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• Test Syllabus •

Physics : (11th + 12th) Complete Syllabus

Chemistry : (11th + 12th) Complete Syllabus

Biology : (11th + 12th) Complete Syllabus

 Section ‘A’ : Physics
Section ‘A’ Sol. (4) :

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1. A car is moving on a curved path with
banking angle , the coefficient of friction
between tyres of car and road is  s . The
maximum safe velocity of car is

   tan      tan  
1) gR 2  s  2) gR  s 
 1  s tan    1  s tan  

g   s  tan   g   s  tan  
3)   4)  
R  1   s tan   R 2  1   s tan  
4. Three voltmeter A,
B and C having
Sol. (2) : resistances R,
3
R and 3R
2
respectively are connected as shown in the
figure. When some potential difference is
applied between X and Y, the respective
voltmeter readings are VA , VB and VC . Then
R
2. The electric potential at a distancefrom the 1) VA  VB = VC 2) VB  VA = VC
2
centre of a conducting sphere of charge Q & 3) VA = VB  VC 4) VA = VB = VC
radius R will be
Sol. (4) :
Q
1) 0 2) 8  R 5. A screen is placed 50 cm from a single slit,
0
which is illuminated with 6000 Å light. If
Q Q distance between the first and third minima
3) 4  R 4) 2  R in the diffraction pattern is 3.00 mm, what is
0 0 the width of the slit?
Sol. (3) : 1) 0.1 mm 2) 0.2 mm
3. Transfer characteristics [(output voltage (V0 ) 3) 0.3 mm 4) 0.4 mm
vs input voltage (Vi)] for a base biased transistor Sol. (2) :
in CE configuration is as shown in the figure.
For using transistor as a switch, it is used.

1) in region II
2) in region I
3) in region III
4) both in region (I) & (III)

PCB TEST : 1 2
6. Power delivered by the ac source to the circuit 10. In the following circuit, the reading of the
becomes maximum, when voltmeter will be (in volts)
1

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1) L  C 2)  L   C

2
 1 
3)  L   
 4)  L   C
C 

Sol. (2) :
7. Focal length of a magnifying glass is 12.5 cm.
Ratio of maximum and minimum magnifying 1) 7.2 2) 4.8
power is 3) 6 4) 4
1) 2 : 3 2) 1 : 3
3) 3 : 1 4) 3 : 2 Sol. (1) :

Sol. (4) :

8. Same current i = 2A is flowing in a wire frame

as shown in figure. The frame is a combination
of two equilateral triangles ACD and CDE of
side 1m. It is placed in uniform magnetic field 11. Two identical metal plates show photoelectric
B = 4T acting perpendicular to the plane of effect by a light of wavelength  A falling on
frame. The magnitude of magnetic force acting plate A and  B on plate B (  A = 2  B ). The
on the frame is maximum kinetic energy is
1) 2KA = KB 2) KA < KB /2
3) KA = 2KB 4) KA > KB /2

Sol. (2) :

1) 24 N 2) Zero
3) 16 N 4) 8 N
Sol. (1) :
9. Avalanche breakdown in a PN junction
diode is due to 12. The half-life of a sample of a radioactive
1) Sudden shift to Fermi level substance is 1 hour. If 8 × 1010 atoms are present
at t = 0, then the number of atoms decayed in
2) Increase in the width of forbidden gap
the duration t = 2 hour to t = 4 hour will be
3) Sudden increase of impurity concentration
1) 2 × 1010 2) 1.5 × 1010
4) Cumulative effect of increased electron
3) zero 4) Infinity
collision and creation of added electron hole
pairs
Sol. (2) :
Sol. (4) : Conceptual

PCB TEST : 1 3
13. For what value of R in the circuit as shown 15. In the circuit shown, when the switch is
current passing through 4  resistance will closed, the capacitor is charged with time
be zero constant   and when switch is open, then

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capacitor discharge with time constant  then
 / is

1) 1  2) 2 
3) 3  4) 4 
Sol. (1) :
1) 1 2) 1/2
3) 2 4) 1/4

Sol. (2) :

16. A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls

down an inclined plane of height h. The
angular velocity of the cylinder when it
14. A 14 kg block is hanged using a system of reaches the bottom of the plane is
pulleys as shown in figure. Tension in string
1 gh 2 gh
connecting celling and topmost pulley is 1) 2)
R 2 R 3

1 2 gh 3 2 gh
3) 4)
R 3 R 2

Sol. (2) :

1) 17.5 N 2) 70 N
3) 140 N 4) 280 N

Sol. (3) :

PCB TEST : 1 4
17. A man is crossing a Sol. (1) :
river flowing with
velocity of 5 m/s. He

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reaches at points B
directly across at a distance of 60m in 5 sec.
His velocity in still water should be 21. A particle is moving with the velocity
1) 12 m/s 2) 13 m/s v = (4t3 + 3t 2 – 1) m/s. The displacement of
particle in time t = 1 sec to t = 2sec will be
3) 5 m/s 4) 10 m/s
1) 21 m 2) 17 m
Sol. (2) :
3) 13 m 4) 9 m

Sol. (1) :

22. In the adjoining figure, the tension in the

string connecting A and B is
18. If the density of the earth is doubled keeping
its radius constant, then acceleration due to
gravity will be (g = 9.8 m/sec2 )
1) 19.6 m/s 2 2) 9.8 m/s 2
3) 4.9 m/s 2 4) 2.45 m/s 2

Sol. (1) :

19. Mars has a diameter of approximately 0.5 of

that of earth and mass of 0.1 of that of earth.
The surface gravitational field strength on g 8g 10g
1) g 2) 3) 4)
mars as compared to that on earth is greater 9 9 9
by a factor of
1) 0.1 2) 0.2 3) 2.0 4) 0.4 Sol. (4) :

Sol. (4) :

23. If a body is executing simple harmonic

motion, then
20. A block of mass 1 kg 1) at extreme position, the total energy must be
is pushed up a zero
surface inclined to 2) at equilibrium position, the total energy is in
horizontal at an the form of only potential energy
angle of 30° by a force 3) at equilibrium position, the total energy is in
of 10 N parallel to the the form of only kinetic energy
inclined surface as shown in the figure. The 4) at extreme position, the total energy is only
coefficient of friction between block and the potential energy
incline is 0.1. If the block is pushed up by 10 Sol. (4) : At extreme position kinetic energy is zero,
m along the inclined, the work done against total energy in the form of potential energy.
force of friction is At equilibrium kinetic energy is maximum but
1) 8.7 J 2) 10.7 J potential energy may or may not be zero.
3) 7.8 J 4) 12.7 J (Example vertical oscillations of spring)

