M L T I M L T I M L T I M L T: Electrostatistics
M L T I M L T I M L T I M L T: Electrostatistics
3. Which of the following statement is false regarding electric charge and mass?
(a) Electric Charge may be positive or negative, whereas mass can never be negative.
(b) Electric Charge is a derived quantity, whereas mass is a base quantity.
(c) Electric Charge and Mass are both affected by the velocity of the body.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
4. What is the value of 0 if the dipole is anti- parallel to the electric field?
(a) 90° (c) 180°
(b) 45° (d) 0°
5. What is the formula of the electric force acting on the charge q1 in the electric field?
(a) ⃗
F =q 1 × ⃗E q1
(c) ⃗F=
(b) ⃗
F =q 1−⃗ E ⃗
E× r
2
q1
(d) ⃗
F=
⃗
E
7. When a bird sits on the power line, the potential difference experienced by the bird is?
(a) Zero (c) 5 Volt
(b) -5 Volt (d) 10 Volt
10. An electric field which has same strength and direction at every point is called as _______
(a) Uniform Electric Field (c) Linear Field.
(b) Non-Uniform Electric field. (d) Parabolic Electric field
11. In the below picture, the metal foil is used for which purpose in gold leaf electroscope?
(a) To transfer the electrons to the metal rod.
(b) For refraction purposes.
(c) To transfer the electric charge to the metal rod.
(d) None of the above
12. In the below picture, what will be the value of the positive charge?
17. Calculate the capacitance value if the electric charge is 80C and a potential difference is 4V?
(a) 22 F. (c) 65 F.
(b) 4.4 F (d) 20 F.
18. A point charge 'q' is kept at each of the vertices of an equilateral triangle having each side 'a'. Total
electrostatic potential energy of the system is:
( ) ( 1 )3q
2
1 3q
(a) 4 π ε 2 (c) 4 π ε a
0 a 0
( ) (d) ( 4 π ε )
2
1 3q 1 3q
(b) 4 π ε a 2
0 a
0
19. A closed surface in vacuum encloses charges-q and +34. The total electric flux emerging out of the
surface is:
(a) zero (c) 3 q /ε 0
(b) 2 q /ε 0 (d) 4 q /ε 0
20. The electrostatic potential energy of two point charges, 1µC each, placed 1 metre apart in air is:
(a) 9 × 10-3 J (c) 9 × 109 J
-3
(b) 9 × 10 J (d) 9 × 10-3 eV
21. In the given figure a charge Q is fixed. Another charge q is moved along a circular arc MN of radius r
around it, from the point M to the point N such that the length of the arc MN = l The work done in
this process is:
(a) Zero Qq
1 Qq (c) 2 ε r 2 l
(b) 4 π ε . 2 l 0
0 r Qq
(d) 2 ε r 2
0
22. A short electric dipole (which consists of two-point charges, +q and -q) is placed at the centre O and
inside a large cube (ABCDEFGH) of length L, as shown in figure below. The electric flux, emanating
through the cube is:
(a) q /4 π ε 0 L (c) q /2 π ε 0 L
(b) Zero (d) q /3 π ε 0 L
24. Electric charges + q1 - q1, q2 and - q2 are placed in free space and S is a spherical Gaussian surface.
The electric flux passing over the surface S is:
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
μ0 I (⃗
dl × r⃗ ) ⃗
μ I ( dl × r⃗ )
(b) ⃗
δB= 3 (d) ⃗
δB= 0
4π r 4π r2
23. If the current (I) flowing through a number of turns (N) in it are each doubled. Magnetic flux
density at its centre becomes: circular coil,
(a) two times (c) eight times
(b) four times (d) sixteen times
EMI & AC
1. Which of the following phenomena deals with the production of induced current in a closed
circuit by changing the magnetic field?
