Question Booklet No.

Question Booklet Series Code - D

Candidate Name: _________________ Post Name: _________________

POST CODE – JAK01

Test Duration: 80 Minutes No. of Questions: 80

Roll No.

READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY BEFORE WRITING ANYTHING ON THIS BOOKLET

1. Before commencing to write anything on this booklet ensure that the Booklet has 80 questions, there is no
misprinting, overprinting and/or any other shortcoming in both the Question Booklet and the OMR Answer
Sheet. If there is any shortcoming, intimate the same to your room invigilator and get the Booklet changed. Only
on being fully satisfied, write your Roll No. etc on the question booklet and on the OMR answer sheet. Once Roll
No. has been written on the question booklet and on the OMR answer sheet, it will not be exchanged.
2. Mark your answer on the OMR Answer Sheet which is provided separately. Please use Black/Blue ball point
pen for completing your work on the OMR Answer Sheet.
3. Write your Roll No. Question Booklet No. (as given on the right-hand top corner of this page); Question
Booklet Series Code A, B, C & D (as given on the left hand top corner of this page); at the appropriate places
provided on the OMR Answer Sheet & shade the appropriate circles with black/blue ball point pen.
4. This is an objective type test. Each objective question is followed by four responses with serial numbers a,b,c and
d. You have to answer by shading/filling with black/blue ball point pen the relevant circle a, b, c or d on the OMR
Answer Sheet. Mark your answers on the OMR Answer Sheet only. Mark your answer with utmost care. You are
not allowed to change the answer, once marked, by adopting any method (including correction fluid). Also see
relevant instructions provided on the OMR Answer Sheet.
5. Take care that you mark only one answer for each question. If more than one answer are given by you for any
question, that answer will be treated as wrong answer.
6. All questions carry equal marks. There will be no negative marking in this test. One (1) mark will be awarded for
each correct answer. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer. No marks will
be awarded or deducted for unattempted questions.
7. DO NOT scribble or do rough work or make any stray marks on the OMR Answer Sheet. DO NOT wrinkle or
fold or staple it. Rough work is to be done in the blank space (if available) in the Question Booklet. No other
paper will be allowed/ provided.
8. Use of calculators, slide rules and any other study/references materials is not allowed. Do not bring mobile
phones, scanning devices, pagers or any communication device etc. to the examination hall.
9. Please note that it will be your responsibility to carefully hand over your OMR Answer Sheet to the Room
Invigilator at the end of the examination. If your OMR Answer Sheet is found missing, necessary action will be
taken. You are not allowed to carry the question booklet with yourself after examination, and the same must
be submitted to the invigilator after examination.
10. Keeping in mind the limited time allowed for examination, candidates should attempt those questions first about
which they are sure and then proceed to other questions. This is only an advice for the candidates.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO

D-1
 GENERAL ENGLISH
Directions (1-5): In the following questions, out 8. I wish to heartily (a)/congratulate you
of the four alternatives, choose the one which for (b)/your astounding success. (c)/No
can be substituted for the given words/ error (d)
sentence.
9. The visitor took the vacant seat (a)/next
1. A person of obscure position who has from mine (b)/one of the many huge
gained wealth. sofas in the room. (c)/No error (d
a) Extravagant
b) Promiscuous 10. He was (a)/a learnt man among lords,
c) Parvenu (b)/and a lord among learned men.
d) Sumptuary (c)/No error (d)

2. A study of sounds is known as Directions (11-15): In the following questions,

a) Semantics four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase
b) Stylistics underlined in the sentence. Choose the
c) Linguistics alternative which best expresses the meaning
d) phonetics of the Idiom/Phrase.

