19-11-2024

9610WMD80100824R001 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

1) A particle moves along the sides AB, BC, CD of a square of side 25 m with a speed of 15 ms–1. Its

average velocity is :

(1) 15 ms–1
(2) 10 ms–1
(3) 7.5 ms–1
(4) 5 ms–1

2)

A car, moving with velocity 50 km/h due east, turns 90° left without change in speed. If it completes
the turn in 2 minutes, then magnitude of its average acceleration is :

(1) 1500 km/h2

(2)
km/h2
(3) km/h2
(4) 500 km/h2

3) A body starting from rest and travelling with uniform acceleration covers 8 m during the 2nd
second. During the 5th second, it would travel :

(1) 20 m
(2) 24 m
(3) 28 m
(4) 16 m

4) Water drops fall at regular intervals from a tap which is 10m above the ground. The fifth drop is
leaving the tap at the instant the first drop touches the ground. How far above the ground is the
third drop at that instant. (g = 10 m/s2)

(1)
(2)

(3) 5 m
(4) 6 m

5) Position-time graph of a particle in motion is shown. Then the average speed of particle in whole

motion :-

(1) 0 m/s
(2) 16.67 m/s
(3) 20 m/s
(4) 32 m/s

6) A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate α for some time, after which it decelerates at a
constant rate β to come to rest. If the total time elapsed is t, the maximum velocity acquired by the
car is given by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) A lift starts from rest and moves upwards. Its acceleration is plotted against time. When it again

comes to rest its height above its starting point is :-

(1) 20 m
(2) 64 m
(3) 32 m
(4) 36 m

8) The range of a projectile, thrown with an initial speed u at the angle of projection 15° from
horizontal is R. What will be the range if it is thrown with an initial speed 2u at an angle 30° from
horizontal ?

(1) R
(2) R
(3) R
(4) R

9) The equation of trajectory of a projectile is . What is the range of the projectile? (All
quantities are in S.I. units.)

(1) 12 m
(2) 20 m
(3) 16 m
(4) 48 m

10) A particle is projected from tower of height 100 m with speed 50 m/s at angle 37 degree from
vertical as shown in figure. Find the approximate time taken by it to reach on ground. (g = 10m/s2)

(1) 2 sec
(2) 6 sec
(3) 8 sec
(4) 10 sec

11) Two cars A and B are moving in opposite direction with speed 10 m/s and 15 m/s respectively. If
initial separation between between both cars is 200 m, then find out time after which both cars will

meet.

(1) 4 sec
(2) 6 sec
(3) 8 sec
(4) 10 sec

12) Rain water has velocity 5 m/s vertically downward. A car moves with velocity 12 m/s in
horizontal direction. Find the velocity of the rain w.r.t. car.

(1) 5 m/s
(2) 12 m/s
(3) 17 m/s
(4) 13 m/s

13) To driver of car A, moving with speed 60 km/h due east, car B appears to be moving with speed
80 km/h due north. Actual velocity of car B is :

(1) 100 km/h, 53° North of West

(2) 100 km/h, 53° North of East
(3) 100 km/h, 37° North of West
(4) 100 km/h, 37° North of East

14) A force is applied to an 8.0 kg object initially at rest. The magnitude of the net force varies with

time as shown. What is the speed of the object at t = 15s?

(1) 10.0 m/s

(2) 12.5 m/s
(3) 25.0 m/s
(4) 50.0 m/s

15) Nine five rupee coins are put on the top of each other on a table. Each coin has a mass m kg. The
reaction of the 5th coin (counted from bottom) on the 6th coin is :-

(1) 0 mg
(2) 2 mg
(3) 4 mg
(4) 5 mg

16) A body of weight 2 kg is suspended as shown in the figure. The tension T1 in the horizontal string

(in kg wt) is
(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) 2

17)

Contact force between A and B is :-

(M = 1 kg and horizontal surface is smooth)

(1) 20 N
(2) 18 N
(3) 12 N
(4) 11 N

18) If block is sliding down on a rough fixed inclined plane with constant velocity as shown in the

figure then net force acting on the wedge due to block is : ––

(1)

(2) mg
(3) mg cosθ
(4)

19) A body of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined plane inclination 1 in x (as shown in first figure)

is at rest relative to the inclined plane. The tension in the string is :-

(1) mgx
(2) mg

(3)

(4)

20) System shown in figure is in equilibrium and at rest. The spring and strings are massless. Now
the string between B and C is cut. The acceleration of A, B and C just after the string is cut, are

respectively :

(1) 0, g ↑ , g ↑
(2) 0, g ↑, g ↓
(3) g ↑ , g ↑ , g ↓
(4)

21) A 60 kg painter stands on a 15 kg platform. A rope attached to the platform and passing over an
overhead pully allows the painter to raise himself along with the platform. What force should be
applied by the painter on the rope, to maintain the constant speed of 1m/sec :-

(1) 1500 N
(2) 750 N
(3) 375 N
(4) 600 N

22) With what minimum acceleration, can a fireman slide down a rope whose breaking strength is
two-third of his weight ?

(1)

(2)

(3) g
(4) Zero

23)

If a man want to reach the other side of a river of width w units in shortest possible time then he
what should be angle made by his velocity (w.r.t. river) from the flow of river current.

(1) 0o
(2) 90o
(3) 120o
(4) 45o

24) A body is placed on inclined plane and has to be pushed down in order to make it move. The
angle made by normal reaction (acting on the block) with the vertical will be :-

(1) Equal to angle of repose

(2) Equal to the angle of friction
(3) Less than the angle of repose
(4) More than the angle of friction

25) What should be the minimum value of the force F so that block will remain at rest on vertical

wall? (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 10 N
(2) 15 N
(3) 20 N
(4) 0 N

26) A block of mass 10 kg is placed on a rough horizontal surface having coefficient of friction μ =
0.5, if a horizontal force of 100 N is acting on it. Then acceleration of the block will be : (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 0.5 m/s2

(2) 5 m/s2
(3) 10 m/s2
(4) 15 m/s2

27) If system is released from rest then find work done by string on 1 kg block in 1 sec. (g = 10 m/s2)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) If the momentum of a body is increased n times (without changing the mass), its kinetic energy
becomes.

(1) n times
(2) 2n times
(3)
(4) n2 times

29) A spring of force constant 800 N/m has an extension of 5 cm. The work done in extending it from
5 cm to 15 cm is-

(1) 16 J
(2) 8 J
(3) 32 J
(4) 24 J

30) A ball of mass m is dropped from a height h on a platform fixed at the top of a vertical spring.

The platform is displaced by a distance x. The spring constant is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

31) A bullet weighing 10 gm is fired with velocity 800 m/s. If velocity decreases to 100 m/s after
passing through a 1 m thick mud wall. Find the magnitude average resistance offered by the mud
wall :-

(1) 3050 N
(2) 4000 N
(3) 3000 N
(4) 3150 N

32) The speed of a projectile at its maximum height is half of its initial speed 'u'. Its range on the
horizontal plane -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) If time of fight of a projectile is 10 seconds. Range is 500 meters. The maximum height attained
by it will be :-

(1) 125 m
(2) 50 m
(3) 100 m
(4) 150 m

34) Two blocks A & B with mass 4 kg and 6 kg respectively are connected by a stretched spring of
negligible mass as in figure. When the two blocks are released simultaneously the initial
acceleration of B is 1.5 m/s2 westward, as shown in figure. The acceleration of A is :-.

