ADRE MOCK TEST - 12

Q1. "Which of the following states is NOT famous (b) Maru Mela
for the Bhut Jolokia pepper? (c) Pushkar Mela
(a) Nagaland (d) Sonepur Mela
(b) Manipur
(c) Assam Q10. Raja Ravi Varma, considered as one of the
(d) Odisha greatest painters of India, hailed from which of
these states?
Q2. "Paithani Saree belongs to the state of _____? (a) Maharashtra
(a) Maharashtra (b) Karnataka
(b) Karnataka (c) West Bengal
(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Kerala
(d) Kerala
Q11. Which was India's first full-length ' talkie' film?
Q3. _____ is famous for Muga silk? (a) Shirin Farhad
(a) Assam (b) Bhakta Prahlada
(b) Odisha (c) Indrasabha
(c) Manipur (d) Alam Ara
(d) Nagaland
Q12. Who among the following is/was a famous
Q4. What is the currency of Japan? Tabla player?
(a) Yen (a) TN Krishnan
(b) Won (b) Bhimsen Joshi
(c) Baht (c) Alla Rakha
(d) Yuan (d) Hariprasad Chaurasia

Q5. The chemical formula for lime is? Q13. The infrastructure development project with
(a) CaCO3 the aim of promoting ‘port-led development’ in
(b) CaO India has been named?
(c) CaO2 (a) Bharatmala
(d) Ca2O3 (b) Sagarmata
(c) Sagarnaman
Q6. The capital of United Arab Emirates, known for (d) Sagarmala
its futuristic architecture and luxury shopping, is?
(a) Dubai Q14. The “Gho” is the traditional and national
(b) Sharjah dress for men in ____?
(c) Al Ain (a) Thailand
(d) Abu Dhabi (b) Cambodia
(c) Bhutan
Q7. What was India's first national park? (d) Vietnam
(a) Kaziranga National Park
(b) Jim Corbett National Park Q15. The first Commonwealth Games were held
(c) Sundarbans National Park in?
(d) Bandipur National Park (a) 1920
(b) 1935
Q8. Which is the largest national park in India? (c) 1930
(a) Sundarbans National Park (d) 1925
(b) Kaziranga National Park
(c) Hemis National Park Q16. Bharat Ratna and Padma Vibhushan Awards
(d) Nagarhole National Park in India were instituted in the year______?
(a) 1964
Q9. Name the annual fair of Rajasthan at which (b) 1958
camel trading is a major event? (c) 1968
(a) Suraj Kund Mela (d) 1954

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 ADRE MOCK TEST - 12

Q17. Shore temple is situated in which state of (d) Arunachal Pradesh

India?
(a) Odisha Q25. Who wrote the book ‘My Experiments with
(b) Tamil Nadu Truth’?
(c) Maharashtra (a) Amitav Ghosh
(d) Kerala (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Rabindranath Tagore
Q18. In the context of the banking sector, what (d) M.K. Gandhi
does ‘F’ stand for in IFSC?
(a) Functional Q26. What is the name of the famous collection of
(b) Forum animal fables composed by Vishnu Sharma?
(c) Fiscal (a) Hitopadesha
(d) Financial (b) Kathasaritasagar
(c) Panchtantra
Q19. When is 'International Ozone Day' (d) Jataka
celebrated?
(a) 2 October Q27. Who is the first Indian to be awarded the
(b) 31 October Nobel Prize in Physics?
(c) 9 August (a) Subramanyan Chandrasekhar
(d) 16 September (b) Venkatraman Ramakrishnan
(c) Har Gobind Khorana
Q20. "Dibyendu Barua is associated with which of (d) Chandrasekhara Venkata Raman
the following sports?
(a) Chess Q28. The headquarters of the World Trade
(b) Hockey Organization is located at?
(c) Snooker (a) Geneva
(d) Tennis (b) Paris
(c) Bonn
Q21. Vinesh Phogat is an ace Indian ______? (d) Dubai
(a) Boxer
(b) Wrestler Q29. Pung Cholam is a folk dance of which state?
(c) Sprinter (a) Kerala
(d) Sumo Wrestler (b) Manipur
(c) Madhya Pradesh
Q22. Google was founded in 1998 by Larry Page (d) Karnataka
and _______?
(a) Peter Thiel Q30. Burzahom, the neolithic site, is located in
(b) Steve Wozniak _______?
(c) Sergey Brin (a) Karnataka
(d) Elon Musk (b) Goa
(c) Mizoram
Q23. ______ was the first Chief Election (d) Jammu and Kashmir
Commissioner of India?
(a) Sukumar Sen Q31. Which of the following texts gives a detailed
(b) T N Seshan account of the kings of Kashmir?
(c) Sunil Arora (a) Rajatarangini
(d) M S Gill (b) Dipavamsa
(c) Vinaya Pitaka
Q24. The Hornbill Festival is celebrated in which (d) Katha Sarit Sagar
state?
(a) Assam Q32. In which city was the third Buddhist council
(b) Meghalaya held?
(c) Nagaland (a) Shravasti

