Meena International Training Assessment – 11

Training and Certification Division Issue Date 13-07-2021

ULTRASONIC TESTING – Level 2 Page No. 1 of 9

Student Name: Date:

Note: You may need to read a head in the notes to answer some of these questions.

Zone-A

Zone-B

Figure 1
1. Zone A in figure 1, is referred to as
a. Near zone
b. Close zone
c. Dead zone
d. Far zone

2. Zone B in figure 1, is referred to as

a. Beam zone
b. long zone
c. Distant zone
d. Far zone

3. Which of the following would be classified as an immersion type test?

a. A tank in which the search unit and test piece are immersed
b. A squirter-bubbler method in which the sound is transmitted in a column of flowing water
c. Scanning with a wheel type search unit with the transducer inside a liquid filled tyre
d. all of the above

4. The angle at which 90 refraction of the particle mode is reached is called:

a. The normal angle of incidence
b. The critical angle
c. The angle of maximum reflection
d. None of the above

5. The expansion and contraction of a magnetic material under the influence of a changing
magnetic field is referred to as:
a. Piezoelectricity
b. Refraction
c. Magnetostriction
d. Rarefaction
 Meena International Training Assessment – 11
Training and Certification Division Issue Date 13-07-2021
ULTRASONIC TESTING – Level 2 Page No. 2 of 9

6. Which of the following can occur when an ultrasonic beam reaches the interface of two
dissimilar materials?
a. Reflection
b. Refraction
c. Mode of conversion
d. All of the above
7. Which of the following search units would contain the thinnest crystal?
a. 5MHz
b. 2MHz
c. 10MHz
d. 25MHz

8. If a probe has an angle of 60 degrees when inspecting steel, what affect would changing the
material being inspected have upon the angle?
a. None, probe angle is independent of material
b. It would depend on the couplant used
c. It would depend on the frequency of the probe
d. The probe angle would be changed

9. For shear waves the motion of the particles relative to the direction of propagation is:
a. Parallel
b. At 90 degrees
c. Elliptical
d. Oblique

10. In through transmission testing the search units configuration is

a. 2 separate units on opposite sides of the material under inspection
b. 2 separate units on the same side of the material
c. One search unit transmitting and receiving
d. 2 units in the same probe.

11. Which of the following is not a part of an ultrasonic search unit?

a. Pulse generator
b. Time base
c. search coil
d. Attenuator

12. When a signal is reduced to 25% of its maximum, it is said to have been reduced by:
a. 20 dB
b. 12 dB
c. 6 dB
d. 2 dB
 Meena International Training Assessment – 11
Training and Certification Division Issue Date 13-07-2021
ULTRASONIC TESTING – Level 2 Page No. 3 of 9

13. A compression wave in Perspex is incident upon a Perspex / steel interface at an angle of 40
degrees the angle of the refracted shear wave will be:
a. 60 degrees
b. 55 degrees
c. 45 degrees
d. 50 degrees

Assume Compression wave velocity in Perspex = 2680 m/sec

Shear velocity in steel = 3230 m/sec

14. Frequency is equal to

a. Velocity x Wavelength
b. Velocity / Wavelength
c. Wavelength / Velocity
d. None of the above

15. For a 6MHz compression wave (velocity 5900m/sec) in the wavelength is

a. 1.10
b. 1.01
c. 0.98
d. 2.3
16. The primary purpose of reference blocks is:
a. To aid the operator in obtaining maximum back reflection
b. To obtain the greatest sensitivity possible from an instrument
c. To obtain a common reproducible reference standard
d. None of the above

17. Attenuation of a sound wave as it travels through a material is due to

a. Absorption
b. Scatter
c. Beam spread
d. a and b

18. A piezo electric crystal in an ultrasonic probe

a. Converts electrical energy to ultrasound
b. Converts ultrasound to electrical energy
c. Both a and b
d. Enables probe frequency to be varied

19. The acoustic impedance of a material is:

a. Directly proportional to density and inversely proportional to density.
b. Directly proportional to velocity and inversely proportional to density
c. Inversely proportional to density and velocity
d. Equal to the product of density and velocity
 Meena International Training Assessment – 11
Training and Certification Division Issue Date 13-07-2021
ULTRASONIC TESTING – Level 2 Page No. 4 of 9

