Cisco

200-301 Exam
CCNA

Questions & Answers

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Version: 58.0

Topic 1, Exam Pool A

Question: 1

Which command entered on a switch configured with Rapid PVST* listens and learns for a specific
time period?

A. switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 max-age 6

B. switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 hello-time 10
C. switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096
D. switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 forward-time 20

Answer: D
Explanation:

Forward time : Determines how long each of the listening and learning states last before the port
begins forwarding.
Switch(config)# [ no ] spanning-tree vlan vlan_ID forward-time forward_time
Configures the forward time of a VLAN. The forward_time value can be from 4 to 30 seconds.
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/12-2/15-
02SG/configuration/guide/config/spantree.html#56177

Question: 2

Refer to Exhibit.

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Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are configured R2 must be the DR. After the engineer
connected the devices, R1 was elected as the DR. Which command sequence must be configure on
R2 to Be elected as the DR in the network?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Answer: B
Explanation:

Question: 3
Refer to Exhibit.

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Refer to the exhibit Routers R1 and R2 have been configured with their respective LAN interfaces The
two circuits are operational and reachable across WAN Which command set establishes failover
redundancy if the primary circuit goes down?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Answer: B
Explanation:

Question: 4
Refer to Exhibit.

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Refer to the exhibit Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable to ping router R3 Fa0'1. Which action must be taken in
router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?

A. set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24

B. set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2
C. configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network
D. configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

Answer: D
Explanation:

Question: 5

What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

A. Central AP management requires more complex configurations

B. Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method
C. It supports autonomous and lightweight APs
D. It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually

Answer: D
Explanation:

Question: 6

Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?

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A. 1729.0.0/16
B. 172.28.0.0/16
C. 192.0.0.0/8
D. 209.165.201.0/24

Answer: B
Explanation:

The private ranges of each class of IPv4 are listed below:

Class A private IP address ranges from 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255 Class B private IP address ranges
from 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255 Class C private IP address ranges from 192.168.0.0 to
192.168.255.255 Only the network 172.28.0.0/16 belongs to the private IP address (of class B).

Question: 7

When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two
formats are available to select? (Choose two)

A. ASCII
B. base64
C. binary
D. decimal
E. hexadecimal

Answer: A, E
Explanation:

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/7-
4/configuration/guides/consolidated/b_cg74_CONSOLIDATED/b_cg74_CONSOLIDATED_chapter_010
10001.html

Question: 8

DRAG DROP
Drag drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on
the right.

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Answer:
Explanation:

The focus of Ansible is to be streamlined and fast, and to require no node agent installation.
Thus, Ansible performs all functions over SSH. Ansible is built on Python, in contrast to the Ruby

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foundation of Puppet and Chef.

TCP port 10002 is the command port. It may be configured in the Chef Push Jobs configuration file .
This port allows Chef Push Jobs clients to communicate with the Chef Push Jobs server.
Puppet is an open-source configuration management solution, which is built with Ruby and offers
custom Domain Specific Language (DSL) and Embedded Ruby (ERB) templates to create custom
Puppet language files, offering a declarative-paradigm programming approach.
A Puppet piece of code is called a manifest, and is a file with .pp extension.

Question: 9
An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the
organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?

A. platform-as-a-service
B. software-as-a-service
C. network-as-a-service
D. infrastructure-as-a-service

Answer: B
Explanation:

Below are the 3 cloud supporting services cloud providers provide to customer:
+ SaaS (Software as a Service): SaaS uses the web to deliver applications that are managed by a
thirdparty vendor and whose interface is accessed on the clients’ side. Most SaaS applications can be
run directly from a web browser without any downloads or installations required, although some
require plugins.
+ PaaS (Platform as a Service): are used for applications, and other development, while providing
cloud components to software. What developers gain with PaaS is a framework they can build upon
to develop or customize applications. PaaS makes the development, testing, and deployment of
applications quick, simple, and cost-effective. With this technology, enterprise operations, or a
thirdparty provider, can manage OSes, virtualization, servers, storage, networking, and the PaaS
software itself. Developers, however, manage the applications.
+ IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service): self-service models for accessing, monitoring, and managing
remote datacenter infrastructures, such as compute (virtualized or bare metal), storage, networking,
and networking services (e.g. firewalls). Instead of having to purchase hardware outright, users can
purchase IaaS based on consumption, similar to electricity or other utility billing.
In general, IaaS provides hardware so that an organization can install their own operating system.

Question: 10

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on
the right.

