(4) Gadicherla

1. Match the universities in List 1 with their year 4. Who coined the slogan "Visakha Ukku -
of formation from List 2. Andhrula Hakku" (Visakha Steel - Andhra's
Right) during the agitation for the
List 1 (Universities) List 2 (Formation Years): establishment of a steel plant in
Visakhapatnam in 1966?
I. University of Andhra Pradesh A. 1918
(1) Chandra Rajeshwara Rao
II. Osmania University B. 1972
(2) Gouthu Latchanna
III. Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University
(JNTU) HYD C. 1976 (3) Tenneti Viswanadham
IV Kakatiya University D. 1926 (4) N. G. Ranga
(1) I-D, II - A, III - B, IV- C 5. Which Chief Minister appointed the Girglani
Committee among the following?
(2) I - A, II - B, III - D, IV - C
(1) Kiran Kumar Reddy
(3) I - D, II - A, III - C, IV - B
(2) Rosaiah
(4) I - A, II - C, III - B, IV – D
(3) Y. S. Rajasekhara Reddy
2. Who is considered the father of the library
movement…? (4) Chandrababu Naidu
(1) Chilukuri Veerabhadra Rao 6. The only president of India who was elected
unopposed is ………?
(2) Kattamanchi Ramalinga Reddy
(1) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(3) Gadicherla Harisarvottama Rao
(2) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(4) Komarraju Lakshmana Rao
(3) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
3. Who participated in the Brahmo Samaj?
(4) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
(1) Achanta Ranganayakulu
7. Who was the Chief Minister who nationalized
(2) Raghupati Venkataratnam Naidu
the bus routes in April 1962?
(3) Rayaprolu Subbarao
(1) P. V. Narasimha
1. ANSWER - 1 progressive outlook, addressing issues of love,
gender, and social norms, which were
Explanation
considered taboo at the time. The story's bold 2
"Rajasekhara Charitra", regarded as the exploration of these themes helped shape
first modern novel in Telugu literature, was modern Telugu short fiction.
written by M. S. Reddy in the 19th century.
● Kanyasulkam, by Gurajada Apparao, is a
The novel was heavily influenced by the
famous play, not a short story.
English novel "Vicar of Wakefield" by Oliver
Goldsmith. ● Rathalu and Rambabu is not widely
recognized as the first modern Telugu short
"Vickar Field" (likely referring to "The Vicar of story.
Wakefield") is the key inspiration behind the
novel, which revolves around the themes of ● Tatachari Kathalu is a collection of short
virtue, the trials of life, and moral dilemmas stories by Sridhar, but it is not regarded as the
faced by the protagonist. This novel marked a first modern Telugu short story.
significant milestone in Telugu literature,
transitioning from traditional forms of Hence, "Diddubatu" is the correct answer for
storytelling to the novel format, blending the first modern Telugu short story
both Western literary styles and Indian social
contexts.
3. ANSWER – 1
● "The Alchemist" and "Brida" are works by
Paulo Coelho and are not related to the Explanation:
creation of "Rajasekhara Charitra."
The iconic novel "Chivaraku Migaledhi"
● "Thousand Hoods" is not linked to the was written by Buchibabu (also known as
novel's inspiration either. Buchibabu Gopalakrishna). It is a significant
work in Telugu literature that explores themes
of love, tragedy, and social issues.
2. ANSWER – 2
This novel gained popularity due to its
Explanation: emotional depth and portrayal of complex
human emotions.
"Diddubatu" is regarded as the first modern
Telugu short story, written by Chalam, a
prominent writer and social reformer in
Telugu literature. The story, published in 4. ANSWER – 1
1934, is known for its departure from Explanation:
traditional storytelling and for introducing a
modern narrative style that explored the In 1961, the Cultural Centre, Ravindra
complexities of human emotions, Bharathi was inaugurated in Hyderabad to
relationships, and social issues. commemorate the birth centenary of
Rabindranath Tagore. It was inaugurated by
"Diddubatu" was significant because it
brought in new themes and a more
 Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, who was the commonly known as the Panchayat, which
Vice President of India at that time. was responsible for the general governance,
3
Ravindra Bharathi was established to resolving disputes, and overseeing the welfare
promote cultural activities, including music, of the village. This association worked
dance, and drama, and it has since become an alongside the Muqaddam and Karanam,
important cultural venue in Hyderabad. helping in the administration of the village.

6. ANSWER – 4
Explanation:
In the Bahmani Kingdom:
● I. Tarafs - Districts. Tarafs were indeed the
large administrative divisions or provinces in
the Bahmani Kingdom.
5. ANSWER – 4
● II. Sarkars - Provinces Sarkars were not
Explanation: exactly districts. They were administrative
● A is wrong : The Muqaddam and Karanam units smaller than Tarafs, but they were
were important figures in the village divisions within provinces, not districts.
administration during the medieval period. ● III. Paraganas - Talukas: Correct. Paraganas
The Muqaddam was the village headman were equivalent to talukas, the smaller
responsible for overseeing the administration administrative units or districts under a Sarkar.
and maintaining order in the village, while the
Thus, the correct answer is 4. Only III
Karanam was the village scribe, responsible
for keeping records and maintaining accounts.
● The Deshmukh was responsible for 7. ANSWER – 3
collecting revenue, managing people, and Explanation:
maintaining basic services like police and
The Portuguese established settlements in
judicial duties
the following places:
● The Deshpande was responsible for keeping
1. Cochin: The Portuguese established a
records of the revenue collected from the
significant settlement and fortifications in
pargana
Cochin (modern-day Kochi, Kerala) in 1503.
● he Deshmukh and Deshpande were It was an important center for the
watandar officers, which meant they were a Portuguese spice trade.
link between the government and the people.
2. Diu and Daman: These were also
● R is correct : The village administration also Portuguese colonies. Diu was established
involved the village elders' association,
 as a Portuguese base in 1535, and Daman in the political history of Andhra Pradesh,
was under Portuguese control from 1531. contributing to the formation of linguistic
4
3. Karaikal: Karaikal was a French states in India
settlement, not Portuguese. The French
East India Company established control 10. ANSWER – 4
here.
Explanation:
4. Yanam: Yanam was also a French
The "Peddamanushula Oppandham" (Big
settlement, not Portuguese.
Men's Agreement) took place on February
20, 1956, between the leaders of the Andhra
8. ANSWER – 2 and Telangana regions. This agreement was
Explanation: crucial in the process of merging the
Telangana region with the newly formed
Bezawada Gopal Reddy was the Chief Minister
Andhra Pradesh state. The agreement was
of Andhra State when the "Peddamanushula
made in response to regional concerns about
Oppandham" (Big Men's Agreement) was
the political and administrative issues arising
signed in 1956. This agreement was a crucial
from the merger, and it was held at the
moment in the history of Andhra Pradesh,
Hyderabad Guest House in Delhi. It aimed to
where the leaders from Andhra and Telangana
address the grievances of the Telangana
came together to resolve issues regarding the
leaders, although it later contributed to future
merger of the two regions into a single state.
regional tensions.
Bezawada Gopal Reddy, as the Chief Minister
of the newly formed Andhra State, played a
key role in signing this agreement, which 11. ANSWER – 4
eventually contributed to the formation of Explanation:
Andhra Pradesh as a unified state.
● Dutch settlements were established in
various parts of India, including:
9. ANSWER – 2 ● Nagapattinam (Tamil Nadu): A prominent
Explanation: Dutch settlement and trading post.
Statement I is incorrect. The ● Narasapuram (Andhra Pradesh): Known for
Peddamanushula Agreement specifically Dutch influence and trade activities.
took place between Andhra and Telangana ● Bheemunipatnam (Andhra Pradesh):
leaders, not involving Rayalaseema in the Another site of Dutch trading presence.
agreement's context.
● Chinsura (West Bengal): A key Dutch
Statement II is correct because the settlement along the Hooghly River, a major
Peddamanushula Agreement took place on trading center.
February 20, 1956, and it was a pivotal event
 ● Thus, all four places were associated with community as a part of their ancestral duties.
Dutch settlements. It was often passed down through
5
generations, with descendants continuing to
perform the same service as their ancestors.
12. ANSWER – 2
This system was common in certain regions,
Explanation: especially in rural areas, where families
statement I: "The Peasant newspaper was worked for landowners or performed specific
started in 1940" is incorrect because historical duties without monetary compensation,
evidence shows that The Peasant newspaper relying instead on support or patronage.
was started in 1930, not 1940.
Statement II: "Nellori Venkatarami Reddy 15. ANSWER – 1
started the Jameen newspaper" is correct as
Explanation:
it is a verified historical fact.
The first meeting of the Andhra Pradesh
Thus, the correct choice is Only II.
Zamindar Farmers' Association was held
under the presidency of N.G. Ranga. He was a
13. ANSWER – 3 prominent leader and a strong advocate for
the rights of farmers in Andhra Pradesh. N.G.
Explanation:
Ranga is often referred to as the "Father of the
first meeting of the Andhra Pradesh Zamindar Indian Farmers' Movement" because of his
Farmers' Association was held in Venkatagiri. efforts in organizing farmers and voicing their
This association played a significant role in concerns at both state and national levels. He
addressing the issues faced by farmers, played a crucial role in shaping the agricultural
particularly the concerns related to land policies and farmer movements in India.
revenue and agricultural practices in the
region. Venkatagiri was an important location
for the gathering of zamindars (landlords)
and farmers to discuss their issues and plan
collective actions for the welfare of the
agricultural community in Andhra Pradesh.

14. ANSWER – 3
Explanation: 16. ANSWER – 1
Gothi Naukari" refers to a hereditary family Explanation:
service in the context of traditional social
This patriotic song was written by
systems in India. In this practice, a person was
Chilakarnarti Lakshminarasimham, a
expected to serve a particular family or
prominent figure in Telugu literature. The song
 criticizes the exploitation of India by the Sri Raghupathi Venkata Ratnam Naidu Garu
British during the colonial period, symbolizing was a renowned Telugu writer, poet, and
6
India as a cow being drained of its resources scholar. He is known for his literary works such
by the colonizers, referred to as the as ‘Brahmarshi’, ‘Apara Socrates’, and ‘Diwan
"cowherds." The metaphor powerfully Bahadur’. However, ‘Digambara Rushi’ is not
conveys the struggles faced by Indians under associated with him. The title ‘Digambara
British rule. Rushi’ is linked with other literary figures.