PCB TEST : 1 5
24. The angle between two vectors given by 28. On heating one end of a rod, the temperature
6iˆ  6 ˆj  3 kˆ and 7iˆ  4 ˆj  4 kˆ is of whole rod will be uniform when
1) K = 1 2) K = 0

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1  1  1  5  3) K = 100 4) K = 
1) cos   2) cos  
 3  3 Sol. (4) : For uniform temperature on heating the rod,
K should be infinite
1  2  1  5 
3) sin   4) sin  
 29. Energy levels A, B and C of a certain atom
 3  3 
correspond to increasing values of energy i.e.
EA < EB < EC . If  1 ,  2 and  3 are wave lengths
Sol. (4) : of radiations corresponding to transitions C to
B, B to A and C to A respectively, which of the
following relations is correct
1) 3 = 1 + 2 2) 1 + 2 + 3 = 0
12
3) 23  12  22 4) 3 
25. We have two spheres one of which is hollow 1  2
and the other solid. They have identical masses
and moment of inertia about their respectively Sol. (4) :
diameters. The ratio of their radius is given by
1) 5 : 7 2) 3 : 5
3) 3: 5 4) 3: 7 30. A uniform electric field of 20 N/C exists along
the positive x–axis in space. The potential
Sol. (3) : difference (VB – VA ) for the points A (4m, 2m)
and B (6m, 5m) is
1) 20 13 volt 2) – 40 volt

26. If a = 8 ± 0.08 and b = 6 ± 0.06, Let x = a + b, 3) + 40 V 4)  20 13 volt

y = a – b, z = a × b. The correct order of % error
Sol. (2) :
in x,y and z
1) x = y < z 2) x = y > z
3) x < z < y 4) x > z < y

Sol. (3) :

31. Force at t = 3 sec is equal to

27. A mass of 100 gm is tied to one end of a string

2 m long. The body is revolving in a horizontal
circle making a maximum of 200 revolutions
per min. The other end of the string is fixed at
the centre of the circle of revolution. The
maximum tension that the string can bear is 1) 1 N 2) –1 N
(approximately) 3) Zero 4) 3 N
1) 8.76 N 2) 8.94 N Sol. (2) :
3) 87.6 N 4) 896 N
Sol. (3) :

PCB TEST : 1 6
32. Two identical particles having the same mass
Sol. (2) :
m and charges +q and –q separated by a
distance d enter in a uniform magnetic field B

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directed perpendicular to paper inwards with
speeds v 1 and v 2 as shown in figure. The
particle will not collide if

34. Two whistles A and B produce notes of

frequencies 660 Hz and 596 Hz respectively.
There is a listener at the mid-point of the line
joining them. Both the whistle B and the
listener start moving with speed 30 m/s away
from whistle A. If speed of sound be 330 m/s,
how many beats will be heard by the listener ?
1) 2 2) 4
m m
1) d  Bq ( v1  v2 ) 2) d  Bq (v1  v2 ) 3) 6 4) 8

2m Sol. (2) :
3) d  Bq (v1  v2 ) 4) v1  v2

Sol. (3) :

35. Which is the correct statement

1) For an isothermal change PV = constant
33. The following configuration of gate is 2) In an isothermal process the change in internal
equivalent to energy must be equal to the work done

P2  V2 
3) For an adiabatic change    , where  is
P1  V1 
the ratio of specific heats
4) In an adiabatic process work done must be equal
to the heat entering the system
Sol. (1) : Since PV = RT and T = constant;
1) NAND 2) XOR
3) OR 4) None of these  PV = constant

PCB TEST : 1 7
 Section ‘B’ 39. The electric field part of an electromagnetic
wave in a medium is represented by Ex = 0;
36. Output Y of the given logic gate network is
N  rad    2 rad  

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E y  2.5 cos  2  10 6  t     10  x ;
C  m   s  
EZ = 0. The wave is
1) Moving along –x direction with frequency 106
Hz and wave length 200 m
2) Moving along y direction with frequency
1) A . B  A . B 2) A . B  A . B 2× 106 Hz and wave length 200 m
3) Moving along x direction with frequency 106
3) ( A  B)  A . B 4) None
Hz and wave length 100 m
4) Moving along x direction with frequency 106
Sol. (4) : Hz and wave length 200 m

37. A 50-turn circular coil of radius 2.0 cm Sol. (4) :

carrying a current of 5.0 A is rotated in a
magnetic field of strength 0.20 T. In a
particular position of the coil, the torque
acting is half of the maximum torque. The
angle between the magnetic field and the
plane of the coil is
40. The binding energy of deuteron 12 H is
1) 60° 2) 30°
1.112 MeV per nucleon and an -particle 2He4
3) 90° 4) 100° has a binding energy of 7.047 MeV per
nucleon. Then in the fusion reaction ,
Sol. (1) : 2 2 4
1 H  1 H  2 He  Q , the energy Q released is
1) 1 MeV 2) 11.9 MeV
38. In a Young’s double slit experiment, slits are
3) 23.8 MeV 4) 931 MeV
separated by 0.5 mm, and the screen is placed
150 cm away. A beam of light consisting Sol. (3) :
of two wavelengths, 600 nm and 500 nm, is
41. A light beam is traveling from Region I to
used to obtain interference fringes on the
Region IV (Refer Figure). The refractive index
screen. The least distance from the common
n n n
central maximum to the point where the in Regions I, II, III and IV are n0 , 0 , 0 and 0,
bright fringes due to both the wavelengths 2 6 8
coincide is respectively. The angle of incidence  for
which the beam just misses entering Region
1) 90 m 2) 900 m IV in figure
3) 9 m 4) 9 mm

Sol. (4) :

1  3  1  1 
1) sin   2) sin  
4 8

1  1  1  1 
3) sin   4) sin  
4  3

PCB TEST : 1 8
 45. A sound source, emitting sound of constant
Sol. (2) : frequency, moves with a constant speed and
crosses a stationary observer. The frequency
42. A uniform rope of length L and mass m1 hangs

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(n) of sound heard by the observer is plotted
vertically from a rigid support. A block of
against time (t). Which of the following graphs
mass m2 is attached to the free end of the rope.
represents the correct variation
A transverse pulse of wavelength  1 is
produced at the lower end of the rope. The
wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the
top of the rope is  2 . The ratio  2 /  1 is 1) 2)
m1 m1  m2
1) m2 2) m2

m2 m1  m2
3) m1 4) m1
3) 4)
Sol. (2) :

Sol. (4) :