3. One who totally abstains from alcoholic 11. My efforts at pest control went in vain, I
drinks have to go back to the drawing board.
a) Puritan a) plan it all over again
b) Samaritan b) take professional help
c) Pedant c) spend sometime researching
d) Teetotaller abroad
d) work at night
4. A name adopted by an author in his
writings 12. Indians are going places in the field of
a) Title software technology.
b) Nomenclature a) Going abroad
c) Nickname b) Going to spaces
d) Pseudonym c) Talented and successful
d) Friendly and amicable
5. The line which a plough cuts in the
ground 13. She is a person who pulls no punches.
a) Vale a) Speaks politely
b) Trench b) Speaks frankly
c) Furrow c) Speaks rudely
d) Trough d) Speaks sweetly

Directions (6-10): In the following sentence 14. For any group work to be successful. It
questions some part of the sentences have is important that everyone is on the
errors and some have non, find out which part same page.
is a sentence has error. The numbers of that a) Present for the meeting
part is your answer. If there is no error, then b) Registered for the work
your answer is (d) i.e. No error. c) Willing to pay the same fees
d) Thinks in a similar way
6. With our great annoyance (a)/we found
the ground (b)/filled with broken 15. Our plan to go to London is in the air.
glasses. (c)/No error (d) a) Undecided
b) Certain
7. The new device (a)/aims at eliminating c) Under consideration
(b)/the risk of short-circuiting. (c)/No d) For approval
error (d)

D-2
Direction: (16-17) In the question, a sentence 21. He went ………. to oblige his superior.
has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of a) On his way
the four alternatives suggested, select the one b) Out of his way
which best expressed the same sentence in c) In his way
Passive/Active Voice and mark your answer. d) With his way

16. Not a word was spoken by the criminal 22. The members of the religious sect
in self-defense. ostracized the who ……… had
a) The criminal spoke not a word abandoned their faith.
in self-defense. a) Coward
b) The criminal in self defense b) Litigant
spoke no word. c) Recreant
c) The criminal did not speak a d) Suppliant
word in self defense.
d) The criminal spoke in self Directions (23-26): In the following questions,
defense, not a word. choose the word opposite in meaning to the
given word.
17. He mailed his application for a new job.
a) The application for a new job is 23. Cultivated
mailed by him. a) Crude
b) The application for a new job b) Genteel
was mailed by him. c) Suave
c) He is the mailer of the d) Refined
application for a new job.
d) He was the mailer of the 24. Impertinent
application for a new job. a) Insolent
b) Impudent
Directions (18-22): In the following questions c) Cheeky
sentences are given with blanks to be filled in d) Courteous
with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives
are suggested for each question. Choose the 25. Dissent
correct alternative out of the four. a) Agreement
b) Dispute
18. Would you mind………the suitcase, c) Disunity
Sir? d) Controversy
a) Open
b) Opening 26. Seamy
c) To open a) Unpleasant
d) Opened b) Sincere
c) Honest
19. When she parted ........ her parents, her d) Pure
eyes were full of tears.
a) From Directions (27-30): In the following questions,
b) Away out of the four alternatives, choose the one
c) Off which best expresses the meaning of the given
d) With word.

20. During a period of protracted illness, 27. Brutalize

the sick can become infirm, ………. a) Devise
both the strength to work and many of b) Strike
the specific skills that were once c) Stir
possessed. d) III-treat
a) Regaining
b) Denying 28. Pinnacle
c) Pursuing a) Summit
d) Losing b) Pit
c) Capusle
d) Heart
D-3
29. Garble 30. Pompous
a) Communicate a) Pretentious
b) Explain b) Supportive
c) Confuse c) Demanding
d) Hide d) Flashy

GENERAL AWARENESS
31. Who was elected as the President of 37. Who officially took over as the
Sri Lanka in September 2024? chairperson of ASOSAI for the term
a) Sajith Premadasa 2024-2027?
b) Anura Kumara Dissanayake a) Girish Chandra Murmu
c) Ranil Wickremesinghe b) Rajiv Mehrishi
d) Gotabaya Rajapaksa c) Shashi Kant Sharma
d) Vinod Rai
32. Kashi Tamil Sangamam, that was
recently inaugurated, is an initiative of 38. What was the theme of World Ozone
which ministry? Day 2024?
a) Ministry of Culture a) Ozone for Life
b) Ministry of Cooperation b) Protecting our ozone layer
c) Ministry of Education c) Cooling the Earth
d) Ministry of Tourism d) Advancing climate actions