17. ANSWER – 4 19. ANSWER – 1

Explanation: Explanation:
● 1. Gurajada Apparao - ‘Sarangdhara’: This is Akkiraju Rama Pati Raju described
a correct pair. Gurajada Apparao is the author Veeresalingam Panthulugaru as "like a multi-
of the famous Telugu play ‘Sarangdhara’. branched vine," highlighting his multifaceted
● 2. Gurram Jashua - Gabilam: This is also contributions to Telugu literature, social
correct. Gurram Jashua is known for his reform, and cultural development.
famous work ‘Gabilam’, a Telugu novel. Veeresalingam Panthulugaru was a pioneer in
Telugu literature and a key figure in the social
● 3. Boyi Bhimanna - Coolie Raju: This is
reform movement in Andhra Pradesh.
correct as well. Boyi Bhimanna wrote the play
‘Coolie Raju’.
● 4. Lakshman Rao - History of Aurangzeb: This 20. ANSWER – 2
is incorrect. Lakshman Rao is not the author of Explanation:
‘History of Aurangzeb’. He is the author of Srisri (Srirangam Srinivasa Rao), a prominent
“History of Shivaji” figure in modern Telugu literature, authored
'Andhra Vani', which played a key role in the
evolution of Telugu literature. Srisri is widely
recognized for his contributions to modern
Telugu poetry and his revolutionary impact on
the literary world, breaking away from
traditional forms to introduce new styles and
themes

21. ANSWER – 4
18. ANSWER – 4
Explanation:
Explanation:
Kavi Samrat Viswanatha Satyanarayana
received the Central Sahitya Akademi Award
 for his literary work 'History of Christ' in o This statement is incorrect. Rayaprolu Subba
1964. Viswanatha Satyanarayana was a Rao is a significant figure in Telugu poetry, but
7
prominent figure in Telugu literature and is the title "Father of Modern Poetry" is
well-known for his contributions to poetry and typically not attributed to him. The title of
prose. His work 'History of Christ' was Father of Modern Telugu Poetry is often
recognized for its historical and spiritual attributed to Sri Sri (Srirangam Srinivasa Rao),
themes. who brought about significant changes to
modern Telugu poetry.

22. ANSWER – 2 ● Statement II: "A new era in Sanskrit poetry

started with his work 'Trikankana', which he
Explanation:
wrote in 1913."
Rayaprolu Subba Rao is credited with defining
o This statement is correct. Rayaprolu Subba
Telugu romanticism and ushering in a new
Rao is indeed credited with introducing a new
era in Telugu literature. He was a significant
era in Sanskrit poetry with his work
figure in the development of modern Telugu
'Trikankana' in 1913. This work is significant in
poetry and literature. Subba Rao's work,
the context of modernizing Sanskrit poetry
especially his introduction of romantic and
and introducing new themes and forms in the
modern themes, broke away from the
genre.
traditional forms and marked the beginning of
a literary transformation in Telugu literature. Since Statement I is incorrect and Statement II
His works laid the foundation for the romantic is correct, the correct answer is Option 3:
movement in Telugu literature, which Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
emphasized emotions, individualism, and a correct.
break from classical constraints.
Therefore, Rayaprolu Subba Rao is rightly 24. ANSWER – 3
recognized for his pioneering role in defining Explanation:
Telugu romanticism and contributing to the
● Statement I: "Rayaprolu Subba Rao was
modernization of the language's literary
known as 'Abhinava Tikkana' due to his
tradition.
contributions to Telugu literature."
This statement is incorrect. Rayaprolu Subba
23. ANSWER – 3 Rao was known as 'Abhinava Nannaya' (not
Explanation: 'Abhinava Tikkana') because of his
contributions to Telugu literature, particularly
● Statement I: "Rayaprolu Subba Rao, known
in the poetic and literary realm, similar to the
as the Father of Modern Poetry, was a pioneer
classical poet Nannaya.
of Telugu poetry."
● Statement II: "He was the recipient of the
Sahitya Akademi Award for Telugu Writers in
 1965 for his poetic work, 'Misra Manjari.'" 26. ANSWER – 1
This statement is correct. Rayaprolu Subba Explanation: 8
Rao was indeed awarded the Sahitya Akademi
● Statement I is correct because the
Award in 1965 for his work 'Misra Manjari',
Balabharati Samiti did play a significant role in
which is a significant contribution to Telugu
raising national awareness, especially among
literature.
children, and encouraging them to understand
● Statement III: "Rayaprolu Subba Rao and contribute to the Indian independence
introduced the concept of ‘Amalina Shringara movement.
Tatvamu’ into Telugu literature."
● Statement II is incorrect because the
This statement is correct. Rayaprolu Subba
Balabharati Samiti was actually established
Rao introduced the concept of ‘Amalina
on February 11, 1907, not February 16, 1905.
Shringara Tatvamu’ (refined concept of
beauty) into Telugu literature, which had a
lasting impact on its aesthetic and poetic 27. ANSWER – 1
traditions.
Explanation:
Therefore, only Statement II and Statement III
P. Rangaiyya Naidu was a prominent Indian
are correct.
leader and the first president of the Madras
Mahajana Sabha when it was established in
1884. He was actively involved in the early
stages of the Indian freedom struggle and
played a key role in raising political awareness
and advocating for reforms in British India.
The Madras Mahajana Sabha, founded in
1884, was an important regional political
25. ANSWER – 1 organization that laid the foundation for
future political movements in India, including
Explanation:
the Indian National Congress P. Rangaiyya
The "Stree Neeti Deepika" (Lamp of Morals Naidu leadership helped strengthen the
for Women) was compiled by Kandukuri Sabha’s influence in South India.
Veeresalingam in 1884. It was a pioneering
work aimed at educating and empowering
women in the context of social reform during 28. Answer – 2
the 19th century in India. The book discussed Explanation:
various moral and ethical guidelines for While M Veeraraghavachariar, G Subramania
women, advocating for their rights and Iyer, and P Ananda Charlu were the founding
betterment in society. members of the Madras Mahajana Sabha, V.
 O. Chidambaram Pillai was not a founder of Venkateswara Swamy Temple - Located in
this organization. Tirumala, this temple is one of the most
9
V. O. Chidambaram Pillai was a prominent famous and revered Vaishnavite shrines in
leader of the Indian independence India.
movement, but he became active in the later Veerabhadra Swamy Temple - Found in
stages of the struggle, particularly with his Lepakshi, this temple is renowned for its
involvement in the Swadeshi movement and exquisite Vijayanagara-style architecture and
his role in the Indian National Congress. He is hanging pillar.
more widely recognized for his efforts in the Amaralingeswara Swamy Temple - Located in
freedom movement, including his leadership Amaravati, this temple is dedicated to Lord
in the Indian National Congress and the Shiva and is one of the Pancharama Kshetras.
Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company.
Mukhalingeswara Swamy Temple - Found in
The Madras Mahajana Sabha was primarily Mukhalingam, this ancient Shaivite temple
established by M Veeraraghavachariar, G showcases the Kalinga architectural style.
Subramania Iyer, and P Ananda Charlu in
Ramappa Temple - Situated in Palampet, this
1884, and it laid the groundwork for the later
UNESCO World Heritage Site is known for its
formation of the Indian National Congress.
intricate carvings and floating bricks.

29. ANSWER – 3
Explanation:
G. Subramania Iyer was the first president of
the Madras Mahajana Sabha, which was
established in 1884. He was a prominent
social reformer and a key figure in the Indian
freedom struggle. He played a significant role
in the Sabha's activities, which aimed at
addressing political and social issues affecting 31. ANSWER – 4
the Indian community under British rule. Explanation:
Subramania Iyer is also known for his Bhavanam Venkatarami Reddy served as the
contributions to the development of the Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh from
Indian National Congress and his support for February 1982 to September 1982.
reforms in education and the judiciary.
During this period, Andhra Pradesh politics
saw significant instability within the Congress
30. ANSWER – 1 party, leading to frequent leadership changes.
Explanation:
 N. T. Rama Rao, a prominent actor and a ● Y. S. Rajasekhara Reddy, during his tenure
charismatic figure, capitalized on the political as Chief Minister (2004–2009), initiated steps
10
instability and the public's discontent to to re-establish the Legislative Council.
establish the TDP with the goal of upholding ● It was formally reconstituted in 2007, with
Telugu identity and providing a strong regional the purpose of serving as the upper house of
alternative to the Congress. the Andhra Pradesh legislature, providing
The TDP’s formation marked a turning point in more in-depth debate and review of
Andhra Pradesh politics, and within a year, it legislative proposals.
achieved a historic victory in the 1983
elections.
33. ANSWER - 2
Explanation:
Rukmini Lakshmipathi, a well-known social
reformer and freedom fighter from West
Godavari district in Andhra Pradesh, played a
crucial role in India's Civil Disobedience
Movement in 1930. Her involvement in the
movement was heavily influenced by the
views of Mahatma Gandhi, and she actively
participated in protests and demonstrations
aimed at challenging British rule in India