43. A body of uniform cross-sectional area floats

in a liquid of density thrice its value. The
portion of exposed height will be
1) 2/3 2) 5/6
3) 1/6 4) 1/3
Sol. (1) :

46. A variable force, given by the 2-dimensional

  
vector F  ( 3x 2 i  4 j ) , acts on a particle. The
force is in newtons and x is in metres. What
is the change in the kinetic energy of the
44. At a pressure of 24 × 105 dyne cm–2 , the volume particle as it moves from the point with
of O2 is 10 litre and mass is 20 g. The rms velocity coordinates (2, 3) to (3, 0) ? (The coordinates
will be are in metres)
1) 800 ms –1 2) 400 ms –1 1) –7 Joules 2) Zero
3) 600 ms–1 4) Data is incomplete 3) +7 J 4) +19 J

Sol. (3) :
Sol. (3) :

PCB TEST : 1 9
47. Two light wave from coherent sources 49. The average translational energy and the
superimpose at point A with phase difference r.m.s. speed of molecules in a sample of oxygen
0 & at point B with phase difference of  / 2. gas at 300 K are 6.21 × 10 –21 J and 484 m/s

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Calculate ratio of resultant intensities of point respectively.The corresponding values at 600 K
A and B are nearly:(assuming ideal gas behaviour)
1) 1 : 1 2) 2 : 1 1) 12.42 × 10–21 J, 968 m/s
3) 4 : 1 4) 1 : 4 2) 8.78 × 10–21 J, 684 m/s
Sol. (2) : 3) 6.21 × 10–21 J, 968 m/s
4) 12.42 × 10–21 J, 684 m/s

Sol. (4) :
48. In which of the following cases the contact
force between A & B is maximum? (mA = mB =
1 kg, g =10 ms–2 )
1) 2) 30 N
50 N B A
A µ=0
B

3) 4) a = 35 ms –2
–2
a = 25 ms

A 50. Find out the mass of Uranium required per

day operate 0.95 MW nuclear power plant
B B using 92 U 235 fission. (given energy in one
A
reaction of 92U235 atom is = 200 MeV )
1) 1 gm 2) 10 kg
Sol. (2) : 3) 100 kg 4) 100 gm
Sol. (1) :

PCB TEST : 1 10
 Section ‘B’ : Chemistry

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Section ‘A’ 55. The best method to separate the mixture of ortho
51. Number of Oxygen atoms are maximum in and para nitrophenol (1 : 1) is
1) 0.2 moles of BaCO3 1) Steam distillation 2) Crystallisation
2) 1 mole of H3PO4 3) Vapourisation 4) Colour spectrum
3) 0.5 moles of C6H12O6
4) 0.75 mole of CO2 Sol. (1)

Sol. (2)

56. The correct order of increasing s-character (in

percentage) in the hybrid orbitals of the
52. An element has 2 electrons in K shell, 8 electrons following molecule/ion is
in L shell, 13 electrons in M shell and one I. CO32– II. XeF4
electron in N shell. The element is III. I3 –
IV. NCl3
1) Cr 2) Fe V. BeCl2
3) V 4) Ti 1) II < III < IV < I < V
Sol. (1) 2) II < IV < III < V < I
3) III < II < I < V < IV
53. The element with highest electron gain enthalpy 4) II < IV < III < I < V
will belong to
Sol. (1)
1) Period 2, group 17
2) Period 3, group 17
3) Period 2, group 18
4) Period 2, group 1
Sol. (2)
54. During the change of O2 to O2–, the incoming 57. At very high pressures, the compressibility
electron goes to the orbital factor of one mole of a gas is given by
1) *2pz 2) 2py Pb Pb
1) 1  2)
3) *2px 4) 2px RT RT

Pb b
Sol. (3) 3) 1– 4) 1  (VRT)
RT

Sol. (1)

PCB TEST-1 11
58. For a reaction, H = –40 kJ and S = –50 J/K. At 61. Which of the following is not redox reaction:
what temperature range will it change from

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1) NaOH + HCl  NaCl + H2O
spontaneous to non-spontaneous ?
2) 2H2 + O2  H2O2
1) 0.8 K to 1 K 2) 799 K to 800 K
3) Na + H2O  NaOH + 1/2H2
3) 800 K to 801 K 4) 799 K to 801 K
4) H2 + Br2  1HBr

Sol. (1)
Sol. (4)

62. Select incorrect order

1) Be(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 – Solubility in
H2 O
2) BeCO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3 - Thermal stability
3) Cs < Rb < K < Na < Li - Ease of formation of
hydrides
4) CsH > RbH > KH > NaH - Stability

Sol. (4)

59. For the reaction,

PCl5(g)  PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
The forward reaction at constant temperature is 63. Which comparison is not correct as indicated?
favoured by :
1) Introducing an inert gas at constant volume 1)
2) Introducing chlorine gas at constant volume
3) Introducing an inert gas at constant pressure
4) Introducing PCl5 at constant pressure 2)

Sol. (3)
3)

4)

60. A 50 ml solution of pH = 1 is mixed with a 50 ml Sol. (2)

solution of pH = 2 the pH of the mixture is
1) 0.86 2) 1.26
3) 1.76 4) 2.26

Sol. (2)

PCB TEST-1 12
64. The most stable carbanion among the following 66. Incorrect match is
is

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1) Permutit  Hydrated silicates of Na and Al
2) Calgon  Sodium Hexameta phosphate
3) BeH2, MgH2  Covalent polymeric hydride
1) 2) 4) Hydrolith  electron deficient hydride

Sol. (4)

67. A solid compound contains x, y, z atoms in a

3) 4) cubic lattice with x atoms occupying the corner,
y atoms in the body centered positions and z
atoms at the centres of faces of the unit cell. What
is the empirical formula of the compound?
1) XY2Z3 2) XYZ3
3) X2Y2Z3 4) X8YZ6
Sol. (4) Sol. (2)

68. If sodium sulphate is considered to be

completely dissociated into cations and anions in
aqueous solution, the change in freezing point of
65. The appropriate reagent for the following water (Tf), when 0.01 mol of sodium sulphate is
transformation is di ssol ved i n 1 k g of w ater i s (K f = 1.86 kg mol–1)
1) 0.0186 K 2) 0.0372 K
3) 0.0558 K 4) 0.0744 K
Sol. (3)
1) Zn–Hg/HCl
2) H2N–NH2, KOH
3) Ni/H2
4) NaBH4
69. What would be the ratio of moles each of Ag+,
Cu+2, Fe+3 ions would be deposited by passage
of same quantity of electricity through solutions
Sol. (2)
of their salts
1 1
1) 1 : 1 : 1 2) 1 : :
2 3