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 ADRE MOCK TEST - 12

(b) Taxila (d) 1914

(c) Pataliputra
(d) Rangoon Q40. When was Patharughat peasant revolt held
against Britishers taxation policy in Assam?
Q33. Who attacked Somnath Temple of Gujarat? (a) 1894
(a) Jalal-ud-din Khalji (b) 1862
(b) Ibrahim Lodi (c) 1873
(c) Ahmad Shah Durrani (d) 1885
(d) Mahmud of Ghazni
Q41. Consider the following statements regarding
Q34. Alai-Darwaza, the southern gateway of the the eligibility criteria for a Supreme Court judge:
Quwwat-ul-Islam mosque in Delhi, was 1. The person must be a citizen of India.
constructed by _____? 2. The person should not be above 62 years of
(a) Ahmad Sh?h Durrani age.
(b) Mu'izz ad-Din Muhammad Ghori 3. The person must have been an advocate in a
(c) Ala-ud-din Khilji High Court for at least ten years.
(d) Muhammad bin Tughluq Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
Q35. Which Sikh Guru compiled the ‘Adi Granth’ (b) 1 and 3 only
the holy scripture of Sikhism? (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) Guru Hargobind (d) 1, 2, and 3
(b) Guru Amar Das
(c) Guru Arjan Dev Q42. Consider the following statements regarding
(d) Guru Ram Das the classification of bills in the Indian Parliament:
1. Ordinary Bills can be introduced in either the Lok
Q36. Representatives of the Maratha Empire and Sabha or the Rajya Sabha.
the British East India Company Signed the ‘Treaty 2. Constitutional Amendment Bills require a special
of Salbai’ in which year? majority in both houses of Parliament for passage.
(a) 1782 3. All Finance Bills are Money Bills.
(b) 1769 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(c) 1758 (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1771 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
Q37. Which king inscribed the Hathigumpha (d) 1, 2, and 3
(Elephant Cave) inscription in Udayagiri Hills,
Odisha? Q43. Consider the following statements regarding
(a) Galaveya the current status of Lok Adalats in India:
(b) Sobhanaraja 1. The Supreme Court of India has commenced a
(c) Kharavela special one-week Lok Adalat drive as part of its
(d) Vaduka 75th-anniversary celebrations.
2. Lok Adalats have jurisdiction over all types of
Q38. The _____ Commission was set up to cases, including non-compoundable criminal
investigate the Jallianwala Bagh massacre? offenses.
(a) Hunter 3. Lok Adalats are an effective mechanism for
(b) Butler reducing the burden on regular courts by providing
(c) Sadler speedy and cost-effective justice.
(d) Campbell Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
Q39. In which of the following years was the (b) 2 and 3 only
Congress Socialist Party (CSP) founded? (c) 1 only
(a) 1934 (d) 1, 2, and 3
(b) 1924
(c) 1943

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 ADRE MOCK TEST - 12

Q44. Consider the following statements about the Q48. Consider the following statements regarding
e-AMRIT portal: religion in ancient Assam:
1. The e-AMRIT portal offers resources to help 1. The temple of Kamakhya on Nilachal Hill is a
individuals and businesses transition to electric famous Shaiva shrine in India.
vehicles. 2. The temple of Tamreswari at Sadiya was a
2. The portal is primarily aimed at promoting noted center of Devi worship.
electric two-wheelers. 3. The Hayagriva Madhav Temple in Hajo is
3. The portal was launched as part of the Electric associated with the worship of Vishnu in his Boar
Mobility Promotion Scheme 2024. incarnation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3 (d) 1, 2, and 3

Q45. Recently, Prime Minister Narendra Modi laid Q49. Consider the following statements regarding
the foundation stone for the second rocket launch the Da-Parvatiya temple:
port of ISRO at which of the following locations? 1. The temple is known for its door jambs adorned
(a) Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh with figures of Ganga and Yamuna.
(b) Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala 2. The temple is believed to have been built in the
(c) Kulasekarapattinam, Tamil Nadu 10th century.
(d) Bengaluru, Karnataka 3. The temple represents the earliest known
example of sculptural art in Assam.
Q46. Consider the following statements regarding Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Pushyavarman, the founder of the Varman (a) 1 and 3 only
Dynasty: (b) 2 and 3 only
1. Pushyavarman assumed the title of (c) 1 and 2 only
Maharajadhiraj, indicating that he was an (d) 1, 2, and 3
independent ruler.
2. The Allahabad Pillar Prasasti of Samudragupta Q50. Consider the following statements regarding
explicitly mentions Pushyavarman as the ruler of coal in Assam:
Kamarupa. 1. Assam ranks first in coal reserves in India.
3. Pushyavarman was succeeded by his son 2. Coal mining in Assam was first recorded by
Samudravarman. British Surveyor Lieutenant Wilcox in 1825.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 3. The Makum coal field is located in the Tinsukia
(a) 1 and 2 only district of Assam.
(b) 1 and 3 only Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(c) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
Q47. Consider the following statements about the (d) 1, 2, and 3
Pala Dynasty in Kamrupa:
1. Brahmapala, the first ruler of the Pala Dynasty, Q51. Consider the following statements regarding
was the first elected king of Assam. pulses cultivation in Assam:
2. Ratnapala renamed the capital city 1. Pulses are grown primarily as Rabi crops in
Harupeswara to Durjaya. Assam.
3. Indrapala entered into a marriage alliance with 2. Arhar and Moong are major Rabi pulses
the Rashtrakutas to strengthen his position. cultivated in the state.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 3. Pulses are the second most staple food in
(a) 1 and 2 only Assam after rice.
(b) 2 and 3 only Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only