(a) Electromagnetic Induction (c) Bohr's Magneton Concept
(b) Electromagnetic radiation (d) Fleming's Rule
2. The magnitude of magnetic flux is expressed as?
(a) φ = ΒΑ cos 0 (c) φ = BA sin 0
(b) φ = Β + Α cos 0 (d) φ = BA/cos 0
3. Lenz’s Law work under which of the following law?
(a) Law of conservation of mass (c) Law of conservation of force
(b) Law of conservation of energy (d) Law of conservation of charges
4. AC generator works on which of the following principle?
(a) Electromagnetic Induction (c) Bohr's Magneton Concept
(b) Electromagnetic radiation (d) Fleming's Rule
5. Which of the following component is absent in the AC generator?
(a) Slip rings (c) Armature
(b) Metallic foil (d) Brushes
6. Choose the correct expression of energy stored in an inductor?
(a) U = ½ LI02 (c) U = 1/3 LI02
(b) U = ½ LI0 (d) U = ¼ LI02
7. Which of the following reasons induces heat energy in the conductor?
(a) Ring Shaped Solenoid (c) Spherical coil
(b) Due to Eddy Currents (d) None of (a) and (b)
8. If θ = 180 degree, then the value of induced emf E is:
(a) Infinite (c) Between Zero and 1
(b) Zero (d) One
9. What is the expression of the force required to pull any conductor out of the magnetic field?
2 2 2 2
B l v B l
(a) F= (c) F=
R R
2 1
B l v (d) F=B2 l 2 v × R
(b) F=
R
10. If a metallic coil stays in a uniform magnetic field, the induced emf value is:
(a) zero (c) minimum
(b) maximum (d) one
11. Choose the correct expression of coefficient of coupling?
(a) K=M + √ L1 L2 M
(c) K=
(b) K=M × √ L1 × L2 √ L1 L2
(d) K=M −√ L1 L2
12. Which of the following is not the factor on which value of mutual inductance depends upon?
(a) Geometry of two coils (c) Distance between two coils
(b) Nature of the material (d) Electrons
13. Which one of the following graphs below represents variation of reactance ‘X c’ of a capacitor
with frequency ‘f’ of an a.c. supply?
14. The direction of induced e.m.f. can be found by:
(a) Kirchhoff's voltage law (c) Lenz's law
(b) Kirchhoff's current law (d) Fleming's right hand rule
15. The loss of power in a transformer can be reduced by:
(a) increasing the number of turns (c) using a solid core made of steel.
in primary coil. (d) using a laminated core of soft
(b) increasing a.c. voltage applied iron.
to primary coil.
16. If magnetic flux linked with closed-loop decreases, the direction of current will be
(a) clockwise (c) same as that of magnetic field
(b) anti-clockwise (d) none of the above
17. The bottom part of the picture depicts which of the following parameter?
EMW
(c) v = c λ
7. Choose the correct expression of frequency.
OPTICS
1. A short pulse of white light is incident from air to a glass slab at normal incidence. After travelling
through the slab, the first colour to emerge is:
(a) blue (c) violet
(b) green (d) red
2. Rainbow is formed due to the combination of:
(a) refraction and absorption (c) dispersion and total internal reflection
(b) dispersion and focusing (d) refraction and scattering
3. If an object is placed at a distance of 10 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm, the
image formed will be:
(a) real and 20 cm in front of the mirror
(b) real and 6.67 cm in front of the mirror.
(c) virtual and 20 cm behind the mirror.
(d) virtual and 6.67 cm behind the mirror.
4. The radius of curvature of the curved surface of a plano-convex lens is 20 cm. If the refractive index
of the material of the lens be 1.5, it will
(a) act as a convex lens only for the objects that lie on its curved side
(b) act as a concave lens for the objects that lie on its curved side
(c) act as a convex lens irrespective of the side on which the object lies
(d) act as a concave lens irrespective of side on which the object lies
5. A biconvex lens of focal length 15 cm is in front of a plane mirror. The distance between the lens and
the mirror is 10 cm. A small object is kept at a distance of 30 cm from the lens. The final image is:
(a) virtual and at a distance of 16 cm from the mirror.
(b) real and at a distance of 16 cm from the mirror.
(c) virtual and at a distance of 20 cm from the mirror.
(d) real and at a distance of 20 cm from the mirror.
