA)
(1) Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes at Zygotene stage of prophase I.
(2) Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes at Pachytene stage of prophase I.
(3) Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes at Zygotene stage of prophase I.
(4) Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes at Pachytene stage of prophase I.
18. Attachment of spindle fibers to kinetochores of chromosomes becomes evident in :
(NEET-2020 COVID)
(1) Anaphase (2) Telophase (3) Prophase (4) Metaphase
19. In a mitotic cycle, the correct sequence of phases is (NEET-2020 COVID)

(1) S, G1, G2, M (2) G1, S, G2, M (3) M, G1, G2, S (4) G1, G2, S, M

20. During Meiosis 1, in which stage synapsis takes place ? (NEET-2020 COVID)
(1) Pachytene (2) Zygotene (3) Diplotene (4) Leptotene
21. Match the following columns and select the correct option : (NEET-2020 COVID)
Column - I Column - II
(a) Smooth (i) Protein synthesis endoplasmic reticulum
(b) Rough (ii) Lipid synthesis endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Golgi complex (iii) Glycosylation

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 (d) Centriole (iv) Spindle formation
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii). (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
22. Match the following events that occur in their respective phases of cell cycle and select the
correct option : (NEET-2020 COVID)

(a) G1phase (i) Cell grows and organelle duplication

(b) S phase (ii) DNA replication and chromosome duplication
(c) G2 phase (iii) Cytoplasmic growth
(d) Metaphase inM-phase (iv) Alignment of chromosomes
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
23. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during (NEET-2020)
1) Leptotene 2) Pachytene 3) Zygotene 4) Diplotene

24. Some dividing cells exist the cell cycle and enter vegetative inactive stage. This is called
quiescent stage (G0). This process occurs at the end of : (NEET-2020)

1) G2 phase 2) M phase 3) G1 phase 4) S phase

25. Identify the correct statement with regard and G1 phase (Gap 1 ) of interphase(NEET-2020)
1) Nuclear Division takes place
2) DNA synthesis or replication takes place
3) Recognisation of all cell components takes place
4) Cell is metabolically active, grows but does not replicate its DNA
26. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is completed (NEET-2020)
1) At the time of fusion of a sperm with an ovum2) Prior to ovulation
3) At the time of copulation 4) After zygote formation
27. Match the following with respect to meiosis (NEET-2020)
a) Zygotene i) Terminalization
b) pachytene ii) Chiasmata
c) Diplotene iii) Crossing over
d) Diakinesis iv) Synapsis
Select the correct option
A b c d
1) ii iv iii i
2) iii iv i ii
3) iv iii ii i
4) i ii iv iii
28. Which of the following stages of meiosis involves division of centromere? [NEET-2021]

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 (1) Metaphase II (2) Anaphase II
(3) Telophase II (4) Metaphase I
29. Match List – I with List – II [NEET-2021]
List – I List – II
a) S phase i) Proteins are synthesized
b) G2 phase ii) Inactive phase
c) Quiescent stage iii) Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA
replication
d) G1 phase iv) DNA replication
a b c d
1) iv ii iii i
2) iv i ii iii
3) ii iv iii i
4) iii ii i iv
30. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. During interphase of Mitosis if the number
of chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what would be the number of chromosomes after S phase?
[NEET-2021]
1) 16 2) 4 3) 32 4) 8
31. The centrioleundergoes duplication during: [NEET-2021]
1) prophase 2) Metaphase 3) G2 phase 4) s-phase
32. Which stage of meiotic prophase shows terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive
feature? [NEET-2021]
1) Zygotene 2) Diakinesis 3) Pachytene 4) Leptotene
33. Which one of the following never occurs during mitotic cell division? [NEET-2022]
1) Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes
2) Movement of centrioles towards opposite poles
3) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
4) Coiling and condensation of the chromatids
34. The appearance of recombination nodules on homologous chromosomes during meiosis
characterizes: [NEET-2022]
1) Synaptonemal complex
2) Bivalent
3) Sites at which crossing over occurs
4) Terminalization
35. Select the incorrect statement with reference to mitosis: [NEET-2022]
1) All the chromosomes lie at equator at metaphase.
2) Spindle fibres attach to centromere of chromosomes.
3) Chromosomes decondense at telophase
4) Splitting of centromere occurs at anaphase
36. Regarding Meiosis, which of the statements is incorrect? [NEET-2022]
1) There are two stages in Meiosis, Meiosis –I and II
2) DNA replication occurs in S phase of Meiosis-II
3) Pairing of homologous chromosomes and recombination occurs in Meiosis-I
4) Four haploid cells are formed at the end of Meiosis-II