34. ANSWER – 1
Explanation:
Durgabhai Deshmukh was a prominent
freedom fighter from Andhra Pradesh who
32. ANSWER – 4 played an active role in the Quit India
Explanation: Movement of 1942. This movement was
launched by Mahatma Gandhi with the aim of
● The Legislative Council of Andhra Pradesh
demanding an end to British rule in India.
was abolished in 1985 during the tenure of N.
T. Rama Rao due to concerns over its necessity Durgabhai Deshmukh was involved in
and effectiveness. organizing protests, giving speeches, and
mobilizing people for the cause of
● After being abolished, there was a growing
independence. Her contributions were
demand from various quarters to re-establish
particularly focused on spreading awareness
the council for better legislative scrutiny and
representation of various groups.
 and encouraging participation in the Quit Explanation:
India Movement in the Andhra region. The Second Session of the Andhra Maha 11
Although she was also involved in other Sabha was held in Vijayawada in 1914. This
movements like the Non-Cooperation session continued the efforts of the Andhra
Movement and the Civil Disobedience Maha Sabha in addressing the concerns of the
Movement, her most significant role was Telugu-speaking people and furthered the
during the Quit India Movement, where she movement for a separate state for the
was a dedicated leader and activist. Andhras. The session marked a significant
step in the political mobilization of the Telugu
community under British colonial rule. Second
35. ANSWER – 1
Andhra mahasabha session was presided
Explanation: over by Nyapati Subba Rao.
The Self-Respect Movement, led by Periyar E.
V. Ramasamy, strongly opposed
38. ANSWER – 2
untouchability and caste-based
discrimination. The movement aimed to Explanation:
promote the equality and dignity of all The First Session of the Andhra Maha Sabha
individuals, regardless of their caste, and was held in Bapatla in 1913. This session
sought to eliminate social injustices such as marked the beginning of organized efforts
untouchability, caste hierarchy, and the by the Telugu-speaking people to advocate
exploitation of marginalized communities. It for their political and cultural rights, and it
also worked towards women's rights and played a key role in the demand for the
social reform in Tamil Nadu. creation of a separate Andhra state. The
Andhra Maha Sabha became an important
platform for discussions on various issues
36. ANSWER – 2
affecting the Telugu population,
Explanation: particularly in the context of the Madras
The first president of the Justice Party was Presidency under British rule . Baiya
Raja of Panagal, a prominent leader who Narasimheswara Sharma, a member of the
played a key role in the formation of the party Madras Legislative Council, presided over
in 1916. The Justice Party, primarily formed to the meeting
represent the non-Brahmin communities in
the Madras Presidency, worked for social and
political reforms during the British colonial
period.

37. ANSWER – 2
39. ANSWER – 2 India's cultural and nationalist movements but
Explanation: did not write Ananda Math
12
Statement I is correct: The Madras Mahajana
Sabha was indeed founded by Rangaiah 41. ANSWER - 4
Naidu and Anandacharyulu in 1884 with the Explanation:
goal of guiding national consciousness in
Sarf-e-Khas lands were the personal lands of
India.
the Nizam. The revenue from these lands was
Statement II is incorrect: A.O. Hume, a retired used for the Nizam’s personal expenses. The
Indian civil servant, did organize the first term “Sarf-e-Khas” itself means personal or
session of the Indian National Congress in private expenditure.
Bombay in 1885, which was presided over by
W.C. Benerjee.
42. ANSWER – 3
Statement III is correct: Prominent Telugu
leaders including Rangaiah Naidu, Explanation:
Anandacharyulu, and Nyapati Subba Rao Diwani lands, also known as Khalsa lands, are
attended the second session of the Indian under the direct control of the Nizam and are
National Congress held in Calcutta in 1886, managed directly by the state. The revenue
with 21 delegates from Andhra Pradesh obtained from these lands is transferred to the
participating. government exchequer for welfare measures.
Statement IV is correct: Anandacharyulu did
rise to the position of President of the Indian
43. ANSWER – 2
National Congress by 1891.
Explanation:
Srikrishna Devaraya, one of the most
40. ANSWER - 2
prominent rulers of the Vijayanagara Empire,
Explanation: is credited with building the Bhatkal Port. This
● Ananda Math is a Bengali novel written by port played a significant role in trade and
Bankim Chandra Chatterjee. It is famous for commerce, especially during his reign, and
containing the national hymn "Vande contributed to the economic prosperity of the
Mataram", which played a significant role in empire.
inspiring the Indian freedom movement.
● Rabindranath Tagore, while a prominent 44. ANSWER – 2
figure in Bengali literature, is not the author
Explanation:
of Ananda Math. Kavi Pradeep and
Subramania Bharati were also influential in The correct answer is Tenali Ramakrishna.
 Tenali Ramakrishna (also known as Vikrama Sangama Dynasty during the literary contest
Simhapuri or Rama Krishnadeva), was a King was impressed by Poet Srinatha make
13
famous poet and scholar in the court of King him bathed in the mintfrem Gold coins .
Krishnadevaraya of the Vijayanagara Empire
Tenali Rama krishna's sharp intellect and 46. ANSWER - 1
contributions to literature have earned him a
Explanation:
place among the "Ashtadiggajas" (the eight
poets) in the court of Krishnadevaraya. Srinatha, a prominent poet of the Reddy
kingdom, is known for his contributions to
He is renowned for his wit, humor, and
Telugu literature. Let’s analyze the works:
wisdom. Tenali Ramakrishna is often
remembered for his clever stories and the way Naishadam belongs to Srinatha. It is a
he used his intelligence to solve problems and translation of "Naishadha Charitam," which
outwit others. narrates the story of Nala and Damayanti.
Panduranga Mahatyam was indeed written Shivaratri Mahatyam belongs to Srinatha. It is
by Tenali Ramakrishna, who was a prominent a devotional work that glorifies Lord Shiva.
poet in the court of King Krishnadevaraya of Kasikandam belongs to Srinatha. It is a literary
the Vijayanagara Empire. work that describes the sacredness of Kashi
(Varanasi).
Vema Bhupala Charitra does not belong to
Srinatha. This work was authored by
Thus, the correct set of works belonging to
Srinatha is I, II, III only.

47. ANSWER – 3
Explanation:
Vastha Rajeeyam - Kumaragiri Reddy
Correct. This work is attributed to Kumaragiri
Reddy.
Kumaragiri Rajeeyam - Kakata Vema Reddy
45. ANSWER – 3
Correct. Kakata Vema Reddy is associated
Explanation:
with this work.
The correct answer is Devaraya - II,
Harivamsham - Pedakomati Vema Reddy
Srinatha, a prominent poet, defeated
Incorrect. It was written by Errana ( one of the
Govindha Dindima Bhattu, the court poet of
Trinity poets of Kavithrayam ).
the Vijayanagara ruler Devaraya - II belongs to
 Pedakomati Vema Reddy did not write Kakatiyas were the first rulers to recognise the
"Harivamsham." This work is traditionally importance of water resources in the
14
attributed to other sources and not connected Telangana region and dug many tanks and
to the Reddy kingdom. His writings are Sahitya canals. Hence Reason
Chintamani, Sangeeta Chintamani ,Shirngara (R) is also correct.
Deepika,Sapta sahiti Saratika.
Both A and R are also correct explanations.
Haravilasam - Srinatha
Additional information
Correct. Srinatha, a prominent poet of the
Betaraju- II, one of the earlier kakatiya
Reddy kingdom, authored "Haravilasam.”
rulers,dug two huge tanks called seti (kera)
and kesari samudra. Ganapatideva also dug
48. ANSWER – 2 many ponds in Warangal in 1213 A.D.Nellore
Explanation: and Eluru regions. Recharlarudra, army
general of Ganapatideva, constructed the
I.Prolaya Vema Reddy - Pandyagajakesari
famous Ramappa tank in Warangal in 1213
This is correct. Prolaya Vema Reddy, the A.D.
founder of the Reddy Kingdom, was known by
this title, which translates to "Lion of the
Pandyas.” 50. ANSWER – 4

II.Kumari Giri Reddy - Vassntha Rayalu Explanation:

This is incorrect. Kumari Giri Reddy was not statement A is incorrect.

associated with the title "Vasantha Rayalu." ‘Bayyaram Tank Inscription’ was issued by
This title match is related to King Anavema myalamba to describe the family tree of the
Reddy related to the Reddy dynasty. Kakatiyas. Pakala Inscription by jagadala
III.Katya Vema Reddy - Kakataka Choorakara mummadi also mentioned the family tree of
Kakatiyas.
This is correct. Katya Vema Reddy bore this
title, which signifies a victorious ruler over the Statement B is incorrect.
Kakatiyas. ‘Hanumakonda Inscription’ was written by
Thus, the incorrect pair is II. Achitendra and it was issued by Prataparudra
-I ( Rudradeva )
statement C is incorrect.
49. ANSWER – 3
Garikapadu Inscription' was issued by
Explanation:
Ganapatideva not Rudramadevi .
Kakatiya rulers had given importance to
Ganapatideva also issued ‘ Motupalli
agriculture and tank irrigation in Telangana.
Inscription' described as' Abhaya Inscription'
Hence Assertion(A)is correct.
 for foreign traders . Garikapadu Inscription' 53. ANSWER – 3
mentioned that Explanation: 15
Motupalli was the famous port city of Statement I is correct.
Kakatiyas.
The kakatiyas followed the system of
Monarchy like all Hindu rulers and the King
51. ANSWER – 4 was the head of the kingdom.The chief
Explanation: characteristic of the Kakatiya dynasty was
Right to rule was Hereditary and
Statement I is incorrect.
Primogeniture was preferred and the throne
Bayyaram inscription says Kakatiyas served transferred from father to son usually.
as the army chiefs of Rashtrakutas in the
Statement II is correct.
beginning. They used to participate in the
attacks of Rashtrakutas on vengi chalukyas. Ganapathi Deva had 2 daughters named
They used the picture of 'eagle' (Garuda) as Rudramba ( Rudramadevi) and Ganapamba
their Royal symbol, denoting the subordinate and he has no sons .
ruler status. Rudramadevi the Elder Daughter Of
Statement II is incorrect . Ganapatideva, succeeded her father as ruler
of the kingdom for the first time in the history
But later, when they became famous and
of South India. The king/ Ruler was helped by
changed allegiance to kalyani chalukyas, they
ministers in administering the state.
used the picture of 'pig (varaha) as their Royal
symbol.
54. ANSWER – 1

52. ANSWER – 4 Explanation:

Explanation: Statement I is correct .

