16, Makde layout, Near Bhande Plot Square, Nandanvan Road, Nagpur - 9

TIME : 180 Mins NEET FULL TEST-I

Sub : PCB Marks : 720

1. In an AC circuit : (a) zero (b) V

  (c) 1.5 V (d) 3 V

I  5sin  100t   and V = 200 sin 100t.
 2
5. What will be r.m.s. value of given wave
The power consumed is : form over one cycle

(a) 500 / 2 (b) 1000

(c) 500 (d) Zero

2. In Young's double slit experiment the y-

coordinates of central maximum and 10th
maxima are 2 cm and 5 cm respectively. V0
(a) V0 (b)
2
When the YDSE apparatus is immersed in
the liquid of refractive index 1.5, the (c)
V0
(d)
V0
2 4
corresponding y-coordinates will be :
6. Two identical parallel plate capacitor are
(a) 2 cm, 7.5 cm (b) 3 cm, 6 cm
placed in series and connected to a
4 10
(c) 2 cm, 4 cm (b) cm, cm constant voltage source of V0 volt. If one of
3 3
the capacitors is completely immersed in
3. In the circuit shown, the current through
a liquid with dielectric constant K, the
the ideal diode is –
potential difference between the plates of
the other capacitor will change to :

 K 1   K 
(a)   V0 (b)   V0
 K   K 1 

 K 1   2K 
(c)   V0 (d)   V0
(a) 75 mA (b) 20 mA  2K   K 1 
(c) 100 mA (d) 25 mA 7. An electromagnetic wave with frequency
4. Two particles A and B initially at rest,  and wavelength  travels in the +y
move towards each other under a mutual direction. Its magnetic field is along +x
force of attraction. At the instant when the axis. The vector equation for the
speed of A is V and the speed of B is 2 V, associated electric field (of amplitude E0)
the speed of the centre of mass of the is
system is
:::: 1 ::::
   2 
(a) E  E0 cos  t  y  xˆ
  

  2 
(b) E  E0 cos  t  y  xˆ
  

  2 
(c) E  E0 cos  t  y  zˆ
  
(a) 0° (b) 60°
  2 
(d) E  E0 cos  t  y  zˆ
   (c) 30° (d) 45°

8. A body is projected at an angle of 30o with 11. A transformer is used to light 140 watt 24

the horizontal and with a kinetic energy volt lamp from 240 volt AC mains; the

equal to E. The kinetic energy at the current in the main cable is 0.7 amp. The

topmost point is efficiency of the transformer is :

E (a) 63.8% (b) 94%

(a) E (b)
2 (c) 83.3% (d) 48%

(c)
3E
(d) Zero 12. The circuit shown in following figure
4
contains two diode D1 and D2 each with a
9. A photoelectric surface is illuminated forward resistance of 50 ohms and with
successively by monochromatic light of infinite backward resistance. If the battery
 voltage is 6V, the current through the 100
wavelength  and . If the maximum
2
ohm resistance (in amperes) is –
kinetic energy of the emitted
photoelectrons in the second case is 3
times that in the first case the work
function of the surface of the material is:

hc hc
(a) (b)
3 2
(a) Zero (b) 0.02
hc 2hc
(c) (d) (c) 0.03 (d) 0.036
 

10. In the diagram, a prism of angle 30° is 13. The half life of radioactive Radon is 3.8

used. A ray PQ is incident as shown. An days. The time at the end of which 1/20th

emergent ray RS emerges perpendicular of the Radon sample will remain

to the second face. The angle of deviation undecayed is

is : (Given in ln10 = 2.3 ) :-

(a) 3.8 days (b) 16.5 days

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 (c) 33 days (d) 76 days (a) Electric field is zero but electric

14. In the Young's double-slit experiment the potential is non-zero

intensity of light at a point on the screen (b) Electric field is non-zero but electric
where the path difference is  is K, (  potential is zero
being the wave length of light used). The (c) Both electric field and electric
intensity at a point where the path potential are zero
difference is  / 4 will be
(d) Neither electric field nor electric
(a) K (b) K/4 potential is zero
(c) K/2 (d) Zero 18. A body is executing an S.H.M. What
15. A coil of area 80 cm2 and 50 turns is fraction of the total energy of the body
rotating with 2000 revolutions per minute will be kinetic when its displacement from
about an axis perpendicular to a magnetic the mean position is half of its amplitude?
field of 0.05 tesla. The maximum value of 1 3
(a) (b)
the emf developed in it is : 2 2

10 3 1
(a) 200 volt (b) volt (c) (d)
3 4 4

4 2 19. A cyclist moves on a circular track of

(c) volt (d) volt
3 3 radius 100 metre. If the coefficient of
16. The work done in taking a unit positive friction is 0.2, then the maximum speed
charge from P to A is WA and from P to B is with which the cyclist can take a turn
WB. Then without leaning inwards is:

(a) 9.8 ms–1 (b) 1.4 ms–1

(c) 140 ms–1 (d) 14.0 ms–1

20. Sand drops vertically at the rate of

2kg/sec on to a conveyor belt moving
(a) WA > WB (b) WA < WB
horizontally with a velocity of 0.2 m/sec.
(c)WA = WB (d) WA + WB = 0 Then the extra force required to keep the
17. Four charges 2C, –3C, –4C and 5C belt moving is :
respectively are placed at all the corners
(a) 0.4 N (b) 0.08 N
of a square. Which of the following
(c) 0.04 N (d) 0.2 N
statements is true for the point of
21. A hollow conducting sphere is placed in a
intersection of the diagonals ?
electric field proudced by a point charge
placed at P as shown in figure. Let VA, VB,

:::: 3 ::::
 V be the potentials at points A, B and C

respectively. Then

What should be the distance between the

two lenses so that rays after refraction
(a) V > VB (b) VB > V from both the lenses pass undeviated ?