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 ADRE MOCK TEST - 12

(c) 1, 2, and 3 Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(d) 1 only (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
Q52. Consider the following statements regarding (c) 1 only
coffee cultivation in Assam: (d) 1, 2, and 3
1. Coffee cultivation in Assam started in the
Cachar district in 1853. Q56. Consider the following statements regarding
2. The Gunjang coffee garden is the largest in the establishment of British rule in Assam:
Assam. 1. David Scott was appointed as the agent to the
3. Assam primarily grows Robusta coffee, which is Governor General of Eastern Frontier in 1823.
intercropped with pineapple and jackfruit. 2. British annexed Lower Assam permanently in
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 1826.
(a) 1 and 2 only 3. Captain Neufville was appointed as the political
(b) 1 and 3 only agent to Upper Assam with his HQ at Biswanath.
(c) 2 and 3 only Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(d) 1, 2, and 3 (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
Q53. Consider the following statements regarding (c) 2 and 3 only
Assam's forestry and logging sector: (d) 1, 2, and 3
1. Assam is the largest bamboo-producing state in
India. Q57. Consider the following statements regarding
2. Agar oil is one of the major forest products in the first anti-British uprisings in Assam:
Assam. 1. Gomdhar Konwar led the first uprising in 1828.
3. Timber is the only product exported from 2. Eyang Gomandeo led the second uprising,
Assam's forestry sector. which succeeded in driving out the British from
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Upper Assam.
(a) 1 and 2 only 3. Peoli Phukan and Jeuram Dulia Baruah were
(b) 2 and 3 only hanged in 1830.
(c) 1 only Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(d) 1, 2, and 3 (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
Q54. Consider the following statements regarding (c) 2 and 3 only
the handloom industry in Assam: (d) 1, 2, and 3
1. Assam has the highest number of looms in the
country. Q58. Consider the following statements regarding
2. Handloom weaving in Assam is primarily a full- Maniram Dewan:
time occupation for the majority of weavers. 1. Maniram Dewan was a key figure in the 1857
3. There are 33 Yarn Banks in Assam to support revolt in Assam.
the handloom industry. 2. He was executed in 18577 after the suppression
Which of the above statements is/are correct? of the revolt.
(a) 1 and 3 only 3. He worked in the ministry of Purandar Singha
(b) 2 and 3 only before joining the revolt.
(c) 1 and 2 only Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(d) 1, 2, and 3 (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
Q55. Consider the following statements regarding (c) 2 and 3 only
the mask-making craft in Majuli, Assam: (d) 1, 2, and 3
1. Mask-making in Majuli was introduced by
Sankardeva during his Chihna Yatra. Q59. Consider the following statements regarding
2. Masks made in Majuli are primarily created the Phulguri Uprising of 1861:
using synthetic materials like Plaster of Paris. 1. The Phulguri Uprising was the first peasant
3. Samuguri Satra is one of the most prominent movement in Assam.
centers for mask-making in Majuli.

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 ADRE MOCK TEST - 12

2. It was caused by a ban on opium cultivation and Q63. Consider the following statements regarding
rumors of taxation on areca nut and betel vine. Gopinath Bordoloi’s first ministry in Assam:
3. The uprising was suppressed without any 1. Gopinath Bordoloi’s first ministry was formed in
violence. 1938.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 2. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed was a member of
(a) 1 and 2 only Bordoloi’s ministry.
(b) 1 and 3 only 3. Bordoloi’s ministry resigned in protest against
(c) 2 and 3 only the British decision to involve India in World War II
(d) 1, 2, and 3 without consulting Indian leaders.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Q60. Consider the following statements regarding (a) 1 and 2 only
the Assam Association: (b) 1 and 3 only
1. Assam Association was founded in 1903. (c) 2 and 3 only
2. Its first session was held in Dibrugarh in 1905. (d) 1, 2, and 3
3. The headquarters of Assam Association was
located in Dibrugarh. Q64. Consider the following statements regarding
Which of the above statements is/are correct? the referendum held in Sylhet in 1947:
(a) 1 and 2 only 1. The referendum in Sylhet was held as part of the
(b) 2 and 3 only Mountbatten Plan.
(c) 1 and 3 only 2. Sylhet was included in East Pakistan after the
(d) 1, 2, and 3 referendum with a 56% vote in favor.
3. The referendum was conducted on 6th and 7th
Q61. Consider the following statements regarding July 1947.
the first session of the Assam Legislative Council Which of the above statements is/are correct?
in 1913: (a) 1 and 2 only
1. The Assam Legislative Council first met in (b) 2 and 3 only
Shillong in 1913. (c) 1 and 3 only
2. Sir Archdale Earle presided over the first (d) 1, 2, and 3
session.
3. Tarun Ram Phukan was the only non-official Q65. Consider the following statements regarding
member of the council. the Assam Legislative Council under the
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Government of India Act 1935:
(a) 1 and 2 only 1. The Assam Legislative Council was part of the
(b) 1 and 3 only bicameral legislature established by the
(c) 2 and 3 only Government of India Act 1935.
(d) 1, 2, and 3 2. The Legislative Council had a total of 108
members.
Q62. Consider the following statements regarding 3. The Council's primary role was to advise the
the Civil Disobedience Movement in Assam: Governor on legislative matters.
1. Tarun Ram Phukan actively supported the Civil Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Disobedience Movement in Assam. (a) 1 only
2. Bishnuram Medhi played a key role in organizing (b) 1 and 3 only
the movement in the state. (c) 2 and 3 only
3. Rani Gaidinliu was an important figure in the (d) 1, 2, and 3
movement in Assam.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Q66. If A: B = 7: 8 and B: C = 7:9 then what is the
(a) 1 and 2 only ratio of A : B: C ?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 56:49:72
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 49:56:72
(d) 1, 2, and 3 (c) 56:72:49
(d) 72:56:49

