SECTION 1: LISTENING. (2.

0 POINTS)
I. You will hear a school teacher talking to a group of students about a national
poetry competition. For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered
space. (1.0 point)
POETRY COMPETITION FOR SCHOOL
The competition for 11-14s is called the (1)_____________________ Prize.
The topic for this year is (2)_________________.
This year the prize money available is (3)_____________________ euros.
If successful, school will spend the money on the (4 )_____________________.
For further help, see the (5)_____________________.
II. You will hear a news reporter called Angela Bond, talking on the radio about her
job. Choose the best word (A, B or C) for each space, drag and drop it, or type the
answer in the answer box. (1.0 point)
1. Where has Angela just returned from?
A. Britain B. the USA C. Asia
2. One thing Angela dislikes about her job is that she………………
A. loves being in dangerous situations
B. never knows where she'll go next
C. enjoys watching important events happen
3. What did Angela bring home from Hong Kong?
A. pictures B. carpets C. furniture
4. Where did Angela meet her boyfriend?
A. at her sister's house B. at university 5. C. in Thailand
What does Angela do to relax?
A. She cooks a meal B. She goes sailing C. She goes shopping
SECTION 2: PHONETICS (2.0 POINTS) I. Choose the word whose underlined
part is pronounced differently from that of the rest by circling the corresponding
letter A, B, C or D (1 point)
1. A. germ B. gesture C. gene D. gear
2. A. manufacture B. mature C. pasture D. nurture
3. A. massage B. carriage C. voyage D. dosage
4. A. dimension B. expansion C. confusion D. tension
5. A. beloved B. naked C. ploughed D. learned

II. Choose the word with different stress pattern by choosing the letter A, B, C or D.
(1 point)
1. A. concert B. teenager C. comfortable D. cartoon
2. A. physics B. chemistry C. biology D. history
3. A. obvious B. notorious C. credulous D. numerous
4. A. Europe B. monument C. province D. minority
5. A. satellite B. contestant C. similar D. interview

SECTION 3: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (7.0 POINTS)

I. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence, identify your answer by
circling the corresponding letter A, B, C or D. (2.0 points)
1. The table was so heavy I could . . . . . . lift it.
A. even B. almost C. hardly D. nearly
2. Now she is used . . . . . . up early every morning.
A. to get B. to getting C. for getting D. getting
3. . . . . . . . . . people in our country earn enough for a comfortable life.
A. most of B. the most C. almost all the D. mostly 4.
They arrived .............. London on time.
A. at B. in C. to D. from
5. " Do you want to wait?" - " Two weeks ...........too long for me to wait."
A. is B. are C. were D. was
6. There is ......... to do in that small town.
A. very interesting nothing B. very nothing interested
C. nothing very interesting D. very interest nothing
7. My funny story made the whole class .................
A. laughed B. laughing C. laugh D. laughs
8. I'm expecting to have this book__________ soon this year.
A. published B. publishing C. to publish D. publish
9. She is busy .................. every day.
A. to work B. work C. works D. working
10. How beautiful she is! She is wearing a ................. .
A. silk pretty purple dress B. dress silk pretty purple C. purple
pretty dress D. pretty purple silk dress
11. He spent ................... time writing an essay on his childhood.
A. a few B. a large number of C. a great deal of D. many
12. This shirt doesn't ..................... my trousers. It's too dark.
A. match B. suit C. fit D. keep
13. My brother never goes to school late and ............................... .
A. so do I B. Neither don't I C. I don't, too D. I don't, either
14. My car was so old that I could only sell it for..................
A. rubbish B. scrap C. debris D. waste
15. Not only ..................in the project, but he also wanted to become the leader.
A. did Jack involve B. had Jack been involved
C. was Jack involved D. Jack was involved
16. The school was closed for a month because of a serious ...............of fever.
A. outcome B. outburst C. outset D. outbreak
17. "I'm sure the Whitleys were involved." "They……..have since they know nothing
about the business."
A. can't B. wouldn't C. shouldn't D. mustn't
18. Many books were not available to the public because of government……………..
A. omission B. inhibition C. compensation D. censorship
19. My job is so………..that I don't think I'll be able to take a summer break.
A. persisting B. hard C. demanding D. tough
20. I read the contract again and again………..avoiding making spelling mistakes.
 A. with a view to B. on account of C. by means of D. in terms of
II. Supply the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (1.0 point) 1.
No one (enjoy) going to hospital.
2. We (be) students in four years’ time.
3. Nam always (stay) up late to watch TV, so he is sleepy all the time.
4. I will send him the message as soon as he (return).
5. He sent a telegram for his mother (inform) good news.
6. You (see) the film on television last night?
No, I (see) it twice.
7. Fossil fuels can be used (generate) electricity or drive big machinery
8. The package has (be) there tomorrow. It (be) there in time?
- Don’t worry. I am going to send it by express mail.
III. Give the correct form of the words in capital to complete the sentences. (1.0
point)
1. The price of the book is £10, including________________ and packing. (post)
2. Boys and girls may behave ______________ in this situation. (differ)
3. Don’t eat too much, otherwise you will be ______________ . (weight)
4. In Sweden, it is customary at a dinner party for the person sitting on the left of the
hostess to make a________________ (speak)
5. He has a bad cold. He feels very ________________ . (please)
6. Nobody likes him because of his __________________. (tidy)
7. There are many good programs on TV for ______________ . (teen)
8. He was not a particularly good teacher, but his students loved him because he had such
a lively________________ (person)
9. My wife is______________ of spiders. (terror)
10. He is quite an ______________ person. He plays a lot of sports. (energy)
IV. Fill each gap of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (1 point)
1. Nobody helped him. He managed it _____________ his own.
2 The passage is written _____________English
3. The children were surprised _____________ the lion show at the circus.
4. Let’s wait _____________it stops raining.
5. We're all very obliged _____you
6. While going on holiday, we took a lot of photos to show _____________our friends.
7. She didn’t get _____________well with her boss, so she left the company.
8. The school ran _____________ financial trouble when eighty percent of the staff went
on strike.
9. The historical places in my city are open and free _____________ everyone on special
holidays.
10. She was very conscious _____________ her lack of experience on her first day at
work.
V. Find and correct the mistake in each sentence below. (2 points)
1. Peter has told Mary to shut the door behind her but do not lock it.
2. After the meal, we played the games calling “What song is it?” and “Blindman’s
bluff”.
3. All Mike's friends fell sorry for him when he had to give up playing football.
4. I think my sister is accustomed to work eight hours a day. 5. I tried to do everything to
contact John two weeks ago but so far I don’t receive his reply.
6. The letter was sent by special delivery must be very important.
7. There were such many people at the party that there wasn’t enough food for all of them
8. Mai hardly never misses an opportunity to go out with her friends on the weekend.
9. Don’t expect to learn all words in a day because learning language is time-consumed
work.
10. I sometimes wonder about my old friend, where is she now and what she is doing.