20. Wavelength is defined as:

a. The distance a wave travels to the back surface of the specimen
b. The distance a wave from advanced while a particle makes on complete vibration or
orbit
c. The number of cycles produced per second
d. The time required for a wave to reach a certain point in the specimen

21. In ultrasonic testing, the duration of the transmitted pulse is referred to as

a. The pulse length or pulse width
b. The pulse amplitude
c. The pulse shape
d. None of the above

22. The types of waves used in ultrasonic testing are characterized by:
a. The amplitude of the waveform
b. The velocity of the waveform
c. The direction of the molecules of the material with respect to the direction of propagation
d. The pressure difference per unit path length.

23. In a liquid, the only mode of vibration that can exist is:
a. Longitudinal
b. Shear
c. Both (a) and (b) above
d. Surface wave

24. As frequency increases in ultrasonic testing, the angle of beam divergence of a given diameter
crystal:
a. decreases
b. remains unchanged
c. increases
d. Varies uniformly through each wavelength.

25. All other factors being equal which of the following modes of vibration has the lowest velocity
a. Shear wave
b. Transverse
c. Longitudinal wave
d. Surface wave

26. Which of the following would produce the best penetration of a 12 inch thick specimen of coarse
grained steel?
a. 2MHz
b. 5MHz
c. 3MHz
d. 1MHz
 Meena International Training Assessment – 11
Training and Certification Division Issue Date 13-07-2021
ULTRASONIC TESTING – Level 2 Page No. 5 of 9

27. A large difference in the acoustic impedance of 2 materials at an interface will lead to
a. More sound being reflected than transmitted
b. High energy losses due to attenuation
c. Less sound being reflected than transmitted
d. Refraction of the shear wave mode at 90 degrees
28. The purpose of a couplant is to:
a. Filter undesirable reflections from the specimen
b. Tune transducer to the correct operating frequency
c. Reduce attenuation within the specimen
d. Transmit ultrasonic waves from the transducer to the specimen
29. A couplant can be:
a. Water
b. oil
c. plastic material
d. All of these
30. The acoustic impedance of a material is used to:
a. Determine the angle of refraction at an interface
b. Determine the attenuation within a material
c. Determine the relative amounts of sound energy coupled through and reflected at an
interface
d. Determine the beam spread within a material
31. The angle of reflection of an ultrasonic beam is:
a. Equal to the angle of incidence
b. Approximately four times the angle of incidence
c. Approximately half the angle of incidence
d. Equal to the angle of refraction
32. The amount of beam divergence from a probe is primarily dependent on:
a. Type of test
b. Tightness of crystal backing in the search unit
c. Frequency and crystal size
d. pulse length
33. In angle beam contact testing, increasing the incident angle until the second critical angle is
reached results in:
a. Total reflection of the surface wave
b. 45 degree refraction of the shear wave
c. Production of a surface wave
d. None of the above

34. Which law can be used to calculate the angle of refraction within a metal for both longitudinal
and shear waves?
a. Poisson’s law
b. Snell’s law
c. Fresnel’s field law
d. Charles’s law
 Meena International Training Assessment – 11
Training and Certification Division Issue Date 13-07-2021
ULTRASONIC TESTING – Level 2 Page No. 6 of 9

35. In which zone does the amplitude of an indication form a given discontinuity diminish
exponentially as the distance increase?
a. Far field zone
b. Near field zone
c. Dead zone
d. Fresnel zone
36. The ratio of the velocity of sound in water compared to that for aluminium or steel is
approximately:
a. 1:4
b. 1:2
c. 1:8
d. 1:3
37. The smallest detectable defect in steel using a 5MHz compression probe is:
a. 1.18mm
b. 0.59mm
c. 0.84mm
d. 0.42mm
38. The near field in steel for a 2MHz, 10mm diameter compression probe is:
a. 8.47mm
b. 84.75mm
c. 9.25mm
d. 33.9mm
39. What angle would be produced by a standard 60 degree angle probe when testing copper?
Assume: Shear wave Velocity in steel: 3200 m/sec, Shear wave Velocity in copper: 2260 m/sec,
Compression wave velocity in Perspex: 2700m/sec
a. 40.5 degrees
b. 37.5 degrees
c. 35.2 degrees
d. 52 degrees
40. High frequency probes give:
a. Better resolution
b. Better penetration
c. Lower sensitivity
d. All off the above