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 ADRE MOCK TEST - 12

Q67. The average age of three persons P, Q and Q72. The sum of ages of 5 children born at the
R is 24 years. S joins the group the average age intervals of 3 years each is 50 years. What is the
becomes 30 years. If another person T who is 4 age of the youngest child?
years older than S joins the group, then the (a) 4 years
average age of five persons is….. years and the (b) 8 years
age of S is……. years.
(c) 10 years
(a) 36,51
(b) 40, 52 (d) None of these
(c) 38, 50
(d) 34.4, 48 Q73. A is two years older than B who is twice as
old as C. If the total of the ages of A, B and C be
Q68. A, B and C started a business in partnership. 27, then how old is B?
Initially, A invested Rs. 29,000, while B and C (a) 7
invested Rs. 25,000 each. After 4 months, A (b) 8
withdrew Rs. 3,000. After 2 more months, C
(c) 9
invested Rs. 12,000 more. Find the share of C (in
Rs.) in the profit of Rs. 33,200 at the end of the (d) 10
year.
(a) 12, 400 Q74. The price of 10 chairs is equal to that of 4
(b) 11067 tables. The price of 15 chairs and 2 tables together
(c) 10,800 is Rs. 4000. The total price of 12 chairs and 3
(d) 10,000 tables is:
(a) Rs. 3500
Q69. A can do a piece of work in 4 hours; B and C (b) Rs. 3750
together can do it in 3 hours, while A and C (c) Rs. 3840
together can do it in 2 hours. How long will B alone (d) Rs. 3900
take to do it?
(a) 8 hours
Q75. A sum of Rs. 1360 has been divided among
(b) 10 hours A, B and C, such that A gets 2/3 of what B gets and
(c) 12 hours B gets 1/3 of what C gets. B's share is:
(d) 24 hours (a) Rs. 120
(b) Rs. 160
Q70. A man complete a journey in 10 hours. He (c) Rs. 240
travels first half of the journey at the rate of 21
(d) Rs. 300
km/hr and second half at the rate of 24 km/hr. Find
the total journey in km.
Q76. The ratio between the length and the breadth
(a) 220 km
of a rectangular park is 3 : 2. If a man cycling along
(b) 224 km
the boundary of the park at the speed of 12 km/hr
(c) 230 km completes one round in 8 minutes, then the area of
(d) 234 km the park (in sq. m) is:
(a) 15360
Q71. In covering a distance of 30 km, Abhay takes (b) 153600
2 hours more than Sameer. If Abhay doubles his (c) 30720
speed, then he would take 1 hour less than
(d) 307200
Sameer. Abhay's speed is:
(a) 5 kmph
Q77. A towel, when bleached, was found to have
(b) 6 kmph
lost 20% of its length and 10% of its breadth. The
(c) 6.25 kmph
percentage of decrease in area is:
(d) 7.5 kmph (a) 10%
(b) 10.08%

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 ADRE MOCK TEST - 12

(c) 20% (d) 4

(d) 28%
Q84. A tank is filled in 5 hours by three pipes A, B
Q78. There is 60% increase in an amount in 6 and C. The pipe C is twice as fast as B and B is
years at simple interest. What will be the twice as fast as A. How much time will pipe A alone
compound interest of Rs. 12,000 after 3 years at take to fill the tank?
the same rate? (a) 20 hours
(a) Rs. 2160 (b) 25 hours
(b) Rs. 3120 (c) 35 hours
(c) Rs. 3972 (d) Cannot be determined
(d) Rs. 6240
Q85. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 20 and 30
Q79. The compound interest on Rs. 30,000 at 7% minutes respectively. If both the pipes are used
per annum is Rs. 4347. The period (in years) is: together, then how long will it take to fill the tank?
(a) 2 (a) 12 min
(b) 2.5 (b) 15 min
(c) 3 (c) 25 min
(d) 4 (d) 50 min

Q80. Two numbers A and B are such that the sum Q86. A train 125 m long passes a man, running at
of 5% of A and 4% of B is two-third of the sum of 5 km/hr in the same direction in which the train is
6% of A and 8% of B. Find the ratio of A : B. going, in 10 seconds. The speed of the train is:
(a) 2 : 3 (a) 45 km/hr
(b) 1 : 1 (b) 50 km/hr
(c) 3 : 4 (c) 54 km/hr
(d) 4 : 3 (d) 55 km/hr

