01.

SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN
FLOWERING PLANTS
Poloidy of endothecium, microspore mother cell,
1.1 Flower – A Fascinating Organ of tapetum and microspore is respectively–
Angiosperms 2n, 2n, 2n, n
Occurrence of triploid (3n) primary endosperm Both, autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented in–
nucleus is a characteristic feature of– Angiosperms Papaya
Nonessential floral organs in a flower are– Pollen tablets are available in the market for–
Sepals and petals Supplementing food
■ The proximal end of the filament of a stamen is ............ many haploid nuclei are present in a mature
attached to the– Thalamus and Petal of the flower pollen grain– Two
■ A typical angiosperm anther is– Bilobed Among the terms listed below, those that are not
■ Theca of anther separated by– A longitudinal groove technically correct names for a floral whorl are–
■ An anther is consisting of– Four microsporangia Carpel, Sepal
Flowers are– Embryological marvels, The stamens represent– Microsporophylls
Morphological marvels Anther is generally– Tetrasporangiate
In angiosperms, the site of sexual reproduction is– The anther wall consists of four wall layers where
Flower middle layer lie between–
Flower is a highly modified and condensed Endothecium and tapetum
reproductive shoot specially meant for– Transportation of nutrients to inner side of anther
Sexual reproduction correct function of– Tapetum.
Male and female reproductive structures of the ............... of the pollen grain divides to form two
angiosperms are– Androecium and gynoecium male gamete^ Generative cell
respectively Cells that found in a pollen grain when it is shed at
Science of cultivation, breeding, marketing, and 3-celled stage are–1 vegetative cell, 2 male gametes
arrangement of flowers is called– Floriculture In a fully developed male gametophyte of flowering
plants the number of nuclei is– Three
1.2 Pre-fertilization : Structures and Mature ovules are classified on the basis of
Events funiculus. If micropyle lie close to the funiculus, the
ovule is termed as– Anatropous
Winged pollen grains are present in– Pinus
The function of filiform apparatus in an
Attractants and rewards are required for–
angiospermic embryo sac is–
Entomophily
It guides the pollen tube into a synergid
In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes The condition that makes flowers invariably
place by– Insects or wind autogamous is– Cleistogamy
Perisperm differs from endosperm in– Feathery stigma occurs in– Wheat
Being a diploid tissue Spiny or sticky pollen grains and large, attractively
The ovule of an angiosperm is technically coloured flowers are associated with–
equivalent to– Megasporangium Insect pollination
Most common type of embryo sac in angiosperms Fragrant flowers with well developed nectaries are
is– Monosporic with three sequential an adaptation for– Insect pollination
mitotic divisions Small, producing large number of non-sticky pollen
In a flower, if the megaspore mother cell forms grains are flower– Wind pollination
megaspores without undergoing meiosis and if one Flowering plants have developed certain
of the megaspores develops into an embryo sac, its outbreeding devices to discourage self-pollination
nuclei would be– Diploid and encourage cross-pollination. Which one of these
Preserving pollen as fossils has proved helpful in– is not an example of such outbreeding devices–
Sporopollenin Cleistogamy
288
 Male and female flowers are present on different ■ In a seed of maize, scutellum is considered as
plants (dioecious) to ensure xenogamy, in– Papaya cotyledon because is– Absorbs food materials
The female gametophyte of a typical dicot at the and supplies them to the embryo
time of fertilisation is– 7-celled ■ Function of embryonal suspensor in angiosperms is
Typical embryo sac is– 8-nucleate, 7-celled to– Push embryo deeper into endosperm
In angiosperms, various stages of reductional ■ In plants, in nature, autogamy is avoided since the
division can best be studied in– Young anthers seeds produced– Are fewer in number,
Do not germinate successfully
Tapetum is found in– Anther
■ Each cell of the ___ of angiospermic microsporangia
■ The first cell of male gametophyte in flowering
is capable of giving rise to a microspore tetrad–
plant– Microspore
Sporogenous tissue
■ The pollen tube usually enters the embryo sac ■ Transfer of pollens from anther to stigma within the
through– One of the two synergids same flower is called– Self pollination
■ Dioecious plant bearing only male or female flowers– ■ Egg apparatus of angiosperm consists of–
Autogamy and Geitonogamy One egg cell and two synergids
■ The portion of the embryonal axis above the level of ■ Stalk with _____ ovules remain attached to placenta.
attachement of scutellum is– Epicotyl Funicle
■ Persistent nucellus is called as perisperm and is found ■ Continuous self pollination in a species develops–
in _____ Black pepper Weak off springs
■ The innermost layer of anther is tapetum, the function ■ Perisperm is– Remnant of nucellus
is– Nutrition ■ Generally number of integuments in the ovule of
■ ______ microspore mother cell will give rise to 256 angiosperm and gymnosperm is– Two and One
microspores after reduction division– 64 ■ The functional megaspore undergoes 3 mitotic
■ Advantage of cleistogamy is– No dependence on division to form –
pollinators Mature embryos sac
■ structure of ovule takes part in storage of food– ■ The microsporangia develop further and become–
Nucellus Pollen sacs
■ Non endospermic seeds present in– Pea ■ A microsporangium is surrounded by _____ wall
■ Pericarp develops from– Ovary wall layers. Four
■ The endosperms found in angiospermic seed is ■ The outer three layers of anther wall perform the
different from that of gymnosperm in the sense that, function of– Protection, Help in dehiscence
in the former– It is formed after fertilisation ■ The diameter of pollen grains is– 25-50 micrometers
while in the later it is formed before fertilisation ■ Endothecium layer of anther lobes is present–
■ Generally _____ megaspores take part in the Just inside of epidermis
development of female gametophyte of angiosperms– ■ Partially developed male gametophyte is –
One The pollen grain
■ In angiosperms, triple fusion is necessary for the ■ Germpore is the region where the exine is– Absent
formation of– Endosperm Middle layers of microsporangia are present
■ _____ is without exception in angiosperms– between–
Double Fertilisation Epidermis and tapetum
■ The endosperm in angiosperms is formed– One sporogenous cell produce …….. number of
After fertilisation microspore tetrad– 4
■ In angiosperms, free nuclear division occurs during– Pollen grain is considered as– Male gametophyte
Endosperm formation A tapetum has– Dense cytoplasm with more
■ Polar nuclei are situated in the central cell– than 1 nucleus
Below the egg apparatus
When the anther is young, a group of compactly
■ Proteinaceous endosperm of maize is called–
arranged homogenous cell called the–
Aleurone layer
Sporogenous tissue
■ Dicot embryo consists of– Radicle, plumule,
Male gamete in angiosperms are formed by the
cotyledons and sometimes endosperm
division of– Generative cell
■ If the number of chromosome in endosperm of a dicot
plant is 36, the root cell will contain– Intine layer is made up of– Cellulose and Pectin
24 chromosomes In 60% angiosperm, pollen grains are shed at–
■ In angiosperm endosperms is formed by– 2 - celled stage
Division of fused polar nuclei and male gametes Embryo sac represents– Female gametophyte
■ Aleurone layer in maize is present towards– Plant can loose viability in 30 min is–
Periphery of coleoptiles Rice and wheat
289
Arising from placenta are the megasporangia The point of attachment of funicle with the body of
commonly called– Ovules the ovule is– Hilum
One ovule in an ovary is found in– Genotypically, the pollen grains produced by an
Wheat, Paddy, Mango anther belong to– Many types
More than one ovule in an ovary is found in– In angiosperm, two non-motile male gametes are
Papaya, Watermelon, Orchids produced by– Generative cell
Point where ovules are attached to placenta is – Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the
Funicle stigma of another flower of same plant is called–
Each ovule is covered by a protective covering Geitonogamy
called integuments which surround the nucellus. At ............... nucleus of embryo sac are surrounded by
the tip, the integuments are absent leaving a small cell wall– 6
opening called the– Micropylar end Pollination occurring in closed flowers is–
Food is reserve in– Nucellus Cleistogamy
The method of embryo sac forming from a single Common pansy known as– Viola
megaspore is called– Monosporic development Chasmogamy refers to the condition where–
3 cells are grouped at micropylar end are– Flowers are open
Egg apparatus In angiosperms, a mature male gametophyte is
formed from a pollen mother cell through–
Pollination gives genetically different types of pollen
grains– Xenogamy One meiotic and two mitotic divisions
Single ovule in each ovary is seen in type of agent of Transfer of pollen from anthers to stigma in the same
pollination is– Wind flowers-
The proximal end of filament is attached to– Self-pollination
Insect pollinated flowers usually possess–
Thalamus
Sticky pollen and rough surface stigma
Water pollination commonly occur in–
Animals act as pollinators– Arboreal Rodents
Vallisneria and Hydrilla
In young anther, four rows of cells destined to form
In monocotyledons, most common pollination agent
pollen are collectively called– Tapetum
is– Water
Chasmogamous and cleistogamous type of flower
The theca of anthers are separated by–
are found in– Commelina
Longitudinal groves Hormone used in tissue culture for better growth is–
Moth deposit its egg in the part of Yucca plants– Auxin, Cytokinin
In locule of ovary Species provides floral rewards in the form of
In unisexual flowers, there is– providing safe place to lay eggs–
No need of emasculation Amorphophallus, Fig, Yucca
Syncytium is seen in– Tapetal layer, Muscle cells, Dioecious condition can present in–
Liquid endosperm of coconut Autogamy, Geitonogamy
................ pollen mother cells should undergoes Wind pollinated flowers usually possess–
meiotic division to produce 64 pollen grains– 16 Light coloured scented pollen
The mature male gametophyte in angiosperm is covered with nectar
represented by– Pollen grain Tapetum present in the microsporangial wall occurs
The type of division takes place when PMC forms between–
microspores– Middle layers & sporogenous tissue
Meiotic division, Reductional division Haploid, diploid and triploid conditions respectively
................ percentage of angiosperms the male can be traced in–
gametophyte is shed at 3-celled stage – 40% Egg, nucellus, endosperm
The egg apparatus of angiosperm comprises– Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature of–
An egg cell and two synergids Synergid
Importance of MMC undergoing reductional In gymnosperms, the seeds are naked because they
division– It is necessary to maintain lack– Pericarp
the ploidy of gametes A non-nutritive structure is– Integument
Megasporangium along with its protective Function of germ pore– Initiation of pollen tube
integument is called– Ovule All the events from pollen deposition on the stigma
The innermost wall layer of pollen sac is tapetum. Its until pollen tubes enter the ovules are together
function is to provide– Nutrition referred to as – Pollen–pistil interaction