(c) VA > VB (d) VA = VB (a) 60 cm (b) 30 cm

22. The magnetic induction at the centre O of (c) 90 cm (d) 40 cm

the current carrying bent wire shown in 25. If the earth be at one-half its present
the adjoining figure is: distance from the sun, the number of days
in one year will be

(a) 129 (b) 182

(c) 365 (d) 730

26. A zener diode is to be used as a voltage

regulator. Identify the correct set up –

0 I 0 I
(a)  (b) 
4 R1 4 R2

0 I  1 1  0 I  1 1 
(c)    (d)    (a)
4  R1 R2  4  R1 R2 

23. A polarized light of intensity I0 is passed

through another polarizer whose pass
axes makes an angle of 60° with the pass
(b)
axis of the former. What is the intensity of
emergent polarized light from second
polarizer ?

I0 (c)
(a) I  (b) I  I0
5

I0 I0
(c) (d) I 
4 6

24. A parallel beam of light is incident on a (d)

system of two convex lenses of focal
27. A dielectric is placed in between the two
lengths f1 = 20 cm and f2 = 10 cm.
parallel plates of a capacitor as shown in

:::: 4 ::::
 figure, the dielectric constant of the respectively. If the mass is slightly pulled
dielectric beings K. If the initial capacity is down and released, it will oscillate with a
C, then the new capacity will be time period T equal to

(a) 2 
m
(b) 2  (YA  KL) m 
12


K  YAK 

mYA mL
(c) 2 (d) 2
KL YA

(a) KC (b) (K +1) C 31. An unknown frequency source X produces

8 beats with another source of frequency
(c) C (K + 1)/2 (d) (K - 1) C
250 Hz and 12 beats with source of
28. For a certain mass of a gas, the isothermal
frequency 270 Hz. The frequency of
curves between P and V at T1 and T2
source X will be-
temperatures are shown in figure. Then
(a) 282 Hz (b) 262 Hz

(c) 242 Hz (d) 258 Hz

32. The potential energy of an object of mass

m moving in xy plane in a conservative
field is given by U = ax + by, where x and y
are position coordinates of the object.
(a) T1 > T2 (b) T1 < T2
Find magnitude of its acceleration:-
(c) T1 = T2
a2  b2 a2  b2
(a) (b)
(d) nothing can be predicted m m

29. The bulk modulus of rubber is (c) a2  b2 (d) None

9.8 108 Nm2 . To what depth, below the 33. There are four point masses m each on the
surface of the sea, should the rubber ball corners of a square of side length l. What
be taken so that its volume decreases by is the moment of inertia of the system
0.1%? about one of its diagonals?

(a) 1 m (b) 10 m (a) 2ml2 (b) ml2

(c) 100 m (d) 1 km (c) 4ml2 (d) 6ml2

30. One end of a long metallic wire of length L 34. Two masses of 10 kg and 20 kg
is tied to the ceiling. The other end is tied respectively are connected by a massless
to massless spring of spring constant K. A spring as shown in the figure. A force of
mass m hangs freely from the free end of 200 N acts on the 20 kg mass. At the
the spring. The area of cross-section and instant shown the 10 kg mass has
Young's modulus of the wire are A and Y

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 acceleration 12 m/s2. What is the will be at if rod is placed along + ve x-axis
acceleration of 20 kg mass :- with one end at origin :-
2L 3L
(a) (b)
3 2
L 4L
(c) (d)
2 3

(a) Zero (b) 10 m/s2 39. A uniform chain has a mass m and length

(c) 4 m/s2 (d) 12 m/s2 l. It is held on a frictionless table with one-

35. A particle is moving along a straight line sixth of its length hanging over the edge.

with increasing speed. Its angular The work done in just pulling the hanging

momentum about a fixed point on this part back on the table is

line:  mg
(a) mg (b)
72 36
(a) Goes on increasing
mg mg
(b) Goes on decreasing (c) (d)
12 6
(c)May be increasing or decreasing
40. A common emitter amplifier has a voltage
depending on direction of motion
gain of 50, an input impedance of 100 
(d) Remains zero and an output impedance of 200  . The
36. A force of 10 N is applied on a body for 3 power gain of the amplifier is
sec and the corresponding displacement is (a) 100 (b) 500
6m. The power of the force is:
(c) 1000 (d) 1250
(a) 20 W (b) 25 W
41. A vibration magnetometer is placed at the
(c) 40 W (d) 50 W south pole; then its the time period will be
37. The magnetic induction due to circular :
current carrying conductor of radius a, at (a) Zero
its centre is BC. The magnetic induction on
(b) Infinity
its axis at a distance a from its centre is Ba.
(c) Same as at magnetic equator
The value of Bc : Ba will be –
(d) Same as at any other place on the
(a) 2 : 2 (b) 1 : 2 2
earth
(c) 2 2 : 1 (d) 2 : 2
42. If first excitation potential of a hydrogen
38. The mass per unit length of a non-uniform like atom is V volt, then ionization energy
rod of length L varies as m  x where  of this atom will be
is constant. The centre of mass of the rod
3V
(a) V electron volt (b) electron volt
4