Q81. Find the greatest number that will divide 43, Q87. A train passes a station platform in 36
91 and 183 so as to leave the same remainder in seconds and a man standing on the platform in 20
each case. seconds. If the speed of the train is 54 km/hr, what
(a) 4 is the length of the platform?
(b) 7 (a) 120 m
(c) 9 (b) 240 m
(d) 13 (c) 300 m
(d) None of these
Q82. Three number are in the ratio of 3 : 4 : 5 and
their L.C.M. is 2400. Their H.C.F. is: Q88. A motorboat, whose speed in 15 km/hr in still
(a) 40 water goes 30 km downstream and comes back in
(b) 80 a total of 4 hours 30 minutes. The speed of the
(c) 120 stream (in km/hr) is:
(d) 200 (a) 4
(b) 5
Q83. The product of two numbers is 2028 and their (c) 6
H.C.F. is 13. The number of such pairs is: (d) 10
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3

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Q89. Speed of a boat in standing water is 9 kmph Q95. A starts business with Rs. 3500 and after 5
and the speed of the stream is 1.5 kmph. A man months, B joins with A as his partner. After a year,
rows to a place at a distance of 105 km and comes the profit is divided in the ratio 2 : 3. What is B's
back to the starting point. The total time taken by contribution in the capital?
him is: (a) Rs. 7500
(a) 16 hours (b) Rs. 8000
(b) 18 hours (c) Rs. 8500
(c) 20 hours (d) Rs. 9000
(d) 24 hours
Q96. SCD, TEF, UGH, ? , WKL
Q90. In what ratio must a grocer mix two varieties (a) CMN
of pulses costing Rs. 15 and Rs. 20 per kg (b) UJI
respectively so as to get a mixture worth Rs. 16.50 (c) VIJ
kg? (d) IJT
(a) 3 : 7
Q97. 196, 225, 576, 625,?
(b) 5 : 7 (a) 1156
(c) 7 : 3 (b) 1165
(d) 7 : 5 (c) 1225
(d) 1525
Q91. A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How
many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%? Q98. Find the odd one out:
(a) 3 (a) Baht
(b) Taka
(b) 4
(c) Dirham
(c) 5 (d) Yacht
(d) 6
Q99. Is D brother of F? To find the answer which
Q92. What is the probability of getting a sum 9 from of the following information given in the statement
two throws of a dice? A and B is/are sufficient?
(a) 1/6 A. B has two sons of which F is one
(b) 1/8 B. Ds mother is married to B.
(a) Both A and B are needed
(c) 1/9
(b) Both together are not sufficient
(d) 1/12 (c) Only A is sufficient
(d) Only B is sufficient
Q93. Two dice are tossed. The probability that the
total score is a prime number is: Q100. In a family there are two fathers, two
(a) 1/6 mothers, one sister, one bother, two daughters,
(b) 5/12 one mother-in-law, one daughter-in-law, two sister-
(c) 1/2 in-law, one son, one grandfather, one grandmother
and one granddaughter.
(d) 7/9
What is the minimum number of family members
are there in the family?
Q94. A and B invest in a business in the ratio 3 : 2. (a) 16
If 5% of the total profit goes to charity and A's share (b) 18
is Rs. 855, the total profit is: (c) 9
(a) Rs. 1425 (d) 6
(b) Rs. 1500
(c) Rs. 1537.50
(d) Rs. 1576

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 ADRE MOCK TEST - 12

Q101. In a queue, 11 persons are sitting. A is fifth (a) north-east

to from the right end. Five persons sit between B (b) south-west
and A. Persons sitting between A and C is same (c) north-west
as persons between B and C. Then what is the (d) south-east
position of B with respect to C?
(a) Fourth to the left Q107. What is the angle between the hands of a
(b) Third to the left clock when the time is 15 minutes past 6?
(c) Third to the right (a) 97.5°
(d) none of these (b) 87.5°
(c) 77°
Q102. In the case of how many letters of the word (d) None of these
“FAINTS”, will their order in the word remains the
same when the letters are arranged in the Q108. P is the father of R, but R is not his son. T is
alphabetical order? the daughter of R. U is the spouse of P. Q is the
(a) two brother of R. S is the son of Q. V is the spouse of
(b) one Q. W is the father of V.
(c) three Who is the grandmother of S?
(d) Nil (a) W
(b) P
Q103. Radha remembers that her father’s birthday (c) R
is after 16th but before 22nd march, while her (d) U
brother Mahesh remembers that his father’s
birthday is before 22nd and after 19th march. On Q109. If “FRANCE” is coded as “NCEFRA” then
which day possibly be their father’s birthday? what will “MEDICINE” be coded as?
(a) 19th (a) CNEMEDIF
(b) 18th (b) CINEMEDI
(c) 20th (c) NICDMEIE
(d) can’t be determined (d) CNEIDENM

Q104. Eleven friends are sitting in a row Q110. At what time between 4pm and 5pm the two
M,N,O,P,Q,R,S,T,U,V and W. T is to the hands of the clock are at right angle to each other?
immediate left of P and third to the right of U. V is (a) 5 ⁵/11 min past 4
the immediate neighbor of M and N and third to the (b) 38 ²/11 min past 4
left of S. M is second to the right of Q who is at one (c) 37 ²/11 min past 4
of the ends. R is sitting next to the right of P and P (d) A or D
is second to the right of O.
Who is exactly at the center of the row? Q111. First day of a century cannot be?
(a) N (a) Monday
(b) U (b) Saturday
(c) S (c) Wednesday
(d) O (d) Thursday

Q105. 3:20::7:? Q112. How many weeks are there in a year?