290
 In angiosperms, the number of meiotic divisions Polar nuclei are located in– Embryo sac
required to produce 100 microspores is– 25 Double fertilization is essential for formation of–
Pollen grains are able to withstand extremes of Endosperm
temperature and desiccation because their exine is In double fertilization, male gamete and secondary
composed of– Sporopollenin nucleus form– Endosperm
If the leaf cell of an angiosperm has 16 1.4 Post-Fertilization - Structures and
chromosomes, what is the chromosome count in
microspore of the same plant– 8 Events
The plant parts which consist of two generations-
1.3 Double Fertilization one within the other–
During the process of fertilisation, the pollen tube Pollen grains inside the anther,
usually enters the embryo sac through– Micropyle Embryo sac inside the ovule
Fusion of one of the male gametes with an egg The cells of endosperm of angiosperm have 24
nucleus is referred to as– chromosomes. What will be the number of
Generative fertilisation, Syngamy chromosomes in the gametes– 8
The PEN (primary endosperm nucleus) develops In angiosperms, normally after fertilisation the
into endosperm this event takes place– primary endosperm nucleus divides earlier than–
After double fertilisation. The zygote
Triple fusion in angiosperms is fusion of male True embryo develops as a result of fusion of–
gamete with– Secondary nucleus An egg cell and a male gamete
The pairs that in angiosperms are diploid and The portion of embryonal axis between plumule
triploid respectively– (future shoot) and cotyledons is called– Epicotyl
Secondary nucleus and endosperm Endosperm is completely consumed by the
■ ____ are the cell of the pollen grain divides to form developing embryo in– Pea and groundnut
two male gametes– Generative cells Endospermic seeds are found in–
■ _______ both are haploid structures– Egg cells and Castor, Barley, Maize
antipodal cells In albuminous seeds, food is stored in ............. and
■ The fusion of male and female gametes is called – in non-albuminous seeds, it is stored in ..............
Syngamy Endosperm, cotyledons
■ _____ cells of nucellus in ovule make the embryo Persistent nucellus is called ............ and is found in
directly– Apomictic ................ Perisperm, black pepper
■ Reduction division in angiosperm occurs at the time This is an example of a very old viable seed
of– Microspore and megaspore formation excavated from Arctic Tundra. The seed germinated
■ Double fertilization is a characteristic of– and flowered after an estimated record of 10,000
Angiosperm years of dormancy it is– Lupinus arcticus
■ Fusion of two dissimilar gametes is called– ■ Progeny produced as a result of cross pollination–
Fertilisation Show high degree of variability and is
■ ______ event in a botanical garden is never directly evolutionary important
influenced by light– Fertilisation In .................. endosperm is completely consumed
■ Filiform apparatus– Cellular thickness of the during seed maturation– Pea
synergids Endosperm is persistent in .............. during seed
■ In an embryo sac of a typical angiosperm, there are– germination– Castor
Egg, synergids, polar nuclei and antipodals Embryo development takes place at–
■ Meiosis can be observed in– Spore mother cell Micropylar end
■ Pollen grains are formed in– Pollen sac Coleorhiza is present at– Radical end
■ Synergids are– Haploid enclosed the undifferential sheath
Total number of nuclei involved in double Coleoptile is present at– Shoot apex & few
fertilization in angiosperm are– Five leaf primordial enclosed in hollow foliar structure
The fusion product of polar nuclei and male gamete Examples of albuminous seed–
is– Primary endosperm nucleus Wheat, Maize, Barley, Castor
Fusion of one of the male gametes with secondary Perisperm are found in– Black pepper, Beet
nucleus and the other male gamete with egg cell- Example of false fruit includes–
Double fertilization means Apple, Strawberry
291
 The covering of the strawberry called– Achene ■ A naturally occurring parthenocarpic fruit is– Banana
Food material in ex-albuminous seed is mainly ■ Fig is pollinated by– Insects
stored in– Cotyledons ■ In _____ flowers, stigma is rough and sticky–
A typical embryo sac possesses– Wind pollinated
Embryo sac is to ovule as ................ is to an anther–
Egg, synergids, polar nuclei and antipodals
Pollen grain
A true fruit is the one where– Only ovary of the
In a typical complete, bisexual and hypogynous
flower develops into fruit flower the arrangement of floral whorls on the
A typical dicotyledonous embryo consists of– thalamus from the outermost to the innermost is–
Embryonal axis and cotyledons Calyx, corolla, androecium and gynoecium
Testa of a seed is produced from– A dicotyledonous plant bears flowers, but never
Outer integument of ovule produces fruits and seeds. The most probable cause
Free nuclear division in an angiosperm takes place for the above situation is– Plant is dioecious
during– Endosperm formation and bears only staminate flowers
Post-fertilization event in flowering plants is– The outermost and innermost wall layers of
microsporangium in an anther are respectively–
Embryo development
Epidermis and tapetum
Floral parts forms pericarp after fertilization–
During microsporogenesis, meiosis occurs in–
Ovary wall Microspore mother cells
Below embryonal axis ................ is present and From among the sets of terms given below, identify
above the axis ............... is present respectively– those that are associated with the gynoecium–
Hypocotyl and epicotyl Stigma, ovule, embryo sac, placenta
Endosperm is completely consumed by the Starting from the innermost part, the correct
developing embryo in– Pea, Bean & Groundnut sequence of parts in an ovule are–
If an endosperm cell of an angiosperm contains 24 Egg, embryo sac, nucellus, integument
chromosomes, the number of chromosomes in each Autogamy can occur in a chasmogamous flower if–
cell of the root will be– 16 Both pollen and ovules mature simultaneously
In an embryo sac, the cells that degenerate after
1.5 Apomixis and Polyembryony fertilization are– Synergids and antipodals
The phenomenon observed in some plants where in In the embryos of a typical dicot and a grass, true
parts of the sexual apparatus is used for forming homologous structures are–
embryos without fertilisation is called– Apomixis Cotyledons and scutellum
Polyembryony commonly occurs in– Citrus The phenomenon wherein, the ovary develops into a
"Apomixis" in plants mean, development of a plant– fruit without fertilization is called–
Without gametic fusion Parthenocarpy
The oldest seed that is discovered at king Herod's The term used for transfer of pollen grains from
palace– Phoenix dactylifera anthers of one plant to stigma of different plant
which, during pollination, brings genetically
Example of apomixis is– Asteraceae
different types of pollen grains to stigma, is–
Production of fruit without fertilization is called– Xenogamy
Parthenocarpy In some members of which of the following pairs of
Polyembryony commonly occurs in– Citrus families, pollen grains retain their viability for
Apomixis is seen in– Asteraceae, Grasses months after release– Rosaceae ; Leguminosae
Adventive polyembryony in citrus is due to– In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes
Nucellus place by– Insects or wind
Apomictis embryos in citrus arise from– In some plants thalamus contributes to fruit
formation. Such fruits are termed as– False fruits
Maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule
The fate of the male gametes discharged in the
1.6 Miscellaneous synergid is– One fuses with the egg
■ Liquid endosperm in coconut is resulted due to– and other fuses with central cell nuclei
Karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis Helpful in preserving pollen as fossils has proved–
■ In _______ plants, the nucellar cells start dividing Sporopollenin
and develop into the embryos– Citrus and mango Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid
■ In _____ plants an ovary contains one ovule– nitrogen having a temperature of– –1960C
Wheat, Paddy, Mango Double fertilization is– Syngamy & triple fusion