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Answer:
Explanation:

Question: 11
Refer to exhibit.

Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?

A. It is a broadcast IP address
B. The router does not support /28 mask.
C. It belongs to a private IP address range.
D. IT is a network IP address.

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Answer: A
Explanation:

Question: 12

Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the
same destination exist from two different routing protocols.

A. dual algorithm
B. metric
C. administrative distance
D. hop count

Answer: C
Explanation:

Administrative distance is the feature used by routers to select the best path when there are two or
more different routes to the same destination from different routing protocols. Administrative
distance defines the reliability of a routing protocol.

Question: 13

Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router
or switch?

A. enable secret
B. service password-encryption
C. username Cisco password encrypt
D. enable password

Answer: B
Explanation:

Question: 14

A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are
incremented? (Choose two)

A. runts
B. giants
C. frame
D. CRC
E. input errors

Answer: DE
Explanation:

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Whenever the physical transmission has problems, the receiving device might receive a frame whose
bits have changed values. These frames do not pass the error detection logic as implemented in the
FCS field in the Ethernet trailer. The receiving device discards the frame and counts it as some kind of
input error.
Cisco switches list this error as a CRC error. Cyclic redundancy check (CRC) is a term related to how
the FCS math detects an error.
The “input errors” includes runts, giants, no buffer, CRC, frame, overrun, and ignored counts.
The output below show the interface counters with the “show interface s0/0/0” command:

Question: 15

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Answer:
Explanation:

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Question: 16
Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?

A. ip address dhcp
B. ip helper-address
C. ip dhcp pool
D. ip dhcp client

Answer: A
Explanation:

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipaddr_dhcp/configuration/12-
4/dhcp-12-4-book/config-dhcp-client.html
If we want to get an IP address from the DHCP server on a Cisco device, we can use the command “ip
address dhcp”.

Note: The command “ip helper-address” enables a router to become a DHCP Relay Agent.

Question: 17

Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)

A. YAML
B. JSON
C. EBCDIC
D. SGML
E. XML

Answer: BE
Explanation:

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https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/2-
x/rest_cfg/2_1_x/b_Cisco_APIC_REST_API_Configuration_Guide/b_Cisco_APIC_REST_API_Configura
tion_Guide_chapter_01.html
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus1000/sw/5_x/rest_api_config/b
_Cisco_N1KV_VMware_REST_API_Config_5x/b_Cisco_N1KV_VMware_REST_API_Config_5x_chapter
_010.pdf

The Application Policy Infrastructure Controller (APIC) REST API is a programmatic interface that uses
REST architecture. The API accepts and returns HTTP (not enabled by default) or HTTPS messages
that contain JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) or Extensible Markup Language (XML) documents.

Question: 18

Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic
Desirable

What is the result of this configuration?

A. The link is in a down state.

B. The link is in an error disables state
C. The link is becomes an access port.
D. The link becomes a trunk port.

Answer: D
Explanation:

Question: 19

When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two)

A. 2000::/3
B. 2002::5
C. FC00::/7
D. FF02::1
E. FF02::2

Answer: DE
Explanation:

Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipv6/configuration/xe-3s/ipv6-xe-36s-
book/ip6-multicast.html

When an interface is configured with IPv6 address, it automatically joins the all nodes (FF02::1) and
solicited-node (FF02::1:FFxx:xxxx) multicast groups. The all-node group is used to communicate with
all interfaces on the local link, and the solicited-nodes multicast group is required for link-layer

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address resolution. Routers also join a third multicast group, the all-routers group (FF02::2).

Question: 20

Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?

A. 0000.5E00.010a
B. 0005.3711.0975
C. 0000.0C07.AC99
D. 0007.C070/AB01

Answer: A
Explanation:

With VRRP, the virtual router’s MAC address is 0000.5E00.01xx , in which xx is the VRRP group.

Question: 21

in Which way does a spine and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional
access ports are required?

A. A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them
B. A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks
C. A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch.
D. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch

Answer: D
Explanation:

Spine-leaf architecture is typically deployed as two layers: spines (such as an aggregation layer), and
leaves (such as an access layer). Spine-leaf topologies provide high-bandwidth, low-latency,
nonblocking server-to-server connectivity.

Leaf (aggregation) switches are what provide devices access to the fabric (the network of spine and
leaf switches) and are typically deployed at the top of the rack. Generally, devices connect to the leaf
switches.

Devices can include servers, Layer 4-7 services (firewalls and load balancers), and WAN or Internet
routers. Leaf switches do not connect to other leaf switches. In spine-and-leaf architecture, every
leaf should connect to every spine in a full mesh.

