FIITJEE – INTERNAL Phase Test

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

QP CODE: 100935 Paper – 2

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180

▪
BATCHES: Two Year CRP426 batches A-Lot _PT-3

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
▪ You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.

INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.

A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
3. Section-I is Physics, Section-II is Chemistry and Section-III is Mathematics.
4. All the section can be filled in PART-A & B of OMR.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet

1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on
OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for each
character of your Enrolment No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the
designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Two Parts.

(i) Part-A (01-04) – Contains Four (04) multiple choice questions which have ONLY ONE CORRECT answer
Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and -1 marks for wrong answer.

(ii) PART–A (05–07) contains (3) Multiple Choice Questions which have One or More Than One Correct
answer.
Full Marks: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct options(s) is (are) darkened.
Partial Marks: +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO incorrect
option is darkened.
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks: −1 In all other cases.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will
result in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will result
in −1 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.
(iii) Part-B (01-06) This section contains SIX (06) questions. The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE
INTEGER. For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer. Each question carries
+4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.

(iv) Part-B (07-10) This section contains Two paragraphs. Each paragraph having TWO questions Numerical
answer type with answer XXXX.XX. For each question, enter the correct numerical value. If the numerical
value has more than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places. Each
question carries +3 marks for the correct answer. There is no negative marking.

Name of the Candidate: ____________________________________________

Batch: ____________________ Date of Examination: ___________________

Enrolment Number: _______________________________________________

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 2 IT−2026- Two Year CRP426-A-lot_PT-3_Paper-2-(PCM)

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– II:: P
PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
(PART – A)
(Single Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. A Completely filled closed aquarium is kept on a weighing machine. It can be assumed that
the density of the fish is greater than the density of the water. The total mass of the
aquarium and its contents put together is M. If now all the fish start accelerating upwards
with a acceleration A, then the correct option is
(A) The weight recorded will be equal to Mg.
(B) The weight recorded will be less than Mg.
(C) The weight reading will be more than Mg.
(D) No conclusion can be drawn from the given information.
P
2. P-V plots for two gases during adiabatic processes are shown
in the figure. Plots 1 and 2 should correspond respectively to:
(A) He and O 2 (B) O2 and He 1
(C) He and Ar (D) O2 and N2 2
V

3. A rain drop of radius 1.5 mm, experiences a drag force F = ( 2  10−5 v ) N , while falling
through air from a height 2 km, with a velocity v. The terminal velocity of the rain drop will be
nearly (use g = 10m/s2–)
(A) 200 m/s (B) 80 m/s
(C) 7 m/s (D) 3 m/s

4 One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is taken from A to C

along the path ABC. The temperature of the gas at A is T0.
For the process ABC (where R is gas constant). Which of 2P0 C
the following is incorrect,
11
(A) Heat absorbed by the gas is RT
12 0
P0 B
11 A
(B) Heat absorbed by the gas is RT0
2
(C) Work done by the gas = RT0
V0 2V0
9
(D) Change in internal energy of gas is RT0
2
Space For Rough Work

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 3 IT−2026- Two Year CRP426-A-lot_PT-3_Paper-2-(PCM)

(One or More Than One Options Correct Type)

This section contains 3 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE is correct.

5. A closed organ pipe of length 28 cm closed at one end is found to be at resonance when
a tuning fork of frequency 850 Hz is sounded near the open end. If velocity of sound in air is
340 m/s, then the
(A) air in the pipe is vibrating in fundamental mode
(B) air in the pipe is vibrating in first overtone
(C) end correction of the pipe is 1 cm
(D) end correction of the pipe is 2 cm

6. Two bodies A and B have thermal emissivity of 0.01 and 0.81 respectively. The outer
surface areas of the two bodies are equal. The two bodies emit total radiant power at the
same rate. The wavelength  B corresponding to maximum spectral radiancy in the radiation
from B to shifted from the wavelength corresponding to maximum spectral radiancy in the
radiation from A by 1 m. If the temperature of A is 5802 K,
(A) The temperature of B is 1934 K (B) B = 1.5m
(C) The temperature of B is 1160 K (D) The temperature of B is 2901 K

7. A cylinder is floating in two liquids as shown in figure. Choose the

correct options
(A) net force on cylinder by liquid 1 is zero 1

(B) net force on cylinder by liquid 1 is non-zero

2
(C) net force on cylinder by liquid 2 is equal to weight of cylinder.
(D) net force on cylinder by liquid 2 is more than weight of cylinder.