(1) 1 m/s2 westward

(2) 2.25 m/s2 eastward
(3) 1 m/s2 eastward
(4) 2.75 m/s2 westward
35) A cart moves with horizontal acceleration a = 2 m/s2, as shown in
the diagram. If spring constant is 1000 N/m, then extension in the spring is :-

(1) 8 cm
(2) 6 cm
(3) 4 cm
(4) 2 cm

SECTION - B

1) A uniform chain has mass M and length L respectively. It is lying on a smooth horizontal table
with half of its length hanging vertically down. The minimum work done in pulling the chain
completely on to the table is

(1) MgL/2
(2) MgL/4
(3) MgL/8
(4) MgL/16

2) Assertion : The work done by a non-conservative force is always negative.

Reason : When a non-conservative force is involved in a system, it never dissipates energy.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

3) A particle of mass 200 g is thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 10 m/s. the work done by
the force of gravity during the time the particle goes up is : (Assume no air friction; g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 20 J
(2) –20 J
(3) 10 J
(4) –10 J

4)

Figure shows the vertical section of frictionless surface. A block of mass 1 kg is released from the
position A; its KE as it reaches the position C is (g = 10 m/s2):-
(1) 180J
(2) 140J
(3) 70J
(4) 280J

5) A car weighing 400kg is going up an incline with a slope of 1 in 10 as shown, at a steady 54

kmph. If g = 10 m/s2. The power of its engine is :

(1) 6 kW
(2) 60 kW
(3) 40 kW
(4) 36 kW

6) A particle moves with a velocity m/s under the infleuence of a constant force
N. The instantaneous power applied to the particle is (in magnitude) :-

(1) 200 J/s

(2) 100 J/s
(3) 140 J/s
(4) 170 J/s

7)
The position of unstable equilibrium is
(1) B
(2) C
(3) D
(4) E

8) A constant power P is applied to a car starting from rest from origin. Then if in time t the car
travels a distance x, its kinetic energy will be proportional to :-

(1) x1/3
(2) x2/3
(3) x
(4) x3/2

9) The potential energy of a 4 kg particle which is free to move along x axis is given by

. Total mechanical energy of the particle is 4 J. The maximum speed of the

particle in (m/s) is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Two identical billiard balls strike a rigid vertical smooth wall with the same speed but at
different angles and get reflected without any change in speed as shown in the figure. The ratio of

impulses imparted to the balls by the wall is :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2)
(3)
(4) 2 : 1
11) Find magnitude of force exerted by string on pulley :- (g = 10 m/s2)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

12) Assertion (A): Friction always opposes the relative motion of two bodies.
Reason (R): Without friction also, one can walk on a smooth surface.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

13) A point P consider at contact point of a wheel on ground which rolls on ground without slipping
then value of displacement of point P when wheel completes one and half rotaion (radius of wheel is
1m)

(1) 1.5 m
(2) 3πm
(3)
(4)

14)

Acceleration of a body is given by the equation a = (4 – 3v) m/s2. Velocity v is in m/s and t is in
second. If initial velocity is zero then terminal velocity (constant) of the body is

(1)
m/s

(2)
m/s
(3) 4 m/s
(4) Infinite

15) is working on a particle which moves from (0, 0) to (a, 0) along x-axis find the work
done by the force.

(1)

(2) ka2
(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

1) Equivalent wt of H3PO2 is -

(1)

(2)

(3) M
(4) 2M

2) A gas is found to have the formula (CH2)x and its V.D. is 56, then vlaue of x must be :-

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 6
(4) 10

3) Which of the following modes of expressing concentration is independent of temperature.

(1) Molarity
(2) Molality
(3) Formality
(4) Normality

4) 1.520 g of the hydroxide of a metal on ignition gave 0.995 g of its oxide. The equivalent mass of
metal is :-

(1) 1.520
(2) 0.995
(3) 19.00
(4) 9.00

5) An impure sample of silver (1.5g) is heated with S to form 0.124 g of Ag2S. What was the
percentage purity of sample?

(1) 21.6%
(2) 7.2%
(3) 1.7%
(4) 24.8%

6) Volume at NTP of oxygen required to completely burn 1 kg of carbon according to the reaction :-
C + O2 → CO2

(1) 22400 L
(2) 22.4 × 103L
(3) 1.86 × 103 L
(4) 1000 L

7) The number of water molecules in 2L of water is :-

(1) NA
(2) 55.5 NA
(3) 111.11 NA

(4)

8) The number of neutron is 5 g of D2O (D is 21H) are:-

(1) 0.25 NA
(2) 2.5 NA
(3) 1.1 NA
(4) none of these

9) An oxide of sulphur contains 50% of sulphur in it. Its empirical formula is -

(1) SO2
(2) SO3
(3) SO
(4) S2O

10) 4Al + 3O2 → 2Al2O3, How much Al2O3 will be produce from 9g Al :-

(1) 17 g
(2) 34 g
(3) 51 g
(4) 68 g

11) The equivalent mass of MnSO4 is half of its molar mass when it is converted to

(1) Mn2O3
(2) MnO2
(3) MnO
2–
(4) MnO4
12) How many moles of KMnO4 are needed to oxidise a mixture of 1 mole of each FeSO4 & FeC2O4 in
acidic medium :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13)

Which of the following groups of molecules act both as oxidising agent as well as reducing agent ?

(1) KMnO4,O3,SO3
(2) HClO4, HNO2, H2O2
(3) HNO2, SO2, H2O2
(4) HNO3, SO2, H2SO4

14) Match the columns

Column-I Column-II
V2O3(s) + 5Ca(s) → 2V(s)
(A) (p) Disproportionation reaction
+ 5CaO(s)
CH4(g) +
(B) 2O2(g) CO2(g) + (q) Decomposition reaction
2H2O(l)
P4(s) + 3OH–(aq) +
(C) 3H2O(l) → PH3(g) + (r) Combination reaction
3H2PO2–(aq)

2KClO3(s) 2KCl(s) +
(D) (s) Displacment reaction
3O2(g)
(1) A–(s), B–(q), C–(r), D–(p)
(2) A–(s), B–(r), C–(p), D–(q)
(3) A–(r), B–(s), C–(q), D–(p)
(4) A–(r), B–(s), C–(p), D–(q)

15) If molecular weight of KMnO4 is 'M' then its equivalent weight in a acidic medium would be.