Spine (aggregation) switches are used to connect to all leaf switches and are typically deployed at the
end or middle of the row. Spine switches do not connect to other spine switches.

Question: 22

Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in preshared key mode?

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A. TKIP with RC4

B. RC4
C. AES-128
D. AES-256

Answer: D
Explanation:

We can see in this picture we have to type 64 hexadecimal characters (256 bit) for the WPA2
passphrase so we can deduce the encryption is AES-256, not AES-128.

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-lan-wlan/67134-wpa2-
config.html

Question: 23

Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose
two)

A. It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets

B. It can identify different flows with a high level of granularity
C. It guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets
D. It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up
E. it supports protocol discovery

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Answer: AD
Explanation:

Weighted Random Early Detection (WRED) is just a congestion avoidance mechanism. WRED drops
packets selectively based on IP precedence. Edge routers assign IP precedences to packets as they
enter the network. When a packet arrives, the following events occur:
1. The average queue size is calculated.
2. If the average is less than the minimum queue threshold, the arriving packet is queued.
3. If the average is between the minimum queue threshold for that type of traffic and the maximum
threshold for the interface, the packet is either dropped or queued, depending on the packet drop
probability for that type of traffic.
4. If the average queue size is greater than the maximum threshold, the packet is dropped. WRED
reduces the chances of tail drop (when the queue is full, the packet is dropped) by selectively
dropping packets when the output interface begins to show signs of congestion (thus it can mitigate
congestion by preventing the queue from filling up). By dropping some packets early rather than
waiting until the queue is full, WRED avoids dropping large numbers of packets at once and
minimizes the chances of global synchronization. Thus, WRED allows the transmission line to be used
fully at all times.
WRED generally drops packets selectively based on IP precedence. Packets with a higher IP
precedence are less likely to be dropped than packets with a lower precedence. Thus, the higher the
priority of a packet, the higher the probability that the packet will be delivered

Question: 24

When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when
the primary route fails?

A. The floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route so it is
used as a backup
B. The administrative distance must be higher on the primary route so that the backup route
becomes secondary.
C. The floating static route must have a lower administrative distance than the primary route so it is
used as a backup
D. The default-information originate command must be configured for the route to be installed into
the routing table

Answer: A
Explanation:

Question: 25

Refer to the exhibit.

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Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?

A. adminadmin123
B. default
C. testing 1234
D. cisco123

Answer: C
Explanation:

If neither the enable password command nor the enable secret command is configured, and if there
is a line password configured for the console, the console line password serves as the enable
password for all VTY sessions -> The “enable secret” will be used first if available, then “enable
password” and line password.

Question: 26

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?

A. TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets.

B. UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK and ACK
bits
C. UDP provides reliable message transfer and TCP is a connectionless protocol
D. TCP uses the three-way handshake and UDP does not guarantee message delivery

Answer: D
Explanation:

Question: 27

Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?

A. autonomous
B. lightweight
C. bridge
D. mobility express

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Answer: B
Explanation:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/aironet-1200-series/70278-lap-faq.html
A Lightweight Access Point (LAP) is an AP that is designed to be connected to a wireless LAN (WLAN)
controller (WLC). APs are “lightweight,” which means that they cannot act independently of a
wireless LAN controller (WLC). The WLC manages the AP configurations and firmware. The APs are
“zero touch” deployed, and individual configuration of APs is not necessary.

Question: 28

Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?

A. Bronze
B. Platinum
C. Silver
D. Gold

Answer: B
Explanation:

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-lan-
wlan/81831-qos-wlc-lap.html
Cisco Unified Wireless Network solution WLANs support four levels of QoS: Platinum/Voice,
Gold/Video, Silver/Best Effort (default), and Bronze/Background.

Question: 29

If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?

A. A network device has restarted

B. An ARP inspection has failed
C. A routing instance has flapped
D. A debug operation is running

Answer: C
Explanation:

Usually no action is required when a route flaps so it generates the notification syslog level message
(level 5).

Question: 30

What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two )

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A. OpenFlow
B. NETCONF
C. Thrift
D. CORBA
E. DSC

Answer: AB
Explanation:

OpenFlow is a well-known southbound API. OpenFlow defines the way the SDN Controller should
interact with the forwarding plane to make adjustments to the network, so it can better adapt to
changing business requirements.
The Network Configuration Protocol (NetConf) uses Extensible Markup Language (XML) to install,
manipulate and delete configuration to network devices.