SECTION 4: READING COMPREHENSION (4 POINTS) I. Choose the suitable

words to complete the following passage. (1.0 point) Desperate to go to school
Truancy has become a serious problem in many schools in recent years. In an attempt to
tackle this problem one school introduced a new scheme to (1) ________ students to
attend as many classes as possible. Pupils who (2) ________ a 100% attendance record
throughout the whole academic year were rewarded with an all inclusive weekend school
(3) ________ to an activity centre where they would be able to have a go at outdoor
activities such as climbing, abseiling and white water rafting.
One student was so (4) ________ to qualify for this free weekend away that he even
went to school with a broken wrist. He hurt his wrist when he fell (5) ________ his bike
on the way to school but he was so worried about (6) ________ his 100% attendance that
he didn’t (7) ________ his teachers or parents until the school day had finished. He (8)
________ admitted to his mother what had happened when she (9) ________ that he was
having difficulty eating his dinner and asked him what was wrong. She took him to
hospital that night, where they put his arm in plaster and he was able to go back to school
the 5 next day. Fortunately, he was fully (10) ________ from his accident in time to go
on the trip.
1. A. suggest В. force С. encourage D. make
2. A. succeeded В. made С. achieved D. realised
3. A. holiday В. trip С. travel D. excursion
4. A. interested В. happy С. excited D. keen
5. A. away В. down С. off D. over
6. A. filling В. maintaining С. guarding D. succeeding
7. A. tell В. say С. admit D. explain
8. A lastly В. actually С. fortunately D. eventually
9. A. knew В. aware С. looked D. noticed
10. A. recovered В. improved С. repaired D. fixed
II. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer for questions below.
(1.0 point). To date, Canada has produced only one classic children’s tale to rank with
Alice’s Adventures in wonderland and the works of Mark Twain; this was Lucy Maud
Montgomery’s Anne of Green Gables. Lucy Maud Montgomery was born in Clinton,
Prince Edward Island. Her mother died soon after her birth, and when her father went to
Saskatchewan to assume a business position, she moved in with her grandparents in
Cavendish, Prince Edward Island. There she went to school and later qualified to be a
teacher.
 Montgomery wrote the Anne books while living in Cavendish and helping her
grandmother at the post office. The first of the books, Anne of Green Gabbles, was
published in 1908, and in the next three years she wrote two sequels. Like Montgomery,
the heroine of the book is taken in by an elderly couple who lives in the fictional town of
Avonlea, and Montgomery incorporated many events from her life in Cavendish into the
Anne books.
In 1911, Montgomery married Evan Macdonald and the couple soon moved to
Ontario, where she wrote many other books. However, it was her first efforts that secured
her prominence, and the Anne books are still read all around the world. Her novels have
helped create a warm picture of Prince Edward Island’s special character. Several
movies, a television series, and a musical play have been based on her tales, and today
visitors scour the Island for locations described in the book. 1. The main purpose of this
passage is to ________.
A. show the similarities between Montgomery’s life and that of her fictional character
Anne.
B. contrast Canadian children’s literature with that of other countries.
C. provide a brief introduction to Prince Edward Island.
D. introduce Montgomery and her Anne books.
2. According to the passage, Montgomery was raised primarily ________.
A. by her grandparents B. in an orphanage C. by her mother D. by her father
3. Approximately when did Lucy Maud Montgomery write the two sequels to her book
Anne of Green Gables?
A. From 1874 to 1908 B. From 1911 to 1913
C. From 1908 to 1911 D. From 1913 to 1918
4. The word “elderly” in line 8 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. kindly B. old C. friendly D. sly
5. In the Anne books, the main character lives in ________.
A. the town of Cavendish B. the town of Avonlea