(a) 100 (a) 54
(b) 95 (b) 53
(c) 92 (c) 51
(d) none of the above (d) 52

Q106. Megha starts walking from point A and Q113. If the 2nd half of the English alphabet is
walks for 15km towards east and stops at point B. written in backward order, then which letter comes
Now, she turns 90® to her left and walks 12 km to 5th to the left of the 20th letter from the left?
reach a point C. In which direction is point C with (a) J
respect to point A? (b) H

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 ADRE MOCK TEST - 12

(c) Y Q120. ________ .

(d) Z (a) active
(b) passive
Q114. The position of how many digits in the (c) selective
number 53269718 will remain unchanged, if the (d) distracted
digits within the number are rearranged in
ascending order? Directions (Q121-Q125): Fill in the blanks in the
(a) None following passage:
(b) One In today’s fast-paced world, time management is
(c) Two (1) _____ for success. Many people struggle with
(d) Three (2) _____ their daily tasks and responsibilities,
leading to stress and (3) _____ productivity.
Q115. Mango : Fruit :: Potato : ? Learning to prioritize and (4) _____ your time
(a) Root effectively can make a significant difference in your
(b) Stem personal and (5) _____ life.
(c) Fruit
(d) Flower Q121. _________.
(a) optional
Directions (Q116-Q120): Fill in the blanks in the (b) essential
following passage: (c) limited
(d) irrelevant
Language is a powerful tool for (1) _____ thoughts
and ideas. It allows us to (2) _____ with others, Q122. _________.
share knowledge, and express our (3) _____ and (a) balancing
emotions. Effective communication is (4) _____ in (b) neglecting
both personal and professional relationships, and (c) completing
it requires not only speaking but also (5) _____ (d) organizing
listening.
Q123. _________.
Q116. _________. (a) enhanced
(a) concealing (b) reduced
(b) conveying (c) efficient
(c) destroying (d) distracted
(d) confusing
Q124. _________.
Q117. ________ . (a) waste
(a) disconnect (b) allocate
(b) engage (c) extend
(c) isolate (d) save
(d) forget
Q125. _________.
Q118. ________ . (a) professional
(a) ambitions (b) unproductive
(b) opinions (c) social
(c) abilities (d) isolated
(d) insights

Q119. ________ .
(a) optional
(b) irrelevant
(c) essential
(d) secondary

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 ADRE MOCK TEST - 12

READING COMPREHENSION & ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions (Q1-25): Read the following Q3. What is the Sun primarily composed of?
comprehension and answer the questions that (a) Solid rock
follow: (b) Hot, glowing gas
Passage-1 (c) Ice and dust
(d) Liquid water
The solar system is an awe-inspiring and
expansive celestial playground, bound together by Q4. What is the meaning of the word "intricacy" as
the relentless force of gravity. At its heart lies the used in the passage about the solar system?
Sun, a colossal sphere of searing hot, luminous (a) A large celestial body
gas. The Sun's immense gravitational pull keeps (b) The force of gravity
the myriad celestial bodies within its grasp. (c) The state of being complex or detailed
Orbiting this blazing behemoth are eight planets, (d) A type of gas giant planet
each a unique world unto itself.
The innermost planets, Mercury and Venus, are Q5. What tone does the passage about the solar
small, rocky orbs. Earth, the third planet from the system convey?
Sun, is teeming with life and diversity. Further out, (a) Energetic and enthusiastic
we encounter the gas giants: Jupiter and Saturn, (b) Formal and academic
known for their immense sizes and mesmerizing (c) Humorous and light-hearted
rings. Uranus and Neptune, often referred to as ice (d) Reverent and awe-inspired
giants, occupy the distant reaches of the solar
system. The solar system also hosts a plethora of
moons, asteroids, comets, and other fascinating Passage-2
entities. These celestial companions and
The Great Barrier Reef, located off the
wanderers, large and small, contribute to the solar
northeastern coast of Australia, is a natural wonder
system's complexity and beauty.
of the world. This vibrant and extensive coral reef
Indeed, the solar system is a captivating realm that
system spans over 2,300 kilometers (1,430 miles)
continues to inspire scientific exploration and
and is teeming with life. It's known for its
human imagination. As we contemplate the
breathtaking underwater landscapes, with colorful
celestial bodies and the forces that govern them, it
corals, diverse marine species, and crystal-clear
becomes evident that the solar system is not just a
waters.
scientific wonder but a cosmic masterpiece, a
This marine ecosystem is a UNESCO World
testament to the vastness and intricacy of the
Heritage site and is one of the most popular
universe.
destinations for tourists, scientists, and divers. The
Great Barrier Reef supports countless species,
Q1. What is at the center of the solar system?
from tiny, intricate coral polyps to massive sea
(a) A giant black hole
turtles and majestic humpback whales. However,
(b) The Moon
the reef faces numerous threats, including climate
(c) The Sun
change, ocean acidification, and pollution. These
(d) A comet
challenges endanger the delicate balance of this
ecosystem, putting its future at risk.
Q2. What force holds celestial bodies in the solar
system together?
Q6. What is the Great Barrier Reef known for?
(a) Magnetism
(a) Its breathtaking landscapes
(b) Friction
(b) Its location in the Atlantic Ocean
(c) Solar wind
(c) Its position in the Arctic Circle
(d) Gravity
(d) Its extensive deserts