(1) M
(2) M/2
(3) M/5
(4) M/4

16) Match Column-I with Column-II

 Column-I Column-II
(Underline atom) (Oxidation state)

(a) HClO3 (i) +4

(b) K2MnO4 (ii) –2

(c) H4P2O6 (iii) +5

(d) N2H4 (iv) +6

Select the option with correct match.
(1) a(iii). b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

17) –1/3 oxidation state of nitrogen will be obtained in case of :

(1) Ammonia (NH3)

(2) Hydrazoic acid (N3H)
(3) Nitric oxide (NO)
(4) Nitrous oxide (N2O)

18) H2O2 acts as an oxidant with which one of the following reagent :-

(1) KMnO4
(2) H2S
(3) K2Cr2O7
(4) KNO3

19) The oxidation states of Sulphur in the anions SO32–, S2O42– and S2O62– follow the order :

2– –2 2–
(1) S2O6 < S2O4 < SO3
2– 2– 2–
(2) S2O4 < SO3 < S2O6
2– 2– 2–
(3) SO3 < S2O4 < S2O6
–2 2– 2–
(4) S2O4 < S2O6 < SO3

20) Assertion (A) : ClO4– does not show disproportionation reaction.

Reason (R) : In ClO4–, chlorine is present in its highest oxidation state.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

21) Which of the element has highest I.E. ?

(1) ClΘ
(2) FΘ
(3) Cl
(4) F

22) Find exothermic reaction :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

23) The correct order of atomic/ ionic radii is:-

(1) Sc > Ti > V > Cr

(2) Co > Ni > Cu > Zn
(3) S2–> Cl– > O2– > N3–
(4) Ni+2 > Cu+2

24) The size of the species, Pb, Pb2+, Pb4+ decreases as :

(1) Pb4+ > Pb2+ > Pb

(2) Pb > Pb2+ > Pb4+
(3) Pb > Pb4+ > Pb2+
(4) Pb4+ > Pb > Pb2+

25) In which of the following pairs of species, the size of the first species is not more than the second
species?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) S, O

26)

Which of the following does not act as an amphoteric oxide?

(1) Al2O3
(2) ZnO
(3) BeO
(4) NO

27)
I.P. of Be is higher than :-

(a) B (b) Mg (c) Li (d) Al (e) K

(1) a, b
(2) a, b and d
(3) a, b, d, and e
(4) a, b, c, d, e

28) Incorrect order of acidic strength is :

(1) CrO < Cr2O3 < CrO3

(2) HNO2 < HNO3
(3) NO < N2O3 < NO2 < N2O5
(4) H3PO2 < H3PO3 < H3PO4

29) Match the atomic number in column I with its IUPAC nomenclature in column II.
Column I Column II
A. 105 1. Uuh
B. 107 2. Uun
C. 109 3. Uns
D. 110 4. Unp
E. 116 5. Une
Codes
A B C D E
(1) 3 2 4 5 1
(2) 5 4 3 2 1
(3) 1 2 3 4 5
(4) 4 3 5 2 1

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

30)

Because of lanthanoid contraction, which of the following pairs of elements have nearly same atomic
radii? (Numbers in the brackets are atomic numbers).

(1) Zr (40) and Nb (41)

(2) Zr (40) and Hf (72)
(3) Zr (40) and Ta (73)
(4) Ti (22) and Zr (40)

31) In the general electronic configuration -

(n – 2)f1–14 (n – 1)d0–1 ns2, if value of n = 7 the configuration will be -

(1) Lanthenides
(2) Actinides
(3) Transition elements
(4) None

32) The order of ionisation potential between He+ ion and H-atom (both species are in gaseous state)
is:

(1) I.P. (He+) = I.P. (H)

(2) I.P. (He+) < I.P. (H)
(3) I.P. (He+) > I.P. (H)
(4) Can't be compared

33) The correct order regarding the electronegativity of hybrid orbitals of carbon is ?

(1) sp < sp2 < sp3

(2) sp > sp2 < sp3
(3) sp > sp2 > sp3
(4) sp < sp2 > sp3

34) How many total number of subshell are present in period-6 in periodic table :-

(1) 6
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

35) Select the incorrect order of size :-

(1) Mg+2 < Li+

(2) Ba < K
(3) Li < Ne
(4) La+3 < Lu+3

SECTION - B

1) Which of the following is not representative element:-

(1) Tellurium
(2) Tantalum
(3) Thallium
(4) Sulphur

2) The conversioin of PbO2 to Pb(NO3)2 is :-

(1) Oxidation
(2) Reduction
(3) Neither oxidation nor reduction
(4) Both oxidation and reduction

3) Which of the following sets of compounds is according to the decreasing order of the oxidation
state of nitrogen ?

(1) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2

(2) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl
(3) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2
(4) NH4Cl, N2, NO, HNO3

4) In the redox reaction,

xKMnO4 + NH3 —→ yKNO3 + MnO2 + KOH + H2O

(1) x = 4, y = 6
(2) x = 3, y = 8
(3) x = 8, y = 6
(4) x = 8, y = 3

5) Match the oxidation number of central atom in column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

Brown ring
(A) (P) 2.66666667
complex

(B) Fe3O4 (Q) + 1

(C) Caros acid (R) + 4/3

Carbon
(D) (S) + 6
suboxide
(1) A – P; B – Q; C – R; D – S
(2) A – Q; B – P; C – S; D – R
(3) A – Q; B – P; C – R; D – S
(4) A – P; B – Q; C – S; D – R

6) How many moles of O-atoms are there in 5 mol HNO3 :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 3 mol
(4) 15 mol

7) The vapour density of two gases in the ratio 1:2. Their molecular masses are in the ratio of
(1) 1:2
(2) 2:1
(3) 4:1
(4) 1:4

8) Assertion (A) : Empirical formula represents the simplest ratio of atoms in a molecule of a
compound.
Reason (R) : Empirical formula is always different from molecular formula.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

9) Assertion : 22.4 L of N2 at NTP and 5.6 L O2 at NTP contain equal number of molecule.
Reason : Under similar condition of T and P. All gases contains equal number of atoms in equal
volume.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

10) Assertion : Molarity of pure water is 55.5 M at 4°C.

Reason : Molarity is temperature dependent parameter.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

11) Maximum oxidation state of central atom is present in:

Mn
(1)

(2) MnO2
3–
(3) [Fe(CN)6)]
(4) MnO

12) Oxidation state of nitrogen is incorrectly given for :

Compound Oxidation State

(1) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 –3

(2) NH2OH –1

(3) (N2H5)2SO4 +2
 (4) Mg3N2 –3

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) Which electronic configuration of an atom is largest in size :-

(1) 3s2
(2) 3s2 3p3
(3) 3s2 3p4
(4) 3s2 3p5

14) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) Vander Waal's radius of iodine is more than its covalent radius.
(2) All isoelectronic ions of corresponding elements belong to the same period of the periodic table
(3) IE1 of N-atom is higher than that of O-atom, while IE2 of O-atom is higher than that of N-atom
(4) The electron affinity of fluorine is lower than that of chlorine

15) Which is the correct order of ionisation energy of second period elements?