SPECIFIC
41. A general term applied to all cracks, inclusions, blow holes etc. Which cause a reflection of
ultrasonic energy is:
a. A dispenser
b. A discontinuity
c. An attenuator
d. A refractor
 Meena International Training Assessment – 11
Training and Certification Division Issue Date 13-07-2021
ULTRASONIC TESTING – Level 2 Page No. 7 of 9

42. When examining a component with an angled probe, standoff refers to the:
a. distance between the centre line of the weld and the index point of the probe
b. distance between the centre line of the weld and the front of the probe
c. range from the surface to the root of the weld
d. One of the above

43. When carrying out a fixed root scan on a 25mm thick weld with a 60 degree probe the standoff
to the weld centre line will be
a. 43mm
b. 33mm
c. 50mm
d. 60mm
.
44. An indication detected with a 70 degree probe at a range of 33mm in a 30mm thick weld is at
what depth from the top surface
a. 11mm
b. 8mm
c. 15mm
d. 22mm

45. When inspecting a single v butt weld with a root angle of 60 degrees, which of the following
probes would you select for the detection of fusion face defects
a. 60
b. 70
c. 45
d. 38

46. The ultrasonic test method in which finger damping is most effective in locating the position of a
discontinuity is:
a. Shear wave
b. Longitudinal wave
c. Surface wave
d. Compression wave
47. During straight beam testing, test specimens with non-parallel front and back surfaces can
[

cause:
a. Partial loss of back reflection
b. No loss in back reflection
c. A widened (broad) back surface reflection
d. A focused (narrow) back surface reflection
48. Compensation for the variation in echo height related to variations in discontinuity depth in the
test material is known as:
a. Transfer
b. Attenuation
C. Distance Amplitude Correction
d. interpretation
 Meena International Training Assessment – 11
Training and Certification Division Issue Date 13-07-2021
ULTRASONIC TESTING – Level 2 Page No. 8 of 9

49. Which of the following is a reference reflector that is not dependant on beam angle?
a. A flat bottomed hole
b. A vee notch
c. A side drilled hole which is parallel to the plate surface and perpendicular to the sound
path
d. A disc shaped laminar reflector

50. When scanning with a zero degree compression probe over a smooth flat discontinuity whose
major plane is not perpendicular to the direction of sound propagation, its presence may be
indicated by:
a. An echo amplitude comparable in magnitude to the back surface reflection
b. A complete loss of back surface reflection
c. An echo amplitude larger in magnitude than the back surface reflection
d. All of the above
51. Which of the following is regarded as a planar fault?
a. Lack of side wall fusion
b. Porosity
c. Tungsten inclusions
d. Worm holes
52 Which of the following will give rise to cracking problems in ferritic steels?
a. Hydrogen
b. Oxygen
c. Manganese
d. Nickel

53. Fatigue cracking will occur under which conditions

a. Static loading at room temperature
b. Static loading at high temperature
c. Compressive loading
d. Cyclic loading

54. Which of the following is not a manual welding process?

a. Electro-slag
b. TIG
c. MMA
d. Flux cored MIG

55. A temporary backing bar is used to:

a. control fusion at root face
b. control root penetration
c. reduce porosity
d. more easily spread excess heat
 Meena International Training Assessment – 11
Training and Certification Division Issue Date 13-07-2021
ULTRASONIC TESTING – Level 2 Page No. 9 of 9

56. Excessive speed of travel in MMA welding may result in:

a. Slag inclusions
b. Porosity
c. Excess penetration
d. Lack of fusion

57. Crater cracking in a weld run has the appearance of:

a. Straight indication perpendicular to the weld
b. Straight indication along the centre of the weld cap
c. Spherical indications
d. Star shaped indications

58. Small welds used to maintain alignment of the edges of a preparation before welding is called:
a. Tack welds
b. Seal welds
c. Stop – start welds
d. Set up welds

59. Solidification cracks occur most commonly in which part of a weld?

a. parent material
b. HAZ
c. Weld centre line
d. any of the above

60. Fatigue cracks in welds are most likely to be found

a. Only at the weld centre line
b. only at the weld toe
c. at a stress raiser
d. none of the above