Question: 31

An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company's security
organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained
malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?

A. Physical access control

B. Social engineering attack
C. brute force attack
D. user awareness

Answer: D
Explanation:

This is a training program which simulates an attack, not a real attack (as it says “The webpage that
opens reports that it was safe”) so we believed it should be called a “user awareness” program.
Therefore the best answer here should be “user awareness”. This is the definition of
“User awareness” from CCNA 200- 301 Offical Cert Guide Book:
“User awareness: All users should be made aware of the need for data confidentiality to protect
corporate information, as well as their own credentials and personal information. They should also
be made aware of potential threats, schemes to mislead, and proper procedures to report security
incidents. ” Note: Physical access control means infrastructure locations, such as network closets and
data centers, should remain securely locked.

Question: 32

An engineer must configure a/30 subnet between two routers. Which usable IP address and subnet
mask combination meets this criteria?

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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Answer: A
Explanation:

Question: 33

What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC
address is received?

A. The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame

B. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN.
C. The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning.
D. The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address
table

Answer: B
Explanation:

If the destination MAC address is not in the CAM table (unknown destination MAC address), the
switch sends the frame out all other ports that are in the same VLAN as the received frame. This is
called flooding. It does not flood the frame out the same port on which the frame was received.

Question: 34

Refer to the exhibit.

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An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct.

Which IP address is the source IP?

A. 10.4.4.4
B. 10.4.4.5
C. 172.23.103.10
D. 172.23.104.4

Answer: D
Explanation:

NAT is used to send a packet to the outside network, using a public IP address to make it routable.
The NAT logic is "inside-to-outside" FIRST and "outside-to-inside" THEN. This way, configuring NAT
means "choosing a public IP address" for any outbound packet" IN THE FIRST PLACE, where "public IP
address" translates to "inside global address". Among the given answers, the only inside global
address is 172.123.104.4.

Question: 35

Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from
specific networks?

A. CPU ACL
B. TACACS
C. Flex ACL
D. RADIUS

Answer: A
Explanation:

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wlan-security/71978-
acl-wlc.html

Question: 36

Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC
address of an interface?

A. ipv6 address dhcp

B. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64
C. ipv6 address autoconfig

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D. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local

Answer: C
Explanation:

The “ipv6 address autoconfig” command causes the device to perform IPv6 stateless address
autoconfiguration to discover prefixes on the link and then to add the EUI-64 based addresses to the
interface.
Addresses are configured depending on the prefixes received in Router Advertisement (RA)
messages.
The device will listen for RA messages which are transmitted periodically from the router (DHCP
Server).
This RA message allows a host to create a global IPv6 address from:
+ Its interface identifier (EUI-64 address)
+ Link Prefix (obtained via RA)
Note: Global address is the combination of Link Prefix and EUI-64 address

Question: 37

An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are configured in the default VLAN on a switch.

Which two steps will fulfill the request? (Choose two)

A. Configure the ports in an EtherChannel.

B. Administratively shut down the ports
C. Configure the port type as access and place in VLAN 99
D. Configure the ports as trunk ports
E. Enable the Cisco Discovery Protocol

Answer: BC
Explanation:

Question: 38

Which output displays a JSON data representation?

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A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Answer: C
Explanation:

JSON data is written as name/value pairs.

A name/value pair consists of a field name (in double quotes), followed by a colon, followed by a

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value:
“name”:”Mark”
JSON can use arrays. Array values must be of type string, number, object, array, boolean or null.
For example:
{
“name”:”John”,
“age”:30,
“cars”:[ “Ford”, “BMW”, “Fiat” ]
}
JSON can have empty object like “taskId”:{}

Question: 39

Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?

A. lldp timer
B. lldp holdtimt
C. lldp reinit
D. lldp tlv-select

Answer: C
Explanation:

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2960/software/release/12-
2_37_ey/configuration/guide/scg/swlldp.pdf
+ lldp holdtime seconds: Specify the amount of time a receiving device should hold the information
from your device before discarding it
+ lldp reinit delay: Specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on an interface
+ lldp timer rate: Set the sending frequency of LLDP updates in seconds

Question: 40

A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer
environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB?

A. CDP
B. SNMP
C. SMTP
D. ARP

Answer: B
Explanation:

SNMP is an application-layer protocol that provides a message format for communication between
SNMP managers and agents. SNMP provides a standardized framework and a common language
used for the monitoring and management of devices in a network.
The SNMP framework has three parts:

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+ An SNMP manager
+ An SNMP agent
+ A Management Information Base (MIB)
The Management Information Base (MIB) is a virtual information storage area for network
management information, which consists of collections of managed objects.
With SNMP, the network administrator can send commands to multiple routers to do the backup

Question: 41

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they
mitigate on the right.