33. What type of schools is primarily 39. Which Indian conglomerate has recently
focused on in the 'AI Samarth' initiative? purchased majority share in IANS India
a) International schools newswire service?
b) Government and low-fee private a) Adani Group
schools b) Tata Group
c) Elite private schools c) Reliance Group
d) Online schools d) Wipro Group

34. Who decides whether a juvenile criminal 40. What is the name of the nuclear power
in the age group of 16–18 should be plant where India and Russia signed
tried as an adult or not? agreements related to construction of its
a) Juvenile Justice Board future power units?
b) Supreme Court a) Kaiga Nuclear Power Plant
c) Chief Justice of India b) Kudankulam Nuclear Power
d) President Plant
c) Narora Atomic Power Station
35. NATO establishes its new land d) Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Plant
command named “Multi Corps Land
Component Command” in which 41. What is the name of the campaign
country? launched in India to eliminate gender-
a) Finland based violence?
b) Ukraine a) Beti Bachao
c) Israel b) Shakti Abhiyan
d) Iran c) Ab Koi Bahana Nahi
d) Nirbhaya Initiative
36. Which among the following organised
the First Asian Buddhist Summit (ABS) 42. What is the name of the new stent-
in New Delhi? retriever technology recently launched
a) Ministry of External Affairs in India to improve stroke treatment?
b) Ministry of Culture a) ASRS
c) Ministry of Home Affairs b) STRIDE
d) Buddhist World Federation c) GRASSROOT
d) STROKE-CARE

D-4
43. Which Indian agency has been included 50. The Union Cabinet, has approved the
in the Steering Committee of the Asset renaming of Ayodhya Airport as
Recovery Interagency Network-Asia a) Maharishi Valmiki International
Pacific (ARIN-AP)? Airport, Ayodhyadham
a) Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) b) Maryada Purushottam Ram
b) Central Bureau of Investigation International Airport,
(CBI) Ayodhyadham
c) Directorate of Enforcement (ED) c) Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya
d) National Investigation Agency International Airport,
(NIA) Ayodhyadham
d) Maharishi Dayanand
44. Which musician has recently been International Airport,
selected for the Sangeet Kalanidhi Ayodhyadham
Award for the year 2024?
a) T M Krishna 51. Who succeeded Rekha Sharma as the
b) S. Sowmya National Commission for Women
c) A.R. Rehman (NCW) Chairperson
d) Navneet Kumar Sehgal a) Archana Majumdar
b) Vijaya Kishore Rahatkar
45. Which of the following has original c) Savitribai Phule
jurisdiction in case of poll petition? d) Kanchi Math
a) Supreme court
b) High court 52. Which cricketer has been appointed as
c) District court the youth voter awareness ambassador
d) Subordinate court for Jammu and Kashmir?
46. What is the name of the newly a) M S Dhoni
discovered black hole triple system b) Virat Kohli
located in the constellation of Cygnus? c) Suresh Raina
a) V404 Cygni d) Gautham Gambhir
b) Sagittarius A
c) Sirius B 53. Thadou tribes, recently seen in the
d) Andromeda news, are primarily resides in which
state?
47. In which year Nalanda University in a) Manipur
Bihar was included in the UNESCO b) Mizoram
World Heritage site? c) Tripura
a) 2nd October 2020 d) Nagaland
b) 15th July 2016
c) 15th August 2016 54. 6th Quad Summit 2024 held in which
d) 21st June 2014 country
a) India
48. Where was the Indo-Turkiye Friendship b) Australia
Association launched? c) USA
a) New Delhi d) Japan
b) Mumbai
c) Hyderabad
d) Bengaluru 55. Which organization plays a vital role in
promoting Farmer Producer
49. What is the full form of AMRUT Scheme Organisations (FPOs) acros India?
launched by the Government of India? a) Small Farmers Agribusiness
a) Atal Mission for Rural and Urban Consortium (SFAC)
Transformation b) National Bank for Agriculture
b) Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Rural Development
and Urban Transportation (NABARD)
c) Atal Mission for Rejuvenation c) NITI Aayog
and Urban Transformation d) Ministry of Finance
d) Atal Mission for Rural and Urban
Trade
D-5
 COMPUTER
56. Which component stores data 63. Which of the following is used to cool the
permanently in a computer? CPU?
a) RAM a) Heat Sink
b) ROM b) Power Supply
c) Hard Drive c) Motherboard
d) Cache d) Graphics Card