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 ADRE MOCK TEST - 12

Q7. What does the term "acidification" mean in the (b) Improved communication
context of the passage about the Great Barrier (c) Decreased access to information
Reef? (d) Slower pace of change
(a) The process of making something less acidic
(b) The process of turning a substance into acid Q12. What is a concern raised by technological
(c) The presence of acid in the oceans advancements in the passage?
(d) The process of making something more acidic (a) Decreased access to information
(b) Enhanced privacy
Q8. What is the Great Barrier Reef's UNESCO (c) Loss of jobs due to automation
status? (d) Slower pace of change
(a) It is not recognized by UNESCO
(b) It is a World Heritage site Q13. What does the term "proliferation" mean in
(c) It is a restricted military zone the context of the passage?
(d) It is an endangered species (a) A decrease in the use of a technology
(b) A rapid and widespread increase in the use of
Q9. What is the primary threat to the Great Barrier a technology
Reef mentioned in the passage? (c) The controlled and limited use of technology
(a) Volcanic activity (d) A negative impact of technology on society
(b) Ocean exploration
(c) Space debris Q14. What is the overall tone of the passage?
(d) Climate change (a) Optimistic and enthusiastic
(b) Informative and balanced
Q10. What tone does the passage about the Great (c) Pessimistic and critical
Barrier Reef convey? (d) Humorous and light hearted
(a) Energetic and humorous
(b) Informative and educational Q15. According to the passage, why is it important
(c) Melancholic and sorrowful to understand technological shifts and their
(d) Sarcastic and critical impacts on society?
(a) To avoid all technological advancements
(b) To make uninformed decisions
Passage-3 (c) To resist and oppose the digital age
Technology has rapidly evolved over the past few (d) To adapt to the digital age and make informed
decades, profoundly shaping the way we live and decisions
interact with the world. From the advent of the
internet to the proliferation of smartphones and the Passage-4
rise of artificial intelligence, our society has A bankruptcy court has directed a resolution
undergone significant changes. professional to assess whether personal
This technological transformation has both positive insolvency proceedings should start against Rohit
and negative implications. On one hand, it has Kalra, the former promoter of Rajasi Housing
improved communication, streamlined various Finance Ltd (RHFL) for recovering ₹ 4,512 crore in
processes, and provided us with access to vast dues to the State Bank of India.
information resources. On the other hand, it has Experts said that Rohit Kalra’s likely insolvency
raised concerns about privacy, cybersecurity, and would be one of the high-profile personal
the potential loss of jobs due to automation. The bankruptcy cases, such as that against Vijay
pace of change continues to accelerate, and we Mallya, to reach the National Company Law
must adapt to the digital age. Understanding these Tribunal (NCLT).
technological shifts and their impacts on society is Consequently, this case would have a bearing on
essential for informed decision-making the personal insolvency proceedings against Vijay
Mallya, the owner of Kingfisher airlines. It will be a
Q11. What is one positive impact of technological crucial judgment as it could decide the fates of
advancements mentioned in the passage? several other defaulting promoters, too.
(a) Loss of jobs due to automation