292
 EXAM POINT
A flower-Fascinating organ of Angiosperms
Radially expanded cells with fibrous thickenings has– Endothecium AP EAPCET-11.05.2023,
Shift-I
In the homeostatic control of blood sugar level, the organs that function AIIMS-2015 /Karnataka
respectively as modulator and effector are– CET-2006
Hypothalamus and islets of Langerhans
Diadelphous stamens are found in– Pea NEET-2021
Unisexual flowers are present in– Pumpkin, Papaya and Cucumber AIPMT (Re-Exam)-2015
Anthesis is a phenomenon which refers to– Opening of flower bud AMU-2015 / CMC Ludhiana-
2009,
Haryana PMT-2002
If a sporangium develops from a single cell, the development of sporangium is AMU-1996
known as– Leptosporangiate
Microsporangium and pollen Grain
The function that of tassels in the corn cob is– To disperse pollen grains NEET (UG) 07.05.2023
An organic substance that can stand with environmental extremes and cannot be AIPMT (Screening)-2012
degraded by any other enzyme is– Sporopollenin
Large nucleus in a pollen grain is– Tube nucleus UP CPMT-2006
Fibrous thickenings of hygroscopic nature are found in this part of the anther AP EAMCET-2005
wall is– Endothecium
Resistant to enzyme action is– Pollen exine AIPMT-2008
The callose wall encloses– Microspore mother cell AIPMT-2007
Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division of– Generative cell AIPMT-2007
Rarely among angiosperms, the pollen grains influenced the endosperm. This is JIPMER-2014
called as– Xenia
The cells during gametogenesis that is normally diploid– Spermatogonia AIPMT-2015
Male gametophyte in angiosperms produces– AIPMT (Re-Exam)-2015
Two sperms and one vegetative cell
Function of filiform apparatus is to– Guide the entry of pollen tube AIPMT-2014
The function of germ pore is – Initiation of pollen tube AIPMT (Mains)-2012
J&K CET 2015
In an angiosperm, total number of microspore mother cells are required to AIPMT-1995
produce 100 pollen grains– 25 MMC
Even after killing the generative cell with a laser beam, the pollen grain of a Manipal-2015 / AIIMS-2008 /
flowering plant germinates and produces normal pollen tube because– JPMER-1998
The vegetative cell has not been damaged
The viability of pollen grains of rice and wheat is– 30 minutes AIIMS-2013
Xenia and metaxenia terms are related with– Pollen and endosperm AMU-2006 / AIIMS-2002
Ubisch bodies are produced from– Tapetum AP EAMCET-24.09.2020
Shift-I
Epipetalous and syngenesious stamen occurs in– Asteraceae AP EAMCET-24.09.2020
Shift-I

293
The most resistant known biological material is– Sporopollenin JIPMER-2019 / UP CPMT-
2009,2012,
VMMC-2012 / Karnataka
CET-2010,
CMC Vellore-2009
/Uttarakhand
PMT-2007,
JIPMER-2004 / Punjab MET-
2009, 2003,
JIPMER-2003, 2001
If you want to develop hybrid seeds within a bisexual flower, the part that needs WB JEE-2012
to be removed from the same flower– Anther
Exine of pollen grain is made up of– Sporopollenin Haryana PMT-2011 / MHT
CET-2018,
WB JEE-2010 / WBJEE-2008
Total number of microsporangia are found in a monothecous anther– Two Manipal-2011
Haploid plants can be produced by– Anther or Pollen culture VMMC-2014 / BVP-2002 /
Karnataka CET-2002
The wall layers of anther plays that a predominant role in its dehiscence– DUMET-2010 / MHT CET-
Endothecium 2017

At the time of shedding, the number of nuclei present in an angiosperm pollen DUMET-2010
grain can be– Either two or three
Represents the male gamete is– Pollen grain UP CPMT-2012
Fillform apparatus is found in– Synergids AFMC-2002
Germination of pollen grain on the stigma is– In vivo germination BVP-2003 / AMU-2004 / HP
CET-2011
In the anther wall– middle layer is the between endothecium and tapetum HP CET-2011 / BCECE-2006,
VMMC-2005 / AMU-2004 /
BVP-2003
The part of flowering plant contains sporogenous tissue is– Young anther J&K CET-2014
Developing pollen is nourished by– Tapetum J&K CET-2014 / J&K CET-
2006 / JIPMER-1997
Generally archesporium in an ovule is– CG PMT-2007 / CPMT-1980
single celled and hypodermal in origin
Number of androcytes required to form 32 male gametes in the plant with AP EAMCET-2003
dicyclic dictyostele belonging to Polypodiaceae is– 32
The aleurone layer of rice grain is rich in– Protein AP EAMCET-2004
Pollen grain wings of pinus are out growths of– Exine Haryana PMT-2002
A microspore mother cell forms– Pollen grains JIPMER-2000 / AMU-1997
In Clerodendron the self-pollination is prevented by– Protandry AP EAMCET-2001
Three successive free nuclear mitotic divisions are involved in the development MHT CET-07.10.2020
of female gametophyte in– Angiosperms Shift-I
The growth of pollen tube towards embryo sac is– Chemotaxis MGIMS Wardha-2009
Fibrous thickenings of hygroscope nature are found in this part of the another VMMC-2010
wall– Endothecium
The number of pollen grains produced by head inflorescence of Asteraceae CMC Vellore-2007
(Compositae) having 10 flowers. If each anther produces 20 pollen grains are–
1,000

294
The first sporophyte arising from pollen grain was made by Guha and CG PMT-2010 /Haryana
Maheshwari (1966) in– Datura PMT-1999
Diadelphous condition is found in– Papilionaceae (Fabaceae) CMC Ludhiana-2012
Pollen kit material is secreted by– Tapetum AMU-2003
In a flowering plant, archesporium gives rise to– MGIMS Wardha-2010
Both, wall and sporogenous cells
Megasporangium (ovule) and Embryo Sac
In the ovules that develop either on the inner wall of the ovary or attached on the AP EAPCET-23.05.2023,
peripheral part is– Parietal Placentation Shift-I
Through the cell that of the embryo sac, does the pollen tube enter the embryo JIPMER-2007
sac is– Degenerated synergid
In the animal the dimorphic nucleus is found in– Paramecium caudatum AP EAMCET-2006
Endosperm is formed during the double fertilization by– AIPMT-2000
Two polar nuclei with one male gamete
Eight nucleated embryosac can be– AIPMT-2000
Monosporic, bisporic, and tetra sporic
Megaspores are produced from the megaspore mother cells after– NEET (Karnataka)-2013
Meiotic division
Embryo of sunflower have – Two cotyledons (baby leaves) AIPMT-1998
If root of a flowering plant has 24 chromosomes, then its gamete has total JIPMER-2009
number of chromosomes is– 12
If the number of chromosomes in egg cell is 8, then the total number of UP CPMT-2011
chromosomes in endosperm is– 24
The direction of micropyle in anatropous ovule is– Downward AIPMT-2002
In general the egg apparatus of embryo sac in angiosperm consists of– NEET (Re-Exam)-
One egg cell, two synergids, three antipodal cells and two Polar nuclei 04.09.2022
The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle at– Hilum NEET-2020 Phase-I,
Haryana PMT-2002
The wheat grain has an embryo with one large shield-shaped cotyledon known AIPMT (Re-Exam)-2015
as– Scutellum
Male gametophyte with least number of cell is present in– Lilium AIPMT-2014
Bicarpellary ovary with obliquely placed septum is seen in– Solanum NEET (Odisha)-2019
The most common type of embryo sac in angiosperms– NEET (Odisha)-2019
Monosporic with three sequential mitotic divisions
Megasporangium is equivalent to– Ovule NEET-2013
Perisperm differs from endosperm in– being a diploid tissue NEET-2013
Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops into– An Embryo sac AMU-1997 / NEET-2017
In Angiosperms pollen tube liberate their male gametes into the– Synergid cells AIPMT-2002
Embryo sac is– Female gametophyte AIIMS-2011
The normal type of embryo sac is 8-nucleated and– 7-celled Karnataka CET-2022,
TS EAMCET 08.05.2019 Shift-
I,
AIIMS-2011 / UP CPMT-2010
/ Haryana PMT-2002