6. The focal length of a convex lens of glass of refractive index 1.5 is 2 cm. The focal length of the lens
when immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.25 will be:
(a) 1 cm
(b) 2.5 cm
(c) 5 cm
(d) 3 cm
7. Two thin lenses, one convex of focal length 30 cm and the other concave of focal length 10 cm, are in
contact. The combination will behave like:
(a) a converging lens (c) a plane glass slab
(b) a diverging lens (d) a lens having no power
8. A ray of light incident at an angle θ on a refracting face of a prism emerges from the other face
normally. If the angle of the prism is 5° and the prism is made of a material of refractive index 1.5,
the angle of incidence is:
(a) 7.5° (c) 15°
(b) 5° (d) 2.5°
9. The difference in a deviation between any two colours is known as:
(a) angular dispersion (c) mean deviation
(b) angular deviation (d) none of the above
10. Dispersive power is given by:
(a) Dispersive power = Mean deviation - Angular dispersion
(b) Dispersive power = Mean deviation + Angular dispersion
(c) Dispersive power = Angular dispersion/Mean deviation
(d) None of the above
11. Calculate the dispersive power of crown glass where μv = 1.564 and μR =1.214:
(a) 0.96 (c) 0.089
(b) 0.85 (d) 0.899
12. A ray PQ is incident normally on the face AB of a triangular prism of refracting angle of 60°, made of
2
a transparent material of refractive index as shown in the figure. Calculate the angle of emergence
√3
and angle of deviation.
14. An astronomical refractive telescope has an objective of focal length 20 m and an eyepiece of focal
length 2 cm.
(a) The length of the telescope tube is 20.02 m
(b) The magnification is 1000
(c) The image formed is inverted
(d) All of the above
15. On increasing the focal length of the objective, the magnifying power:
(a) of microscope will increase, of telescope will decrease
(b) of both will increase
(c) of both will decrease
(d) of microscope will decrease, of telescope will increase
16. For light diverging from a point source,
(a) the wavefront is spherical
(b) the intensity decreases in proportion to the distance squared
(c) the wavefront is parabolic
(d) the intensity at the wavefront does not depend on the distance
17. Find the value of m20 from given figure.
(a) 4 mm (c) 2 mm
(b) 5 mm (d) 1 mm
22. Find the fringe width for the given arrangement when source is replaced by a source wavelength 5000
Å.
(a) 2 mm (c) 1 mm
(b) 2.5 mm (d) 1.5 mm
23. In Young's double slit experiment, the slit separation is made 3-fold. The fringe width becomes:
(a) 1/3 times (c) 3 times
(b) 1/9 times (d) 9 times
24. In a Young's double-slit experiment, the source is white light. One of the holes is covered by a red
filter and another by a blue filter. In this case:
(a) there shall be alternate interference patterns of red and blue
(b) there shall be an interference pattern for red distinct from that for blue
(c) there shall be no interference fringes
(d) there shall be an interference pattern for red mixing with one for blue
25. Consider Sunlight incident on a slit of width 10⁴ Å. The image seen through the slit shall:
(a) be a fine sharp slit white in colour at the centre
(b) a bright slit white at the centre diffusing to zero intensities at the edges
(c) a bright slit white at the centre diffusing to regions of different colours
(d) only be a diffused slit white in colour
1. Work function of a photoelectric material is 3.3eV. What will be its threshold frequency?
(a) 8 × 1010 Hz (c) 8 x 1020 Hz
14
(b) 8 × 10 Hz (d) 8 × 1025 Hz
2. The work function of a surface of photosensitive material is 6.2 eV. The wavelength of the
incident radiation for which the stopping potential is 5 V lies in the:
(a) UV region (c) Infra-red region
(b) Visible region (d) X-ray region
3. The kinetic energy of a proton is equal to the energy E of a photon. If λ 1 be the de-Broglie
wavelength of the proton and λ2 that of the photon, then the ratio λ1/λ2 is proportional to:
(a) E (c) E-1/2
(b) E1/2 (d) E-1
4. _______________ is the type of nature of electromagnetic waves.