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 ADRE MOCK TEST - 12

Lender claims against Rohit Kalra are expected to Q20. Who among the following has been currently
cross ₹ 25,000 crore. The Delhi NCLT has dealing with the case of Rohit Kalra?
appointed Sudesh Mehta as the resolution (a) The State Bank of India (SBI)
professional. Mehta will now verify the claims (b) The Delhi High Court
made by the SBI. He will recommend to the NCLT (c) The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)
whether to initiate individual insolvency (d) District Court
proceedings against Rohit Kalra.
Rohit was arrested on 4th April 2020 when a Passage-5
district court convicted him of money laundering.
EXPERIMENTS that go according to plan can be
After spending 10 months in a private hospital, the
useful. But the biggest scientific advances often
CBI court ordered that Wadhawan be shifted out of
emerge from those that do not. Such is the case
Lilamani Hospital to the Tihar prison. Last week,
with a study just reported in the Proceedings of the
the Delhi High Court ordered and directed Tihar jail
National Academy of Sciences. When they began
to take him to Lilamani Hospital for surgery.
it, Hector DeLuca of the University of Wisconsin,
Madison, and his colleagues had been intending to
Q16. According to the passage, Rohit Kalra has
examine the effects of ultraviolet (UV) light on mice
been convicted of which of the following cases?
suffering from a rodent version of multiple sclerosis
(a) He has been convicted of a murder case of one
(MS). By the project’s end, however, they had in
of his personal executives.
their hands two substances which may prove
(b) He has been convicted of a fraud scam of
valuable drugs against the illness. Multiple
government jobs.
sclerosis is an autoimmune disease. This means it
(c) He has been convicted of a money laundering
is caused by a victim’s immune system turning on
case.
and destroying parts of his own body. In the case
(d) He has been convicted of a drug scam case
of MS the targets of these attacks, which may
with a big pharma company.
continue for years, are the fatty sheaths that
insulate nerve cells and thus help nervous
Q17. What should be the most suitable title for the
impulses to propagate. People suffering from MS
above passage?
are often weakened, and sometimes physically
(a) Rohit Kalra – the Corporate Culprit
disabled by it, and may also become blind. What
(b) Gloomy Days in Kingfisher
drives the immune system to behave in this way
(c) The Corrupt turned Insolvent Owner
remains mysterious, but in the 1970s researchers
(d) Money Laundering with SBI
uncovered a promising clue when they noticed that
MS is rarer near the equator than it is at high
Q18. Which among the following is a correct
latitudes. The first hypothesis proposed to explain
statement for money laundering as per the facts of
this observation was that vitamin D (a substance
the above passage?
created by sunlight’s action on precursor
I. Concealing the source of illegally obtained
molecules in the skin) might be helping to prevent
money
MS. That made sense, since those living in the
II. Converting black money into white money
tropics receive more sunlight than do those in
III. Mere default in repaying the money
temperate zones. Sadly, follow-up experiments
(a) All statements are false
failed to support the notion. Those experiments
(b) Only statement II is true
did, though, lead Dr DeLuca to discover that the
(c) Only statement I is true
preventive effect is associated with a particular sort
(d) Both statements I and II are true
of sunlight—UV with a wavelength of between 300
and 315 nanometres (billionths of a metre). His
Q19. Which is the most suitable antonym for
latest experiment was intended to dig deeper into
“conviction”?
this observation, by using this type of light to
(a) judgement
irradiate mice that had been injected with
(b) sentence
chemicals known to cause the rodent equivalent of
(c) acquittal
MS. In a preliminary study he and his colleagues
(d) arrest
therefore shaved the backs of 12 of these mice and
exposed them to UV of the appropriate wavelength

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 ADRE MOCK TEST - 12

every day for a month. To be useful, an experiment Q22. Compounds help in keeping rodent version of
like this needs controls with which its results can Sclerosis at check are:
be compared. Dr DeLuca devised three of these. (a) homosalate
In one, he applied one of six types of sunscreen to (b) octisalate
a dozen other shaved mice before exposing them (c) pesto salate
to the ultraviolet rays. To another dozen he applied (d) Both a & b
the sunscreen but not the ultraviolet. And a final
12, though also shaved, were neither exposed to Q23. What is the most appropriate synonym of
UV nor slathered with sunscreen. He then “slathered”:
monitored all four groups for signs of murine (a) couple
multiple sclerosis, such as loss of tail tone, (b) sprinkle
unsteady gait and limb paralysis. When the (c) boatload
experiment began, he and his colleagues expected (d) spread
that the disease would progress more slowly in the
experimental group than in the control groups, and Q24. Which of the following is incorrect according
that its rate of progress in all three control groups to the passage?
would be the same, since any effect of exposure to (a) Hector DeLuca belongs to University of
ultraviolet would be negated by the sunscreen. But Wisconsin
that was not what happened. Instead, three of the (b) Sclerosis is low at Temperate regions and high
six types of sunscreen served to suppress the at tropicals.
disease’s progression by themselves—that is, (c) Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune disease
even in animals not exposed to UV. Indeed, one of (d) vitamin D is a substance created by sunlight’s
them, Coppertone, was as effective at doing so as action
ultraviolet light alone. light of this Dr DeLuca and
his colleagues carried out further experiments, Q25. How many dozens of mice is being used for
which confirmed the initial findings. They also the main experiment?
studied the ingredients lists of the three protective (a) Two
sunscreens and tested each of the compounds (b) Three
therein, one at a time, on other batches of mice. (c) Four
This revealed that two of these compounds, (d) Five
homosalate and octisalate, were particularly
effective at keeping the rodent version of multiple
sclerosis in check. Why these particular
substances suppress MS remains to be
discovered. Dr DeLuca suspects that it has to do
with their ability to inhibit production of
cyclooxygenase, an enzyme commonly found in
the lesions characteristic of multiple sclerosis. But
regardless of the mechanism, if homosalate and
octisalate, or other molecules similar to them, can
suppress the progression of the disease in people
as effectively as they do in rodents it will be a signal
example both of the role of serendipity in science
and of the crucial importance of doing proper
controls.

Q21. Why Multiple Sclerosis is a rare phenomenon

near Equator
(a) Equatorial region recieve more sunlight
(b) Vitamin D is sufficiently available at Equator
(c) Both a & d
(d) UV sunrays of wavelength 300~315nm
available at equator

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