:::: 6 ::::
 4V 9V 46. If 0.15 g of solute, dissolved in 15 g of
(c) electron volt (d) electron volt
3 8 solvent, is boiled at a temperature higher
43. A 5 watt source emits monochromatic by 0.2160C, than that of the pure solvent,
light of wavelength 5000Å. When placed the molecular weight of the substance is
0.5 m away, if liberates photoelectrons (molal elevation constant for the solvent
from a photosensitive metallic surface. is 2.160C)
When the source is moved to a distance of (a) 1.01 (b) 10
1.0m, the number of photo electrons
(c) 10.1 (d) 100
liberated will
47. The entropy for spontaneous process
(a) be reduced by a factor of 2
(a ∆S >0 (b) ∆S <0
(b) be reduced by a factor of 4
(c) ∆S = 0 (d) all of these
(c) be reduced by a factor of 8
48. Which have highest extent of overlap is?
(d) be reduced by a factor of 16
(a) 2s- 2s (b ) 2p-2p
44. In a medium, the force of attraction
(c) 3s-3p (d) 3s - 4p
between two point charges, distance d
49. Which one of the following statements is
apart, is F. What distance apart should
incorrect about enzyme catalysis?
these point charges be kept in the same
(a)Enzymes are mostly proteinous in
medium, so that the force between them
nature
becomes 16 F ?
(b) Enzymes action is specific
d d (c) Enzymes are denaturated by UV-rays
(a) (b)
2 4
and at high temperature
d d (d) Enzymes are least reactive at optimum
(c) (d)
3 2
temperature
45. An electric bulb and a capacitor are 50. 600 cc of a gas at a pressure of 750 mm is
connected in series with an AC source. On compressed to 500 cc. Taking the
increasing the frequency of the source, the temperature to remain constant, the
brightness of the bulb: increase in pressure is
(a) Increases (a) 150 mm (b) 250 mm

(b) Decreases (c) 350 mm (d) 450 mm

51. XeF2 is isostructural with
(c) Remains unchanged
(a) TeF2 (b) ICl 2
(d) Sometimes increases and sometimes
(c) SbCl3 (d) SO2
decreases
52. What is the correct relationship between

:::: 7 ::::
 the pH of isomolar solutions of sodium 58. Propene, CH3-CH =CH2 can be converted
oxide (pH1), sodium sulphide (pH2), into 1-propanal by oxidation. Indicate
sodium selenide (pH3) and sodium which set of reagents amongst the
telluride (pH4)? following is ideal to affect the above
(a) pH1> pH2  pH3 > pH4 conversion?
(b) pH1< pH2 < pH3 < pH4 (a) KMnO4 (alkaline)
(c) pH1< pH2 < pH3  pH4 (b) Osmium tetroxide (OsO4/Ch2Cl2)
(d) pH1> pH2 > pH3 > pH4 (c) B2H6 and alk H2O2
53. Which of the following is paramagnetic? (d) O3/Zn
(a) CO (b) O 2 59. Which chloro derivative of benzene

(c) CN- (d) NO+ among the following would undergo

54. The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle hydrolysis most readily with aq. NaOH to

with mass 1 g and velocity 100 m/s is furnish the corresponding hydroxyl

(a) 6.63 x 10-33 m (b) 6.63 x 10-34 m derivative?

(c) 6.63 x 10-35 m (d) 6.65 x 10-36 m

55. The dissociation constants for acetic
acid and HCN at 25 0C are 1.5 x 10-5 and
4.5 x 10-10, respectively. The equilibrium
constant for the equilibrium,
CN   CH3COOH and

HCN  CH 3COO would be

(a) 3.0 x 105 (b) 3.0 x 10-5

(c) 3.0 x 10-4 (d) 3.0 x 104
56. Increasing order of acidic strength among
p-methoxy phenol (I), p-methyl phenol
60. Nylon is an example of
(II) and p-nitrophenol (III) is
(a) polyester (b) polysaccharide
(a) III, I, II, (b) II, I, III
(c) polyamide (d) polythene
(c) III, II, I (d) I, II, III
2
61. Which alcohol react fast wich Lucas
57. Among  Ni  CO 4  ,  Ni  CN 4  , [NiCl4 ]2
reagent ?
species, the hybridization states of the Ni (a) 1 alcohol
atom are, respectively (At. No. of Ni=28) (b) 2 alcohol
(c) 3 alcohol
(d) all have same rate
62. Antiseptics and disinfectants either kill or

:::: 8 ::::
 prevent growth of microorganisms . (c) 8.25 g / cm3 (d) 4.25 g / cm3
Identify which of the following is not true. 67. pH of a saturated solution of Ba(OH)2 is
(a) 0.2% solution of phenol is an 12. The value of solubility product KSP of
antiseptic while 1% solution acts as a Ba (OH)2 is
disinfectant (a) 3.3 x 10-7 (b) 5.0 x 10-7
(b) Chlorine and iodine are used as strong (c) 4.0 x 10-6 (d) 5.0 x 10-6
disinfectants 68. Standard reduction potentials at 250C of
(c) Dilute solutions of boric acid and Li+/Li, Ba2+/ Ba, Na+ / Na and Mg2+/ Mg
hydrogen, peroxide are strong antiseptics are -3.05, -2.90, -2.71 and -2.37 V
(d) Disinfectants harm the living tissues respectively. Which one of the following is
63. Which of the following organic the strongest oxidising agent?
compounds has same hybridization as its (a)Mg2 (b) Ba 2+
combustion (CO2) product? (c) Na+ (d) Li+
(a) Ethane (b) Ethyne 69. Which one of the following forms a
(c) Ethene (d) Ethanol colourless solution in aqueous medium?
64. According to molecular orbital theory (At no. Sc = 21, Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24)
which of the following lists rank the (a) V3+ (b) Cr3+
nitrogen species in terms of increasing (c) Ti3+ (d) Sc3+
bond order? 70. The IUPAC name of
(a) N 2 <N2<N 22  (b) N 22  <N 2 < N2 (a) 3, 4-dimethylpentanoyl chloride
(c) N2<N 22  <N 2 (d) N 2 <N 22  <N2 (b)1-chloro-1 –oxo-2, 3 –dimethylpentane
65. The correct set of four quantum numbers (c) 2-ethyl-3-methylbutanoyl chloride
for the valence electron of rubidium atom
(d) 2, 3-dimethyl pentanoyl chloride
(at. no. = 37) is
1 1 71. In carius method the minimum moles of
(a) 5,1,1 + (b) 6,0,0 ,+
2 2 AgNO3 required to obtain ppt. on reaction
1 1 of with 1.17 gm of NaCl is [At wt. Na=23,
(c) 5,0,0, + (d) 5,1,0 +
2 2 Cl=35.5]
66. CsBr crystallizes in a body centred cubic
(a) 0.25 moles (b) 0.5 moles
lattice. The unit cell length is 436.6 pm.
(c) 0.02 moles (d) 0.015 moles
Given that the atomic mass of Cs = 133 u
and that of Br= 80 u and Avogadro 72. Which one of the following is correct?