57. What does "BIOS" stand for? 64. Which component connects all
a) Basic Input/Output System hardware components in a computer?
b) Binary Input/Output System a) Motherboard
c) Basic Information Output b) Processor
System c) Power Supply
d) Binary Internal Operating d) RAM
System
65. What is two-factor authentication?
58. Which of the following is an IDE used for a) Using two devices to log in
Python programming? b) Verifying identity through two
a) PyCharm methods
b) Eclipse c) Logging in twice
c) NetBeans d) Encrypting passwords twice
d) IntelliJ
66. Which of the following is NOT an
59. What does "DNS" stand for? antivirus software?
a) Domain Name System a) Norton
b) Data Name Service b) Avast
c) Domain Network Service c) Microsoft Edge
d) Digital Name Serve d) Kaspersky

60. What does "ISP" stand for? 67. What does "encryption" do?
a) Internet Service Provider a) Speeds up internet connection
b) Internal System Program b) Protects data by converting it
c) Internet Speed Protocol into a code
d) International Signal Provider c) Deletes unnecessary files
d) Repairs hardware
61. What does "5G" refer to in
telecommunications? 68. Which of the following is NOT a feature
a) 5th Generation wireless of AI?
technology a) Learning
b) 5 GHz network b) Problem-solving
c) 5 Gigabit data transfer c) Decision-making
d) 5 General protocols d) Physical storage

62. Which of the following is the fastest data 69. Which technology is used in
transmission medium? cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin?
a) Coaxial cable a) Cloud computing
b) Twisted pair cable b) Blockchain
c) Optical fiber c) IoT
d) Wireless d) AI

70. What is the role of augmented reality

(AR)?
a) To replace reality
b) To overlay digital content on the
real world
c) To create virtual worlds
d) To process large data
D-6
 COURT WORK
71. Which document is submitted by a 76. Which of the following legal
party to request a court's intervention in communications asks the court for a
a case? final decision on a case?
a) Affidavit a) Affidavit
b) Petition b) Petition
c) Notice of Motion c) Motion for Summary Judgment
d) Charge Sheet d) Interlocutory Application

72. A deposition is: 77. A “notice of appeal” is filed to:

a) A sworn statement given orally a) Inform the court and opposing
outside of court, recorded for party that the decision is being
later use challenged in a higher court
b) A final order by the judge b) Request the trial court to
c) A formal written request to the reopen the case
court c) Demand monetary
d) A public announcement of legal compensation
action d) File criminal charges

73. A “subpoena” is used to: 78. What is the purpose of a bail order?
a) Arrest a suspect a) To bring a case to court
b) Summon a witness to testify in b) To provide temporary release of
court an accused person awaiting
c) File a complaint trial
d) Issue a final judgment c) To file criminal charges
d) To issue a final judgment
74. Which document is filed when a party
seeks immediate relief during a legal 79. Which of the following documents is
proceeding? prepared by the police after an arrest?
a) Interlocutory Application a) FIR
b) Final Judgment b) Summons
c) Summons c) Charge Sheet
d) Petition d) Affidavit

75. The term “pleading” refers to: 80. What is a “writ of prohibition”?
a) An order issued by the court a) A court order stopping a lower
b) A party’s formal written court from acting beyond its
statements of their case in court jurisdiction
c) The examination of evidence by b) A writ ordering someone’s
the jury release from prison
d) A negotiation between two c) A request for bail
parties d) A motion to appeal

D-7
FOR ROUGH WORK

D-8