1 1
3) : :1 4) 1 : 2 : 3
3 2

PCB TEST-1 13
Sol. (2) Sol. (2)

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70. Given :
E°Ag /Ag = +0.80V , E°Co
+ 2+
/Co
= 0.28V

E°Cu 2+
/Cu
= 0.34V , E° Zn2+ / Zn = 0.76V
74. Very pure N2 can be obtained by
Which metal will corrode fastest? 1) Thermal decomposition of ammonium
1) Ag 2) Cu dichromate
3) Co 4) Zn 2) Treati ng aqu eou s sol ut i on of N H 4 Cl and
NaNO2
Sol. (4) 3) Liquefaction and fractional distillation of
liquid air
4) Thermal decomposition of sodium azide

Sol. (4)

71. Which of the following does not affect the rate

of reaction ?
1) Amount of the reactants taken 75. Which of the following has peroxy linkage?
2) Physical state of the reactants 1) H2S2O3 2) H2SO5
3) H of reaction 3) H2S2O7 4) H2S4O6
4) Size of the vessel
Sol. (2)
Sol. (3)

72. Electrolytic refining is used to purify which of

the following metals ?
1) Cu, Ag, Pb and Zn 2) Ge and Si
3) Zr and Ti 4) Zn and Hg
76. Which kind of isomerism is exhibited by
Sol. (1) Octahedral [Co(NH3)5Br]Cl ?
1) Ionization isomerism
73. In the statements regarding P4 molecule
2) Geometrical isomerism
i) the oxidation state is zero
3) Optical isomerism
ii) the covalency is 4
4) All of them
iii) the P–P–P bond angle 60°
the correct combination is Sol. (1)
1) only iii is correct 2) i and iii are correct
3) all are correct 4) i and ii are correct

PCB TEST-1 14
77. Which of the following is the correct order of 79. Aldol condensation reaction is given by
increasing field strength of ligands to form

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
coordination compounds ? 1) CHO
1) CO < CN– < en < NH3 < edta–4
2) HCHO
2) S–2 < Cl– < SCN– < Br– < I–
3) CH3–CH2–CH2–CHO
3) NCS– < H2O < C2O4–2 < OH– < F–
4) (CH3)3C–CHO
4) SCN– < OH– < NCS– < NH3 < CO
Sol. (4)
Sol. (3)

78. The product X and Z in the following reaction

are


H
+ CH3–CH=CH2  X
80. The end product ‘C’ in the following sequence
of chemical reaction is
Ca(OH) Distillation NH OH
CH3COOH   A

2
 B
2
 C
O 2 /130 C 
H /H 2 O
 Y 
  +Z
Heat
1) Acetaldehyde Oxime
2) Formaldehyde Oxime
1) Isopropyl benzene and acetone 3) Methyl nitrate
2) Cumene peroxide and acetone 4) Acetone Oxime
3) Isopropyl benzene and isopropyl alcohol
4) Phenol and acetone
Sol. (4)

Sol. (1)

PCB TEST-1 15
81. Reaction by which, Benzaldehyde cannot be 85. Dettol is an example of
prepared :

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
1) Antiseptic 2) Antimalarial
3) Antibiotic 4) Antifertility drug
1)
Sol. (1)
Section ‘B’
2) 86. The de-Broglie’s wavelength of electron present
in first Bohr orbit of ‘H’ atom is
0.529
3) 1) Å 2) 2 × 0.529 Å
2
3) 0.529 Å 4) 4 × 0.529 Å

4) Sol. (2)

Sol. (1)
87. Heat of combustion of C2H4 is –337 K.Cal. If 5.6
82. What is the major product of the following lit O2 is used at STP in the combustion. Heat
reaction ? liberated is ....... K Cal
CH 3 1) 28.08 2) 14.04
| 
CH 3  CH 2  N CH 2  CH2  CH 3  3) 42.06 4) 56.16
OH
|
CH 3 Sol. (1)
1) CH2 = CH2 2) CH2=CH–CH3
3) CH2 4) CH3–CH=CH–CH3

Sol. (1)
88. For the reactions :
2NO + O2  2NO2 ; K1
4NO + 2Cl2  4NOCl ; K2
2NO2 + Cl2  2NOCl + O2 ; K3
Where K1, K2, K3 are equilibrium constants then
K32 equal to :

1) K 2 / K1 2) K 1K 2
83. At high concentration of soap in water, soap
behaves as 1
3) K 2 / K1 4) K K
1) Molecular colloid 1 2

2) Associated colloid
3) Macro molecular colloid Sol. (3)
4) Lyophilic colloid
Sol. (2)
84. Cellulose is a polymer of
1) -glucose 2) -glucose
3) Fructose 4) -galactose
Sol. (1)

PCB TEST-1 16
89. Which one of the following correctly represents
the variation of electronegativity (EN) with

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
atomic number (Z) of group 13 elements ? Sol. (4)

1) 2)

92. Equal moles of benzene and toluene are mixed.

The vapour pressure of benzene and toluene in
pure state are 700 and 600 mm Hg respectively.
The mole fraction of benzene in vapour state is
3) 4) 1) 0.7 2) 0.47
3) 0.50 4) 0.54

Sol. (4) Sol. (4)

90. Most stable carbocation in the following


1) (C6H5)2 C H 2) (CH3)3C+
93. The half life period of a first order chemical
reaction is 6.93 minutes. The time required for
the completion of 99% of the chemical reaction
3) 4) will be (log 2 = 0.301)
1) 230.3 min 2) 23.03 min
3) 46.06 min 4) 460.6 min

Sol. (4) Sol. (3)

91. In which of the following molecules, -electron

density in ring is minimum ?
94. Which of the following electrolysis will have
maximum coagulation value for AgI/Ag+ sol ?
1) 2) 1) Na2S 2) Na3PO4
3) Na2SO4 4) NaCl

Sol. (4)

3) 4)

PCB TEST-1 17
95. Match the following columns

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
Column I Column II
(Metal ions) (Magnetic moment BM) Sol. (3)
3+
A. Cr 1. 35
2+
B. Fe 2. 30
2+
C. Ni 3. 24
2+
D. Mn 4. 15
5. 8
1) A-1, B-3, C-5, D-4 2) A-2, B-3, C-5, D-1 98. If the following is D-glucose, what will be
L-Glucose ?
3) A-4, B-3, C-5, D-1 4) A-4, B-5, C-3, D-1
Sol. (3) CHO
H OH
HO H
H OH
96. The spin only magnetic moment of [MnBr4]2– is H OH
5.9 B.M. The geometry of complex ion is CH2OH
1) Tetrahedral 2) Square planar
3) Trigonal bipyramidal
CHO CHO
4) Octahedral HO H H OH
Sol. (1) H OH HO H
1) 2) H OH
HO H
HO H HO H
CH2OH CH2OH
97.