number being 6.023 x 1023 mol-1, the (a)Reduction of any aldehyde gives
density of CsBr is secondary alcohol
(a) 42.5g / cm3 (b) 0.425 g / cm3
(b) Reaction of vegetable oil with H2SO4
:::: 9 ::::
 gives oxalic acid. 
Enzyme(B)
Amin o acids

(c) Ethanol on iodine with NaOH gives Are respectively

iodoform
(a) amylase and maltase
(d) Sucrose on reaction with NaCl gives
(b) diastase and lipase
invert sugar
(c) pepsin and trypsin
73. In the reaction,
(d) Invertase and zymase

78. Which one of the following molecules

the term Y is contain no  bond?

(a) acetone (b) ethanamine (a) CO2 (b) H2O

(c) acetaldehyde (d) dimethyl amine (c) SO2 (d) NO2

74. Benzoic acid gives benzene on being 79. Amphiprotic substance is..
heated with X and phenol gives benzene (a) Sulfuric acid (b) Nitric acid
on being heated with Y. Therefore, X and
(c) Hydrogen sulfide ion (d) Ammonia ion
Y are respectively
80. For a reversible reaction, if the
(a) sodalime and copper
concentrations of the reactants are
(b) Zn dust and NaOH doubled, the equilibrium constant will be
(c)Zn dust and sodalime (a) one-fourth (b) halved
(d) sodalime and zinc dust (c) doubled (d) the same

75. Natural rubber is a polymer of 81. In which of the following reactions,

standard reaction entropy changes [ S0 ]
(a) butadiene (b) styrene
is positive and standard Gibbs energy
(c) Neoprene (d) isoprene
change [ G0 ] decreases sharply with
76. Which one of the following vitamins is
increasing temperature ?
water – soluble?
1
(a) C (graphite) + O2 (g)  CO (g)
(a) Vitamin-B (b) Vitamin- E 2
1
(c) Vitamin – K (d) Vitamin – A (b) CO (g) + O2 (g)  CO2 (g)
2
77. During the process digestion, the proteins 1
(c) Mg (s) + O2 (g)  MgO (s)
present in food materials are hydrolysed 2
to amino acids. The two enzymes involved 1 1 1
(d) C (graphite) + O2(g)  CO2(g)
in the process 2 2 2
82. If the E0Cell for a given reaction has
Pr oteins 
Enzyme(A)
Polypeptides
:::: 10 ::::
 negative value then which of the following (a) 2-butene (b) Butanol
gives the correct relationships for the (c) 2– butyne (d) 2- butanol
values of  G0 and Keq? 88. Chlorobenzene reacts with Mg in dry
(a)  G0 < 0, Keq > 1 (b)  G0 < 0, Keq < 1 ether to give a compound (A) which
(c)  G0 > 0, Keq < 1 (d)  G0 > 0, Keq > 1 further reats with ethanol to yield
83. Which of the following pairs of metal is (a) phenol (b) benzene
purified by van-Arkel method? (c) ethyl benzene (d) phenyl ether
(a) Zr and Ti (b) Ag and Au 89. HBr reacts fastest with
(c) Ni and Fe (d) Ga and ln (a) 2-methyl propan – 1 –ol
84. Identify the correct order of the size of the (b) 2-methyl propan – 2 -ol
following. (c) propan – 2 – ol
(a) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar < S2-< Cl- (d) propan- 1 – ol
(b) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar < Cl-< S2- 90. CH3COCH3 + excess (X2 + NaOH) -------- >.
(c) Ar < Ca2+ < K+ < Cl-< S2- CH3COONa +CHX3 for this conversion how
(d) Ca2+ < Ar < K+ < Cl-< S2- many mole of NaOH is required ?
85. [Co(NH3)4(NO2)2] Cl exhibits (a) 3 (b) 2
(a) linkage isomerism, geometrical (c) 1 (d) 4
isomerism and optical isomerism 91. How many plants in the list given below
(b) linkage isomerism, ionization have composite fruits that develop from
isomerism and optical isomerism an inflorescence?
(c) linkage isomerism, ionization Walnut, poppy, radish, fig, pineapple,
isomerism and geometrical isomerism apple, tomato, mulberry
(d) ionization isomerism, geometrical (a) Four (b) Five
isomerism and optical isomerism (c) Two (d) Three
86. Which one of the following is most 92. The type of placentation in which ovary is
reactive towards electrophilic reagent? syncarpous, unilocular and ovules on
sutures is called
(a) apical placentation
(b) parietal placentation
(c) marginal placentation
(d) superficial placentation
93. The scutellum observed in a grain of
87. Which of the following compounds will wheat or maize is comparable to which
exhibit cis-trans (geometrical) part of the seed in other monocotyledons?
isomerism? (a) Cotyledon (b) Endosperm