295
Double fertilization involves– Fertilization of the egg and AIIMS-2005
the central cell by two sperms brought by the same pollen tube
After double fertilization, a mature ovule has–1 diploid (Zygote) and 1 triploid AIIMS-2013
cell (primary endosperm cell)
The sequence of development during the formation of endosperm is– AIIMS-2017
Archesporium →Megaspore mother cell→ Megaspore → Embryo sac
Ploidy level of nucellus, endosperm, polar nuclei, megaspore mother cell, female AIIMS-26.05.2018 Shift-I
gametophyte respectively is– 2n, 3n, n, 2n, n
The plant part that consists of two generations, one within the other,– AIIMS-2003
Embryo sac inside the ovule and pollen grains inside the anther
In angiosperms, triple fusion results in the formation of– WB JEE-2006
Primary endosperm nucleus
Nucellar polyembryons occurs in– Citrus Punjab MET-2009,
RAJASTHAN PMT-2009
Male gametophyte of angiosperms is reduced to– Three cells Punjab MET-2009 / Haryana
PMT-2009
During the formation of embryo sac, the functional megaspore undergoes– Punjab MET-2009 / Rajasthan
Three mitotic divisions PMT-2009,
UP CPMT-2009
Embryo sac is also known as– Megagametophyte or female gametophyte Rajasthan PMT-2004 / Punjab
MET-1999,
AIPMT-1994
The result of double fertilization is– Nucellus Rajasthan PMT-2004
For the formation of tetrasporic embryosac, total number of megaspore mother cells JIPMER-2005 / BHU PMT-
are required– 1 2003
The ovule is inverted with body fused to funicle, micropyle lying close to hilum BVP-2010 / JCECE-2005 /
and facing the placenta, it is– Anatropous Manipal-2000
The type of placentation that is seen in sweet pea– Marginal JCECE-2009
Orthotropus ovule belongs to– Urtica, Polygonum, Peperomia AMU-2005 / Manipal-2004
Amphitropous (transversal) ovules are found in– BHU PMT (Mains)-2011
Lemna, Poppy, Ranunculus
If the chromosome number of leaf cell is 42 the chromosome number of root cell, BHU PMT-2001
microspore mother cell and embryo respectively will be– 42, 42, 42
The egg apparatus of angiosperm comprises is– DUMET-2010,
An egg cell and two synergids AFMC-2001
Apogamy is– Failure of fusion of gametes Uttarakhand PMT-2004
The fertilized secondary nucleus of the ovule, during double fertilization, JIPMER-1999
establishes the– Endosperm
The nucleus of megaspore divides mitotically to form two nuclei which move to J&K CET-2014
opposite poles, and later form an embryo sac which is– 8 nucleate
The embryo sac of angiosperms contains– J&K CET-2014
3 celled egg apparatus, 3 antipodal cell and 2 polar nuclei
The ovule of angiosperm is technically known as– Megasporangium Karnataka CET-2022
The most common type of embryo sac is– Polygonum type AMU -2000
Oenothera type of female gametophyte is always– 4 nucleate and 4 celled AMU -2000

296
The archesporium of ovule is– Single celled hypodermal BHU PMT(Mains)-2007,
Haryana PMT-2002
The tissue which attaches the ovules inside the ovary is– Placenta Haryana PMT-2002
The hilum and micropyle lie side by side very close to each other in– Manipal-2015
Anatropous ovule
In the plants, a mature female Gametophyte that is derived from "Megaspore AP EAMCET-25.09.2020
mother cell" by– One meiotic division and three mitotic division Shift-II
Mesogamy is the entry of pollen tube into the ovule through– Integuments AP EAMCET-25.09.2020
Shift-II
Stalk with the ovules that remain attached to the placenta is called– Funicle Manipal-2010 / AMU-2009 /
Punjab MET-2008
Eight nucleate embryo sacs can be– Monosporic, Haryana PMT-2010
bisporic and tetrasporic
Micropyle helps in– Allowing entry of pollen tube J&K CET-2009 / JCECE-
2004,
Haryana PMT-2003
Polar nuclei are located in– Embryo sac Haryana PMT-2003
The role of synergids is explained in– Embryology AP EAMCET-1997
Double fertilization is fusion of– One male gamete with egg AFMC-2006
and other with secondary nucleus
When the body of the ovule, embryo sac and micropyle lie at right angles to the VMMC-2015 / AMU-1996
funicle, the ovule will be identified as– Hemi anatropous
The chief source of nutrition of embryo inside the ovule is– Endosperm CG PMT-2010
The haustorial behaviour where entire embryo sac grows beyond the ovule tissue CG PMT-2010
occur in– Santalum
Development of embryo from nucellar cell is common in many varieties of– Rajasthan PMT-2011
Citrus
In the fully organised Polygonum type of embryo sac, the ratio that of haploid, Manipal-2010
diploid and triploid nuclei is– 6:1:0
The type of cell division that takes place in the functional megaspore initially in Manipal-2010
angiosperms is– Homeotypic without cytokinesis
The scutellum observed in a grain of wheat or maize is comparable to which part MGIMS Wardha-2013
of the seed in other monocotyledons– Cotyledon
Pollination and its kinds
Transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma of another flower of same plant is RE-NEET (UG)-06.06.2023
known as– Geitonogamy (Manipur)
Large, colourful, fragrant flowers with nectar are seen in– NEET (UG) 07.05.2023
Insect pollinated plants
Wind pollinated flowers are – AIPMT (Screening)-2010
Small, brightly coloured, producing large number of pollen grains
In some plants, stigma and anther mature at different times because– Karnataka CET-2019
It facilitates cross pollination
The one advantage of cleistogamy is– DUMET-200 /JIPMER-2015
Seed dispersal is more efficient and wide spread
Both, autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented in– Papaya NEET (Odisha)-2019 / AIPMT
(Screening)-2012

297
Wind pollination is common in– Grasses AIPMT (Screening)-2011
Anemophily type of pollination is found in– Coconut AIPMT-2001
Haryana PMT- 2007
AFMC-2007
Chiropterophily means– Pollination by bats Karnataka CET-2004
Unisexuality of flowers prevents– Autogamy, but not geitonogamy JIPMER-2012,
AIPMT-2008
The type of association that is found in between entomophilous flower and AIPMT-2002
pollinating agent is– Mutualism
In water hyacinth and water lily, pollination takes place by– Insects or wind NEET-2020 Phase-I
The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers of one plant to stigma of NEET-2021
a different plant which, during pollination, brings genetically different types
of pollen grains to stigma, is– Xenogamy
The important floral that rewards to the animal pollinators is– AIPMT-2015
Nectar and pollen grains
Transmission tissue is characteristic feature of– Solid style AIPMT-2015
The type of pollination that takes place in Vallisneria is– NEET (Odisha)-2019
Male flowers are carried by water currents to
female flowers at surface of water (hydrophily)
A dioecious flowering plant prevents both– Autogamy and Geitonogamy NEET-2017
Attractants and rewards are required for– Entomophily NEET-2017
Plants with ovaries having only one or a few ovules, are generally pollinated by– NEET-2017,
Wind AIPMT (Mains)-2012
Pollination occurs in– Angiosperms and gymnosperms
Pollination in Rafflesia is occurred by– Bluebottle Carrion flies AIIMS-2015
Mesogamy is– Entry of pollen tube through integuments JCECE-2008 / UP CPMT-2004
Xenogamy is essentially a type of– Allogamy WB JEE-2012
Ornithophily refers to the pollination by– Birds WB JEE-2009
Cross pollination in crop is called as– Allogamy BHU PMT-2002
Zoophily is the pollination by– Animals UP CPMT-2010
Pollination by insects is called– Entomophily BHU-PMT (Screening)-
2008/Uttarakhand PMT-2007
Generative cell was destroyed by laser but a normal pollen tube was still formed VMMC-2013
because– Vegetative cell is not damaged
Xenogamy is– Pollination between two flowers of two different plant VMMC-2013 / AMU-2012
Corolla in passion flower helps the plant in achieving pollination by– MHT CET 5.10.2020 Shift-I
Insect
Sage flower is pollinated by– Bees AFMC -2011
At the time of pollination, the pollen grain of Pinus takes place– BHU PMT (Mains)-2009
Four celled stages
Flower which is pollinated by wind is characterized by– BHU PMT (Mains)-2011
Small, non-scented, colourless flowers
Type of pollination of commelina is– Cleistogamy J&K CET-2008 / JIPMER-
1999

298
The type of pollination involving transfer of pollen grains from anther to the DUMET-2010
stigma of the same flower is known as– Autogamy
The type of pollination found in Calotropis is– Herkogamy AMU-2005 / Uttarakhand
PMT-2004 / Manipal-2004
Gymnosperms have a mode of pollination celled– Anemophily Haryana PMT-2002
Jaculators are present in– Ruellia Haryana PMT-2007
The flower that shows the features of autogamy is– Viola papillionacea Manipal-2015
Pollination by snail and slug is known as– Malacophily WBJEE-2015 / VMMC-2013,
CMC Vellore-2008 / AMU-
2006
The type of placentation that do you find in Nymphaea– Superficial AP EAMCET-2001
In nature, allogamy is met within– Unisexual flowers only AMU-1997
On reaching the ovary, if pollen tube enters the ovule then through integuments, MHT CET-06.10.2020 Shift-I
then it is called– Mesogamy
Plants bearing small, inconspicuous flowers lacking fragrance, nectar and MHT CET-06.10.2020 Shift-I
producing large number of smooth walled pollen grains, is characterstic of–
Anemophily
Malacophily is observed in the species of one of the– Lemna AP EAMCET-2000
The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of AIPMT-2014 / J&K CET-
the same plant is called– Geitonogamy 2012/Rajasthan
PMT-2011,
AMU-2010, 1997 / AIPMT
(Screening)-2010,
UP CPMT-2005 / AIPMT-
1994
The pollination in eel grass is– Hydrophilous Haryana PMT-2011
Post-pollination : Structures and events
The cocount water from tender coconut represents– Free nuclear endosperm NEET-2016 Phase-I
The floral parts that forms pericarp after fertilization is– Ovary wall JIPMER-2012
When pollen tube enters through micropyle, the process is called– Porogamy JIPMER-2012
In coconut, the liquid endosperm is formed because– JIPMER-2015
It is not dependent upon
karyokinesis and cytokinesis
The coconut water and the edible part of coconut are equivalent to– AIPMT (Screening)-2012,
Endosperm BHU PMT (Screening)-2010,
Rajasthan PMT-2006 /
VMMC-2002
Nucellus forms the part of that fruit is– Perisperm JIPMER-2009
When a diploid female plant is crossed with a tetraploid male, the ploidy of AIPMT-2004
endosperm cells in the resulting seed is– Tetraploidy
Double fertilization is– Syngamy and triple fusion NEET-2018
Advantage of cleistogamy is– No dependence on pollinators NEET-2013,
DUMET-2009
Double fertilization is exhibited by– Angiosperms NEET-2017
The arrangement of the nuclei in a normal embryo sac in the dicot plants is– AIPMT-2006
3+2+3
Genes for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants are generally located in – AIPMT-2005
Mitochondrial genome