Rudramadevi,Daughter of Ganapatideva, Rudra Deva ( Prataparudra -I) was the first

succeeded her father as ruler of the kingdom kakatiya ruler who asserted the
for the first time in 1262 A.D in the history of independence from the western chalukyas of
South India .She ascended the throne after the kalyani and started Independent Imperial
death of Ganapatideva. She has the title Kakatiyas.
‘Rudra Maharaja’.Rudramadevi was the First Statement II is incorrect .
woman to rule Telugu Region . Inscriptions like He issued the Hanmakonda inscription while
Malkapur, kundavaram,Bidar fort Inscriptions Ganapamba issued Ganapavaram Inscription
were mentioned about Rudramadevi and her .Ganapamba was the daughter of
reign and political Administration. Ganapatideva.
55. ANSWER – 2 Chandavolu, the present day Buddham. By the
Explanation: sentence 'chaityam atyunnatham yatra nana
16
chitra suchitritam on the Amaravati
Statements I and II are correct.
inscription, it is learnt that Dhanyakataka
'Vardhamanapura' inscription issued by Maha chaitya was not damaged by then.
Malyala gundaya Senani says that kakatiyas
were 'Sudras'. The reign of kakatiyas was
described as the 'Golden era' of sudras. 58. ANSWER – 2

Statement III is incorrect. Explanation:

Kakatiyas initially followed Buddhism and later Vishnukundinas use Lion and bull symbols in
they were converted to Saivism. their Coinage.
Govinda Varma I issued the first inscription of
‘Tummalagudem’.
56. ANSWER – 3
Vikramendra Bhattarakaissued the second
Explanation:
inscription of ‘Tummalgudem’.
The capital of Renati cholas was said to be
Govindha Varma was a Patron of Buddhism
Peda Cheppali in the Kamalapuram taluk.
and his title is ‘Vikrama sharaya’.He was most
Their royal insignia was a lion turned to the left
famous in early Vishnukundinas.
with its tail twisted on its back.
Four copper inscriptions and fifty stone
inscriptions threw light on the history of the 59. ANSWER – 1
Renati Cholas. Only a few names of the kings Explanation:
are known through the inscriptions. They said Royal symbol is Vishnukundinas is Lion
that they were the progeny of Karikala Chola.
Royal deity of Vishnukundinas is ‘SriParvata
Nandi Varman was their ancestor. The founder
Swamy’.
of the Renati Chola kingdom "Dhanunjaya"
Varman belonged to the period of 575 AD- Vishnukundinas are the patrons of Hinduism.
600 AD. Royal language language of Vishnukundinas is
Sanskrit.
57. ANSWER – 3
Explanation:
Though Jain religion was seen here and there
in the Rayalaseema and Telangana region,
Buddhism was at its lowest ebb in Andhra
region.But the biography of Panditaradhya
reveals that there were Buddihsts at
60. ANSWER – 1 The Eastern Chalukyas followed the styles of
Explanation: Dravidas and western Chalukyas. Large airy
17
rooms with pillars, high structures in the
Nannaya - The court Poet of King Raja Raj
shape of pyramids were the prominent
Narendra and his title were , Aadikavi,
features of their architecture.
Vaaganasasanudu. He was one of the trio
poets who translate Mahabharat into Telugu
language. 62. ANSWER – 3

Tikanna - Contemporary of Ghanapatideva of Explanation:

Kakatiyas and Court poet of Manumasidhhi-III Ulika Pramukh - Leader of Shrenis.
the Telugu coda king of Nellore.His Titles were Shrenis were the group of merchants and
Kavi Brahma and Ubaya Kavi Mitrudu. craftsmen. They used to provide training,
Erranna or Errapragada - He was the court procure raw materials and distribute the final
Poet of Reddy Dynasty founder Prolaya vema product. Shrenis were the mechants who
Reddy ,His Titles were Prabandha were responsible to arrange trade. They also
Parameswara and Shambudhasa. served as bank, where rich people can deposit
Srinadha - Srinatha was respected as Kavi their money.
Sarvabhouma (King of poets) in Telugu, and
patronized by many kings. Srinatha worked as 63. ANSWER – 1
a minister in the court of Pedakomati Vema
Explanation:
Reddy of Kondaveedu.
Vashisthiputra Santamula-I
The earliest known king of the dynasty was
61. ANSWER – 4
Vashishtiputra Santamula who came into
Explanation: prominence in the second quarter of 3rd cen-
The Eastern Chalukyas built a number of tury A.D. following the end of Satavahana rule.
Hindu temples, most of them were the tem- So, he can be called as the founder of this
ples of Siva. dynasty.
Chalukya Bhima-I had built the
Bhimeswaralaya in Bhimavaram (near 64. ANSWER – 1
Samarlakota).
Explanation:
Many temples were constructed during this
The Earliest known king of the Dynasty was
period in Bikkavolu, Palakollu and
Vashisthiputra Santamula.He donated lakhs
Samarlakota in East Godavari district.The
of cows, land and gold to Brahmins and was
temples in Bikkavolu built by ‘Gunaga
called as Mahadanapati.
Vijayaditya’.
 Ehvala Santamula was the third and last king of Statement IV is incorrect. Vashishti Putra
independent Dynasty of Ikshvakus most of Pulumavi changed the capital from
18
the inscriptions at Nagarjunakonda made by Pratishthana Puram to Dhanyakataka, largely
ladies of Ikshvakus in his reign. due to the threat from Rudradaman, as per
Rudrapurusha Datta was succeeded by the Girnar or Junagadh inscription.
Ehuvala Santamula He made the important
inscription found at Nagarjunakonda 67. ANSWER – 1
mentions about the construction of a Chaya
Explanation:
Stambha (a memorial pillar) by this ruler, in
memory of his mother. Statement I is correct. Gautamiputra
Satakarni indeed defeated Nahapana, an
important ruler of the Kshatrapas, and
65. ANSWER – 3 consequently gained the title "Destroyer of
Explanation: Kshatrapas" (Kshaharata Vamsha
Ikshavakus the feudatories who hastened the Nirvaseshakar1..
downfall of the Satavahanas, the Ikshvakus of Statement II is also correct. After his victory,
the Krishna - Guntur region were promi- nent. Gautamiputra Satakarni re-issued the coins of
The Puranas refer to them as 'Sriparvatiya Nahapana with his name. These re-issued
Andhras' who held power in the region coins were found at Jogal thambi in
around Nagarjuna Konda. Maharashtra, confirming this historical event.
Statement III is incorrect. Contrary to the
66. ANSWER – 2 movement of the capital mentioned in the
statement, Gautamiputra Satakarni actually
Explanation:
changed the capital of the Satavahanas from
Statement I is correct. Vashistiputra Pulomavi Dhanyakataka to Pratishthana Puram.
was indeed given the title
"Dakshinapadeshwara," as evidenced in the
Nasik inscription. 68. ANSWER – 1

Statement II is incorrect. While the Amaravati Explanation:

Stupa was significant during this period, there 1. Somadeva Suri - Kathasaritsagaram (A-3)
is no direct evidence linking its construction • Somadeva Suri was a Kashmiri poet
specifically to Vashistiputra Pulomavi's and scholar of the 11th century.
region.
• He is famous for compiling the
Statement III is correct. The first Satavahana Kathasaritsagaram ("Ocean of Streams
inscription in Andhra Pradesh, the Dharani of Stories"), a collection of interlinked
Kota inscription, was indeed issued by stories and folk tales.
Vashistiputra Pulomavi.
 • This work is an adaptation of the now- Correct Matching:
lost Brihat Katha by Gunadhya and is Based on the above analysis: 19
written in Sanskrit.
• A-3: Somadeva Suri -
• It became a major source of later Kathasaritsagaram
storytelling traditions in India and
• B-1: Kshemendra - Brihat Katha
beyond.
Manjari
2. Kshemendra - Brihat Katha Manjari (B-1)
• C-4: Hari Sena - Brihat Katha Kosham
• Kshemendra was another prominent
• D-2: Varahamihira - Brihat Samhita
Kashmiri poet and scholar, a
contemporary of Somadeva.
• He is credited with Brihat Katha Manjari, 69. ANSWER – 2
a condensed version of the Brihat Katha. Explanation:
• His style focuses on concise and lucid Option 1 is incorrect. Halika refers to an
narration, capturing the essence of the agriculturist, not a blacksmith.
stories in a more compact form
Option 2 is correct. Gadhika indeed refers to
compared to the Kathasaritsagaram.
those who prepared perfumes.
3. Hari Sena - Brihat Katha Kosham (C-4)
Option 3 is incorrect. Kolikas were weavers,
• Hari Sena is less known but is associated not grain merchants.
with the Brihat Katha Kosham, which is
Option 4 is incorrect. Kularika refers to
another adaptation of Gunadhya’s
potters, not individuals skilled in irrigation.
Brihat Katha.
• His work showcases the popularity and
influence of the Brihat Katha tradition
across ancient India.
4. Varahamihira - Brihat Samhita (D-2)
• Varahamihira, an eminent Indian
astronomer, mathematician, and
astrologer of the 6th century, authored
the Brihat Samhita.
• This encyclopedic work covers a vast
range of topics, including astronomy,
70. ANSWER – 2
astrology, architecture, agriculture,
gemology, and omens. Explanation:

• It reflects the scientific and cultural The term "Ganapaka" in the context of
achievements of ancient India. ancient Indian administration specifically
 refers to an individual who held the role of an 73. ANSWER – 2
accountant or record-keeper. This position EXplanation: 20
was crucial in managing the financial and
Statement I is incorrect. Gautamiputra
bureaucratic aspects of governance, ensuring
Satakarni's dominions were extensive,
accurate records of revenues, expenditures,
including regions between Rajasthan and
and other financial transactions.
Cuddalore, and between the Rushikulya and
Vaijayanti, extending to the seas on either
71. ANSWER – 3 side.
Explanation: Statement II is correct. Gautamiputra was
Statement I is incorrect. Hala was not known described as a compassionate and pious
for contributions in mathematics, but he was ruler, who was involved in the welfare of his
a great poet who composed the subjects and adhered to the principles of
Gathasapthasati. Trivarga. He was also noted for his
commitment to maintaining caste purity.
Statement II is incorrect. He composed the
Gathasapthasati in Prakrit, and his love story
with Lilavati is indeed described in the Prakrit
work Lilavati by Kutuhala.