(1) B < C < N < O

(2) C < B < O < N
(3) B < C < O < N
(4) B < O < N < C

BOTANY

SECTION - A

1) Maximum oxidative enzymes and maximum hydrolytic enzymes are present in the following cell
organelles respectively

(1) Chloroplast and mitochondria

(2) Mitochondria and lysosomes
(3) Lysosomes and mitochondria
(4) Spherosomes and peroxisome

2) In an organism if the normal diploid number of chromosomes is 8. How many chromatids are
present in each daughter cell at the end of meiosis–1 :

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 16

3) Consider the following statements :

(A) Plant cells have centrioles which are absent in almost all animal cells
(B) Ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis
(C) The middle lamella is a layer mainly of calcium carbonate which holds the different neighbouring
cells together
(D) In animal cell steroidal hormones are synthesized by smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Of the above statements :

(1) (A) and (B) only are correct

(2) (C) and (D) only are correct
(3) (B) and (D) only are correct
(4) (A) and (D) only are correct

4)

To observe chiasmata, the most appropriate stage of meiosis would be

(1) Metaphase–II
(2) Diakinesis
(3) Diplotene
(4) Pachytene

5) Which one is related with quiescent stage of cell cycle ?

(A) Parmanent loss the capability of division
(B) Metabolically inactive so they exits the G1 phase.
(C) These stage cell are suspended to cell cycle & may enter again to cell cycle on need of organism.
(D) Heart cell in adult animal always remain in quiescent stage.

(1) B & C
(2) A & B
(3) Only C
(4) C and D

6) Which of the following is a microbody present in animal cell :

(1) Ribosome
(2) Glyoxysome
(3) Peroxysome
(4) 1 and 3 both

7) (A) Cell wall protect cell from infection

(B) Middle lamella is mainly composed of magnesium pectate.
(C) RER involve in protein synthesis and secretion
(D) The diameter of cisternae in golgi body is 0.5 to 1 µm.
How many of the above statements are not correct

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 0

8) In a haploid cell before S-phase quantity of DNA is 20 pico gram (pg); after mitosis what will be
the quantity of DNA in each daughter cell ?

(1) 10 pg
(2) 20 pg
(3) 50 pg
(4) 40 pg

9) Which organelle is a part of the endomembrane system?

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Lysosome
(3) Peroxisome
(4) Chloroplast

10) Hypothesis of schleiden & schwann was modified by to give the cell theory a final shape -

(1) Rudolf Virchow

(2) Robert Brown
(3) Robert hooke
(4) Camillo golgi

11) The stage between two meiotic divisions is

(1) Generally short lived

(2) Called interkinesis
(3) Called quiescent stage
(4) Both (1) & (2)

12) In a container 2.5 × 1025 bacteria are reproducing by binary fission with rate of 25 minutes. How
many bacteria will be produced after 1 hour 40 minutes.

(1) 40 × 1025
(2) 24 × 1025
(3) 16 × 1025
(4) 4.4 × 1026

13) Match the following column correctly :

 Column–I (Cell) Column–II (Size)

(i) Mycoplasma (A) Longest cell

(ii) Bacteria (B) 7 μm

(iii) Human RBC (C) 3–5 μm

(iv) Nerve cell (D) 0.3 μm

(1) i–C, ii–D, iii–B, iv–A
(2) i–D, ii–C, iii–B, iv–A
(3) i–C, ii–D, iii–A, iv–B
(4) i–B, ii–C, iii–D, iv–A

14) How many statements are correct about Nuclear pore ?

(a) formed by the fusion of outer and inner membrane of nuclear envelop.
(b) provide only one way transportation.
(c) By these pores, RNA and protein both can cross the nuclear envelop.
(d) Nuclear pore interrupt the nuclear envelope.

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

15) Phase of cell cycle when DNA polymerase is active :-

(1) G1
(2) S
(3) G2
(4) M

16) Find out the correct match from the following table :-

Column I Column II Column III

(i) Mitochondria Kreb's cycle Power house of the cell
9+0 arrangement of
(ii) Centriole Cart wheel structure
microtubule
(iii) Ribosome Synthesis of t-RNA Factory of protein
(iv) Primary cell wall Capable of growth Diminish as cell matur
(1) ii, iii and iv
(2) i, ii and iv
(3) i, ii and iii
(4) ii and iv

17)

The diad of cells is visible at :-

(1) Anaphase-I
(2) Telophase-I
(3) Metaphase-I
(4) Telophase-II

18) State the following statements true (T) or false (F) and select the correct option :
(a) In bacteria, flagella are composed of filament, hook and basal body.
(b) The fimbriae are large bristle like fibres sprouting out of the bacterial cell which are related
with movement.
(c) Both fimbriae and pilli are related with sexualrecombination

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

19) Statement-I : Recombination between homologous chromosomes is completed at the beginning

of third phase of prophase-I.
Statement-II : Diplotene begins with dissolution of synaptomemal complex and the tendency of
recombined homologous chromosomes of the bivalents to separate from each other throughout its
length.

(1) I is true; II is false

(2) Both are true
(3) Only II is true
(4) Both are false

20) Morphology of chromosome is best studied at

(1) Anaphase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Telophase
(4) Prophase

21) As the polar molecules can not pass through the nonpolar ......"I"........, they requires ......."II"....
of the membrane to facilitate their transport across the membrane:-
Choose the correct word for I and II :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) Kinetochores are

(1) Terminal ends of chromosomes

(2) Present around primary constriction and help in crossing over
(3) Present near nuclear envelope and take part in spindle formation
(4) Present around centromere and provide a site for attachment to the spindle fibers

23)

Fat soluble pigments like xantnophylls are present in

(1) Chromoplasts
(2) Aleuroplast
(3) Elaioplasts
(4) Amyloplasts

24) Which one is correct about bivalent ?

(i) Bivalent are tetrads.
(ii) A bivalent contants 4 chromatids and 2 centromere.
(iii) One bivalent consists of 2 homologous chromosomes.
(iv) Bivalents formation occurs in zygotene.

(1) All of these

(2) Only (iii)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) Only (iv)

25) Choose the correct option for the chromosome given below:

Number Number
Number of Number of Number of
of of
chromoatids arms kinetochore
centromer telomere

(1) 4 2 2 4 2

(2) 2 2 1 4 4

(3) 2 4 1 2 4

(4) 2 4 2 4 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

26) If a cell in G1 phase has 20 chromosome (chromatin) and 20 Pg DNA in nucleus then which one

option is correct for given diagrams (A-D) :-

(1) A-20, 20 ; B-20, 40 ; C-20, 40 ; D-20, 20

(2) A-20, 40 ; B-20, 40 ; C-20, 40 ; D-10, 20
(3) A-20, 40 ; B-20, 40 ; C-20, 20 ; D-10, 20
(4) A-20, 20 ; B-20, 40 ; C-20, 20 ; D-10, 20

27) Which is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in eukaryotic cells?