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 (c) Aleurone layer (d) Plumule (a) absence of secondary xylem
94. Total number of meiotic divisions (b) absence of secondary phloem
required for forming 100 zygotes/100 (c) presence of cortex
grains of wheat are (d) position of protoxylem
(a) 100 (b)75 99. Angiotensinogen is a protein produced
(c)125 (d) 50 and secreted by
95. Artificial insemination means (a)macula densa cells
(a)transfer of sperms of a healthy donor (b)endothelial cells (cells lining theblood
to a test-tube containing ova vessels)
(b)transfer of sperms of husband to a test- (c)liver cells
tube containing ova (d)Juxtaglomerular (JG) cells
(c)artificial introduction of sperms of a 100. Montreal protocol aims at
healthy donor into the vagina (a) reduction of ozone depleting
(d)introduction of sperms of healthy substances
donor directly into the ovary (b) biodiversity conservation
96. Which one of the following statements is (c) control of water pollution
false in respect of viability of mammalian (d) control of C02 emission
sperm? 101. Which one of the following hormones is a
(a) Sperm is viable for only up to 24 h modified amino acid?
(b) Survival of sperm depends on the pH (a) Epinephrine (b) Progesterone
of the medium and is more active in (c) Prostaglandin (d) Estrogen
alkaline medium 102. Which one is a long-day plant?
(c) Viability of sperm is determined by its (a) Tobacco (b) Glycine max
motility (c) Mirabilis jalapa (d) Spinach
(d) Sperms must be concentrated in a 103. Which one of the following is not a
thick suspension micronutrient?
97. Ground tissue includes (a)Molybdenum (b)Magnesium
(a) all tissues except epidermis and (c)Zinc (d)Boron
vascular bundles 104. EMP can produce a total of

(b) epidermis and cortex (a) 6 ATP (b)8ATP

(c) all tissues internal to endodermis (c) 24 ATP (d) 38 ATP

(d) all tissues external to endodermis 105. If two persons with 'AB' blood group
marry and have sufficiently large number
98. Anatomically fairly old dicotyledonous
of children, these children could be
root is distinguished from the
classified as 'A' blood group : 'AB' blood
dicotyledonous stem by
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 group : ‘B’ blood group in 1 : 2 : 1 ratio. (d) ampR, tetR -antibiotic resistance genes
Modern technique of protein 108. A transgenic food crop which may help in
electrophoresis reveals presence of both solving the problem of night blindness in
'A' and 'B' type proteins in 'AB' blood developing countries is
group individuals. This is anexample of (a) Bt soyabean
(a) codominance (b) golden rice
(b) incomplete dominance (c) flavr savr tomatoes
(c) partial dominance (d) starlink maize
(d) complete dominance 109. A major site for synthesis of lipids is
106. The diagram shows an important concept (a) RER (b) SER
in the genetic implication of DNA. Fill in (c) symplast (d) nucleoplasm
the blanks A to C. 110. Which one of the following is not a
constituent of cell membrane?
(a)Cholesterol (b)Glycolipids
(c)Proline (d)Phospholipids
(a) A-transcription, B-replication, C-James 111. A stage in cell division is shown in
Watson thefigure. Select the answer which
(b) A-translation, B-transcription, C-Erwin givescorrect identification of the stage
Chargaff with itscharacteristics
(c) A-transcription, B-translation, C-
Francis Crick
(d) A-translation, B-extension, C-Rosalind
Franklin
107. The given figure is the diagrammatic
representation of the E. colivector pBR322. (a) Telophase - Nuclear envelope reforms,
Which one of the given options correctly Golgi complex reforms
identifies its certain component(s)? (b) Late - Chromosomes move away
anaphase from equatorial plate,
Golgicomplex not present
(c) Cytokinesis - Cell plate formed,
mitochondria distributed
PvaII between two daughter cells
(a) Ori-original restriction enzyme (d) Telophase - Endoplasmic reticulum
(b) rop-reduced osmotic pressure and nucleolus not
(c) HindIII, Eco Rl-selectable markers reformed yet

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112. Match the following and select the correct 115. Which of the following statement is
combination from the options given without exception for sponges?
Column-I Column-II (a) They all have calcareour spicules
(Group protista) (Example) (b) They have high regenerative power
(A) Chrysophytes (i) Paramecium (c) They are found only in marine water
(B) Dinoflagellates (ii) Euglena (d) They are all radially symmetric
(C) Euglenoids (iii) Gonyaulax 116. Which of the following character is absent
(D) Protozoans (iv) Diatoms in all chordates?
(a) A-ii, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv (a) Diaphragm
(b) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i (b) Coelom
(c) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i (c) Pharyngeal gill clefts
(d) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii (d) Dorsal nerve cord
113. Viruses can be considered as living 117. Excretion in cockroach takes place by
because they (a) nephridium
(a) reproduce in host cells (b) parotid gland
(b) respond to touch stimulus (c) coxal glands
(c) carry out metabolic activities (d) Malpighian tubules
(d) carry out anaerobic respiration 118. Essentical : non-essential amino acid is
114. Consider the following statements (a) lysine : leucine
regarding the major pigments and stored (b) methionine : tryptophan
food in the different groups of algae and (c) valine : tyrosine
select the correct option. (d) alanine : cystine
(A) In chlorophyceae the stored food 119. Colchicine is an inhibitory chemical, which
material is starch and the major pigments (a) stops the functioning of centriole
are chlorophyll-a and b (b) prevents attaching of centromers with
(B) In phaeophyceae, laminarin starch is rays
the stored food and the major pigments (c) prevents the spindle formation in
are chlorophyll-a, and 6. mitosis
(C) In rhodophyceae, floridean starch is (d) prevents the formation of equatorial
the stored food and major pigments are plate
chlorophyll-a, d and phycoerythrin. 120. Consider the following statements with
(a) A is correct, but B and C are wrong respect to photosynthesis.
(b) A and B are correct, but C is wrong (A) The first carbon dioxide acceptor in C4
(c) A and C are correct, but B is wrong cycle is PGA.
(d) B is correct, but A and C are wrong. (B) In C3 plants, the first stable product of