72. ANSWER – 2
Explanation:
Statement I is incorrect. Vasisthiputra
Pulomavi II faced significant external threats, 74. ANSWER – 2
particularly from the Saka chieftain Chastana,
Explanation:
indicating a period of challenge for the
Satavahana kingdom. Statement I is incorrect. Simuka Satavahana
did not found a fully independent state;
Statement II is correct. The rise of Chastana
rather, he brought several Andhra family
and his occupation of Malwa represented a
groups together under a mutual leadership,
major external threat during Pulomavi II’s
achieving a semi-independent status.
reign, contributing to the Satavahana
kingdom's territorial loss and decline. Statement II is correct. Simuka became a
prominent figure around 271 B.C., coinciding
Statement III is incorrect. As per the Junagarh
with Asoka Maurya's reign. His leadership led
inscription, Sivasri Satakarni was defeated
to a semi-independent status for his group,
twice by the Saka ruler Rudradaman, not
not the establishment of a completely
successfully repelling him.
independent state.
75. ANSWER – 3 the creation of legislative council must be
Explanation: passed by a special majority, i.e., a majority of
21
total membership of assembly and a majority
Statement I is correct. The Satavahana
of not less than two- thirds of the assembly
kingdom's territory indeed included regions
present and voting. Hence, statement II is
such as Malwa, Kutch, and Saurashtra. These
correct.
areas were a part of their expansive domain
which extended across various parts of the
Indian subcontinent. 77. ANSWER – 2
Statement II is correct. The Satavahanas had Explanation:
multiple capital cities during their rule, The Rules committee considers the matters
including Amaravati (Dharanikot1. and of procedure and conduct of business in the
Kotilingala. This was a common practice House and recommends necessary
among large empires to administer vast amendments or additions to the rules of the
territories effectively. House. ∙ The Lok Sabha committee consists of
Statement III is incorrect. The Satavahana rule 15 members including Speaker as the ex-
is generally considered to span from the 1st officio chairman. In Rajya Sabha, it consists of
century BCE to the 3rd century CE, not from 16 members including the Chairman as its ex-
the 2nd century BCE to the 4th century CE. officio chairman. Hence option (2) is the
Statement IV is correct. The Satavahana correct answer. ∙ General Purpose Committee
empire, at its peak, did extend its influence considers and advises on general matters that
into regions that are now known as Karnataka are not covered by any other committee. This
and Tamil Nadu, showcasing the dynasty's committee has Speaker {in Lok Sabha) and
extensive reach. Chairman / Vice-President {In Rajya Sabha} as
its chairman. ∙ Business Advisory Committee
regulate the programme and time table of
76. ANSWER – 2 concerned house. Committee on Government
Explanation: Assurances examines the assurances,
promises and undertakings given by the
● The Constitution provides for the creation
ministers on the floor of that house. The Lok
and abolition of legislative councils in states.
Sabha Committee on Assurances has 15
Accordingly, the parliament can abolish or
members and Rajya Sabha Committee on
create, if the concerned state passes a
Assurances has 10 members.
resolution. Under Article 169 of the Indian
constitution, Parliament may create or abolish
the Council in a state if the Legislative 78. ANSWER – 4
Assembly of that state passes a resolution to
Explanation:
that effect by a special majority. Hence,
statement 1 is not correct. ∙ The resolution for
● The President can be removed from office by a Explanation:
process of impeachment for ‗violation of the The governor is neither directly elected by the 22
Constitution. (Article 61 of Indian people nor indirectly elected by a specially
Constitution). However, the Constitution does constituted electoral college as is the case
not define the meaning of the phrase with the president.
„violation of the Constitution. ∙ The
∙ Article 153 says ‗there shall be a Governor
impeachment charges can be initiated by
for each State‘. But the 7th Constitutional
either House of Parliament. These charges
Amendment Act of 1956 facilitated the
should be signed by one-fourth of members
appointment of the same person as a
of the House (that framed the charges), and a
governor for two or more states. ∙ Article 156:
14 days‘ notice should be given to the
A governor holds office for a term of five
President. ∙ After the impeachment resolution
years from the date on which he enters his
is passed by a majority of two-thirds of the
office. However, this term of five years is
total membership of that House, it is sent to
subject to the pleasure of the President.
the other House, which should investigate the
Further, he can resign at any time by
charges. ∙ The President has the right to
addressing a resignation letter to the
appear and to be represented in such an
President.
investigation. ∙ If the other House also sustains
the charges and passes the impeachment ● The Constitution lays down only two
resolution by a majority of twothirds of the qualifications for the appointment of a person
total membership, then the President stands as a governor. These are:
removed from his office from the date on ● He should be a citizen of India.
which the resolution is so passed. Hence
● He should have completed the age of 35
statement (4) is not correct. ∙ Impeachment is
years. The minimum age requirement for a
a quasi-judicial procedure in Parliament. In
person to be chosen as a member of the state
this context, two things should be noted:
legislature is 25 years. ∙ Hence option (4) is the
⮚ the nominated members of either House of correct answer.
Parliament can participate in the
impeachment of the President though they
do not participate in his election; 80. ANSWER – 3
Explanation:
⮚ the elected members of the legislative
assemblies of states and the Union Territories ● A person to be eligible for election as
of Delhi and Puducherry do not participate in President should fulfill the following
the impeachment of the President though qualifications: He should be a citizen of India.
they participate in his election. ● He should have completed 35 years of age.
● He should be qualified for election as a
79. ANSWER – 4 member of the Lok Sabha.
 ● He should not hold any office of profit under Termination of the sitting of the House which
the Union government or any state meets again at the time appointed for the next
23
government or any local authority or any sitting. It suspends the work in a sitting for a
other public authority. ∙ A sitting President or specified time, which may be hours, days or
Vice-President of the Union, the Governor of weeks . ∙ Adjournment sine die-Termination of
any state, and a minister of the Union or any a sitting of the House without any definite
state is not deemed to hold any office of profit date being fixed for the next sitting. The
and hence qualified as a presidential power of adjournment as well as
candidate. ∙ The President‘s election is held in adjournment sine die lies with the presiding
accordance with the system of proportional officer of the House. ∙ Prorogation-The
representation by means of the single termination of a session by an order made by
transferable vote and the voting is by secret the President under the Constitution. The
ballot. This system ensures that the successful presiding officer (Speaker or Chairman)
candidate is returned by the absolute declares the House adjourned sine die, when
majority of votes. ∙ The oath of office to the the business of a session is completed. Within
President is administered by the Chief Justice the next few days, the President issues a
of India and in his absence, the seniormost notification for prorogation of the session.
judge of the Supreme Court is available. o However, the President can also prorogue the
Any other person acting as President or House while in session. ∙ Hence option (4) is
discharging the functions of the President also the correct answer.
undertakes a similar oath or affirmation. ∙ The
President can hold office beyond his term of
five years until his successor assumes charge.
He is also eligible for re-election to that office.
He may be elected for any number of terms. ∙
Hence option (3) is the correct answer.

81. ANSWER – 4
Explanation:
82. ANSWER – 2
● A session of Parliament consists of many
meetings. Each meeting of a day consists of Explanation:
two sittings, that is, a morning sitting from 11 ● In addition to the budget that contains the
am to 1 pm and post-lunch sitting from 2 pm ordinary estimates of income and
to 6 pm. A sitting of Parliament can be expenditure for one financial year, various
terminated by adjournment or adjournment other grants are made by the Parliament
sine die or prorogation or dissolution (in the under extraordinary or special circumstances:
case of the Lok Sabha). ∙ Adjournment:
 ∙ Supplementary Grant: It is granted when the matters enumerated in List I in the Seventh
amount authorized by the Parliament through Schedule.
24
the appropriation act for a particular service ● List I - Union List: It includes 100 subjects
for the current financial year is found to be like defence, banking, foreign affairs,
insufficient for that year. Hence option (2) is currency and coinage, atomic energy,
the correct answer. insurance and so on. ∙ According to Article
∙ Additional Grant: It is granted when a need 246 (3), the Legislature of any State has
as arisen during the current financial year for exclusive power to make laws for such State or
additional expenditure upon some new any part thereof with respect to any of the
service not contemplated in the budget for matters enumerated in List II in the Seventh
that year. Schedule
∙ Token Grant: It is granted when funds to meet ● List II - State List: It includes 61 subjects like
the proposed expenditure on a new service public order, agriculture, prisons, local
can be made available by reappropriation. A government, public health and sanitation
demand for the grant of a token sum of Rs 1 is and so on. ∙ According to Article 246 (2),
submitted to vote of the lok Sabha and if Parliament, and, subject to clause (1), the
assented, funds are made available. Legislature of any State also, have power to
Reappropriation involves transfer of funds make laws with respect to any of the matters
from one head to another. It does not involve enumerated in List III in the Seventh Schedule
any additional expenditure ● List III - Union List: It includes 52 subjects like
∙ Excess Grant: It is granted when money has education, electricity, labour welfare, drugs
been spent on any service during a financial and so on.
year in excess of the amount granted for that ● The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976
service in the budget for that year .Vote of transferred five subjects to Concurrent List
Credit: It is granted for meeting an from State List i.e. education, forests, weights
unexpected demand upon the resources of and measures, protection of wild animals and
India, when on account of the magnitude or birds, and administration of justice;
the indefinite character of the service, the constitution and organisation of all courts
demand cannot be stated with the details except the Supreme Court and the High
ordinarily given in a budget. Courts.

83. ANSWER – 1 84. ANSWER – 2

Explanation: Explanation:
● As per Article 246 (1) of the Indian Statement I is correct: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was
Constitution Parliament has exclusive power the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of
to make laws with respect to any of the the Constitution.
 Jawaharlal Nehru emphasized the values of 87. ANSWER – 1
democracy, secularism, and socialism, which Explanation: 25
guided the drafting process.
• Statement I is correct: Prohibition is issued
Incorrect regarding the Drafting Committee. by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal,
While Jawaharlal Nehru played a significant directing them to stop proceedings in a case
role in the Constituent Assembly and that falls outside their jurisdiction.
emphasized these values, he was not a
- Statement II is incorrect: Certiorari is issued
member of the Drafting Committee
by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal,
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel played a crucial role directing them to send the records of a case
in integrating the princely states into the for review.
Indian Union.
- Statement III is incorrect: Quo Warranto is
Incorrect regarding the Drafting Committee. issued to inquire into the legality of a person
Sardar Patel's contribution was significant in holding a public offi ce, corporation, or
integrating princely states, but he was not a position of power
member of the Drafting Committee.

88. ANSWER – 1
85. ANSWER – 3
Explanation:
Explanation:
Option (1) is correct: The Fundamental Duties
The Joint Sitting of both Houses of Parliament are a set of moral and civic obligations
is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok outlined in Part IV-A of the Indian
Sabha, not the Prime Minister. This sitting is Constitution. While they are not legally
convened to resolve any deadlock on enforceable, they serve as guiding
legislative bills principles for citizens to promote
harmony, respect, and the overall well-
86. ANSWER – 1 being of society.