(1) Golgi bodies

(2) Polysomes
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum
(4) Peroxisomes

28) Cytoskeleton is made up of :-

(1) Proteinaceous filaments

(2) Calcium carbonate granules
(3) Callose deposits
(4) Cellulosic microfibrils

29) The three events (A, B and C) of cell cycle are given below in systematic way, select the correct
option which is suitable for event B:-

(1) Division of centromere

(2) Movement of chromosomes towards cell equator
(3) Activity of recombinase enzyme
(4) Crossing over between non homologous chromosomes

30) Colour of pericarp and petals is due to :-

(1) Chloroplast only
(2) Chromoplast
(3) Amyloplast
(4) Elaioplast

31) A cell cycle of somatic cell is observed by a student in a higher animal. He found that this cell
contains four times the number of chromosomes and four times the amount of DNA as compare to
gamete of same species. This cell would be in which stage of cell cycle ?

(1) Metaphase
(2) G1 phase
(3) Prophase
(4) Anaphase

32) Na+/K+ pump involves

(1) Osmosis
(2) Passive transport
(3) Energy independent transport
(4) Active transport

33) Match the items in column I with those in column II and identify the correct answer :-

Column-I Column-II

A Initiation of the assembly of mitotic spindle I Anaphase

Tubulin proteins are synthesised in preparation for mitosis

B II Prophase
while cell growth continues

C Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes III Interphase

D Movement of chromatids towards opposite poles IV Metaphase

(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
34) Identify the A, B, C, D and E in this figure.

A–Rough endoplasmic reticulum, B–Smooth endoplasmic reticulum, C–Nuclear envelope,

(1)
D–Microtubule, E–Nucleolus
A–Smooth endoplasmic reticulum, B–Rough endoplasmic reticulum, C–Microtubule, D–Nuclear
(2)
envelope, E–Nucleolus
A–Nucleolus, B–Microtubule, C–Smooth endoplasmic reticulum, D–Nuclear envelope, E–Rough
(3)
endoplasmic reticulum
A–Rough endoplasmic reticulum, B–Nucleolus, C–Microtubule, D–Smooth endoplasmic
(4)
reticulum, E–Microtubule

35) Match the following & choose the correct option

Human cell divides 90

a i
in minutes

b Yeast cell divides is ii 1 hour

More than 95% of cell

c iii 24 hours
cycle

M-phase in humans
d iv Interphase
last for
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv

SECTION - B

1) Middle lamella is composed mainly of :-

(1) Phospholipid
(2) Cellulose
(3) Calcium pectate
(4) Calcium carbonate

2) A Bacteria divides every 35 minutes. If a culture plate containing 105 cells per is grown for 210
minutes, what will be the cell concentration per after 210 mins?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

3) What is/are true for inclusion bodies?

i. They are not bounded by any membrane system
ii. They lie freely in the cytoplasm
iii. They are membrane bound

(1) Only (i)

(2) Both (i) & (ii)
(3) Only (iii)
(4) All of the above

4) (i) Metabolically inactive but no division

(ii) Chromosome threads form Chromatin
(iii) Replicated chromatids clearly visible
(iv) Metabolic changes occurs
(v) Number of chromosomes become double.
How many statements from above are correct for metaphase ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 5

5) During metaphase I of meiotic cell cycle in human germ cells, how many tetrads should be
present on equatorial plane ?

(1) 46
(2) 23
(3) 4
(4) 92

6) If the number of tetrads in metaphase I is 20, then what will be the number of chromosomes in
anaphase-I (per cell) and anaphase II (per cell) respectively ?

(1) 10, 10
(2) 20, 20
(3) 40, 40
(4) 20, 40

7) The smallest living cells with cell wall are

(1) Viroids
(2) Algae
(3) Bacteria
(4) Mycoplasma

8) Colchicine acts as mitotic poison by :-

(1) Preventing depolymerisation of tubulin molecules

(2) Preventing polymerisation of tubulin molecules
(3) inhibiting DNA replication
(4) inhibiting protein synthesis

9) In germinating seeds fatty acids are degraded exclusively in the:-

(1) Peroxisomes
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Proplastids
(4) Glyoxysomes

10) How many chromosomes will the onion root tip cell have at G1-phase, after S-phase and after M-
phase, if it has 16 chromosomes in mesophyll cell :-

(1) 16, 32, 32

(2) 16, 32, 16
(3) 8, 16, 16
(4) 16, 16, 16

11)

Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgibody, Lysosome, Mitochondria, Nucleus, Ribosome, Chloroplast,

Leucoplast, Chromoplast, Vacuole
How many above given cell organelle is single membrane bound?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 2

12) Assertion :- Meiosis ensures the production of haploid phase in the life cycle of sexually
reproducing organisms.
Reason :- In meiosis chromosome no. reduces to half.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

13) Ratio of protein and lipid in the membrane of erythrocytes of human being is :-
(1) 1.8
(2) 1.3
(3) 0.80
(4) 0.60

14) Compartmentalisation is feature of :

(1) Eukaryotic cell

(2) Prokaryotic cell
(3) Bacterial cell
(4) Fungi cell only

15) Match column-I with column-ll :

Column I Column II

a. G1-phase (i) Quiescent stage

b. S - Phase (ii) Protein synthesis

c. G2 - phase (iii) DNA synthesis

d. G0 - Phase (iv) Most of the organelles duplicate

(1) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)

ZOOLOGY

SECTION - A

1)
Given reaction is catalysed by

(1) Transferase
(2) Isomerase
(3) Ligase
(4) Lyases

2) The cofactor for the enzyme carboxypeptidase is:

(1) Copper
(2) Iron
(3) Zinc
(4) Manganese

3) Cellulose does not form blue color with iodine because

(1) It is a helical molecule

(2) It does not contain complex helices and hence cannot hold iodine molecules
(3) It is non-reducing polysaccharide
(4) It breaks down when iodine react with it.

4) Statement I : The left end of polysaccharides is called the reducing end.

Statement II : Glycogen is a polysaccharide with right end as reducing end.

(1) Both the statements are correct.

(2) Only statement II is correct.
(3) Only statement I is correct.
(4) Both the statements are incorrect.

5) The three structural formulae A, B and C are given here. Identify them and select the correct
option:-

A B C

Adenine Adenosine Adenylic acid

(1)
(N-base) (Nucleotide) (Nucleoside)

Adenine Adenosine Adenylic acid

(2)
(N-base) (Nucleoside) (Nucleotide)

Adenosine Adenylic acid Adenine

(3)
(Nucleoside) (Nucleotide) (N-base)

Adenosine Adenylic acid Deoxyadenylic

(4)
(Nucleoside) (Nucleotide) acid
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Reducing sugars are those which can reduce Cu+2 ions to Cu+ state. On that basis, which of the
following can be considered as a non-reducing sugar ?
(1) Sucrose
(2) Maltose
(3) Glucose
(4) Fructose

7)

Identify the molecule given below with their respective statement:-

(1) Lecithin - Present in the cytoplasm

(2) Cephalin - Present in the blood
(3) Fatty acid - Present in the ribosome
(4) Lecithin - Present in the cell membrane

8) Which of the following statements regarding enzyme inhibition is correct ?