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 NCERT LINE BY LINE QUESTIONS - ANSWERS
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B C A C D D B B C A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A D D C D B D B A C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C D D C A C C C A A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
C B D C B A A A C A
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
D A B B B D D D C B
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A C C B A B B B A D
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A C D D D D C A C D
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
C B D B C A A C A C
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
D D B D D C A A A A
91 92 93 94 95 96 97
A C B B B B D

NEET PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS-ANSWERS

1) b 2) b 3) a 4) b 5) b 6) d 7) a 8) b 9) a 10) a
11) c 12) a 13) a 14) 4 15) 1 16) 2 17) 2 18) 4 19) 2 20) 2
21) 1 22) 4 23) 4 24) 3 25) 4 26) 1 27) 3 28) 2 29) 2 30) 4
31) 4 32) 2 33) 3 34) 3 35) 2 36) 2

NEET PREVIOUS YEARS QUESTIONS-EXPLANATIONS

1. (b)
2. (b) In bacteria DNA replication occurs in cytoplasm prior to fission. Prokaryotes due to their
primitive nature do not show well marked S-phase.
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (b) Attachment of microtubules to chromosomes is mediated by kinetochores, which actively
monitorspindle formation and prevent premature anaphase onset during mitosis.
6. (d)
7. (a) Crossing over, the process by which two chromosomes exchange some distal part of their
DNA, occurs in the pachytene stage of Prophase I of meiosis.
8. (b) When S-phase completes, a somatic cell contains 2n number of chromosomes and 4C
content of DNA.
9. (a) Synapsis  Crossing over  Terminalisation of chiasmata  Disappearance of nucleolus

316
10. (a)
11. (c)
12. (a) During S or synthesis phase, replication or duplication of chromosomal DNA and
synthesis of histone proteins takes place. During this time the amount of DNA Per cell
doubles.
13. (a) The enzyme recombinase is required at pachytene stage of meiosis. It catalyses the
exchange of short pieces of DNA between two long DNA strands, particularly the exchange
of homologous regions between the paired maternal and paternal chromosomes.
23 Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex occurs during diplotene stage
24 Cells exist from cell cycle and enter vegetative inactive stage. This is called quiescent stage
(G0). It exist out from G1 phase of cell cycle
25. G1 phase is resting phase cell is metabolically active, synthesis RNA and proteins
26. Meiotic division of secondary oocyte is completed after the entry of sperm in secondary
oocyte.
27. a) Zygotene- Synapsis
b) pachytene - Crossing over
c) Diplotene - Chiasmata
d) Diakinesis - Terminalization
28 •Division of centromere occurs in anaphase II.
• Telophase II is the last stage of meiosis II.
During this phase, the chromatids reach the poles and start uncoiling.
• Chromosomes form two parallel plates in metaphase I and one plate in metaphase II.
29 • In S phase DNA replication takes place.
• In G2 phase there is synthesis of proteins, RNA etc.
• Quiescent stage is inactive stage of cell cycle but cells remain metabolically active in this
stage.
• G1 phase is the interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication.
30. G1 and S sub-stages has the same number of chromosomes
But DNA is doubled
31. Duplication of centriole occurs during s Sub stage in Cytoplasm
32. Diakinesis shows terminalisation
33. Pairing of Homologues chromosomes doesn’t occur in Mitoses
34. Sites at which crossing over occurs
35. Spindle fibres attach to kinetochore of centromere
36. During Meiosis-II there is no S-phase

317