CHO CHO
2 5C H O /C H OH
2 5 HO H
  B HO H
Mechanism=y (Major)
HO H HO H
Choose correct option for mechanism x and y, 3) 4)
H OH H OH
product A and B.
H OH HO H

CH2OH CH2OH
1) x - SN2 ; y - SN2 ; A- ; B-
Sol. (1)
99. The major product ‘Y’ in the following reaction
2) x - SN1 ; y - SN2 ; A- ; B- Cl
EtONa HBr
is 
Heat
 X   Y

HO
3) x - SN1 ; y - E2 ; A- ; B- 1) 2)
Br
Br Br
3) 4)
4) x - SN1 ; y - E1 ; A- ; B-

PCB TEST-1 18
 3)
1)

Sol. (1)
Sol. (3)

PCB TEST-1
4)
2)
100. The product (major) C is

125
5atm
+ CO2 


 B(major)

H /H 2 O and AC 2 O
  C
RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**

19
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
Section ‘C’ : Botany

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
Section-A 107. _______ plant body is more differentiated than
101. Out of the more than 105 elements discovered that of algae[11th NCERT Pg. No.43: Summary]
so far less than ________ are essential and 1) Bryophytes 2) Protozoans
beneficial for normal plant growth and 3) Euglenoids 4) Thallophyte
development. [NCERT 11th, summary page No.205] Ans. (1)
1) 17 2) 9 108. The sporophytes bear ___________ to produce
3) 8 4) 21 spores [11th NCERT Pg. No.43: Summary]
Ans. (4) 1) Sporophyll 2) Microsporophyll
102. Ammonia produced during N 2 fixation is
3) Macrosporophyll 4) Sporangium
incorporated into __A__ as the __B__ group.
[NCERT 11th, summary page No.205] Ans. (4)
1) A - amino acid, B - Imino group 109. _____ is a lateral outgrowth of stem developed
2) A - amino acid, B - amino group _________ at the node [11th NCERT Pg. No 82.:
Summary]
3) A - amino acid, B - amide group
4) A -ureids, B - amide group 1) Leaf, Exogenously 2) Bud, Endogenously
Ans. (2) 3) Leaf, Endogenously 4) Flower, Internode
103. Various ions and water from soil can be Ans. (1)
transported up to a small height in stem by 110. ____________ form the basis of classification
[NCERT 11th, summary page No.192] and identification of flowering plants.
1) Osmosis 2) Cyclosis [11th NCERT Pg. No.82: Summary]
3) Root pressure 4) Diffusion 1) Morphological Characters
Ans. (3) 2) Anatomical Characters
104. Gametes are formed in haploid organism
3) Floral Characters
through [NCERT 11th, summary page No.16]
4) Vegetative Characters
1) Meiosis 2) Mitosis
3) More than 1 correct 4) Syngamy Ans. (3)
Ans. (2) 111. Curly top virus spreads through a plant via
105. Biological classification of plants and animals the food conducting or phloem tissue.
was first proposed by __________ on the basis [11th NCERT Pg. No.64: Unit Introduction]
of simple ______________ 1) Katherine Esau 2) D. J. Ivonwosky
[11th NCERT Pg. No.27: Summary] 3) Walter Sutton 4) P. Maheshwari
1) Linn., Anatomical Characters Ans. (1)
2) Aristotle, Morphological Character 112. How many of the following are the main
3) Linn., Morphological Characters functions of the tissues [11th NCERT Pg. No.98:
4) Aristotle, colour of blood Summary]
Ans. (2) A) Assimilation of food
106. __________ are cosmopolitan in distribution B) Food storage
and these organisms show the most extensive
C) transportation of water minerals and
_________ [11th NCERT Pg. No.27: Summary]
photosynthates
1) Fungi, Habitat diversity
D) Mechanical support
2) Euglenoids, Metabolic diversity
3) Bacteria, Metabolic diversity 1) Only 3 2) Only 2
4) Protozoans, Habitat diversity 3) Only 1 4) All 4
Ans. (3) Ans. (4)

PCB TEST : 1 20
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
113. Fats and oils are ______________ 119. Pollen – pistil interaction involves
[11th NCERT Pg. No.159-160: Summary] [12th NCERT Pg. No.39-40: Summary]
1) Glycerol 2) Glycerides 1) All events from landing of pollen grain on
3) Polysaccharides 4) Chylomicron stigma to entry of pollen grain in to embryo
Ans. (2) sac

114. chemosynthetic pathway occurs in the _____ 2) All events from Dispersion through pollen sac
of pollen grain to stigma to entry of pollen
[11th NCERT Pg. No.224: Summary]
grain in to embryo sac
1) Grana 2) Stroma
3) All events from landing of pollen grain on
3) Lamellae 4) Matrix stigma to entry of pollen tube in to embryo
Ans. (2) sac
115. In the light reaction the light energy is absorbed 4) All events from landing of pollen grain on
by the pigments present in the antenna, and stigma to double fertilization and triple fusion
funnelled to special chlorophyll a molecule called
Ans. (3)
________ [11th NCERT Pg. No.224: Summary]
1) Reaction Center 2) Pigment System 120. A _________ character that was not expressed
in ________ condition may be expressed again
3) LHC 4) Quiescent center
when it becomes homozygous. [12th NCERT
Ans. (1) Pg.No.92-93: Summary]
116. The fate of the pyruvate depends on the 1) Recessive, Heterozygous
availability of _________ and the _________
2) Dominant, Heterozygous
[11th NCERT Pg. No.237: Summary]
3) Heterozygous, Recessive
1) Oxygen, organism
4) Homozygous, heterozygous
2) Carbon dioxide, oxygen
3) Nitrogen, Organism Ans. (1)

4) Type of fermentation, organism 121. Select the not incorrect statement

Ans. (1) [12th NCERT Pg. No.92-93: Summary]

117. Cells of the sporogenous tissue lying in the 1) Not all characters show true dominance
[12th NCERT Pg. No.39-40: Summary]
because Some characters show incomplete,
and some show co-dominance
1) Center of the microsporangium
2) All characters show true dominance because
2) Periphery of the bilobed anther
incomplete dominance and codominance
3) Abaxial surface of ovules does not retain the parental combination in
4) Adaxial surface of anther further generation
Ans. (1) 3) Some characters incomplete dominance but
118. The central tissues of _________ differentiated codominance and parental type is incomplete
in to archaesporial cells [12th NCERT Pg. No.39- for the recessive traits
40: Summary] 4) If codominance is the main criteria, then the
1) Sporogenous cells 2) Nucellus parental combination is as same as incomplete
dominance.
3) Ovules 4) Middle layer
Ans. (2) Ans. (1)