(PART – B)
(Non – Negative Integer)
2 m/s2
1. A ball of mass 10 kg and density 1 gm/cm3 is attached
to the base of a container having a liquid of density
1.1 gm/cm3, with the help of a spring as shown in the
figure. The container is going up with an acceleration
2 m/s2. If the spring constant of the spring is 200 N/m,
then find the elongation (in cm) in the spring

P 3 4
2. 1 → 2 and 4 → 5 are adiabatic process, 3 → 4 and 5 → 1
are, isobaric process, 2 → 3 is isochoric process Q23 = 10 J, 2

Q34 = 15 J and Q51 = −10 J. If the efficiency of the cycle is

10k, then find the value of ‘k’ 1 5

Space For Rough Work

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 4 IT−2026- Two Year CRP426-A-lot_PT-3_Paper-2-(PCM)

3. 10 gms of ice at 00C is mixed with 5 gms of steam at 1000C. If latent heat of fusion of ice is
80 cal/gm and latent heat of vaporization is 540 cal/gm. Find the temperature (in °C) of
mixture at thermal equilibrium.

4. Hot water cools from 600C to 500C in the first 10 min and to 420C in the next 10 min. The
temperature of the surrounding (in 0C) is

5. If P-V diagram of a diatomic gas is plotted, it is a straight line passing through origin.
The molar heat capacity of the gas in the process is x J K–1 mol–1. Find the nearest integer
value of ‘x’. (Given: R = 8.31 J K–1 mol–1)

6. nth harmonic of a closed organ pipe is equal to mth harmonic of an open pipe. First overtone
frequency of the closed organ pipe is also equal to first overtone frequency of the open
2n
organ pipe. Find the value of , if m = 6.
m

(PART – B)
This section contains Two paragraphs. Each paragraph having TWO questions Numerical answer type with
answer XXXX.XX. For each question, enter the correct numerical value. If the numerical value has more than
two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.

Paragraph for Question no. 7 to 8

A cylindrical tank having a cross sectional area A is resting on a

smooth horizontal plane. It is filled with two immiscible non H/2 
viscous and incompressible liquids of density  and 2 each of
height H/2 as shown in figure. The liquid of density  is open to A B v
2
the atmosphere having pressure P0. A tiny hole of area of cross H/2
h
section a(<A) is made in right vertical side of the wall of the tank R
at a height h (< H/2)

7. The initial speed of efflux (v) of the liquid will be ( 3H − 4h ) g / n , find the value of ‘n’.

8. The initial horizontal distance R travelled by the liquid will be ( 3H − nh ) h , find the value
of ‘n’.
Space For Rough Work

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 5 IT−2026- Two Year CRP426-A-lot_PT-3_Paper-2-(PCM)

Paragraph for Question no. 9 to 10

An oscillator of frequency 680 Hz drives two speakers. The

speakers are fixed on a vertical pole at a distance 3m from each Person approaches
other as shown in the figure. A person whose height is almost the along this direction
3m
same as that of the lower speaker walks toward the lower speaker
in a direction perpendicular to the pole from a very large distance.
Assuming that there is no reflection of sound from the ground and
speed of sound is v = 340 m/s, answer the following question

9. As the person walks toward the pole, his distance from the pole (in m), when he first hears a
minimum in sound intensity is nearly

10. As the person walks toward the pole, find the total number of times that the person hears a
minimum in sound intensity will be
Space For Rough Work

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 6 IT−2026- Two Year CRP426-A-lot_PT-3_Paper-2-(PCM)

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– IIII:: C
CHHE
EMMIIS
STTR
RYY
(PART – A)
(Single Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Which of the following pair of compounds cannot be distinguished by bromine water test?
(A) C2H6 and C 2H4 (B) C2H6 and C 2H2
(C) C 2H4 and C 2H2 (D) C4H10 and C4H8

2. Compare rate of EAS

(A) a > b > c > d (B) a > c > b > d

(C) c > a > b > d (D) c > b > a > d

3. ClCH2CH2CH2CH2Cl (I) CH3CHCHCH3 (II)

Cl Cl

CH3CHCH2CH2Cl (III) CH3CH2CHCH2Cl (IV )

Cl Cl
Which of the above compound(s) can form 1, 3-butadiene(CH2 = CH – CH = CH2), when
they are subjected to elimination reaction?
(A) I, II (B) I, II, III
(C) I, II, III, IV (D) II, IV

4.
d a
c

b
Which of the following multiple bonds is most favourable for nucleophilic attack in presence
of a catalyst?
(A) a (B) b
(C) c (D) d
Space For Rough Work

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 7 IT−2026- Two Year CRP426-A-lot_PT-3_Paper-2-(PCM)

(One or More Than One Options Correct Type)

This section contains 3 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE is correct.