(a) Particle nature (c) Photon nature
(b) Wave nature (d) Dual nature
5. There are _______________ types of electron emissions.
(a) one (c) three
(b) two (d) four
6. Which of the following is incorrect?
(a) Vacuum tubes are thermionic devices
(b) An electron gun is to create electrons and then accelerate them to a very high speed
(c) Thermionic emissions and photoelectric emissions are the same
(d) The kinetic energy of photoelectrons varies
7. Who performed photoelectric effect first?
(a) Heinrich Rudolf Hertz (c) de-Broglie
(b) Albert Einstein (d) None of the above
8. A point source is placed at a distance 0.8 m from a metallic sphere of radius 8.0 × 10 -3 m, as
shown in figure.
Point source is of 3.2 × 10-3 W power emitting photons of 5.0 eV energy. Work function for
metallic sphere is 3.0 eV. Assuming 100% absorption, calculate the number of photons incident
on the sphere per second.
(a) 1019 (c) 1011
18
(b) 10 (d) 1012
9. Planck’s constant:
(a) depends upon medium (c) depends upon frequency of light
(b) depends upon wavelength of light (d) is universal constant
10. Einstein’s theory of photoelectric effect based on the equation:
(a) E=m c2 1 2
(c) E= m v
(b) E=hv 2
(d) E=qV
11. Einstein’s photoelectric equation is:
(a) Emax = hλ – φ0 (c) Emax = hv + φ0
(b) Emax = hc/λ – φ0 (d) Emax = h/λ – φ0
12. Light of two different frequencies whose photons have energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV respectively
illuminate a metallic surface whose work function is 0.5 eV, successively. Ratio of maximum
speeds of emitted electrons will be:
(a) 1:5 (b) 1:4
(c) 1:2 (d) 1:1
13. In photoelectric emission process from a metal of work function 1.8 eV, the kinetic energy of
most energetic electrons is 0.5 eV. The corresponding stopping potential is :
(a) 2.3 V (c) 1.3 V
(b) 1.8 V (d) 0.5 V
14. In Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the difference of the energy of the incident photon and the
work function is equal to
(a) kinetic energy of the photoelectron.
(b) mean kinetic energy of the photoelectron.
(c) minimum kinetic energy of the photoelectron.
(d) maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectron.
15. If photons of frequency v are incident on the surfaces of metals. A and B of threshold frequencies
v/2 and v/3 respectively, the ratio of the maximum kinetic energy of electrons emitted from A to
that from B is:
(a) 2:3 (c) 1:3
(b) 3:4 (d) √ 3 : √ 2
16. The unit of work function is:
(a) joule (c) watt
(b) hertz (d) electron volt
17. Maximum kinetic energy Ek of a photoelectron varies with frequency (v) of the incident radiation
as:
(a) hv=h v 0−E k (c) hv=h v 0 × E k
(b) hv=h v 0 + E k (d) ¿
18. The slope of the stopping potential versus ‘frequency graph for photoelectric effect is equal to:
(a) he (c) e
(b) h/e (d) h
19. Photons of frequency v are incident on the surfaces of metals A and B of threshold frequencies
(3v)/4 and (2v)/3 respectively. The ratio of the maximum kinetic energy of electrons emitted from
A to that from B is:
(a) 2:3 (c) 1:3
(b) 3:4 (d) 3:2
20. Consider a beam of electrons (each electron with energy E 0 incident on a metal surface kept in an
evacuated chamber. Then,
(a) no electrons will be emitted as only photon scan emit electrons
(b) electrons can be emitted but all with an energy, E0
(c) electrons can be emitted with any energy, with a maximum of E0 - φ (is the work function)
(d) electrons can be emitted with any energy, with a maximum of E0
21. For the given plot of anode potential vs plate current, choose the correct combination of
radiations with different intensities and different frequencies.