PCB TEST : 1 21
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
122. Identify the not-incorrect 126. _________ contribute to elongation growth of

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
plant axes. [NCERT 11th page 253, Summary]
[12th NCERT Pg. No.124: Summary]
1) Root and shoot apical meristems
1) DNA and RNA both function as genetic
2) Intercalary meristems
material, but DNA being chemically and
3) Cambium
structurally more stable is a better genetic
material. 4) More than one correct
Ans. (4)
2) DNA and RNA both function as genetic
material, but RNA being chemically and 127. Certain plants need to be exposed to low
structurally more stable is a better genetic temperature so as to hasten flowering later
material. in life. This treatment is known as [NCERT 11th
page 253, Summary]
3) Only RNA function as genetic material, because
1) Plasticity 2) Vernalization
DNA being chemically and structurally more
unstable is a better genetic material. 3) Photoperiodism 4) None of these
Ans. (2)
4) DNA and RNA both function as genetic
material, but DNA being chemically and 128. Which of the following is related with Ramdeo
structurally more unstable is a better genetic Misra
material. 1) Father of Indian Ecology
Ans. (1) 2) Formulated 1st Post graduate course in ecoloty
123. The DNA replicates semiconservatively, the 3) Due to his efforts, Govt. of India, established
process is guided by [12th NCERT Pg. No.124: the National commitee for environment
Summary] planning and co-ordination [1972], which in
1) Antiparallel polynucleotide chain later year paved the way for establishment of
ministry of environment and forest [1984]
2) complementary H-bonding
4) All of these
3) Stacking base pair
Ans. (4)
4) Phosphodiester bond formation
129. Evolutionary changes through natural
Ans. (2) selection, takes place at
124. _________ is/are energetically very expensive [NCERT Summary, Page-238, Para-3rd, Line-1,2]
processes. [12thNCERT Pg. No.124: Summary] 1) Organismic level 2) Population level
1) Transcription, Translation 3) Community level 4) Blome level
2) Translation, Splicing Ans. (2)
3) Replication, Translation 130. Which of the following statement/s are related
with ecosystem and organism respectively
4) Splicing, Transcription
[NCERT Summary, page-256, Line-1,2]
Ans. (1)
a) Structural and functional unit of nature
125. The triple crown of biology received by Ernst
b) Unit of ecology
Mayr includes : [NCERT 11th page 2, Introduction]
c) Unit of ecological study
1) Crafoord Prize
1) a and b for ecology and c for
2) Balan Prize
2) a for ecology and b,c for
3) International prize of biotogy
3) a, b, c for ecosystem only
4) All of these 4) a, b, c for organism only
Ans. (4) Ans. (1)

PCB TEST : 1 22
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11

Section-B

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
131. Rate of assimilation of food energy by
consumers is [NCERT Summary, Page-256, Para-2nd, 136. Excess water removed through tips of leaves
Line-7,8,9]
of plant [NCERT 11th, summary page No.193]
1) GPP
1) Transpiration 2) Transduction
2) NPP
3) Guttation 4) Girdling process
3) Secondary productivity
Ans. (3)
4) Respiratory loss
137. The recessive characters are only expressed
Ans. (3) in ____________ conditions andthe characters
132. On earth number of inventery [recorded] ___________in heterozygous condition [12th
species and number of estimated species NCERT Pg. No.92-93: Summary]
[Which are waiting to be discovered] are 1) Heterozygous, bend
1) 6 million and 1.5 million 2) Homozygous, never bend
2) 1.5 million and 6 million 3) Heterozygous, never bend
3) 2 million and 4 million
4) Homozygous, bend
4) 6 million and 2 million
Ans. (2)
Ans. (2)
138. According to Francis Crick Ph.D. study X-ray
133. Shape of graph for species richness Diffraction is used [12th NCERT Pg. No.67-68: Unit
[Species area relation ship] introduction]

[NCERT 12th, Summary, Page-268, 2nd Para Last-2nd Lines] 1) Nucleic acids
1) Rectangular hyperbola 2) Polypeptides and Proteins
2) Linear 3) Carbohydrates
3) ‘J’ shaped 4) Nucleic acids and Phosphoric acid
4) Sigmoid Ans. (2)
Ans. (1) 139. A phenomenon called Apomixis is found in
134. Air pollution primarily results from
[12thNCERT Pg. No.39-40: Summary]
[VIMP for NEET] [NCERT Summary 12th, Page-285,Line-3,4 ]
1) A few gymnosperms and particularly Pinus
1) Deforestation
2) Some angiosperms and particularly citrus
2) Burning of fossil fuel
3) a few angiosperms and some Gymnosperm
3) Farting at night
4) Burning of wood in rural area 4) Some angiosperm particularly grasses

Ans. (2) Ans. (4)

135. The most common source of pollution of water 140. Apart from carbohydrates ________ can also
bodies [VIMP for NEET] [NCERT Summary, 12th, Page- be broken down to yield energy. [11thNCERT Pg.
285, Line-5,6,7] No.237-238: Summary]

1) Domestic sewage 1) Fats and Proteins

2) Using chemical fertilisers 2) Proteins and Glucose
3) Chemical pesticides 3) Glucose and organic acids
4) Early moring defecation near the bank of river 4) Fats and Glucose
Ans. (1) Ans. (1)

PCB TEST : 1 23
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
141. After absorbing light, electrons are excited

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
146. In ecological study, all of the following levels
and transferred through “A”and “B”and of bioligical organisation are concerned except
finally to “C” forming “D” [12th NCERT Pg.
[NCERT Summary, Page 238, Line-3,4]
No.224: Summary]
1) Ecosystem 2) Organism
1) PSI, PSII, NADPH, NAD+
3) Population 4) Community
2) PSII, PSI, NAD+, NADPH
3) NAD+, NADPH, PSII, PSI Ans. (1)
4) PSII, NAD+, NADPH, PSI 147. Different organisms are placed in a food chain
(ecosystem) on the basis of
Ans. (2)
[NCERT Summary, Page-256, Line-7,8]
142. Proteinaceous enzymes exhibit [11 thNCERT Pg.
No.159-160: Summary] 1) Source of nutrition
A) Substrate specificity 2) Type of nutrition
B) Optimum temperature 3) Amount of food consumed
C) pH 4) Biomass produced
1) Only A 2) Only B Ans. (1)
3) Only C 4) Only 3 148. It is belived that, community with ___
Ans. (1) diversity tend to be ______ variable, _____
143. Classification of the vascular bundles is productive and ________ resistant to biological
depending on [11thNCERT Pg. No.98: Summary] invasions
1) Presence of Cambium [NCERT summary 12th, Page-268, Para-3rd, Line-1,2,3]
2) Location of Xylem and Phloem 1) Less, less, more, more
3) Formation in life span 2) High, high, less, more
4) more correct option
3) High, less, less, more
Ans. (4)
4) High, less, more, more
144. How many of the following are criteria help
Ans. (4)
to differentiate the stems from roots [11th NCERT
Pg. No.82: Summary] 149. Soil Pollution, primarily results from
A) Presence of nodes and internodes [NCERT Summary, 12th, Page-285, 1st Para, Last 2 lines]