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 photosynthesis during dark reaction is to both oxygen and hydrogen
RuBP. (b) increases the affinity of haemoglobin
(C) Cyclic photophosphorylation results in to oxygen but decreases its affinity to
the formation of ATP. hydrogen
(D) Oxygen which is liberated during (c) decreases the affinity of haemoglobin
photosynthesis comes from water. to oxygen by increases its affinity to
Of the above statements. hydrogen
(a) A and B alone are correct (d) decreases the affinity of haemoglobin
(b) A and C alone are correct to both oxygen and hydrogen.
(c) C and D alone are correct 125. Which of the following is not the main
(d) B and C alone are correct function of lymph glands?
121. Which of the following is a free living (a) Forming RBC
nitrgon fixing bacterium present in the (b) Destroying bacteria
soil? (c) Forming WBC
(a) Nitrosomonas (b) Rhizobium (d) Forming antibodies
(c) Azotobacter (d) Pseudomonas 126. Pacemaker is
122. ATP is synthesized in (a) SA-node (b) SV-node
(a) plasmalemma (b) ion channels (c) AV-node (d) VA-node
(c) F1 particles (d) all of these 127. Inner lining of the kidney has
123. What will happen if the secretion of (a) nephrocyte (b) podocyte
parietal cells of gastric glands is blocked (c) choanocyte (d) amoebocyte
with an inhibitor? 128. In human body, which one of the following
(a) In the absence of HCl secretion, is anatomically correct?
inactive pepsinogen is not converted into (a) Collar bones - 3 pairs
the active enzyme pepsin. (b) Salivary glands - 1 pairs
(b) Enterokinase will not be released from (c) Cranial nerves - 10 pairs
the duodenal mucosa and so trypsinogen (d) Floating ribs - 2 pairs
is not converted to trypsin. 129. The ‘thick’ filament in muscles is
(c) Gastric juice will be deficient in polymerized protein of
chymosin (a) meromyosins (b) actins
(d) Gastric juice will be deficient in (c) troponins (d) tropomyosins
pepsinogen. 130. One common example of simple reflex is
124. In the tissues, high concentration of (a) tying your shoe laces while talking to
carbon dioxide another person and not looking at them
(a) increases the affinity of haemoglobin (b) watering of mouth at the sight of a

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 favourite food 136. In sickle cell anaemia glutamic acid is
(c) climbing up a stairs in dark without replaced by valine. Which one of the
stumbling following triplets codes for valine.
(d) closing of eyes when strong light is (a) GGG (b) AAG
flashed across them. (c) GAA (d) GUG
131. Secretion of progesterone by corpus 137. Pick out the correct statements.
luteum is initiated by (i) Haemophillia is a sex-linked recessive
(a) testosterone (b) thyroxine disease
(c) MSH (d) LH (ii) Down’s syndrome is due to aneuploidy
132. First polar body is formed at which stage (iii) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal
of oogenesis? dominant gene disorder.
(a) First meiosis (b) Second mitosis (iv) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal
(c) First mitosis (d) Differentiation recessive gene disorder.
133. Which one of the following does correctly (v) Sickle-cell anaemia is an X-linked
match a sexually transmitted disease with recessive gene disorder.
its pathogen? (a) (i), (iii) and (v) are correct
(a) Syphilis - Treponema pallidum (b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(b) Gonorrhoea – Entamoeba histolytica (c) (ii) and (v) are correct
(c) Urethritis – Bacillus anthracis (d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) Softsore – Bacillus brevis 138. In a typical Mendelian cross which is a
134. Which of the following statements is/are dihybrid cross, one parent is homozygous
true? for both dominant traits and other parent
(A) Endothercium lies behind epidermis is homozygous for both recessive traits. In
(B) Fusion of egg with male gamete is the F2 generation, both parental
called apogamy. combinations and recombinations appear.
(C) Synergids are haploid. The phenotypic ratio of parental
(D) The point at which funicle touches the combinations to recombinations is
ovule is raphe. (a) 10 : 6 (b) 12 : 4
(a) A and D only (b) A and B only (c) 9 : 7 (d) 15 : 1
(c) A and D only (d) A and C only 139. The sporozoites that cause infection when
135. Choose the mis-matched option a female Anopheles mosquito bites a
(a) Wing-Cannabis-Anemophily human being are formed in
(b) Water – Zoostera – Hydrophily (a) liver of human
(c) Insects – Salvia – Entomophily (b) RBCs of mosquito
(d) Birds – Adansonia – Ornithophily (c) oocysts located on outer wall of