(a) A and B, B and C (c) A and B, A and C
(b) B and C, A and C (d) Data insufficient
22. In photoelectric experiment, the potential difference V that must be maintained between the
illuminated surface and the collector so as to prevent any electron from reaching the collector is
determined at different frequencies v of the incident illumination. Graph thus obtained is shown
in the figure. The maximum kinetic energy of the electrons emitted at frequency v₁ is:
(a) h v1 (c) h ( v 1−v 0 )
v1 (d) e V 1(v 1−v 0)
(b)
v 1−v 0
23. A photocell connected in an electrical circuit is placed at a distance ‘d’ from a source of light. As
a result, current I flows in the circuit. What will be the current in the circuit when the distance is
reduced to ‘d/2” ?
(a) I (c) 4I
(b) 2I (d) I/2
24. A particle is dropped from a height H. The de Broglie wavelength of the particle as a function of
height is proportional to:
(a) 1 (c) H1/2
(b) H (d) H-1/2
25. Matter waves are:
(a) waves associated with moving particles.
(b) waves associated with stationary particles.
(c) waves associated with particles. any charged
(d) waves associated with electrons only
4. The principle that a quantum orbital cannot be occupied by more than two electrons was given
by:
(a) Millikan (c) Becquerel
(b) Hund (d) Pauli
5. An ionised H-molecule consists of an electron and two protons. The protons are separated by a
small distance of the order of angstrom. In the ground state.
(a) the electron would not move in circular orbits
(b) the energy would be (2)3 times that of a H-atom
(c) the electrons orbit would go around the atoms
(d) the molecule will soon decay in a proton and a H-atom
6. The simple Bohr model is not applicable to He4 atom because:
(a) He4 is an inert gas
(b) He4 has neutrons in the nucleus
(c) He4 has one more electron
(d) electrons are subject to central forces
7. If Ep and Ek represent potential energy and kinetic energy respectively, of an orbital electron, then
according to Bohr’s theory:
−E p (c) E k =−2 E p
(a) E k =
2 (d) E k =2 E p
(b) kE =−E p
8. The size of the atom is proportional to:
(c)
(a) A A1/3
(b) 0
A (d) A-1/2
9. On which of the following factors the radius of the Bohr orbit depends?
(a) n (c) 1/n2
2
(b) n (d) 1/n
10. The angular momentum of an electron in the third orbit of an atom is:
(a) 3.5 ×10−34 Js (c) 4.5 × 10−34 Js
(b) 13.6 ×10−34 Js (d) 6.02 ×10−34 Js
11. The radius of innermost electron orbit of hydrogen atom is 4.2 × 10 -11 m What is the radius of
orbit in second excited state?
(a) 3.78 ×10−10 m (c) 5.1 ×10−5 m
(b) 4.77 × 10−10 m (d) 6.71 ×10−10 m
12. In Bohr’s hydrogen atom the electron around the nucleus is in a circular orbit of radius 5 × 10 -11
m, with a time-period of 1.5 ×10−16 s. The associated current is:
(a) Zero (c) 1.6 × 10-19 A
(b) 0.17 A (d) 1.07 × 10-3 A
4
−1 m e
13. Let En = 2 2 2 be the energy of the nth level of H-atom. If all, the H-atoms are in the ground
8 ε0 n h
E −E1
state and radiation of frequency 2 falls on it:
h
(a) it will not be absorbed at all
(b) some of atoms will move to the first excited state
(c) all atoms will be excited to the n = 2 state
(d) no atoms will make a transition to the n = 3 state
14. Energy levels of a hydrogen atom are shown in figure. If transition of an electron from E 4 to E2 is
associated with the emission of blue light, then which of the following transition can be
associated with the absorption of red light:
(a) E 4 → E1 (c) E2 → E 3
(b) E 3 → E 2 (d) E1 → E 4
15. Total energy of electron in nth stationary orbit of hydrogen atom is:
13.6 13.6
(a) 2
J (c) 2
eV
n n
−13.6 −13.6
(b) 2
eV (d) 2
J
n n
16. Find out the wavelength of the electron orbiting in the ground state of hydrogen atom:
(a) 8.23 Å (b) 5.06 Å
(c) 4.15 Å (d) 3.32 Å
17. In the ground state of hydrogen atom, its Bohr radius is 5.3 × 10 -11 m. The atom is excited such
that the radius becomes 21.2 × 10-11 m. Find the value of total energy of the atom in excited state.