Explanation: Fundamental Duties

Statement I is correct: The constitution is a - To abide by the Constitution and respect its
fundamental document that outlines the ideals and institutions: Citizens should
principles, structure, and functioning of a uphold the values and principles
government, serving as the supreme law of enshrined in the Indian Constitution. They
the land. should have a deep respect for democratic
norms, the rule of law, and the institutions
- Statement II is incorrect: It plays a crucial role
that safeguard the rights and freedoms of
in de fi ning the rights and responsibilities of
individuals.
individuals and institutions within a country
- To cherish and follow the noble ideals that - To safeguard public property and abjure
inspired the national struggle for freedom: violence: Citizens should respect public
26
Citizens should value and uphold the property and refrain from engaging in
principles of liberty, equality, justice, and violence or any form of destructive
fraternity that formed the basis of India’s behavior that may harm individuals,
struggle for independence. They should society, or the nation.
recognize the sacri fi ces made by freedom - To strive towards excellence in all spheres of
fi ghters and work towards realizing the individual and collective activity: Citizens
aspirations of a just and inclusive society. should pursue excellence in their personal
- To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and collective endeavors.
and integrity of India: Citizens have a duty - To provide opportunities for education to
to defend the sovereignty, territorial children: Citizens have a duty to ensure
integrity, and unity of the country. They that children have access to education
should strive to promote a sense of and promote the importance of
national unity, harmony, and integration, education in society. They should support
while rejecting divisive forces that initiatives to improve educational
threaten the fabric of the nation. infrastructure, eliminate child labor, and
- To promote a spirit of common brotherhood create an environment conducive to
among all the people of India: Citizens learning
should foster a sense of unity and
brotherhood among the diverse
89. ANSWER – 2
communities and cultures that exist within
India. Explanation:
- To preserve the rich heritage of India’s Statement II is incorrect : When Parliament is
composite culture: Citizens should take not in session, the President can issue
pride in India’s diverse cultural heritage ordinances.
and contribute to its preservation and Presidential Powers in India In India, the
promotion. President holds a signifi cant position as
- To protect and improve the natural the head of state and exercises various
environment, including forests, lakes, powers as enshrined in the Constitution
rivers, and wildlife: Citizens have a of India. The President is considered the fi
responsibility to protect and conserve the rst citizen of the country and represents
environment. the unity of the nation.
- To develop scientifi c temper, humanism, and Executive Powers
the spirit of inquiry and reform: Citizens The President is the formal head of the
should cultivate a scienti fi c temper, executive branch of the government.
rational thinking, and a spirit of inquiry. Although most executive functions are
 carried out by the Council of Ministers Statement I is incorrect: The election of the
headed by the Prime Minister, certain next Vice-President is to be held within 60
27
powers are vested with the President. days of the expiry of the term of offi ce of the
These include appointing the Prime outgoing Vice-President. Supplementary
Minister, other ministers on the advice of Notes: Provisions relating to the Election of
the Prime Minister, and the Attorney the Vice-President
General of India. The President also The election of the next Vice-President is to be
appoints the governors of states, judges of held within 60 days of the expiry of the term
the Supreme Court and High Courts, and of offi ce of the outgoing VicePresident.
various other high ranking offi cials.
Any person quali fi ed to be elected and
Legislative Powers intending to stand for election as
The President plays a crucial role in the VicePresident is required to be nominated by
legislative process. The President at least 20 MPs as proposers and at least 20
summons and prorogues the sessions of MPs as seconders.
Parliament and addresses both houses at
the commencement of the fi rst session
91. ANSWER – 3
after each general election.
Explanation:
Bills passed by Parliament require the
President’s assent to become law. The Statement I is correct: Governor is generally
President can also withhold assent, an outsider and does not belong to the state
returning the bill for reconsideration, in which he holds the offi ce. Present
although if Parliament passes it again, the governor of Kerala, Arif Mohammad Khan is
President must give assent. an outsider. Its objective is to keep the
governor free from local politics.
Ordinance-making
Statement II is incorrect : However, this
When Parliament is not in session, the
practice is a convention and is not mentioned
President can issue ordinances, which
in the constitution.
have the same force as an act of
Parliament. Office of Governor
These ordinances are temporary laws and To be appointed as a Governor, he/ She has to
must be approved by Parliament within six meet only two quali fi cations:
weeks of reassembling; otherwise, they He should be an Indian Citizen and he should
cease to operate be 35 years old or more
There are two conventions that the
90. ANSWER – 2 government follows before nominating a
person as a Governor:
Explanation:
 He shall be an outsider having no relation with Court in regard to enforcement of
the state he is being appointed to. Fundamental Rights.
28
Consultation of the Chief Minister is taken by It is empowered to issue directions, orders or
the President before appointing a governor writs, including writs in the nature of habeas
corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto
and certiorari to enforce them.
92. ANSWER – 1
The Supreme Court has been conferred with
Explanation: power to direct transfer of any civil or criminal
Statement I is correct: Money Bills can only case from one State High Court to another
be introduced in the Lok Sabha. State High Court or from a Court subordinate
to another State High Court.
Statement II is incorrect: The Rajya Sabha can
make recommendations on the money bill, The Supreme Court, if satis fi ed that cases
but it cannot reject or amend it. involving the same or substantially the same
questions of law are pending before it and
Statement III is incorrect: Finance Bills are one or more High Courts or before two or
related to taxation measures and can be more High Courts and that such questions are
introduced in either house. substantial questions of general importance,
may withdraw a case or cases pending before
the High Court or High Courts and dispose of
all such cases itself.

Under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act,

1996, International Commercial Arbitration
can also be initiated in the Supreme Court.

94. ANSWER – 4
Explanation:
All statements are correct
Judicial Review

93. ANSWER – 1 Judicial review is the power of the judiciary

to examine the constitutionality of legislative
Explanation: enactments and executive orders of both the
Central and State governments.
Both Statements are correct
Judicial review is needed for the following
Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court reasons:
Article 32 of the Constitution gives an To uphold the principle of the supremacy of
extensive original jurisdiction to the Supreme the Constitution
 To maintain federal equilibrium (balance Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Maharashtra,
between the Centre and the states) Madhya Pradesh, Orissa, and Rajasthan.
29
To protect the Fundamental Rights of the The fundamental spirit of the Panchayat
citizens Extension Act for tribal areas under 5th
Schedule is that it devolves power and
Judicial Activism and Judicial Restraint
authority to Gram Sabha and Panchayats
The Judiciary has been assigned active role rather than delegation; hence it paves way for
under the constitution. Judicial activism and participatory democracy.
judicial restraint are facets of that
uncourageous creativity and pragmatic The provision under constitution and the
composition under this act call for every
wisdom. The concept of judicial activism is
legislation on the Panchayat in 5th Schedule
thus
area are in conformity with the customary
law, social and religious practices and
95. ANSWER – 4 traditional management practices of the
community resources.
Explanation:

Panchayat (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act

(or PESA), 1996

Village level democracy became a real

prospect for India in 1992 with the 73rd
amendment to the Constitution, which
mandated that resources, responsibility and
decision making be passed on from central
government to the lowest unit of the 96. ANSWER – 3
governance, the Gram Sabha or the Village
Assembly. Explanation:
Statement II is incorrect: It is not under the
A three tier structure of local self-government
was envisaged under this amendment. Since control of the state government.
the laws do not automatically cover the State Election Commission
scheduled areas, the PESA Act was in acted on
24 December 1996 to enable Tribal Self Rule In India, the State Election Commission (SEC)
in these areas. plays a vital role in ensuring free and fair
elections at the state level. It is a
The Act extended the provisions of constitutional body established under the
Panchayats to the tribal areas of nine states
provisions of the Indian Constitution .
that have Fifth Schedule Areas.
The role of the State Election Commission is
The nine states with Fifth Schedule areas are: primarily focused on conducting elections
Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat,
to the local bodies, such as municipal
corporations, municipal councils,
 panchayats, and other urban and rural recommending transfer of resources from the
local bodies within the state . State Government to Local Bodies.
30
Features and functions of the State Election Thus, Local Bodies were handicapped in their
Commission in India: functioning and their development because
Constitutional Status of a number of inadequacies and limitations
Constitutional, institutional, functional and
The State Election Commission derives its
financial.
authority from Article 243K and Article
243ZA of the Constitution of India.
These articles provide for the establishment 98. ANSWER – 4
and composition of the State Election Explanation:
Commission and its powers and functions.
Statement I is correct: The Committee on the
Independent Body Status of Women in India (CSWI)
The State Election Commission is intended to recommended nearly two decades ago, the
be an independent and autonomous setting up of a National Commission for
women to fulfil the surveillance functions to
body. It is not under the control of the
facilitate redressal of grievances and to
state government. accelerate the socio-economic development.
The Chief State Election Commissioner and of women. Successive
other Election Commissioners are Committees/Commissions/Plans including
the National Perspective Plan for Women
appointed by the Governor of the state,
(1988-2000) recommended the constitution
and they are usually retired senior civil
of an apex body for women.
servants or judicial offi cers.
Statement II is correct: The Commission. being
a Coordinating Agency at the National Level to
97. ANSWER - 1 deal with issues pertaining to NRI marriages
Explanation: formally created NRI Cell in 2009. The NRI Cell
deals with complaints and specific issues
Both statements are correct related to the NRI marital disputes causing
Finance Commission deprivation of women's rights, such as Indian
women who are aggrieved of desertion by
Our Constitution has made provision for the NRI/Overseas husband in India,
creation of Finance Commission under article abandonment in foreign land or any other
280, to recommend devolution of resources related issues
from the Center to the States through Tax-
Statement III is correct: NCW under Section
Sharing and Grants-in- Aid, no such 10(1) (f) of the National Commission for
Constitutional arrangement was made for a Women Act, 1990 takes suo motu cognizance
long time since independence for of matters where there is:
 · Violation /deprivation of the rights of Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists and Zoroastrians
women. (Parsis) were noti fi ed as minority
31
communities by the Union Government.
· Non-implementation of laws enacted to
provide protection to women and also to Further, Jains were also notified as another
achieve the objective of equality. minority community..