5.

The compound given above

(A) undergoes hydroboration and oxidation reactions
(B) contains one asymmetric carbon atom
(C) undergoes ring expansion on addition of H+ ion
(D) cannot form a seven membered ring in any way

6. Which of the following reaction(s) take(s) place through formation of carbocation ion
intermediate?
H2O/H+
(A) CH3CH = CH2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → (B) CH3CH = CH2 ⎯⎯⎯
HCl
→
(C) CH3 CH = CH2 ⎯⎯⎯
Br2
CCl4
→ (D) CH3CH = CH2 ⎯⎯⎯
H2 /Ni
→

7. Which of the following substance(s) is/are more acidic than CH3CH2OH?

OH

(A) (B) CH3COOH

(C) CH3CH = CH2 (D) CH3CH2CH3

(PART – B)
(Non – Negative Integer)

()
CH3CH2C  CH ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
(ii) CH3CH2Br →Product
i NaNH
1. 2

How many sp3 hybridized carbon atom(s) is/are present in the product of above reaction?

2. HC  CH + C2H5MgBr ⎯⎯→Product ( s)
How many hydrogen atom(s) is/are present in the hydrocarbon product of above reaction?
Space For Rough Work

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 8 IT−2026- Two Year CRP426-A-lot_PT-3_Paper-2-(PCM)

3.

How many carbonyl compound(s) is/are formed by reductive ozonolysis of the above
compound?

4. The molecular formula of a compound is C6H12. It gets saturated by absorbing one mole of
H2 in presence of Ni. It decolourises Br2/H2O as well as KMnO4 solution. On ozonolysis, it
forms ethanal and 2-butanone. How many geometrical isomers are possible for the
compound?

5. Cl

CH3CH2CCH2CH2CH3
CH3
How many total number of alkene(s) is/are formed when the above compound undergoes
dehydrochlorination reaction? [Consider stereoisomers]

6. The formula of an amine is C4H11N. How many -hydrogen atom(s) with respect to nitrogen
atom is/are present in its most basic isomer in gaseous state?
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 9 IT−2026- Two Year CRP426-A-lot_PT-3_Paper-2-(PCM)

(PART – B)
This section contains Two paragraphs. Each paragraph having TWO questions Numerical answer type with
answer XXXX.XX. For each question, enter the correct numerical value. If the numerical value has more than
two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.

Paragraph for Question no. 7 to 8

OH
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Conc.H2 SO4
Heat
→P + Q + R

Product yield = P > Q > R

e S
Cl 2/F

P Cl2 /h
v

T
O3 (Mild condition)
Q ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→U Zn/H2O

Answer the following questions on the basis of above reaction sequence.

7. What is the molar mass of (S) in g mol–1 unit?

8. If the number of oxygen atoms present in compound(U) is x. What is the value of x/10?

Paragraph for Question no. 9 to 10

The molecular formula of a compound (P) is C6H12. It gets saturated by absorbing one mole of H2 in
presence of Ni. It decolourises Br2/H2O as well as KMnO4 solution. On ozonolysis, it forms ethanal
and 2-butanone.
Answer the following questions on the basis of above write up

 x 
9. If the number of allylic hydrogen atoms present in (P) is ‘x’, then the value of  ?
 2.5 

10. Reaction of (P) with HCl produce ‘x’ number of products(including stereoisomers). What is
x
the value of   ?
2
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 10 IT−2026- Two Year CRP426-A-lot_PT-3_Paper-2-(PCM)

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– IIIIII:: M
MAAT
THHE
EMMA
ATTIIC
CSS
(PART – A)
(Single Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. If z1 = – 3 + 5i, z2 = –5 – 3i and z is a complex number lying on the line segment joining z1

and z2, then arg z can be
3   5
(A) – (B) – (C) (D)
4 4 6 6

100

 Cm ( x − 3 )
100 100 −m
2. The coefficient of x 52 in the expansion .2m is:
m=0
100 100 −100 −100
(A) C47 (B) C48 (C) C52 (D) C100

3. There are 4n things of which n are alike and all the rest different. Then the number of
permutations of 4n things taken 2n at a time, each permutation containing the n like things
4n! 4n! 4n! 3n!
(A) 2
(B) (C) (D)
(n!) 2n! n! (n!)2

x2 y2
4. Number of tangents drawn to the hyperbola − = 1 from the point (15, 12) is
25 16
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

(One or More Than One Options Correct Type)

This section contains 3 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONE or MORE THAN ONE is correct.