Answer:
Explanation:

Double-Tagging attack:

In this
attack, the attacking computer generates frames with two 802.1Q tags. The first tag matches the
native VLAN of the trunk port (VLAN 10 in this case), and the second matches the VLAN of a host it

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wants to attack (VLAN 20).

When the packet from the attacker reaches Switch A, Switch A only sees the first VLAN 10 and it
matches with its native VLAN 10 so this VLAN tag is removed. Switch A forwards the frame out all
links with the same native VLAN 10. Switch B receives the frame with an tag of VLAN 20 so it
removes this tag and forwards out to the Victim computer.
Note: This attack only works if the trunk (between two switches) has the same native VLAN as the
attacker.
To mitigate this type of attack, you can use VLAN access control lists (VACLs, which applies to all
traffic within a VLAN. We can use VACL to drop attacker traffic to specific victims/servers) or
implement Private VLANs.
ARP attack (like ARP poisoning/spoofing) is a type of attack in which a malicious actor sends falsified
ARP messages over a local area network as ARP allows a gratuitous reply from a host even if an ARP
request was not received. This results in the linking of an attacker’s MAC address with the IP address
of a legitimate computer or server on the network. This is an attack based on ARP which is at Layer 2.
Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) is a security feature that validates ARP packets in a network which can
be used to mitigate this type of attack.

Question: 42
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.

Answer:
Explanation:

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Question: 43
DRAG DROP

A network engineer is configuring an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacency Drag and drop the parameters from
the left onto their required categories on the right. Not all parameters are used

Answer:
Explanation:

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Question: 44
Refer to the exhibit.

An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2 The configuration failed to work as
intended Which two
changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20 0 26 from the 10.0.10 0/26 subnet
while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose
two )

A. Add a "permit ip any any" statement to the begining of ACL 101 for allowed traffic.
B. Add a "permit ip any any" statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic

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C. The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101

D. The ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface inbound on R1
E. The ACL must be moved to the Gi0/1 interface outbound on R2

Answer: BC
Explanation:

Question: 45

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?

A. floating static route

B. host route
C. default route
D. network route

Answer: D
Explanation:

From the output, we see R1 will use the entry “O 10.10.13.0/25 [110/4576] via 10.10.10.1, …” to
reach host 10.10.13.10. This is a network route.
Note: “B* 0.0.0.0/0 …” is a default route.

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Question: 46

Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a
negotiation protocol?

A. on
B. auto
C. active
D. desirable

Answer: A
Explanation:

The Static Persistence (or “on” mode) bundles the links unconditionally and no negotiation protocol
is used. In this mode, neither PAgP nor LACP packets are sent or received.

Question: 47

Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?

A. 2000::/3
B. FC00::/7
C. FE80::/10
D. FF00::/8

Answer: D
Explanation:

FF00::/8 is used for IPv6 multicast and this is the IPv6 type of address the question wants to ask.
FE80::/10 range is used for link-local addresses. Link-local addresses only used for communications
within the local subnetwork (automatic address configuration, neighbor discovery, router discovery,
and by many routing protocols). It is only valid on the current subnet.
It is usually created dynamically using a link-local prefix of FE80::/10 and a 64-bit interface identifier
(based on 48-bit MAC address).

Question: 48

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the functions from the left onto the correct network components on the right

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Answer:
Explanation:

Question: 49
Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional
campus device management? (Choose two)

A. adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software

B. SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment
C. customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises
D. REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center
E. modular design that is upgradable as needed

Answer: BD
Explanation:

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Cisco DNA Center offers 360-degree extensibility through four distinct types of platform capabilities:
+ Intent-based APIs leverage the controller and enable business and IT applications to deliver intent
to the network and to reap network analytics and insights for IT and business innovation.
+ Process adapters, built on integration APIs, allow integration with other IT and network systems to
streamline IT operations and processes.
+ Domain adapters, built on integration APIs, allow integration with other infrastructure domains
such as data center, WAN, and security to deliver a consistent intent-based infrastructure across the
entire IT environment.
+ SDKs allow management to be extended to third-party vendor’s network devices to offer support
for diverse environments.

Question: 50

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the AAA functions from the left onto the correct AAA services on the right

Answer:
Explanation:

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