(1) Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be overcome by adding large amount of substrate
Competitive inhibition is seen when a substrate competes with an enzyme for binding to an
(2)
inhibitor protein
Competitive inhibition is seen when the substrate and the inhibitor compete for the active site
(3)
on the enzyme
(4) Non-competitive inhibitors often bind to the enzyme reversibly.

9) Which of the following is incorrect ?

(1) All the elements present in a sample of earth's crust are also present in a sample of living tissue
The relative abundance of carbon and hydrogen with respect to other elements is higher in any
(2)
living organism than in earth's crust
(3) The percentage weight of nitrogen in earth's crust is very high in comparison to human body
(4) The percentage weight of silicon in earth's crust is very high in comparison to human body

10) Which one of the following statements is correct, with reference to enzymes?

(1) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme

(2) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
(3) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
(4) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Cofactor
11) Which of the following is mismatched?

(1) Chitin - polymer of N-acetylglucosamine

(2) Glycogen - Polymer of glucose
(3) Cellulose - Heteropolysaccharide
(4) Inulin - Homopolysaccharide

12) Malonate inhibits the growth of pathogenic bacteria by inhibiting the activity of

(1) Succinic dehydrogenase

(2) Amylase
(3) Lipase
(4) Dinitrogenase

13) S reduced + S’ oxidised ⟶ S oxidised + S’ reduced. Mention the class of enzyme catalyse the
reaction

(1) Oxidoreductase
(2) Hydrolase
(3) Transferase
(4) 1 & 3 both

14) The sugar found in polynucleotides is either ribose (________) or ________

(1) 2’ deoxyribose; Disaccharide

(2) Monosaccharide; 2’ deoxyribose
(3) Disaccharide; 2’ deoxyribose
(4) Disaccharide; Monosaccheride

15) Given below are two statements :

Statement I: Amino acids have a property of ionizable nature of -NH2 and -COOH groups, hence
have different structures at different pH.
Statement II: Amino acids can exist as Zwitterionic form at neutral pH.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer, from the options given
below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are Incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is Incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement Il is correct

16) Read the following statements on lipids and find out correct set of statements:
(a) Lecithin found in the plasma membrane is a glycolipid.
(b) Saturated fatty acids possess one or more c = c bonds.
(c) Gingely oil has lower melting point hence remains as oil in winter.
(d) Lipids are generally insoluble in water but soluble in some organic solvents.
(e) When a fatty acid is esterified with glycerol, monoglyceride is formed.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (a), (d) and (e) only

(2) (c), (d) and (e) only
(3) (a), (b) and (d) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c) only

17) Given below are two statements:

Statement I : When a tissue is fully burnt, all the carbon compounds are oxidised to CO2 and water
vapour, which are then removed, leaving behind 'ash'.
Statement II : The 'ash' obtained after burning a tissue contains only organic elements such as
proteins and carbohydrates.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

18) Match column-I (category) with column-II (secondary metabolites) and choose the correct
option.

Column-I Column-II
(Category) (Secondary metabolites)

A Pigments I Concanavalin A

B Terpenoides II Monoterpenes, Diterpenes

C Alkaloids III Morphine, Codeine

D Lectins IV Carotenoids, Anthocyanin

(1) A - IV, B - II, C - III, D - I
(2) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
(3) A - I, B - IV, C - III, D - III
(4) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV

19) Which of the following group of amino acids are aromatic in nature?

(1) Tyrosine, phenylalanine, valine

(2) Tyrosine, tryptophan, glutamic acid
(3) Glutamic acid, lysine, valine
(4) Tyrosine, tryptophan, phenylalanine

20) Match the following columns of proteins and their functions :-

Protein Function

(a) Collagen (i) Enzyme

 (b) Insulin (ii) Hormone

Intercellular ground
(c) GLUT - 4 (iii)
substance

Enables glucose
(d) Trypsin (iv)
transport into cells
(1) a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv
(2) a - iii, b - ii, c - iv, d - i
(3) a - ii, b - iii, c - iv, d - i
(4) a - iv, b - i, c - ii, d - iii

21) Match the following w.r.t the average composition of cells:

% of the total
Component
cellular mass

a. Water i 5-7

b. Proteins ii 70 - 90

c. Lipids iii 10 - 15

d. Nucleic acids iv 2
(1) a - i, b -ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a - iv, b -iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a - ii, b -iii, c-iv, d-i
(4) a - iii, b -iv, c-i, d-ii

22)

Identify the correct set of statements.

(a) Loose connective tissue has cells and fibres compactly arranged in a semi-fluid ground
substance.
(b) Tendons attach skeletal muscles to bones.
(c) Chondrocytes are enclosed in small cavities within the matrix.
(d) All cells in epithelium are held together with the little intercellular material.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (a) and (d) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only
(4) (b), (c) and (d) only

23) Choose the correct answer with respect to following statements -

Statement A: Most of the bones in vertebrate embryos are replaced by cartilages in adults.
Statement B: The matrix of cartilage is secreted by chondrocytes.

(1) Only Statement B is correct

(2) Only Statement A is correct
(3) Both Statements are wrong
(4) Both Statements are Correct

24) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given.

Column I Column II
Help to stop
Adhering substances from
(a) (1)
Junctions leaking across a
tissue
Perform cementing
Gap
(b) (2) to keep neighbouring
Junctions
cells together
Facilitate the cells to
Tight
(c) (3) communicate with
Junctions
each other
(1) a-3, b-2, c-1
(2) a-2, b-3, c-1
(3) a-2, b-1, c-3
(4) a-1, b-3, c-2

25) Match the following columns :-

Column-I Column-II
Areolar
A 1 Fat cells
tissue
Adipose Osteocytes,
B 2
tissue Osteoblast
Loose
C Ligament 3 connective
tissue
Dense regular
D Bone 4 connective
tissue
(1) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(2) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(3) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(4) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

26) Find out the correct match for following options:-

(1)

Found in DCT
(2)

Found in Mesothelium

(3)

Bowman's capsule

(4)

Found in blood vessel

27) The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are known to occur in :-

(1) Bronchioles and fallopian tubes

(2) Bile duct and oesophagus
(3) Fallopian tube and urethra
(4) Eustaching tube and buccal cavity

28) Identify the connective tissues labelled as (i) and (ii) along with the parts labelled as A, B and C.

Options (i) (ii) A B C

Collagen Haversian
(1) Cartilage Bone Chondrocyte
fibres canal

Haversian Collagen
(2) Cartilage Bone Chondrocyte
canal fibres

Haversian Collagen
(3) Bone Cartilage Chondrocyte
canal fibres

Haversian Collagen
(4) Bone Cartilage Chondrocyte
canal fibres
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
 4
(4)

29)

Match the following columns.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Squamous epithelium (1) Stomach and intestine

(b) Cuboidal epithelium (2) Lungs and blood vessels

(c) Columnar epithelium (3) Tubular parts of nephrons

Select the correct option
A B C

(A) 3 1 2

(B) 1 2 3

(c) 2 3 1

(D) 3 2 1
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

30) Psudeostratified epithelium is present in :-

(1) Urinary bladder

(2) Trachea, bronchi
(3) Stomach, Intestine
(4) Gall bladder

31) The epithelium of _____ of nephron in the kidney has microvilli :-

(1) PCT
(2) DCT
(3) Henle’s loop
(4) Collecting duct

32) Thin segment of Ascending limb of loop or Henle is the lined by ?