5. Equation of a tangent passing through (2, 8) to the hyperbola 5x2 − y2 = 5 is:

(A) 3x − y + 2 = 0 (B) 3x + 4y − 14 = 0
(C) 23x − 3y − 22 = 0 (D) 3x − 23y + 178 = 0

6. Coefficient of the middle term in the expansion of the binomial (1 + x)40 is equal to
220  (1 3  5......39 )
(A)
( 20)!
(B) the sum of the coefficients of the two middle terms in (1 + x)39
20  21 22.....40
(C)
( 20 ) !
( ) +( ) +( ) ( )
2 2 2 2
(D) 20
C0 20
C1 20
C2 + ..... + 20
C20

Space For Rough Work

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7. Let Z satisfies Z + 2(1 + i) = 2 then

(A) max ( Z ) = 4 2 (B) If arg(Z) is least Z = 6
(C) max(arg Z ) = 13 /12 (D) max(arg Z ) − min(arg Z ) =  / 3

(PART – B)
(Non – Negative Integer)

n −1
n −1
1. 
j =1
1
2 ij =
k
(
, find k. i = −1 )
1− e n

x2 y2
2. If L is the length of perpendicular from origin to any normal of ellipse + = 1, then
25 16
maximum value of L is

3. In how many ways can we distribute 5 different balls in 4 different boxes when order is not
consider inside the boxes and empty boxes are not allowed

4. The median of the following data is

x 12 15 18 21 24
f 4 6 2 3 5

5. Number of elements in set of values of r for which, 18

Cr −2 + 2. 18Cr + 18Cr  20C13 is satisfied:

x2 y2
6 The line 2x + y = 1 is tangent to the hyperbola − = 1. If this line passes through the
a2 b2
point of intersection of the nearest directrix and the x – axis, then the eccentricity of the
hyperbola, is
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 12 IT−2026- Two Year CRP426-A-lot_PT-3_Paper-2-(PCM)

(PART – B)
This section contains Two paragraphs. Each paragraph having TWO questions Numerical answer type with
answer XXXX.XX. For each question, enter the correct numerical value. If the numerical value has more than
two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.

Paragraph for Question no. 7 to 8

x2 y2
Let O be the centre of an ellipse (E) : + = 1 and having AB and CD as its major and
a2 b2
minor axes respectively. If S1 be one of the foci of the ellipse, radius of incircle of OCS1 be
1 unit and OS1=6 unit, then

7. If the area of ellipse (E) is k, then k is

8. Perimeter of OCS1 is (area of triangle = radius of incircle  semi perimeter of triangle)

Paragraph for Question no. 9 to 10

Let A1 , A2 , A3 ,........... An be the vertices of an n-sided regular polygon inscribed in a circle

If n = 15 then value of A1 A2 + A1 A3 + ........... A1 An =

2 2 2
9.

1 1 1
10. If the circle is of unit radius and if = + , then n =
A1 A2 A1 A3 A1 A4
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13 IT−2026- Two Year CRP426-A-lot_PT-3_Paper-2-(PCM)

FIITJEE INTERNAL TEST

BATCHES: Two Year CRP426 batches A-Lot _PT-3
Paper – 2
Code: 100935
JEE ADVANCED LEVEL
ANSWER KEY
ANSWER KEYS
Physics
PART – A
1. C 2. B 3. C 4. A
5. BD 6. AB 7. AC
PART – B
1. 6 2. 6 3. 100 4. 10
5. 25 6. 3 7. 2 8. 4
9. 17.9 (range: 17.8 to 18.0) 10. 6

Chemistry
PART – A
1. C 2. B 3. B 4. A
5. AC 6. AB 7. AB
PART – B
1. 4 2. 6 3. 3 4. 2
5. 5 6. 8 7. 166.5 8. 0.2
9. 3.2 10. 2.5

Mathematics
PART – A
1. D 2. B 3. D 4. A
5. AC 6. ABD 7. BD
PART – B
1. 2 2 1 3. 240 4. 15
5. 7 6. 2 7. 16.25 8. 15.00
9. 30 10. 7

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