:::: 16 ::::
 midgut of mosquito (b) longer ears and shorter limbs
(d) intestine of human (c) longer ears and longer limbs
140. Which one of the following is not an (d) shorter ears and shorter limbs
autoimmune disease? 145. Productivity is the rate of production of
(a) Graves’ disease biomass expressed in terms of
(b) Pernicious anaemia (i) kcal / m3 / yr (ii) g / m2 / yr
(c) Rheumatoid arthritis
(iii) g/yr (iv) kcal / m2 / yr
(d) Insomnia
(a) (ii) (b) (iii)
141. In virus-infected plants the meristematic
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
tissues in both apical and axillary buds are
146. An ecological pyramid of biomass is the
free of virus because
representation of the ecosystem’s
(a) the dividing cell are virus resistant
(a) energy flow through each trophic level
(b) meristems have antiviral compounds
(b) population in each food web
(c) the cell divising of mersitems are
(b) tissue organisation at each trophic
faster than the rate of viral multiplication
level
(d) viruses cannot multiply within
(d) all of the above
meristematic cells
147. Select the incorrect statement
142. Select the wrong statement.
(a) The montreal protocol is associated
(a) VNTR belong to a class of mini-satellite
with the control of emission of ozone
DNA
depleting substances.
(b) DNA sequencers work on the principle
(b) Methane and carbon dioxide are green
developed by Frederick Sanger
house gases
(c) HGP was coordinated by US
(c) Dobson units are used to measure
Department of Energy and the National
oxygen content
Institute of Health
(d) Use of incinerators is crucial to
(d) DNA fingerprinting involves
disposal of hospital wastes.
identifying similarities in repetitive DNA.
148. Systemic heart refers to
143. Most widely used bioweapon is
(a) enteric heart in lower vertebrates
(a) Bacillus subtilis
(b) the two ventricles together in humans
(b) Pseudomonas putida
(c) the heart that contracts under
(c)Bacillus anthracis
stimulation from nervous system
(d) None of these
(d) left auricle and left ventricle in higher
144. According to Allen’s Rule, the mammals
vertebrates
from colder climates have
(a) shorter ears and longer limbs

:::: 17 ::::
149. The world's highly prized wool yielding (d) fructose and some amino acids
'Pashmina' breed is 154. A person entering an empty room
(a) Goat suddenly finds a snake right in front on
(b) Sheep opening the door. Which one of the
(c) Goat-sheep cross following is likely to happen in his
(d) Kashmir sheep-Afghan sheep cross neurohormonal control system?
150. The formula for exponential population (a) Sympathetic nervous system is
growth is activated releasing epinephrine and
(a) dt/dN = rN (b) dN/dt = rN norepinephrine from adrenal medulla
(c) rN/dN = dt (d) dN/dt = Rn (b) Neurotransmitters diffuse rapidly
151. Which of the following hormone across the cleft and transmit a nerve
responsible for ovulation impulse
(a) LH (b) estrogen (c) Hypothalamus activates the
(c) progesterone (d) androgen parasympathetic division of brain
152. The figure given below shows a small part (d) Sympathetic nervous system is
of human lung where exchange of gas activated releasing epinephrine and
takes place. In which one of the options norepinephrine from adrenal cortex
given below, the one part A, B, C or D is 155. Haemophilic man marries a normal
correctly identified along with its woman. Their offspring will be
function. (a) all boys haemophilic
(b) all normal
(c) all girls haemophilic
(d) all haemophilic
156. Central dogma was proposed by
(a) Beadle and Tatum

(a) A— Alveolar — main site of (b) Crick

cavity exchange of (c) Klug
(b) D— Capillary — exchange of gases
respiratory gases (d) Temin
wall
(c) B— Red takes place here
— transport of mainly
157. One of the representative of Phylum-
blood
(d) C— Arterial haemoglobin
— passes oxygen to
Arthropoda is
cell
153. capillary
Carrier ions tissues
like Na+ facilitate the (a) cuttle fish (b) silver fish
absorption of substance like (c) puffer fish (d) flying fish
(a) amino acids and glucose 158. Two common characters found in
(b) glucose and fatty acids centipede, cockroach and crab are
(c) fatty acids and glycerol (a) compound eyes and anal cerci
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 (b) jointed legs and chitinous exoskeleton (d) prevent ovulation
(c) green gland and tracheae 164. Ustilago is a member of kingdom
(d) book lungs and antennae (a) Monera (b) Fungi
159. In fungi stored food material is (c) Plantae (d) Animalia
(a) glycogen (b) starch 165. Location and secretion of Leydig's cells
(c) sucrose (d) glucose are
160. In the somatic cell cycle (a) liver — cholesterol
(a) in G1-phase DNA content is double the (b) ovary — estrogen
amount of DNA present in the original cell (c) testis— testosterone
(b) DNA replication takes place in S-phase (d) pancreas — glucagon
(c)a short interphase is followed by a long 166. Slime moulds are
mitotic phase (a) Photosynthetic (b) Parasitic
(d) G2-phase follows G1 phase (c) Symbiotic (d) Saprophytic
161. Read the following statements and select 167. Species restricted to a given area are
the incorrect statement. called
(a) The colonies of cyanobacteria are (a) sibling (b) endemic
generally surrounded by gelatinous (c) sympatric (d) allopatric
sheath. 168. In your opinion which is the most
(b) The cyanobacteria are unicellular, effective way to conserve the plant
colonial or filamentous, freshwater / diversity of an area?
marine or terrestrial algae. (a) By tissue culture method
(c) Rhizopus belongs to class (b) By creating biosphere reserve
phycomycetes of kingdom fungi. (c) By creating botanical gardens
(d) Bacteria are grouped under two (d) By developing seed banks
categories based on their shape. 169. A patient suffering from cholera is given
162. New banana plants develop from saline drip because
(a) rhizome (b) sucker (a) CI- ions are important component of