C. Saskatchewan D. Ontario
6. Which of the following can be concluded from the passage about Anne books?
A. They were not as successful as Montgomery’s later works
B. They were influenced by the works of Mark Twain
C. They were at least partially autobiographical
D. They were not popular until after Montgomery had died
7. Ontario was the place where
A. Montgomery wrote other books B. Montgomery got married
C. Montgomery wrote two sequels D. Montgomery became famous
8. The word “prominence” in line 11 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. excellence B. reputation C. effort D. permanence
9. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “character” in line 12?
A. a person in a novel B. nature C. a written symbol D. location
10. All of the following have been based on the Anne books EXCEPT ________.
 A. a television series B. movies C. a play D. a ballet
III. Fill in each of the blanks with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. (2.0
points)
If you live in a city, you probably see many people, hear the
(1)__________________of traffic, and smell the pollution (2)__________________cars
and factories.
We are entering a new time in (3)_________________ history of the world. Before
this, most (4)__________________were farmers. They lived in the country. Now many
people are (5)__________________ the farms and moving into the cities. They are
looking for better jobs. The cities are growing very quickly. Most cities are very crowded.
People are driving more cars, burning more fuel, (6)___________________more water,
eating more food, making more garbage, and producing more things in factories than
(7)_________________ before. Life is becoming difficult.
Some governments are trying to plan for the future. They are building new roads,
putting (8) _________________new houses, looking for more water, and limiting growth
in certain areas. Still, city planners are getting worried. People are crowding into the
cities (9) ______________ than cities can take them. The cities are running out (10)
____________________rooms. What is the answer to this problem?

SECTION 5: WRITING (5 POINTS)

I. Rewrite the sentences with the beginning in such a way that it means the same as
the first one. (2.0 points) 1. Can’t you do better than that?
 Is that _____________________________________________________________?
2. You shouldn’t eat too much meat.
 You’d _____________________________________________________________.

3. Mr. Quang speaks Chinese fluently.

 Mr. Quang is ________________________________________________________.
4. John and Mike got up late this morning.
 Neither __________________________________________________________.
5. I’d prefer you not to bring Andrew with you.
 I’d rather ___________________________________________________.
6. Tim’s mother works 5 days a week. His father works six days a week.
Tim’s mother works____________________________________________________.
7. How wide is the West Lake?
 What _______________________________________________________________?
8. People in this area often take a bus to work.
 People in this area get used ______________________________________________.
9. Mr. Thanh couldn’t enjoy the meal because of the stomachache.
 The stomachache prevented______________________________________________.
10. John has not had his house decorated for over three years.
 The last
______________________________________________________________.
II. Make all the changes and additions necessary to. (1 point) 1. Mr.Jones/ rather/
watch TV/ home/ go/ the cinema/ .
………………………………………………………………………………….
2. I/ have difficulty/ make/ friends/ foreign people/ .
………………………………………………………………………………….
3. Christmas/,/ neighbourhoods/ beautiful/ many/ bright Christmas lights/.
……………………………….....……………………………………………….
4. I/ buy/ lot/ gifts/ my friends/ when/ pay/ visit/ Trang An/ last Sunday/ .
……………………………………………………………………………………
5. Miss Thanh/ take/ five- hour flight/ Japan/ back/ home/ next weekend/.
………………………………………………………………………………….
III. Nowadays, young children especially teenagers spend a lot of time using smart
phones. You should write a paragraph between 120 and 150 words to express your
ideas about it. (2 points)