299
Growth of pollen tube towards embryo sac is– Chemotaxis JIPMER-2008 / AIIMS-2000
Syngamy means– Fusion of gametes AIPMT-1991
Total number of meiotic divisions required for forming 100 zygotes/100 grains AIPMT-1988
of wheat is 125
The role of double fertilisation in angiosperms is to produce– Endosperm AIPMT-1998, 1996
After fertilization, the structure that develops from carpel– Pericarp AIIMS-2009
If root of a plant has 24 chromosomes, then its gamete has total number of JCECE-2008
chromosomes is– 12
Chalazogamy is shown by– Casuarina AMU-2015
If the pollen tube enters the ovule through funiculus, the phenomenon is known Punjab MET-2003
as– Mesogamy
The movement of pollen tube is called– Chemotropism Manipal-2015 / UP CPMT-
2003
Cereals during germination derive their food from– Aleurone grains VMMC-2013
Perisperm is– Persistent nucellus VMMC-2013 / AIPMT-
1988,1989,
AIIMS-1997 / CG PMT-2004
The ovary after fertilization is converted into– Fruit J&K CET-2008
In coffee seeds, perisperm is the source of coffee. This perisperm is a persistent– JIPMER-1997
Nucellus
The floral that parts forms pericarp after fertilization– Ovary wall BCECE-2014 / BHU PMT
(Screening)-2009,
Uttarakhand PMT-2009
When pollen tube enters through micropyle, the process is called– Porogamy HP CET-2011 / BHU PMT
(Screening)-2009,
Uttarakhand PMT-2009 / J&K
CET-2008,
VMMC-2005 / Rajasthan
PMT-2004,
AMU-2004 / BCECE-2004
/JCECE-2004,
BVP-2003 / Haryana PMT-
2003 / AIPMT-1990
The residual persistent nucellus in the seed of black pepper and beet is called– NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022,
Perisperm Kerala PMT-2015 / AMU-2010
In general, pollen tube enters the ovule through– Micropyle J&K CET-2012
Aleurone layer is found in– Endosperm MGIMS Wardha-2005
A typical dicotyledonous embryo consists of– Redicle, AMU-2010
Embryonal axis and Cotyledons
If Ca of 2-celled proembryo divides longitudinally and the Ca and Cb both AMU -2000
contribute to the development of embryo, this type of embryogeny would be
called as– Asterad type
If Ca of 2-celled proembryo divides transversely the embryogeny would be– AMU -2000, 1995
Solanad and chenopoldial type
By double fertilization, is formed– Endosperm CG PMT-2007 / Rajasthan
PMT-2006
Germination of pollen grain on the stigma is– In vivo germination VMMC-2015, 2005 / AMU-
2004 / BVP-2003

300
The fertilization in which male gametes are carried through pollen tube is known Uttarakhand PMT-2008 /
as– Siphonogamy BHU PMT-2004
The number of chromosomes that in aleurone layer, if 10 number of VMMC-2010
chromosomes are found in megaspore mother cell– 15
Seed and Parthenocarpic fruit
The plant seed with perisperm is– Sugar Beet AP EAMCET-11.07.2022
Shift-II
Testa and Tegmen of the seed coat represent– Dried Integuments Karnataka CET-2019
Development of an embryo without fertilization is called as– Parthenogenesis NEET-2019 / JIPMER-2019,
2012,
BHU PMT (Screening)-2009 /
Uttarakhan PMT-
2009,
AIPMT-1989
Endosperm is consumed by developing embryo in the seed of– Pea AIPMT-2008
Mention the ploidy of parthenogenetic embryo, parthenocarpic fruit and AP EAMCET-25.04.2018
apomictic seeds in series– 2n, n, 2n Shift-II
The hilum is a scar on the– Seed, where funicle was attached AIPMT-2015
The fruits that are parthenocarpic– Banana, pineapple, grapes AIPMT (Re-Exam)-2015
Coconut water from a tender coconut is– Free nuclear endosperm AIPMT (Re-Exam)-2015
Winged pollen grains are present in– Pinus NEET-2018
Parthenocarpic tomato fruits can be produced by– Treating the plants with
low concentrations of gibberellic acid and auxins
Free nuclear division occurs during the formation of– Endosperm AIIMS-2001
Micropyle of seed is involved in the passage of– Water AP EAMCET-24.09.2020
Shift-I
Seed which are able to withstand reduction in moisture and temperature are BVP-2012,
called– Orthodox seeds MGIMS Wardha-2007
Parthenogenetic embryos in plants are those which are formed by– MGIMS Wardha-2014
Unfertilised eggs
The PGR6 induces that parthenocarpy in tomatoes is– Auxin AFMC -2009
Aleurone grains are rich in– Protein BCECE-2006 / VMMC-2005,
AMU-2008, 2004 / AIPMT-
2003 / BVP-2003
The parthenocarpy that makes no sense– Pomegranate Haryana PMT-2011 /
JCECE-2005
/Manipal-2000
When seed germinates, while the fruit is attached to parent plant, it is called– Uttarakhand-2005
Vivipary
Seed coat is derived from– Integuments of ovule J&K CET-2006 / Rajasthan
PMT-2002
Parthenogenesis is a term of– Asexual reproduction JIPMER-2013
When an ovary develops into a fruit without fertilization it is called– MGIMS Wardha-2011
Parthenocarpy
Parachute mechanism of seed dispersal occurs in– Calotropis MHCET-2003 /DUMET-2001
Edible part of paddy is– Endosperm and embryo VMMC-2010
Arrhenotoky is related to– Parthenogenesis CMC Vellore-2010

301
 Polyembryony and Apomixis
Seed formation without fertilization in flowering plants involves the process of– NEET-2016 Phase-I
Apomixes
Apomixis embryos in citrus arise from– Maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule AIPMT (Screening)-2010
Nucellar polyembryony occurs in– Citrus AP EAMCET-2011
Amphimixis is– Fusion of pronucleus of sperm with egg UP CPMT-2006
Name the plant shows adventives embryonic cells is– Citrus and Mango GUJCET-2015
Lichen are well known combination of an alga and a fungus where fungus has– A AIPMT-2004, 1989
symbiotic relationship with the alga
In a type of apomixis known as adventive embryony, embryos develop directly JIPMER-2007 /AIPMT-2005
from the– Nucellus or integuments
Viruses are no more "alive" than isolated chromosomes because– AIPMT-2003
Both require the environment of a cell to replicate
Apomixis is– Formation of seeds without syngamy and meiosis AIIMS-25.05.2019 Shift-II /
AIIMS-2007
Prothallus (gametophyte) gives rise to fern plant (sporophyte) without CG PMT-2007 / JIPMER-1998
fertilization. It is called– Apogamy / AIPMT-1988
The process that is helpful in hybrid seed production– Apomixis AIIMS-25.05.2019 Shift-II,
BHU PMT (Mains)-2009
The formation of gametophyte, from sporophyte, without spore formation or VMMC-2014 / WB JEE-
without meiosis is known as– Apospory 2006 / AIPMT-1988
Embryo development from nucellus and integument is known as– Manipal-2012 /
Adventive embryony Uttarakhand-2005
The development of a sporophytes witout gametes and syngamy from vegetative AMU-2005 / Manipal-2004
cells of the gametophyte is called –
Apogamy
Parthenogamy represents the– Union of two gametes of one sex BHU PMT (Mains)-2005
Cleavage polyembryony occurs in– Gymnosperms(Pinus) VMMC-2012 / BCECE-2010 /
JIPMER-2009,
UP CPMT-2008, 2001 /
MGIMS Wardha-
2008,
BHU PMT(Screening)-2006 /
Rajasthan PMT-
2008,
CG PMT-2008
Population, whose members reproduce sexually are termed as– Apomictic Haryana PMT-2002
Nucellar polyembryony is seen in the species of– Citrus JCECE-2018 / Rajasthan
PMT-2009/ UPCPMT-2009
Polyploidy can be produced artificially by– Colchicine DUMET-2009
The number of capsomeres in the Tobacco mosaic virus capsid is– 2130 Tripura JEE-2021
Nucleic acid is absent in– Prion Rajasthan PMT-2011
Apomixis is the production of a new plant through– AMU-1996
Vegetative propagation, Apogamy, Diplospory
Formation of diploid embryosac from diploid vegetative structure, eg, nucellus or BCECE-2007
integument etc., without meiosis is called– Apospory