(1) Cuboidal cells

(2) Squamous cells
(3) Columnar cells
(4) None of these
33) Match the cells listed in column-A with their functions in column B. Choose the option with all
correct match.

Column-A Column-B

Secretion is responsible for

(a) Fibroblasts (i)
inflammation

(b) Mast cells (ii) Secrete matrix of cartilage

Form matrix and structural

(c) Macrophages (iii)
proteins

Phagocytosis outside the blood

(d) Chondrocytes (iv)
vessels
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

34) Fibres and fibroblast are compactly packed in which type of tissue

(1) Dense connective tissue

(2) Loose connective tissue
(3) Specialised connective tissue
(4) All of above

35) Out of following in which tissue maximum power of regeneration is present ?

(1) Epithelium tissue

(2) Connective tissue
(3) Muscular tissue
(4) Nervous tissue

SECTION - B

1) Cartilage is present
(a) In the tip of nose and middle ear joints.
(b) Between adjacent bones of vertebral column.
(c) Between adjacent bones of limbs and hands in adults.

(1) a, b and c
(2) a and b
(3) b and c
(4) a and c

2) In all connective tissues except........, the cells secrete fibres of structural proteins called collagen
or elastin.
(1) Blood
(2) Bone
(3) Cartilage
(4) Areolar tissue

3) Epidermis of skin is made up of :-

(1) Simple squamous epithelium

(2) Non keratinised stratified squamous epithelium
(3) Keratinised stratified squamous epithelium
(4) Stratified cuboidal epithelium.

4) Read the following A-D statements -

(A) Bones support and protect softer tissue and organs.
(B) The bone cells (Osteocytes) are present in the spaces called lacunae.
(C) The limb bones, such as the long bones of the legs, serve weight bearing functions.
(D) The bone marrow in some bones is the sites of production of blood cells.
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

5) Primary structure of protein is due to the presence of _______.

(1) Hydrogen bond

(2) Peptide bond
(3) Hydrophobic bonds
(4) Ionic bond

6) Match items in column-l with those in column II and choose the option with all correct matches.

Column-l Column-ll

a Antibody i Lowers the activation energy

b Drugs ii Fights infectious agents

c Cofactor iii Vinblastin, Cur cumin

Non-protein constituent of
d Enzymes iv
holoenzymes
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
7) Study the flow chart given below and identify X and Y according to the statements (i-v) provided:

(i) Monomers are present.

(ii) Polymers are abundant.
(iii) Molecular weight more than 800 Daltons.
(iv) Molecular weight between 18-800 Daltons.
(v) Amino acids, nucleotides, monosaccharides.

X Y
(1) (ii), (iii) (i), (iv), (v)
(2) (i), (ii) (iii), (iv), (v)
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv) (i), (v)
(4) (i), (iv), (v) (ii), (iii)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Match column P to Q :-

Column-P Column-Q
A Lecithin i Present in genetic material
B Cholesterol ii Phospholipid
C Serine iii Derived lipid
No rotation of Plane Polarised
D Deoxyribose iv
light (Amino acid)
E Glycine v Alcoholic Amino acid
(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-v, D-i, E-iv
(2) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-v, E-i
(3) A-v, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii, E-i
(4) A-iv, B-i, C-v, D-ii, E-iii

9) False statement for glycogen molecule is :-

(1) β - 1'- 4" linkage, unbranched

(2) α - 1'- 4" linkage, branched
(3) Polymer of α-glucose
(4) α - 1' - 6" branch linkage

10) The tissue which exerts greatest control over the body's responsiveness to stimuli is

(1) Cardiac muscle tissue

(2) Neural tissue
(3) Skeletal tissue
(4) Blood

11) _______ is the most abundant protein in animal world and ________ is the most abundant protein in
the whole biosphere.

(1) Collagen, RuBisCO

(2) Collagen, keratin
(3) Keratin, RuBisCO
(4) Keratin, collagen

12) Represented below is the diagrammatic representation of an epithelium :–

How many of the below mentioned features / characteristics are valid for such an epithelium ? (A) It
is multilayered, hence known as compound epithelium. (B) It has maximum role in secretion and
absorption. (C) Its main function is to provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses.
(D) It covers the dry surfaces of skin, the moist surface of buccal cavity, pharynx, inner lining of
ducts of salivary glands and of pancreatic duct.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Two

13) The excess of nutrients of food which are not used immediately are converted into ____ and
stored in _____.

(1) Fat, simple columnar epithelium

(2) Proteins, Areolar connective tissue
(3) Fat, Areolar connective tissue
(4) Fat, Adipose connective tissue

14) Ligament is :-

(1) Dense white fibrous regular connective tissue

(2) Dense yellow fibrous regular connective tissue
(3) Dense yellow fibrous irregular connective tissue
(4) Dense white fibrous irregular connective tissue

15) (A) Catalyses the transfer of a group (Other than hydrogen) between a pair of substrate S and S'.
(B) Catalyses removal of group from substrates by mechanism other than hydrolysis leaving double
bond.
(C) Catalysing the linking of two molecules into one molecule by using energy.
Identify the classes of enzymes for above functions:-

A B C

(1) Ligases Lyases Transferases

(2) Transferases Lyases Ligases

(3) Lyases Ligases Transferases

(4) Transferases Ligases Lyases

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 3 2 1 3 1 2 2 3 4 3 4 2 3 3 3 2 2 3 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 3 2 2 3 1 2 3 4 2 3 4 2 1 2 4

SECTION - B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 4 4 3 1 3 3 2 4 4 2 2 4 1 3

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 2 2 4 2 3 3 2 1 1 2 1 3 2 3 1 2 2 2 1
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 1 2 1 4 4 4 4 2 2 3 3 3 4

SECTION - B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 2 2 2 4 2 4 1 2 4 1 1 3 1 2 3

BOTANY

SECTION - A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 3 3 3 4 3 3 2 2 1 4 1 2 2 2 2 2 2 4 2
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 4 1 1 3 2 1 1 3 2 4 4 1 1 2

SECTION - B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 2 2 2 3 3 2 4 4 1 1 2 1 3

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION - A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 3 2 2 2 1 4 3 3 2 3 1 1 2 1 2 4 1 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 3 4 1 2 1 3 1 3 3 2 1 1 3 1 1

SECTION - B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 1 3 1 2 3 1 1 1 2 1 2 4 2 (2)
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Average velocity =

2)

Average acceleration,

aavg =

3)

∵ Sn = U +
th (2n – 1) ∴

∴ Sn = 0 +
th =

4)
x + 3x + 5x + 7x = 10
16x = 10

height of 3rd drop

= 12 x
= 12 ×

5) Average speed =

6) If car acceleration for time t1 the maximum velocity is vmax = αt1. When car comes to rest,
0 = αt1 – βt2
(t2 = time for which car decelerates)
∴ t2 = (α/β)t1.