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UBND THÀNH PHỐ BẮC NINH HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI CHỌN HSG CẤP THÀNH PHỐ
NĂM HỌC 2023-2024
(HDC gồm 02 trang) Môn thi: Tiếng Anh 6, ngày thi: 10/4/2024

SECTION 1: LISTENING. (2.0 POINTS)

I. Questions 1-5. For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered
space. (1.0 point)
1. tiger 2. change 3. two thousand/2000 4. library 5. website
II. Questions 6-10. Choose the best word (A, B or C) for each space (1.0 point)
1.B 2.B 3.C 4.A 5.B

SECTION 2: PHONETICS (2.0 POINTS)

I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest by
circling the corresponding letter A, B, C or D (1 point)
1.D 2.B 3.A 4.C 5.C
II. Choose the word with different stress pattern by choosing the letter A, B, C or D. (1
point)
1.D 2.C 3.B 4.D 5.B
SECTION 3: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (7.0 POINTS)
I. Choose the best answer to complete each sentence, identify your answer by circling the
corresponding letter A, B, C or D. (2.0 points)
1. C 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. A
6. C 7. C 8. A 9. D 10. D
11. C 12. A 13. D 14. B 15. C
16. D 17. A 18. D 19. C 20. A
II. Supply the correct tense or form of the verbs in brackets. (1.0 point)
1. enjoys 2. will be 3. is always staying 4. returns 5. to inform
6. Did you see / have seen 7. to generate 8. to be/ Will it be
III. Give the correct form of the words in capital to complete the sentences. (1.0 point)
1. postage 2. differently 3. overweight 4. speech 5. unpleasant
6. untidiness 7. teenagers 8. personality 9. terrified 10. energetic
IV. Fill each gap of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (1 point)
1. on 2. in 3. at 4. until 5. to
6. to 7. on 8. into 9. to 10. of
V. Find and correct the mistake in each sentence below. (2 points)
1. do not → not to 6. was sent → sent
2. calling → called 7. such → so
3. fell → felt 8. hardly never → hardly ever
4. work → working 9. time-consumed → time-consuming
5. don’t receive → haven’t received 10. is she → she is

SECTION 4: READING COMPREHENSION (4.0 POINTS)

I. Choose the suitable words to complete the following passage. (1 point)
1. C 2. C 3. B 4. D 5. C
6. B 7. A 8. D 9. D 10. A
II. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer for questions below. (1.0 point)
1. D 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. B
6. C 7. A 8. B 9. B 10. D
III. Fill in each of the blanks with ONE suitable word to complete the passage. (2.0 points)
1. noise 3. the 5. leaving 7. ever 9. more
2. from 4. people 6. using 8. up 10. of

SECTION 5: WRITING (5.0 POINTS)

I. Rewrite the sentences with the beginning in such a way that it means the same as the first
one. (2.0 points)
1. Is that the best (that) you can do?
2. You’d better not eat too much meat.
3. Mr. Quang is a fluent Chinese speaker/ Mr. Quang is fluent in speaking Chinese.
4. Neither John nor Mike got up early this morning.
5. I’d rather you didn’t bring Andrew with you.
6. Tim’s mother works fewer days a week than his father (does).
7. What is the width of the West Lake?/ What is the West Lake’s width?
8. People in this area get used to taking a bus to work.
9. The stomachache prevented Mr. Thanh from enjoying the meal.
10. The last time John had his house decorated was over three years ago.
II. Make all the changes and additions necessary to. (1 point)
1. Mr.Jones would rather watch TV at home than go to the cinema .
2. I have difficulty/ difficulties (in) making friends with foreign people.
3. At Christmas, neighbourhoods are beautiful with many bright Christmas lights.
4. I bought a lot of/ lots of gifts for my friends when I paid a visit to Trang An last Sunday.
5. Miss Thanh will take a five- hour flight from Japan back home next weekend.
III. Nowadays, young children especially teenagers spend a lot of time using smart phones.
You should write a paragraph between 120 and 150 words to express your ideas about it.
(2 points)
- Organization: (Bố cục đoạn văn rõ ràng, đầy đủ 3 phần: mở đoạn, thân đoạn, kết đoạn) (0, 25 pts)
- Discourse: (Thể hiện khả năng viết mạch lạc, chặt chẽ; nối kết câu, chuyển mạch tốt) (0, 5 pts)
- Sentence structure (morphology, vocabulary and spelling): Cấu trúc câu, ngữ pháp, từ vựng; câu linh
hoạt (đơn, phức.) (0, 5 pts)
- Ideas: (Ý hay, phong phú, biểu đạt nội dung liên quan chặt chẽ với chủ đề của đề thi) (0, 5 pts)
- Length: (Đảm bảo đủ số lượng từ qui định, không quá dài hoặc quá ngắn. (0, 25 pts)

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