302
02.
HUMAN REPRODUCTION
2.1 Male Reproductive System ■ Sertoli cells are found in– Seminiferous tubules
and provide nutrition to germ cells
Secretions from ................ are rich in fructose, ■ The shared terminal duct of the reproductive and
calcium and some enzymes–Male accessory glands urinary system in the human male is– Urethra
............. part of the sperm plays an important role in ■ The release of semen into vagina is called–
penetrating the egg membrane– Acrosome Insemination
Acrosome contains– Hydrolytic enzyme Interstitial cells secrete hormones called–
The middle piece of the sperm contains– Androgens
Mitochondria Sperm production takes place in–
In most mammals, the testes are located in scrotal Seminiferous tubule
sac for– Spermatogenesis
Vasa efferentia exist in between–
Temperature of the scrotum which is necessary for
Rete testis and epididymis
the functioning of testis is always around ............
External opening of the penis is called–
below body temperature– 2 0C
Urethral meatus
The nutritive cells found in seminiferous tubules
are– Sertoli cells The enlargement end of the penis called–
The function of Sertoli cells is– Glans penis
Nutrition of germ cells The duct ............... carries sperms from testis to
epididymis is– Vasa efferentia
.............. is a transporting tube leading from the
bladder which brings urine outside the body via Bulbourethral gland help in the–
penis– Urethra Lubrication of penis
Fructose, calcium and certain enzymes in human is Prostate gland is present–
rich in– Seminal plasma. Below seminal vesicles
A sex gland which secretes fructose that provides The secretion of the seminal vesicle contain–
energy to spermatozoa for swimming that stimulate Fructose + Calcium + Certain enzymes
uterine contractions to aid sperm-ovum interaction Testosterone is produced by– Leydig cells
is– Cowper's gland, Prostate gland, Role of Leydig cells of testis is to–
Seminal vesicle Synthesise testosterone hormone
Prostate glands are located below– The region outside the seminiferous tubules called–
Seminal Vesicles Interstitial spaces
The function of the secretion of prostate gland is to– The epididymis leads to vas deferens that ascends to
Stimulate sperm activity the – Abdomen
■ Cross section from mid-region of middle piece of If the epididymis is not presented then what will
human sperm will represent– 9 + 2 arrangement of happen–
microtubules and numerous mitochondria Sperm will be incapable for fertilization
■ Sperm motility occur due to activation of the sperms In human, the unpaired male reproductive structure
by the viscous liquid. The liquid is secreted by– is–
Secretory cells of the epithelial lining of Prostate gland
genital tract
The sperms undergoes physiological maturation,
■ Accessory reproductive gland's secretion associate
acquiring increased motility and fertilizing capacity
with sperms firstly– Seminal vesicle
in–
■ ______ produces sperms in spermatogenesis–
Epididymis
Immature male germ cells
■ The enlarged end of penis is covered by a loose fold If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human
of skin is called– Foreskin reproductive system get blocked, the gametes will
■ Vasa deferentia are the ductules leading from– not be transported from–
Epididymis to ejaculatory duct Rete testis to epididymis
303
 2.2 Female Reproductive System AT which stage of life the oogenesis process is
initiated– Embryonic development stage
The female external genitalia include–
Acrosomal reaction of the sperm occurs due to–
mons pubis, clitoris, labia majora
Its contact with zona pellucida of the ova
A sectional view of mammary gland shows–
................ has 23 chromosomes– Secondary oocyte
Nipple + areola, ampulla + lactiferous duct
1st polar body is formed at which stage of
Milk secreted from the cells of alveoli of mammary
oogenesis– 1st meiosis
lobes reaches nipple through lactiferous duct (L),
Primary follicle, graafian follicle, blood vessel and
mammary duct (M), mammary tubule (T) and
cropus luteum we can find in– Ovary.
mammary ampulla (A) in the order of– TMAL
Secondary oocyte released from– Ovary
■ ___glands are situated on either side of vagina in
During oogenesis, each diploid cell produces–
humans– Bartholin's glands
■ Muscles in the pelvic area where a fertilized egg or One functional egg and three polar bodies
zygote comes to grow into a baby is called– Uterus In oogenesis haploid egg is fertilised by sperm at
Part of fallopian tube is close to ovary– which stage– Secondary oocyte
Infundibulum ................. sperms and ova are produced from 100
secondary spermatocytes and equal number of
Widest part of fallopian tube is called– Ampulla
primary oocytes respectively–
Fallopian tube is the part of– Oviduct
200 spermatozoa and 100 ova
The structures secrete milk in mammary gland–
Polar bodies are produced during the formation of–
Cells of alveoli
Secondary oocyte
The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is
In humans, at the end of the first meiotic division,
to produce– Progesterone
the male germ cells differentiate into the–
Female accessory ducts include–
Secondary spermatocytes
Oviducts, uterus and vagina
In spermatogenesis, reduction division of
The shape of the uterus is– Inverted pear
chromosome occurs during conversion of–
The finger-like projections found at the edges of the
Primary spermatocytes to secondary
infundibulum are called– Fimbriae
spermatocytes
Cervix occurs in– Between uterus and vagina
In oogenesis, the secondary follicle soon transforms
The part of fallopian tube which is funnel shaped is– into a tertiary follicle which is characterised by a
Infundibulum fluid filled cavity called– Antrum
The layer of uterus exhibits strong contraction Quantity of sperms, are formed from a secondary
during parturition is– Myometrium spermatocyte– 2
Fatty tissue is like cushion covered by skin and ■ In human during ovulation– Secondary oocyte
pubic hair in female external genitalia– released from mature follicle
Mons pubis ■ In the process of spermatogenesis, first maturation
Hymen is a– Membrane often covering the division is called– Reduction division
opening of vagina partially ■ In human at the end of first meiotic division, the male
The finger-like tiny structure is– Clitoris germ cells differentiate into the–
The structure is often torn during first coitus– Secondary spermatocytes
Hymen Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary hormone
The glandular tissue of each breast in female human known as– FSH
is divided into– 15-20 mammary lobes Transformation of spermatids into spermatozoa is
Lower narrow end of uterus through which it opens called as– Spermiogenesis
into vagina is called– Cervix The haploid nucleus is present in which part of the
Ovary is a part of - Female reproductive system sperm– Sperm Head
Tertiary follicles are characterized by–By the
2.3 Gametogenesis presence of fluid filled cavity called antrum.
Seminiferous tubules and provide nutrition to germ Spermatozoa are produced through one
cells are found in– Sertoli cell spermatogonia– 4
Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is After the completion of meiosis-I division each
completed– At the time of fusion of a sperm primary spermatocyte gives rise–
with an ovum Two equal haploid cells
304
Release of sperms from seminiferous tubules is Ovulation in the human female normally takes place
called– Spermiation during the menstrual cycle–
FSH acts on– Sertoli cells At the end of the proliferative phase
Spermatogenesis is induced by– GnRH After ovulation, Graafian follicle regresses into–
Sperms are formed from 4 primary spermatocytes, is Corpus luteum
– 16 The part of ovary in mammals acts as an endocrine
A primary spermatocyte is– Diploid gland after ovulation– Graafian follicle
Polar bodies develop during the formation of– The phase of menstrual cycle in humans that last for
Ova 7-8 days, is– Follicular phase
Each secondary spermatocyte undergoes meiosis-II ■ Peak secretion of estrogen occurs– Just before
division and forms– 4 equal haploid spermatids ovulation
Identify the cells which are stimulated by LH and ■ Mainly ______ hormones control menstrual cycle in
synthesise androgens– Leydig cells human beings– FSH, LH, Estrogen
In a mammalian sperm, spirally arranged ■ The pregnancy test is based on detection of _____
mitochondria around an axial filament occurs in– hormone– hCG(Human Chorionic gonadotropin)
Middle piece ■ Tertiary follicle is characterised by– A fluid filled
Cap-like structure covering the anterior portion of cavity called antrum
sperm is called– Head ■ The phase of menstrual cycle in human that lasts for
7-8 days is– Follicular phase
The function of mitochondria in sperm is to–
Ovulation occurs under the influence of– LH
Provide energy for the movements of sperm
The diploid stages in gametogenesis is– At ……. of the menstrual cycle, both LH and FSH
are high– Proliferative phase
Spermatogonia and primary spermatocytes
The level of progesterone is high at which…….
In spermatogenesis, the phase of maturation
phase in the menstrual cycle– Luteal phase
involves– Formation of spermatids from
Estrogen is secreted by– Graafian follicle
primary spermatocytes through meiosis
Progesterone level falls during– Menopause
The second maturation divisions of the mammalian
ovum occurs– Until after the ovum During proliferative phase, uterine wall undergoes
certain changes, these are–
has penetrated by a sperm
Blood vessel in endometrium
2.4 Menstrual Cycle becomes long and coiled
A human female reaches menopause around the age Menstrual flow occurs in– Menstrual phase
of– 50 years Corpus luteum secretes large amounts of–
Cessation of menstrual cycle in a woman is called– Progesterone
Menopause Hormone is essential for the maintenance of
Name the hormone that has no role in menstruation– endometrium is– Progesterone
Adrenaline Follicular phase of menstrual cycle is the other name
Withdrawal of the hormones that is the immediate of– Proliferative phase
cause of menstruation– Progesterone The phase of menstrual cycle when fertilization is
At menopause there is pause in– Menstruation possible in– Luteal phase
If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilised, ............ is In the fertile human female, approximately, on
unlikely– Estrogen secretion increases which day of the menstrual cycle does ovulation take
During bleeding phase of menstrual cycle place– Day 14
unfertilised secondary oocyte undergoes autolysis. During the ovulatory phase, the structure called
The interplay of hormones then is progesterone corpus luteum is formed from–
inhibits the release of LH from pituitary causing Ruptured Graafian follicle
regression of– The phase of menstrual cycle in humans that lasts for
Corpus luteum. 3-4 days is– Menstruation phase
In the 28 days human ovarian cycle, the ovulation
takes place typically on– Day 14 of the cycle 2.5 Fertilization and Implantation
The time for optimum chances of conception in a The second maturation division of the mammalian
woman is ........... starting from the day of ovum occurs– Until after the ovum has been
menstruation– 14th day penetrated by a sperm