B) Multicellular hair 1) Agriculture chemicals

C) Positively phototropic nature 2) Pesticides
1) Only 1 2) Only 2 3) Leachates from solid waste deposited over
3) Only 3 4) Only A pesticides
Ans. (3) 4) All of these
145. Algae are classified into three classes on the Ans. (4)
basis of [11th NCERT Pg. No.43: Summary] 150. Mendel’s law of independent assortment does
A) Type of pigment not hold true for the genes that were located
B) The type of stored food on the [12th NCERT Pg. No.92-93: Summary]
C) The structure of flagella 1) Same chromosomes
D) The Storage of food 2) Different chromosomes
1) Only 1 2) Only 2 3) Homologous chromosomes
3) Only 3 4) Only A 4) Non-homologous chromosomes
Ans. (2) Ans. (1)

PCB TEST : 1 24
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
Section ‘D’ : Zoology

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
Section-A 157. Somatic hybridiation is a process done _____
[NCERT 12th page 178, Summary]
151. Generation of adenosine triphosphate in
1) Invivo 2) Invitro
mitochondria is [NCERT 11th, summary page No.140]
3) Naturally 4) Invitro and artifically
1) Photo phosphorylation
Ans. (4)
2) Oxidative phosphorylation
158. The most accepted definition of biotechnology
3) Substrate phosphorylation was given by [NCERT 12th page 253, Introduction]
4) Pseudo phosphorylation 1) WHO 2) ICAR
Ans. (2) 3) EFB 4) UNESCO
152. Single membrane structure containing Ans. (3)
enzyme for digestion of all types of 159. Large scale production involves use of _____
macromolecules [NCERT 12th, summary page No.140] [NCERT 11th page 253, Summary]
1) Ribosome 2) Deroxisome 1) Fementors 2) Bioreactors
3) Lysosome 4) Centrosome 3) Petri plate culture 4) More than 1 correct
Ans. (3) Ans. (4)
153. The process continues throughout life cycle 160. The process to purify the protein or organic
[NCERT 11th, summary page No.170] compound is called [NCERT 11th page 253,
Introduction]
1) zygote formation 2) sygamy
1) Upstream process
3) More than 1 correct 4) Cell division
2) Downstream process
Ans. (4)
3) Marketing strategy
154. The period of cytoplasmic growth
4) Recombinant DNA technology
[NCERT 11th, summary page No.171]
Ans. (2)
1) G1 2) S 161. The major components of our food are ___
3) G2 4) G0 [NCERT-257]
Ans. (3) 1) Carbohydrate, proteins & Vitamins
155. The parasitic forms show distinct __(i)__ and 2) Carbohydrate, fat & proteins
__(ii)__. Aschelminthes are __(iii)__ include 3) Proteins, vitamins & fat
__(iv)__ as well as __(v)__ roondworms 4) Carbohydrate, proteins, fat, vitamins &
[NCERT 11th page 61, Summary] minerals
1) Suckers, hooks, pseudocoelomates, parasitic, Ans. (2)
non-parasitic 162. Salivary amylase that digests the starch and
2) Suckers, hooks, coelomates, parasitic, non- converts it into____? [NCERT-266]
parasitic 1) Glucose 2) Maltose
3) Parapodia, pseudopodia, coelomates, 3) Sucrose 4) all
parasitic, non-parasitic Ans. (2)
4) More than one correct 163. Oxygen is utilised by the organisms to ___?
Ans. (1) [NCERT-268]
156. Fishes, amphibians, reptiles are __________ 1) Directly breakdown simple molecules
[NCERT 11th page 61, Summary] 2) Indirectly break down simple molecules
1) Poikilotherms 2) Cold-blooded 3) Directly break down of complex molecules
3) Warm - blooded 4) More than 1 correct 4) Indirectly breakdown of complex molecules
Ans. (4) Ans. (2)

PCB TEST : 1 25
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
164. A sets the pace of the activities of the 171. Evolutionary biology is the study of -

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
heart, hence it is called pacemaker, here [NCERT-126]
identify the ‘A’ [NCERT-288] 1) History of life forms on earth
1) A.V. Node 2) SA Node 2) Fossils
3) Bundle of His’s 4) All 3) Change on earth
Ans. (2) 4) None
165. The blood is pumped out by each ventricle Ans. (1)
during a cardiac cycle and it is called the ? 172. Which of the following provides evidence for
[NCERT-288]
evolution - [NCERT-142]
1) Study of comparative anatomy
1) Beat volume 2) Cardiac output
2) Fossils
3) Stroke volume 4) More than 1 correct
3) Comparative biochemistry
Ans. (4)
4) All
166. Animals accumulate- [NCERT-290]
Ans. (4)
1) Ammonia, urea and uric acid
173. Health is affected by - [NCERT-145]
2) CO2, water and ions. 1) Genetic disorders 2) Infections
3) More than one correct 3) Life style 4) All
4) None Ans. (4)
Ans. (3) 174. Vector borne disease is - [NCERT-163]
167. Many bony fishes, aquatic amphibians and 1) Cancer 2) HIV
aquatic insects are____ in nature. 3) Malaria 4) Cirrhosis
[NCERT-290] Ans. (3)
1) ureotelic 2) Uricotelic 175. Biology is the youngest of the formalised
3) Aminotelic 4) Ammonotelic disciplines of ____ [NCERT-143]