· Non-compliance of policy decisions,

guidelines or instructions aimed at mitigating

hardships and ensuring welfare and

empowerment of women.

· Suo-Motu cognizance may be taken on the

basis of print, electronic and social media or 100. ANSWER – 2
any other information received by the
Commission. Explanation:

Statement IViscorrect: The Legal Cell of the

Commission reviews the constitutional and
legal safeguards provided, recommending
remedial legislative measures and facilitates
redressal & offers advice to Government.

99. ANSWER– 3
Explanation:
Statement I is correct: Union Government
101. ANSWER – 2
constituted National Commission for
Minorities, New Delhi and State Government Explanation:
constituted State Minorities Commissions in The procedure for the amendment of the
their respective State Capitals. These Constitution as laid down in Article 368 is as
organisations are setup to safeguard and follows: An amendment of the Constitution
protect the interests of minorities as provided can be initiated only by the introduction of a
in the Constitution of India and laws enacted bill for the purpose in either House of
by the Parliament and the State Legislatures. Parliament and not in the state legislatures.
Statement II is incorrect: The Union Hence, statement I is not correct.
Government set up the National Commission The bill can be introduced either by a minister
for Minorities (NCM) under the National or by a private member and does not require
Commission for Minorities Act, 1992. Initially prior permission of the President. Hence,
fi ve religious communities, viz., Muslims, statement II is correct.
 The bill must be passed in each House by a o An amendment of the Constitution can be
special majority, that is, a majority of the total initiated only by the introduction of a bill for
32
membership of the House and a majority of the purpose in either House of Parliament and
two-thirds of the members of the House not in the state legislatures.
present and voting. o The bill can be introduced either by a
Each House must pass the bill separately. In minister or by a private member and does not
case of a disagreement between the two require prior permission of the president.
Houses, there is no provision for holding a Hence, statement I is not correct.
joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose o The bill must be passed in each House by a
of deliberation and passage of the bill. Hence, special majority, that is, a majority (that is,
statement III is correct. more than 50 per cent) of the total
If the bill seeks to amend the federal membership of the House and a majority of
provisions of the Constitution, it must also be two-thirds of the members of the House
ratified by the legislatures of half of the present and voting. Hence, statement II is not
states by a simple majority, that is, a majority correct.
of the members of the House present and o Each House must pass the bill separately. In
voting. case of a disagreement between the two
After duly passed by both Houses of Parliament Houses, there is no provision for holding a
and ratified by the state legislatures, where joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose
necessary, the bill is presented to the of deliberation and passage of the bill.
president for assent. o If the bill seeks to amend the federal
The president must give his assent to the bill. provisions of the Constitution, it must also be
He can neither withhold his assent to the bill ratified by the legislatures of atleast half of
nor return the bill for reconsideration of the the states by a simple majority, that is, a
Parliament. majority of the members of the House
After the president's assent, the bill becomes present and voting.
an Act (i.e., a constitutional amendment act) o After duly passed by both the Houses of
and the Constitution stands amended in Parliament and ratified by the state
accordance with the terms of the Act. Hence, legislatures, where necessary, the bill is
option (b) is the correct answer. presented to the president for assent.
o The President must give his assent to the bill.
102. ANSWER - 4 He can neither withhold his assent to the bill
nor return the bill for reconsideration of the
Explanation:
Parliament.
The procedure for the amendment of the
Constitution as laid down in Article 368 is as
follows: 103. ANSWER – 2
Explanation: remedy is suspended. The suspension of
• Articles 358 and 359 describe the effect of a enforcement relates to only those
33
National Emergency on Fundamental Rights. Fundamental Rights that are specified in
Article 358 deals with the suspension of the the Presidential Order. Further, the
Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Article suspension could be for the period during
19, while Article 359 deals with the the operation of emergency or for a
suspension of other Fundamental Rights shorter period as mentioned in the order,
(except those guaranteed by Articles 20 and and the suspension order may extend to
21). the whole or any part of the country. It
should be laid before each House of
• According to Article 358, when a
Parliament for approval.
proclamation of national emergency is
made, the six Fundamental Rights under • The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 restricted
Article 19 are automatically suspended. the scope of Article 359 in two ways.
No separate order for their suspension is o Firstly, the President cannot suspend the
required. right to move the Court for the
• The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 restricted enforcement of fundamental rights
the scope of Article 358 in two ways. guaranteed by Articles 20 to 21. In other
words, the right to protection in respect
o Firstly, the six Fundamental Rights under
of conviction for offenses (Article 20) and
Article 19 can be suspended only when
the right to life and personal liberty
the National Emergency is declared on
(Article 21) remain enforceable even
the ground of war or external aggression
during an emergency. Hence statement 3
and not on the ground of armed rebellion.
is not correct.
Hence statement 1 is not correct.
o Secondly, only those laws which are related
o Secondly, only those laws which are related
to the emergency are protected from
to the Emergency are protected from
being challenged and not other laws and
being challenged and not other laws. Also,
the executive action taken only under such
the executive action taken only under such
a law, is protected.
a law is protected.
• Article 359 authorizes the president to
suspend the right to move any court for 104. ANSWER – 3
the enforcement of Fundamental Rights Explanation:
during a National Emergency. (Hence * The 100th Constitutional Amendment Act
statement 2 is correct). This means that (2015) was enacted to give effect to the
under Article 359, the Fundamental Rights acquiring of certain territories by India and
as such are not suspended, but only their the transfer of certain other territories to
enforcement. The said rights are Bangladesh in pursuance of the agreement
theoretically alive but the right to seek
 and its protocol entered into between the The Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act was
Governments of India and Bangladesh. passed in 1992 and it came into effect on 24
34
Hence, statement I is correct. April 1993. The Act empowered state
governments to take the necessary steps that
* Under this deal, India transferred 111
would lead to the formalisation of the gram
enclaves to Bangladesh, while Bangladesh
panchayats and help them operate as units of
transferred 51 enclaves to India. In addition,
self-governance. Pair 2 is correct
the deal also involved the transfer of adverse
possessions and the demarcation of a 6.1 km The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of
un-demarcated border stretch. For these 2002 to the Constitution of India added
three purposes, the amendment modified Article 21A, which guarantees free and
the provisions relating to the territories of compulsory education for children between
four states (Assam, West Bengal, Meghalaya, the ages of 6 and 14.Pair 3 is incorrect
and Tripura) in the First Schedule of the The 61st Amendment Act, 1988 of the Indian
Constitution. Constitution reduced the voting age for
* Having said that, the Supreme Court in the elections to the Lok Sabha and State
Berubari Union held that the power of Legislative Assemblies from 21 to 18 years.
Parliament to diminish the area of a state The bill attempted to modify Article 326 of
(under Article 3) does not cover the cession of the Indian Constitution, which governes Lok
Indian territory to a foreign country. Hence, Sabha and Assemblies elections Pair 4 is
Indian territory can be ceded to a foreign state correct
only by amending the Constitution under
Article 368. The agreement between the two 106. ANSWER – 1
countries involved the acquisition and transfer
Explanation:
of certain territories by India. Hence,
statement II is not correct National Emergency (A)
National Emergency is declared under Article
352 of the Indian Constitution.
105. ANSWER – 2
It is imposed during circumstances such as
Explanation:
war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
The 42nd Amendment also added a new
During this period, the fundamental rights
section to the Article on "Fundamental
under Articles 19, 21, and others can be
Duties" in the Constitution. The new section
suspended, and the central government
required citizens "to promote harmony and
assumes more control over the states.
the spirit of common brotherhood among all
the people of India, transcending religious, President’s Rule (C)
linguistic and regional or sectional. Pair 1 is Also known as State Emergency, it is imposed
incorrect under Article 356.
 This happens when a state government fails to Explanation:
function as per constitutional norms, often 1-D (Article 352 covers the power to declare 35
due to political instability or breakdown of law a national emergency), 2- A (Article 359
and order.The President assumes the refers to the power to suspend the operation
functions of the state government, and the of fundamental rights during emergencies), 3-
central government governs the state. C (Article 123 covers the power to issue
Financial Emergency (B) ordinances), and 4-B (Article 360 refers to the
Declared under Article 360, it is invoked power to proclaim a financial emergency) are
when the financial stability or credit of India correctly matched.
or any part of it is threatened.
During a financial emergency, the central 109. ANSWER – 1
government can direct states to reduce Explanation:
salaries and restrict financial expenditure.
The President of India, as the supreme
This format helps students understand the commander of the armed forces, holds the
types of emergencies and their implications authority to declare war and make peace, but
effectively. this power is exercised based on the advice of
the Council of Ministers, as per the
constitutional provisions. Hence, both the
assertion and reasoning are correct, and the
reasoning accurately explains the assertion.