305
 In oocyte secondary maturation occurs in– Normal human male produces–
Fallopian tube 50% sperms with X chromosome and
Extrusion of second polar body from egg occurs– 50% sperms with Y chromosome
After entry of sperm but before fertilisation …….layer of blastocyst gets attached to the
True about cleavage in the fertilised egg in humans– endometrium– Trophoblast
It starts while the egg is in fallopian tube The human embryo, with 8 to 16 blastomere is
The solid mass of 8-16 cells formed from zygote called– Morula
after successive mitotic divisions is called– Morula …….takes part in formation of placenta–
Presence of XX or XY chromosomes in zygote Trophoblast, mesoderm and allantois
depends on– The sperm carrying X or Y The zygote carrying XX chromosomes develops
chromosomes fertilised the ovum into– Female
Fertilisation is defined as the process by which a The zygote carrying XY chromosomes is–
haploid spermatozoon unites with a haploid ovum to Normal male
form a– Diploid zygote The sex of a baby scientifically is determined by–
A regular cycling woman is not menstruating. The Father
most likely root cause of this is– The sex of the foetus will be decided by–
Fertilisation of the ovum Fertilization by male gamete
.......... state of life is oogenesis initiated in a human The embryo at 16-celled stage is known as–
female– During embryonic development Morula
■ Zona pellucida is synthesized by– Oocyte Freshly released human gamete has–
■ Trophoblast and inner cell mass are the arrangements One X or Y -chromosome
of blastomeres as outer and inner layers respectively– During fertilization, sperms come in contact with
In Blastocysts …….layer to block the entry of additional sperms–
■ Presence of XX or XY chromosomes in zygote Zona pellucida
depends on–
The sperm carrying X or Y chromosome 2.6 Pregnancy and Embryonic
fertilized the ovum Development
■ _____ layer of blastocysts gets attached to the
Structure connecting the fetus to placenta is–
endometrium– Trophoblast
Umbilical cord
■ First polar body is formed during the formation of
Chorionic villi, uterine tissue consist of–
_______ and completion of I meiotic division–
Placenta
Secondary oocytes
■ Second meiotic division in secondary oocyte results Fetus gets nourishment and oxygen through–
in the formation of– Secondary polar body and a Placenta
haploid ovum hCG, hPL and relaxin are produced in women–
■ Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by– Only during pregnancy
Fully developed foetus and placenta The hormones that is not a secretory product of
Covering of egg from outside to inside– human placenta– Prolactin
Corona radiata → Zona pellucida → Urine test during pregnancy determines the presence
Vitelline membrane of– Human chorionic gonadotropin hormone
Development of blastocyst and its attachment to the In a normal pregnant women, the amount of total
uterine wall in human beings is called– gonadotropin activity was assessed. The result
expected was high level of circulating hCG
Implantation
to stimulate –Estrogen and progesterone synthesis
……. differentiate into embryo – Inner cell mass
The corpus luteum secretes progesterone ............. is
Fertilization takes place in– Ampulla
essential for maintenance of–
During oogenesis haploid egg is fertilized by sperm Endometrium of uterus
in stage of– Secondary oocyte
During the development of embryo, ......... occurs
The outer layer of blastocyst is known as– first– Differentiation of cells
Trophoblast cell The placenta is formed from the .............. of the
Egg is liberated from ovary in– embryo and the .............. of the mother–
Secondary oocyte stage Chorion, Uterine tissue
306
 By the end of how many weeks, major organ system After birth, colostrum is released from mammary
are formed during the embryonic development– glands which is rich in–
12 weeks Proteins, antibodies and low in fat
■ Most of the organs/system in foetus are formed by the The colour of the colostrum is– Yellow
end of– 1st trimester Parturition is induced by a complex–
■ The first movements of foetus and appearance of hair Neuro - endocrine mechanism
on head are observed during– 5th month Signals for parturition originate from–
Increased level of hCG during pregnancy stimulate– Both placenta as well as fully developed foetus
Progesterone The mammary glands of the female undergo
Placenta is the region where– ...................... during pregnancy– Differentiation
Foetus receives nourishment Thick yellow, high protein fluid produced by
from mother's blood mammary glands of a women during first 2-3 days
Placenta is– Chorionic villi + Uterine tissue after child birth is– Colostrum
Produced by ovary in later phase of pregnancy, the 2.8 Miscellaneous
hormone is– Relaxin
Spot the odd one out from the ............ structures
Eye lids and eye lashes are formed– 6th month
with reference to the male reproductive system–
……..germinal layer is outer layer in the embryo–
Isthmus
Ectoderm
■ The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in human are
In human beings after one month of pregnancy, that
known to occur in–
organ is formed– Heart
Bronchioles and Fallopian tubes
In the event of pregnancy, the corpus luteum persists
Seminal plasma, the fluid part of semen, is
under the influence of–
contributed by– Seminal vesicle, Prostate gland,
Chorionic gonadotropin
Bulbourethral gland
Gestation period in human– 9 months
Spermiation is the process of the release of sperms
Stem cells in the embryo have the potency to give
from– Seminiferous tubules
rise to all tissues and organs are formed from -
Mature Graafian follicle is generally present in the
Inner cell mass
ovary of a healthy human female around–
The first sign of growing foetus may be noticed by
11-17 day of menstrual cycle
observing– Heart sound
Acrosomal reaction of the sperm occurs due to–
Extra-embryonic membranes provide–
Its contact with zona pellucida of the ova
Protection to embryo, Cells to the embryo
……. is not a male accessory gland– Ampulla
Extra-embryonic membranes of the mammalian
Hormones is not secreted by human placenta– LH
embryo are derived from– Trophoblast
The vas deferens receives duct from the seminal
Name the structure that provides nutrition to embryo
vesicle and opens into urethra as–
is called– Placenta
Ejaculatory duct
First formed layer of embryo is– Mesoderm
Urethral meatus refers to the–
_____ + ______ = Birth canal –
External opening of the urogenital duct
Cervical canal + Vagina
Morula is a developmental stage–
Correct sequence in embryo development–
Between the zygote and blastocyst
Cleavage, blastulation, gastrulation
The membranous cover of the ovum at ovulation is–
In mammals, the onset of pregnancy causes–
Corona radiata
Inhibition of further ovulation
At…… stage of life the oogenesis process is
2.7 Parturition and Lactation initiated– Embryonic development
Delivery of developed fetus is scientifically called– Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present
Parturition on– Zona pellucida
In human adult females causes strong uterine …… hormone levels will cause release of ovum
contractions during parturition– Oxytocin (ovulation) from the graafian follicle–
The stimulatory reflex between uterine contractions High concentration of Estrogen
and oxytocin causes– Expulsion of baby and The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived from–
placenta is also expelled out Ectoderm and mesoderm
307
 EXAM POINT
The Male Reproductive System
The male sex accessory ducts include– Karnataka CET-20.05.2023
Rete testis, Vasa efferentia, Epididymis and Vas deferens
The correct transportation of sperm cells in male reproductive system is–
Seminiferous tubules – Rete testes - Vasa efferentia - Epididymis - Vas
deferens - Ejaculatroy duct - Urethra
Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading from– Rete testis to vas deferens AIPMT (Screening)-2010
Sertoli cells are found in– AIPMT (Screening)-2010
Seminiferous tubules and provide nutrition to sperm
Movement of sperm is done by– Tail Haryana PMT-1999
Seminal plasma in humans is rich in– Fructose, calcium and certain enzymes AP EAMCET-03.09.2021
Shift-I,
AIPMT-2009
The accessory that genital gland occurs only in mammalian male is– Karnataka CET-2007,
Prostate gland MHT CET-2004
The Leydig cells as found in the human body are the secretory source of– AIPMT (Screening)-2012
Androgens
The forms that axial filament of the human sperm is– Distal centriole GUJCET-2018
In spermatogenesis, reduction division of chromosome occurs during conversion WB JEE-2012
of– Primary spermatocytes to secondary spermatocytes
In man, the sperms are stored and nourished in– Epididymis BVP-2010
Few scientist state vas deferens as seminal vesicle and seminal vesicle as vas Rajasthan PMT-1996
deferens, because– Sperms mature in vas deferens
Sertoli cells help in– Maturation of sperms DUMET-2005 / UP CPMT-
2003
Caput epididymis is a narrow tubule present on the inner side of testis. It is VMMC-2013
present in between– Vasa efferentia and corpus epididymis
Antifertilizin is present on– Spermatozoa AMU-2005 / Manipal-2004
The testis are situated outside the abdominal cavity in scrotum as it helps to– Karnataka CET-2022
Maintain the low temperature
Pseudostratified columnar epithelium of epididymis is called – Stereocilia AMU-2010
Which cells in the germinal epithelium of the seminiferous tubules – Rajasthan PMT-2011 /
Sertoli cells Karnataka CET-2003
………… is found inside graafian follicle. Fluid - filled cavity Manipal-2011
Orchidectomy is the removal of – Testes CG PMT-2011
Capacitation of sperm in mammals involves– Acrosome reaction CG PMT-2010
The bulbourethral gland of the male reproductive system is also called– Tripura JEE-2022
Cowper's gland
Testes descend into scrotum in mammals for– Spermatogenesis AFMC-2001
Fructose is contributed to the semen by– Seminal vesicles MHT CET-04.10.2020
Shift-I,
MHT CET-2019
Spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa by– Spermiogenesis UP CPMT-2013,
Manipal-2004