Ans. (4) 1) Hypothesis 2) Natural science

168. The process through which two or more 3) space science 4) Plaeontology
organs interact and complemnt the functions Ans. (2)
of one another. [NCERT-315] 176. In animal body different organ are formed but
1) Integration 2) Coordiantion by using only four types of tissue. It is possible
3) Reflex action 4) All because of [NCERT 11th, Page 100, 2nd Para, Line 2,3,4]
Ans. (2) 1) Due to modification of cells every time during
169. A very important part of fore braincalled organ formation
hypothalmus controls the - [NCERT-327] 2) Due to arrangement of tissue in a specific
1) Temperature 2) Eating proportion and pattern
3) Drinking 4) All 3) Due to different cell in the same tissue
Ans. (4) 4) None of these
170. Father of ‘Green revolution’ in india is - Ans. (2)
[NCERT-144] 177. How many salivary glands are present in
1) M. S. swaminathan cockroach, near crop
2) James watson [NCERT 11th, Page 121, Summary 2nd para, line 9,10]
3) Alfonso corti 1) One pair 2) Two pair
4) Landsteiner 3) Three pair 4) Three
Ans. (1) Ans. (2)

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QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
178. Alfanso corti was 184. The concept of crop cafeteria, crop scheduling

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[NCERT 11th, Page 256, Unit Introduction] and genetically improving the yield and
1) Italian anatomist 2) Americal biologist quality was given by
3) French Naturalist 4) Russsian scientist [NCERT ‘Unit Summary’ page-144 Para 1 & 2nd]
Ans. (1) 1) Khurana
179. “Basilar membrane of cochlea contains hair
2) Mendel
cells, that convert sound vibrations into nerve
impulse”. This concept was given by 3) Monkambu Sambashivan Swaminathan
1) Alfanso corti 2) Lewis 4) Humbolt
3) Luise pasture 4) Rober Brown Ans. (3)
Ans. (1) 185. The concept of “Lab to land”, food security etc.
180. Which of the following statements is/are true were given by
1) A female reproductive sytem consists of a pair
1) Khurana
of ovaries, a pair of oviducts, a uterus, a vagina,
external genitalia and a pair of mammary 2) Mendel
gland 3) Monkambu Sambashivan Swaminathan
[NCERT summary Page-55m, 2nd para line 1,2,3,4]
4) Humbolt
2) Ovarian follicles in different stage of
Ans. (3)
development are embeded in the stroma
[NCERT summary, Page-55, 2nd para, line 4,5] Section-B
3) The process of formation of mature female 186. Select the incorrect statements [NCERT 11th,
gamete is oogenesis summary page No.140]
4) All of these 1) The endomembrane system includes ER,
Ans. (4) golgi complex lysosomes and vacuoles.
181. Mammary glands undergoes differentiation 2) Centrosome and centriole form the basal body
during [NCERT Summary, page 55, Last 3 lines] of cilia and flagella
1) Pregnancy only 2) Puberty
3) Centrioles form spindle apparatus during cell
3) Menopause 4) 1 to 12 years division in all types of cell.
Ans. (1)
4) Chromoplasts may contain carotene and
182. Infertility is inability to conseive or produce xanthophyll
child, even after _“A”_ years of __B__ sexual
Ans. (3)
cohabitation. A and B respectively are
[NCERT summary, page-65,Last Para,line 1,2 ] 187. ________ are absent in snakes [NCERT 11th page
1) One year and unprotected 61, Summary]

2) Two year and protected 1) Eyes 2) Limbs

3) One year and protected 3) parapodia 4) water vascolar system
4) Two year and unprotected Ans. (2)
Ans. (4) 188. Several new techniques like _____ and _____
183. Which of the following country in the world, play pivotal role in enhancing food
to initiate various action plans at National production [NCERT 12th page 253, Introduction]
level, towards attening a reproductively
1) Plant tissue culture, animal tissue culture
healthy society
2) Embryo transfer technology, plant breeding
[Most Imp, NCERT Summary, Page-65, Line-2,3,4]
1) India 2) China 3) Embryo transfer technology, tissue culture
3) Russia 4) America 4) More than one correct
Ans. (1) Ans. (3)

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QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
195. Point to point rapid coordination among

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189. Modern biotechnology uses the construction
of ________ [NCERT 11th page 253, Introduction] organs provides - [NCERT-331]
1) Recombinant DNA 2) Chimeric DNA 1) Neural system 2) endocrine system
3) Passenger DNA 4) All of these 3) Integrative system 4) All
Ans. (4) Ans. (1)
190. The undigested food becomes ___ in nature 196. Homology is accounted for by the idea of -
and then enters into the ____? [NCERT-142]
[NCERT-267] 1) Branching descent
1) Solid, rectum 2) semisolid, Colon 2) Convergent evolution
3) Liquify, colon 4) Semisolid, Rectum 3) Mutation
Ans. (4) 4) Migration
191. Who began his scientific carrer studying the Ans. (1)
cardiovascular system of reptile and later be 197. How disproved the ‘good humor’ hypothesis
turned his attention to the mammalian of health. [NCERT-145]
auditory system? [NCERT-256] 1) Discovery of blood circulation
1) Alfonso corti 2) Ernest mayr 2) Demonstration of normal body temperature
4) Eatherine esau 4) Melvin colvin in presons with black bile
Ans. (1) 3) More than one correct
192. Creating pressure gradients between the 4) Not disproved
atomsphere and the alveoli with the help of - Ans. (3)
[NCERT-276] 198. The type of joint which allows “considerable
1) Intercostal muscles and diaphragm movement” during movement in human body
2) Diaphraghm and abdominal muscles. is [NCERT 11th, Page-313, Summary, Last two lines]
3) Intercostal muscles and abdomind muscles 1) Cartilagenous joint 2) Fibrous joint
4) None 3) Synovial joint 4) None of these
Ans. (1) Ans. (3)
193. The pulmonary circulation starts by the 199. The complex neunendocrine mechanism in
pumping of A blood by the B which parturation involves
is carried to the C where it is D and a) Oxytocin b) Oestrogen
returned to the left atrium. identify the A, B, c) Cortisol
C, and D. [NCERT-289]
[NCERT 12th, Page-55, Summary : last 5 lines]
A B C D
1) a, b, c 2) a, b
Deoxygeneted Right Lungs Oxygeneted
1
ventricle 3) b, c 4) a only
2 Right ventricle Lungs Oxygeneted Deoxygeneted
Ans. (1)
Lungs Deoxygeneted Right Oxygeneted
3 200. Antibiotics are used to control all of the
ventricle
following conditions except
4 Deoxygeneted Oxygeneted Lungs Right ventricle
[NCERT Summary 12th, Page 188, Last 2 lines]
Ans. (1) 1) Diphtheria
194. Dialysis fluid contain all the constituents as
2) Whooping cough
in plasma except____? [NCERT-299]
3) Myocardial infration
1) Anticoagulant 2) Nitrogenous waste.
4) Pneumonia
3) More than 1 correct 4) Minerals.
Ans. (3)
Ans. (2)

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