110. ANSWER – 4
Explanation:
107. ANSWER – 2
All the given pairs are correctly matched with
Explanation: their respective tenure as Vice-President of
The President of India is elected by an Electoral India. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, Zakir
College that consists of the elected members Husain, V. V. Giri, and Shankar Dayal Sharma
of both Houses of Parliament as well as the held the office of Vice-President during the
elected members of the Legislative specified periods.
Assemblies of States and Union territories.
The election is conducted by a system of
111. ANSWER – 3
proportional representation by means of a
single transferable vote. Explanation:
The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman
of the Rajya Sabha and can act as the
108. ANSWER – 2
 President for a period not exceeding six Agriculture, and Baldev Singh was the
months under specific circumstances. Defence Minister.
36
Therefore, both statements are correct

115. ANSWER – 3
112. ANSWER – 1 Explanation:
Explanation: The Prime Minister is indeed the head of the
The Vice-President acts as President in case of Council of Ministers, and the Council of
a vacancy in the office of the President, as per Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok
Article 65 of the Constitution, making Sabha. However, Ministers of State may attend
statement I correct. The Vice-President does Cabinet meetings if invited, so statement 2 is
not perform the duties of the President when false.
the President is absent due to travel; this is
handled by the President themselves or by
116. ANSWER – 1
other administrative means, making
statement II incorrect. The Vice-President Explanation:
takes an oath of office, administered by the The CAG is a constitutional authority and can
President, making statement III incorrect only be removed from office by an order of
the President in the same manner and on the
same grounds as a judge of the Supreme
113. ANSWER – 2
Court, ensuring the independence of the
Explanation: office .
The Prime Minister has the authority to
recommend the appointment of ministers to
117. ANSWER – 1
the President, who then formally appoints
them. This practice underscores the central Explanation:
role of the Prime Minister in forming the The correct constitutional hierarchy places
executive branch. the Attorney General of India as the highest
legal advisor to the government, followed by
the Solicitor General. The Comptroller and
114. ANSWER – 3
Auditor General ~ is a constitutional authority,
Explanation: while the Chief Election Commissioner is the
Jawaharlal Nehru held the roles of both Prime head of the Election Commission of India.
Minister and External Affairs and
Commonwealth. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
118. ANSWER – 2
was the Minister of Home Affairs. Dr.
Rajendra Prasad was the Minister of Food and Explanation:
 The Attorney General of India can indeed • Chief Ministers of States (outside their
participate in the proceedings of both Houses respective States)
37
of Parliament but does not have the right to • Governors of States (outside their respective
vote. While it is true that the Attorney States) 9 Judges of Supreme Court 9A
General is the highest law officer and • Chairperson of Union Public Service
appointed by the President, this fact does not Commission
explain why the Attorney General does not • Chief Election Commissioner
have the right to vote • Comptroller and Auditor General of India
10
• Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
119. ANSWER – 1
• Deputy Chief Ministers of States
Explanation: • Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
The Speaker of loksabha hold the same rank • Members of the Planning Commission
as the Chief justice of India in the Order of • Ministers of State of the Union
Precedence, reflecting their significant roles • National Security Advisor 11
in legislature and judiciary. • Attorney General of India
• Cabinet Secretary
• Lieutenant Governors within their respective
120. ANSWER – 4 Union Territories
Explanation: • Principal Secretary to the Prime Minister
1 President 2 Vice-President 3 Prime Minister
4 Governors of States within their respective 121. ANSWER – 4
States 5 Former Presidents 5 A Deputy Prime
Explanation:
Minister6
• Chief Justice of India Under Article 312, the Rajya Sabha has the
• Speaker of Lok Sabha 7 exclusive power to authorize the creation of
• Cabinet Ministers of the Union new All-India Services by passing a resolution
• Chief Ministers of States within their with a two-thirds majority.
respective States
• Deputy Chairman Planning commission
122. ANSWER – 2
(NITI Aayog)
• Former Prime Ministers Explanation:
• Leaders of Opposition in Rajya Sabha and Under Article 249, Parliament can legislate on
Lok Sabha 7A Holders of Bharat Ratna a subject in the State List if the Rajya Sabha
decoration 8 passes a resolution by a two-thirds majority
• Ambassadors Extraordinary and that it is necessary in the national interest.
Plenipotentiary and High Commissioners of
Commonwealth countries accredited to India
123. ANSWER – 3 courts. This power lies with the respective
Explanation: High Courts and the President of India.
38
Article 108 of the Indian Constitution deals
with the procedure for a joint sitting of both 126. ANSWER – 2
Houses of Parliament As per Article 108 of the Explanation:
Constitution, a Joint session of Parliament
The judges of the High Court are appointed by
can be summoned. Article 108 of the Indian
the President of India in consultation
Constitution provides for a joint sitting of
with the Chief Justice of India, the
both Houses of Parliament. The joint session
Governor of the state, and the Chief
is summoned by the President. It is presided
Justice of the High Court, as per Article
over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. The
217 of the Constitution.
joint sitting is governed by the Rules of
Procedure of Lok Sabha and not of Rajya
Sabha. The quorum to constitute a joint
sitting: 1/10th of the total number of
members of the House. The Bill is passed by a
simple majority of the total number of
members of both the Houses present and
voting in the joint sitting..

124. ANSWER – 3
127. ANSWER – 3
Explanation:
Explanation:
Parliamentary privileges are special rights,
The Writ of Certiorari is issued by a higher
immunities, and exemptions enjoyed by the
court to a lower court to transfer the records
Houses of Parliament, their committees, and
of a case for review, not merely to transfer the
their members. These privileges are partly
case to the High Court for hearing.
codified in - ~ Article 105 of the Constitution,
which deals with the powers, privileges, and
immunities of Parliament and its members. 128. ANSWER – 2
Explanation:
125.Answer- 3 According to Article 352, once the President
Explanation: declares a National Emergency, it must be
approved by both Houses of Parliament
The Supreme Court of India does not have
within one month. Without this approval, the
the power to appoint judges to the lower
emergency will cease to operate after the
expiry of one month.
129. ANSWER – 1 Commission is tasked ~ with making
Explanation: recommendations regarding the distribution
39
of taxes between the Union and the States and
National Emergency is triggered by war,
other financial matters.
external aggression, or armed rebellion
(Article 352). State Emergency is imposed
when there is a breakdown of constitutional 132. ANSWER– 1
machinery in a state (Article 356). Financial Explanation:
Emergency is declared when there is a threat
The Finance Commission consists of a
to India's financial stability (Article 360). The
Chairman and four other members appointed
correct matching is A-3, B-2, C-1.
by the President of India. The members should
have expertise in finance, economics,
administration, or law.

133. ANSWER – 2
Explanation:
The anti-defection law, as stipulated in the
Tenth Schedule of the Constitution,
130. ANSWER – 4 disqualifies legislators if they vote or abstain
Explanation: from voting contrary to their party's directives
without prior permission.
The 44th Amendment Act made it more
difficult to impose a National Emergency by
requiring a higher threshold of parliamentary 134. ANSWER – 2
approval. It also restricted the term ‘internal Explanation:
disturbance’ to ‘armed rebellion.’ However,
The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act,
the President is not empowered by this
2002, introduced Article 21A in the
amendment to dissolve the Lok Sabha during
Constitution, making education a
an emergency
Fundamental Right for children aged 6 to 14
years, ensuring free and compulsory
131. ANSWER – 3 education for all children in this age group.
Explanation:
Article 280 of the Indian Constitution 135. ANSWER – 2
mandates the establishment of a Finance Explanation:
Commission by the President of India every
Article 331 provides for the representation of
five years or earlier, as necessary. The
the Anglo-Indian community in the House of
 the People by allowing the President to 139. ANSWER – 1
nominate up to two members if the Explanation: 40
community is not adequately represented.
Lord Cornwallis introduced the Permanent
Settlement. Lord Canning was the first
136. ANSWER – 3 Viceroy of India. Lord William Bentinck
Explanation: became the first Governor-General of India.
Lord Wellesley established Fort William
Article 330 of the Indian Constitution
College.
provides for the reservation of seats for
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the
Lok Sabha. 140. ANSWER -4
Explanation:
137. ANSWER – 1 Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was the Chairman of
Explanation: the Provincial Constitution Committee, H.C.
Mukherjee served as Vice-President of the
The Government of India Act, 1919, indeed
Constituent Assembly, K.M. Munshi was a
introduced the system of dyarchy at the
member of the Drafting Committee, and Frank
provincial level, which was a dual form of
Anthony was the temporal Vice-President at
government. The Government of India Act,
the first meeting.
1935, later abolished this system and granted
provincial autonomy, thus providing more
powers to the provincial governments

138. ANSWER – 3
Explanation:
The Regulating Act of 1773 established the 141. ANSWER – 2
Supreme Court at Calcutta.
Explanation:
The Pitt's India Act of 1784 established the
Board of Control to manage political affairs. Article 49 mandates the State to protect
The Charter Act of 1813 ended the company's every monument or place of artistic or
monopoly over trade, except in tea and with historic interest from spoliation,
China. disfigurement, destruction, removal, disposal,
The Charter Act of 1833 made the Governor- or export, thus preserving the cultural
General of Bengal the GovernorGeneral of heritage of India
India.
142. ANSWER – 3
 Explanation: Explanation:
Article 48A of the Directive Principles of State The concept of 'single citizenship' in India, 41
Policy directs the State to protect and where all Indians are citizens of India
improve the environment and safeguard the regardless of the state or territory of their
forests and wildlife of the country, residence, is derived from the United
highlighting India's commitment to Kingdom. Unlike countries like the United
environmental conservation. States, which have dual citizenship at the
national and state levels, India's citizenship
laws promote a unified national identity,
143. ANSWER – 1
emphasizing a singular legal and political
Explanation: allegiance to the nation.
Meghalaya was carved out of Assam in 1972,
becoming a separate state to cater to the
demands of its indigenous tribes for
autonomy and preservation of their cultural
identity.

144. ANSWER – 2
147. ANSWER – 2
Explanation:
Explanation:
Article 3 of the Indian Constitution
empowers Parliament to alter the names of Article 30 of the Indian Constitution ensures
states and Union Territories through that minorities, whether based on religion or
legislation, subject to the conditions and language, have the right to establish and
procedures laid out within the article. administer educational institutions of their
choice. This right is vital for preserving and
promoting the cultural and educational
145. ANSWER – 3 interests of minority communities, thus
Explanation: fostering diversity and inclusivity in education.

Currently, India has 28 states and 8 Union

Territories. The latest reorganization led to the 148. ANSWER – 2
formation of the Union Territories of Jammu
Explanation:
& Kashmir and Ladakh, while Dadra and
Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu were Article 38 of the Indian Constitution directs
merged to form a single Union Territory. the state to strive to promote the welfare of
the people by ensuring a social order in which
justice—social, economic, and political—is
146. ANSWER – 2 paramount. This article is part of the Directive
 Principles of State Policy and serves as a
guiding principle for achieving a just and
42
equitable society, laying the groundwork for
the state's role in promoting citizens' well-
being.

149. ANSWER – 1
Explanation:
Article 40 of the Indian Constitution mandates
the state to organize village panchayats and
provide them with the powers and authority
necessary to function as units of self-
government. This reflects the emphasis on
decentralized governance and empowering
rural communities through democratic
processes

150. ANSWER – 2
Explanation:
The Directive Principles of State Policy in the
Indian Constitution are nonjusticiable and
thus not enforceable by the courts. They are
inspired by the Irish Constitution and aim to
guide the government in achieving socio-
economic justice. These principles emphasize
the common good over individual rights and
apply universally to all states and union
territories