(c) stolon (d) seed blood plasma

163. Cu ions released from copper-releasing (b) Na+ ions help to retain water in the

Intra Uterine Devices (IUDs) Body

(a) make uterus unsuitable for (c)Na+ ions are important in transport of

implantation substances across membrane

(d)CI- ions help in the formation of HCI in
(b) increase phagocytosis of sperms
stomach for digestion
(c) suppress sperm motility

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170. Listed below are four respiratory (c) AAAT box (d) TATA box
capacities (1 - 4) and four jumbled 174. ELISA is used to detect viruses where the
respiratory volumes of a normal human key reagent is
adult (a) alkaline phosphatase (b) catalase
Respiratory Respiratory (c) DNA probe (d) RNase
Capacities Volumes 175. Consumption of which one of the

1. Residual volume 2500 mL following foods can prevent the kind of

2. Vital capacity 3500 mL blindness associated with vitamin-A

3. Inspiratory reserve 1200 mL deficiency?

(a) Flavr saw tomato (b) Canolla
Volume
(c) Golden rice (d) Bt brinjal
4. Inspiratory capacity 4500 mL
176. Which of the following are correctly
Which one of the following is the correct
matched with respect to their taxonomic
matching of two capacities and volumes?
classification?
(a) (2) 2500 mL, (3) 4500 mL
(a) Flying fish, cuttle fish, silver fish—
(b) (3) 1200 m L, (4) 2500 mL
Pisces
(c) (4) 3500 mL, (1)1200mL
(b) Centipede, millipede, spider,
(d) (1)4500 mL, (2)3500mL
scorpion—Insecta
171. A dental disease characterised by molting
(c) House fly, butterfly, tse-tse fly, silver
of teeth is due to the presence of a certain
fish—Insecta
chemical element in drinking water.
(d) Spiny anteater, sea urchin, sea
Which of the following is that element?
cucumber—Echinodermata
(a) Mercury (b) Chlorine
177. Which one out of A-D given below
(c) Fluorine (d) Boron
correctly represents the structural
172. Acromegaly is caused by
formula of the basic amino acid?
(a) excess of STH
(b) excess of thyroxin
(c) deficiency of thyroxin
(d) excess of adrenaline
173. During transcription holoenzyme RNA
polymerase binds to a DNA sequence and
(a) C (b) D
the DNA assumes a saddle like structure
(c) A (d) B
at that point. What is that sequence
178. Which one of the following is the correct
called?
matching of three items and their
(a) CAAT box (b) GGTT box
grouping category?

:::: 20 ::::
 Items Group
(a) Malleus, incus, cochlea — Ear ossicles
(b) llium, ischium, — Coxal bones
of pubis pelvic girdle
(c) Actin, myosin, — Muscle proteins
Rhodopsin
(d)Cytosine, uracil, Thymine—
Pyrimidines
179. Cortisol
(a) Regulate glucose level
(b) Control heart activity
(c)RBC production will increase
(d) Regulate electrolyte balance
How many above statement is not
incorrect?
(a) a,b,c (b) a,b,c,d
(c) a,b,d (d)None of these
180. If ampula will be remove then what will
happen
(a) Balance of body cannot maintain
(b) Fertilization will not occur
(c) Both are correct
(d) Only A is right


Best Luck

:::: 21 ::::
 [NEET] FULL TEST - 1

PHYSICS NEET CHEM SET -1

ANSWER-KEY ANSWER KEY

Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A

1 D 16 C 31 D 46 D 61 C 76 A

2 C 17 B 32 A 47 A 62 C 77 C

3 D 18 C 33 B 48 B 63 B 78 B

4 A 19 D 34 C 49 D 64 B 79 C

5 B 20 A 35 D 50 A 65 C 80 D

6 B 21 D 36 A 51 B 66 C 81 A

7 D 22 C 37 C 52 D 67 B 82 C

8 C 23 C 38 A 53 B 68 A 83 A

9 B 24 B 39 A 54 A 69 D 84 B
10 C 25 A 40 D
55 D 70 D 85 C
11 C 26 A 41 B
56 D 71 C 86 A
12 B 27 C 42 C
57 B 72 C 87 A
13 B 28 B 43 B
58 C 73 C 88 B
14 C 29 C 44 B
59 A 74 D 89 B
15 C 30 B 45 A
60 C 75 D 90 D

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 BIO – NEET FULL TEST -01
Answer Key

Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A Q A

91 D 106 C 121 C 136 D 151 A 166 D

92 B 107 D 122 C 137 D 152 A 167 B

93 A 108 B 123 A 138 A 153 A 168 B

94 C 109 B 124 C 139 A 154 A 169 B

95 C 110 C 125 A 140 D 155 B 170 C

96 A 111 A 126 A 141 C 156 B 171 C

97 A 112 B 127 B 142 D 157 B 172 A

98 D 113 A 128 D 143 C 158 B 173 D

99 C 114 C 129 A 144 D 159 A 174 A

100 A 115 B 130 D 145 C 160 B 175 C

101 A 116 A 131 D 146 C 161 D 176 C

102 D 117 D 132 A 147 C 162 B 177 B

103 B 118 C 133 A 148 D 163 C 178 D

104 B 119 C 134 D 149 A 164 B 179 A

105 A 120 C 135 D 150 B 165 C 180 C

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