(a) 13.6 eV (c) -13.6 eV
(b) -3.4 eV (d) 5.4 eV
18. When an electron jumps from the fourth orbit to the second orbit, one gets the:
(a) second line of Lyman series (c) second line of Balmer series
(b) first line of Pfund series (d) second line of Paschen series
19. When electron in hydrogen atom jumps from energy state n i = 4 to nf =2, identify the spectral line
to which the emission belongs.
(a) Paschen series (c) Lyman series
(b) Balmer series (d) None of these
20. The ratio of the nuclear radii of elements with mass number 216 and 125 is:
(a) 216:125 (c) 6 : 5
(b) √ 216 : √ 125 (d) 5 : 6
21. The operation of a nuclear reactor is said to be critical if the multiplication factor (k) has a value:
(a) 1 (c) 2.1
(b) 1.5 (d) 2.5
22. The crucial function of moderators in nuclear reactors is to:
(a) decrease the energy of neutrons (c) provide shield from nuclear
(b) absorb the extra neutrons radiations
(d) provide cooling
23. For mass defect of 0.3%, the binding energy of 1 kg material is:
(a) 2.7 × 10-14 erg (c) 2.7 × 10-14 J
14
(b) 2.7 × 10 erg (d) 2.7 × 1014 J
24. Is the energy released in a nuclear reaction.
(a) P-value (c) Nuclear energy
(b) R-value (d) Q-value
25. Uranium 235 mass should be greater than Z, then it is capable of continuous fission by itself.
Identify Z.
(a) Threshold point (c) Critical size
(b) Critical shape (d) Specific size
ELECTRONIC DEVICES
(a) B and C
(b) A and B
(c) A and C
(d) Only B
13. Assuming the diodes as ideal, find the value of current across 6 Ω resistor in the circuit shown in
figure.
(a) 5 A
(b) 3 A
(c) 2 A
(d) 10 A
14. A diode has a knee voltage value of 0.5 V. This diode is connected in a circuit as shown in figure.
Calculate potential V0 at point B in the circuit:
(a) 8.0 V
(b) 0.8 V
(c) – 0.8 V
(d) – 80 V
15. Find the readings of the ammeters A₁ and A₂ shown in the figure. Neglect the resistance of the
ammeters.
(a) 10 V
(b) 20 V
(c) 15 V
(d) 30 V
17. The given figure shows a diode which requires a current of 1 mA to be above knee point (0.7 V)
of its I-V characteristic curve. The voltage across the diode is independent of current above the
knee point, if VAB = 5 V, then the maximum value of R so that the voltage is above knee point will
be:
(a) 3.7 kΩ
(b) 4.3 kΩ
(c) 5.1 kΩ
(d) 2.3 kΩ
18. If the forward bias on p-n junction is increased from zero to 0.045 V, then no current flows in the
circuit. The contact potential of junction i.e., VB is:
(a) zero
(b) 0.045 V
(c) more than 0.045 V
(d) less than 0.045 V
19. _________________ causes drift current in a p-n junction diode.
(a) Collision of electrons
(b) Electric field
(c) Electric potential
(d) None of the above
20. What type of semiconductor is formed when silicon is doped with bismuth?
(a) n-type
(b) p-type
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these
21. In the figure given below, is the diode D forward or reverse biased?
(a) Curve 1
(b) Curve 2
(c) Curve 3
(d) All of these
23. Can the potential barrier across the p-n junction be measured by simply connecting a voltmeter
across the junction?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) May be
(d) None of these
24. A solar cell is a p-n junction operating in:
(a) reverse bias condition
(b) unbiased condition
(c) forward bias condition
(d) in both forward and reverse bias condition
25. A p-n junction diode cannot be used:
(a) as rectifier
(b) for detecting light intensity
(c) for obtaining light radiation
(d) as an amplifier