Total time = t = t1 + t2 = t1

Hence t1 = H

∴ Vmax =

7) At 4 s
u = at = 8m/s

s1 = at2 = × 2 × 42 = 16 m
From 4 s to 8 s
a = 0, v = constant = 8 m/s
∴ s2 = vt = (8)(4) = 32 m
From 8 s to 12 s
s3 = s1 = 16 m
∴ sTotal = s1 + s2 + s3 = 64 m

8)

R2 =

9)

Range = 16 m
10) 100 = –40 t + × 10 × t2
t2 – 8t – 20 = 0
t = 10 sec

11)

12)

13)
Now
⇒

So 100 km/h, 53° North of East

14) Area under curve = = 200 = impulse

Change in momentum
mv – 0
m = 8 kg, v = 25 m/s

15)

Reaction on 6th coin due to fifth coin = weight of the coins above 6th coin
= 4 mg

16)
T2 cos30°=T1
T2sin30 = 2kg-w.t.
T2 = 4kg-wt

17)

18) Contact force on block by wedge

19) T = mg sin θ

T=

20)

aA = 0

aB =

aC =

21)

2F – (15 + 60) g = 0
2F = 75 g

F= = 375 N

22) If T is the tension in the string, then net downward force = mg – T

Given Tmax = mg, then a = amin

24) See the theory

25)
fmax = μN = 0.2 × 50 = 10 N
F + f = 20
F + 10 = 20 ⇒ F = 10 N

26)
N = 10 × 10
= 100
(fs)max = μ × N = 0.5 × 100
= 50 N

fk = μ × N
= 50 N

a=

27) a = m/s2

T = m(g + a) =

S=

W = T.S =

28)

29)

=
30)

mg(h+x) =

31) By WET

F = –3150 N

32)

ucosθ = u ⇒ cosθ = , θ = 60º

R=

34) KX = 6 × 1.5 = 9N West

aA = East

35)
pseudo force = ma
= 10 × 2 = 20 N
20 = Kx

x = 2 cm

36)

Hanged part ⇒
Here ⇒ n = 2
WD to lift the complete chain on the table

37) It may be positive, negative or zero.

38) Wgravity = KEf – KEi

=0–
= – 10 J

39)

Gain in KE = Loss in PE

= 70 J

40)

P = Fv
P = (mg sin θ) v

=
= 6000 w
= 6 kw

41)

P = 50 – 30 – 120
P = –100

42) At position D F=O

and

43) P = FV = mav = mV V

P = mV2 →
V3 ∝ x → V ∝ (x)1/3
KE ∝ V2 ∝ (x)2/3

44)

For maximum speed calculation first identify minimum PE.

X2(1 – X2) = 0
Means solutions are
X = 0 OR x = +1 OR X = –1
Now

at X = 1

at X = –1

So

SO

45)

Impulse = Δp
Δp1 = 2mυ
Δp2 = 2mυ cos60° = mυ

46)

47)

Friction always opposes the relative motion of two bodies in contact.

by throwing something backward you can move forward.
 48)

49)

a = (4 – 3v) m/s2

at t = ∾ ⇒ v = v0

m/s
(Terminal velocity)

50)

CHEMISTRY

52) Mw = 2 × VD
= 2 × 56 = 112 g
14x = 112
x=8

56) C + O2 → CO2
Moles of O2 required

62)

spherical node = n – ℓ – 1
=4–0–1
 =3

69)

SO32– 1(x) + 3(–2) = – 2 ∴ x = + 4

S2O42– 2 (x)+ 4 (–2) = – 2 ∴ x = + 3
S2O62– 2 (x)+ 6 (–2) = – 2 ∴ x = + 5

74)

Atomic/ionic radius ∝ . As effective nuclear charge increases, size

decreases.
Pb > Pb2+ > Pb4+

91)

1 mole HNO3 ≡ 3 mol O ; So 5 mole HNO3 contains 15 mol 'O' atoms.

96) Cr has +6 and Mn has +7 oxidation state.

97)

98) On moving left to right

In s and p-block size decreases.

BOTANY

105)

NCERT XI, Pg # 164

107) NCERT Page No. 132, 133

Only (B) is incorrect.

109) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 133

110) NCERT XI Pg # 126

 119)

NCERT PG. 165

122) Terminal ends of chromosomes are called telomere. Centrioles take part in forming
spindle apparatus.

135)

NCERT Pg # 163

147) NCERT XI Pg#167

149) NCERT, Pg # 91

150)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 163 & 164

ZOOLOGY

151)

NCERT PG NO : 117.

152)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 118

153)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 110

154)

NCERT Page # 110.

155)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 107

156)

Allen module
157)

NCERT Page no. 106, 107 (fig 9.1)

158)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 117

159)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 105

160)

NCERT Pg. no 118

161)

Ncert Page 110, 111.

162)

NCERT Pg. no 117

163)

NCERT Pg.no. 117

164)

NCERT Pg.no. 111

165)

NCERT pg.no.106

166)

NCERT pg.no. 106

167) NCERT PG NO : 105

Statement I : Correct. When a tissue is fully burnt, the carbon compounds are indeed
oxidised to CO2 and water vapour, which are removed, leaving behind 'ash'.
Statement II : Incorrect. The 'ash' does not contain organic elements such as proteins and
carbohydrates; instead, it contains inorganic elements like calcium, magnesium, etc.
168) NCERT Page No. 108

169) NCERT Page No. 106

170) NCERT Pg NO : 109.

171) NCERT Pg No : 109

173)

Cartilage is present in the tip of nose, outer ear joints, between adjacent bones of the vertebral
column, limbs and hands in adults. Cells of this tissue (chondrocytes) are enclosed in small
cavities

174)

NCERT Pg. # 102

175) NCERT XI Pg # 103, 104

176) NCERT – XI, Pg. # 101

177) NCERT# XI, Pg. No. 101

178)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 104 (Fig 7.6 a, b)

179) NCERT Page No. 101

180)

ALLEN MODULE

181)

ALLEN MODULE

182)

ALLEN MODULE
183)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 103, 104

184)

NCERT Pg 103

185)

ALLEN MODULE

186) Old Ncert Page 104.

187) NCERT XI, Page#103

188)

ALLEN MODULE

189)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 104

190) NCERT Page No. 111, 112

191) Class XI, NCERT pg. no. 108, 109, 114.

192) NCERT XI, Pg. # 104

193) NCET XI Pg.# 105, 106, 111.

194)

NCERT XI, Page # 110.

195) NCERT Page no. 105

196) Ncert page 110.

197) NCERT# XI, Pg. No. 102, Fig.-7.3

198)

Module

199) NCERT XI- Page No. 103

200) Ncert Page 117.