308
Androgen binding protein is produced from– Sertoli cell Tripura JEE-2017
Failure of descending of testis into scrotum is known as– Cryptorchidism Assam CEE-2014
Leydig cells are found in– Testis BVP-2004,
JIPMER-2002
Total number of secondary spermatocytes are required to form 400 million NEET (Re-Exam)-
spermatozoa is– 200 million 04.09.2022
The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is– NEET-2018
In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation
spermatozoa are released from sertoli cells into the cavity of
seminiferous tubules
Spermatozoa receive nutrition from– Epididymis AIIMS-26.05.2018 Shift-I
Each testis is connected to the wall of scrotum by short, fibromuscular band MHT CET-2019
called– Gubernaculum
Each testicular lobule contains____convoluted seminiferous tubules. 1 to 4 MHT CET-2018
The constituent that of seminal fluid help in coagulation of semen after MHT CET-2016
ejaculation is– Fibrinogen
Cauda epididymis leads to– Vas deferens MHT CET-2004
"Testis are extra abdominal in position'. The most appropriate reason is– MHT CET-2014
2.0 – 2.5° C lower than the normal body temperature
Human sperm was discovered by– Leeuwenhoek AP EAMCET-25.09.2020
Shift-I
The male accessory genital glands produce citric acid and prostaglandins is– TS EAMCET-15.05.2016
Seminal vesicles
Excessive development of mammary glands in males is called– Gynaecomastia J&K CET-2010
In males testes are contained in the scrotal sacs because– CMC Vellore-2008
It provides temperature that is slightly lower than body temperature
required for formation of functional sperms
Acrosome secretes– Hyaluronidase MGIMS Wardha-2012,
Rajasthan PMT-2006, 1999
Acrosome of sperm contains– Hydrolytic enzyme AP EAMCET-24.09.2020
Shift-I
Vas deferens starts from the part that of epididymis is– Caudal epididymis AP EAMCET-24.09.2020
Shift-I
Prostate gland secretion help in formation of– Semen BVP-2001
The narrow passage, which connects the abdominal cavity with the scrotal sacs, MHT CET 5.10.2020
is– Inguinal canal Shift-I
The Female Reproductive System
In the female reproductive system, a tiny finger like structure which lies at the Karnataka CET-20.05.2023
upper junction of the two labia minora above the urethral opening is called–
Clitoris
In humans the maternal blood comes into direct contact with foetal chorion, so AP EAPCET-11.05.2023,
the placenta is described as– Haemochorial Shift-I
Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte is completed– NEET-2020 Phase-I
At the time of fusion of a sperm with an ovum
The fallopian tube that is blocked at ampullary region, the ovum fails to move Karnataka CET-2020
from– Infundibulum Isthmus

309
Corpus luteum in mammals occurs in– Ovaries and produces progesterone MGIMS Wardha-2014
Corpus luteum is developed from– AMU-2011
Left over Graafian follicle after release of ovum
In humans, the oocyte is maintained in a state of meiotic arrest by secretions of– AMU-2010
Granulosa cells
The structure, capable of stretching many times of its size, is– Uterus AMU -2000
Secondary sexual characters in females develop in response to hormone– CG PMT-2007 / Haryana
Estrogen PMT-2003
The endometrium is the lining of– Uterus JCECE-2018,
Rajasthan PMT-2011
The mammalian follicle in ovary was first described by– Reinier De Graaf JIPMER-2000
The inner lining of the uterus called– Endometrium J&K CET-2015
The part of fallopian tube closest to the ovary is– Infundibulum GUJCET-2020 / MHT CET-
2019 / J&K CET-2015
AIPMT (Screening)-2010
Clitoris in female mammals is– Homologous to penis of male Haryana PMT-1999
Graafian follicle contains– Theca externa and theca interna VMMC-2014/Manipal-2013
BCECE-2012 / AMU-2005,
BVP-2005 / Haryana PMT-
2004 /Manipal-2003
The gland that in the male human being is homologous to the vestibular gland in MHT CET-07.10.2020
the human female– Cowper's gland Shift-I
In human beings, the oviduct is supported by a double fold of peritoneum called– MHT CET-06.10.2020
Mesosalpinx Shift-I
Atretic follicles are found in the– Ovary AIIMS-2014
CG PMT-2011
Bartholin's glands are situated– On each side of vagina in humans JIPMER-2013,
MGIMS Wardha-2010,
AIPMT-2003
The hormones that can play a significant role in osteoporosis– NEET-2018
Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
In human beings, the follicular cells of Graafian follicle secrete– Estrogen MHT CET-08.10.2020
Shift-I
The part of oviduct, that joins the uterus– Isthmus GUJCET-2021,
MHT CET-2019
During embryonic development endoskeleton and muscle develop from which BVP-2003
germinal layer– Mesoderm
The gland in female that is a counter part of cowper gland in male is– BVP-2005 / Haryana PMT-
Bartholin gland 2004,
Manipal-2003
The hormones that is a modified amino acid is– Epinephrine AIPMT-2004
Several hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogen, progesterone are produced by– NEET-2016 Phase-II
Placenta
Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present on– Zona pellucida NEET-2021
Fimbriae are associated with the organ– Fallopian tube JIPMER-2018
Progesterone is secreted by– Corpus luteum JIPMER-2005

310
Egg is liberated from ovary in– Secondary oocyte stage AIPMT-1989
Vaginal bacteria which mainly maintain acidic medium are– Lactobacillus MHT CET-2019
In ovary estrogen is secreted by– Follicular cells MHT CET-2018
The glycoprotein, fertilizin is secreted by– Ovum MHT CET-2015
The main function of the fimbriae of the fallopian tube in females is to– Kerala PMT-2011
Help in the collection of the ovum after ovulation
Accessory ducts of reproductive system of human female include– Karnataka CET-2017
Oviduct, uterus and vagina
In human females, the number of primary follicles left in each ovary at puberty Karnataka CET-2017
is– 60,000 - 80,000
The organs that is devoid of glands– Vagina DUMET-2011
In mammals corpus luteum is found in which organ– Ovary Rajasthan PMT-2002
Skene's glands in females are homologous to– Prostate gland A TS EAMCET-09.08.2021
Shift-I
Corpus luteum is formed in– Ovary CG PMT-2004
The blood vessel and nerves enter the ovary through– Hilum Uttarakhand PMT-2011

Gametogenesis
The second maturation division of the mammalian ovum occurs is– AIPMT (Screening)-2010
Until after the ovum has been penetrated by a sperm
A change in the amount of yolk and its distribution in the egg will effect– AIPMT-2009
Pattern of cleavage
The number of chromosomes in a primary spermatocyte is– JIPMER-2015
Same as in spermatogonium
The spermatogonia accumulates large amount of nutrient and chromatin material GUJCET-2017
and increase in size, now it is known as– Primary spermatocytes
The process of conversion of non-motile spermatids into motile spermatozoa is Tripura JEE-2019,
called– Spermiogenesis Karnataka CET-2018
Vitellogenesis occurs during the formation of– Karnataka CET-2009,
Primary oocyte in the Graafian follicle Manipal-2009
In the absence of ........the sperm cannot penetrate the egg. Acrosome Karnataka CET-2010
In humans, at the end of the first meiotic division, the male germ cells TS EAMCET-12.05.2017,
differentiate into the– Secondary spermatocytes BHU PMT (Screening)-
2010,
AIPMT-2008
The part of ovary in mammals that acts as an endocrine gland after ovulation– AIPMT-2007
Graafian follicle
Acrosome is formed by– Golgi apparatus VMMC-2013 / UP CPMT-
2005,
Rajasthan PMT-1995 /
AIIMS-1999
The absence of sperm in seminal fluid is called– Azoospermia UP CPMT-2014
During a woman life time, she produces about– 400-500 eggs WB JEE-2006
In human zygote, the male sex is determined by whether– Punjab MET-1999
Required composition of chromosomes

311
Enzyme present in sperm acrosome to dissolve egg membrane is– BCECE-2005
Sperm lysin
Spermatids are formed after the second meiotic division from secondary KVPY SB & SX-2015
spermatocytes. The ploidy of the secondary spermatocytes is– n
The ovum of human female has autosomes– 22 Manipal-2011
During gametogenesis, unequal cytoplasmic divisions take place in– MHT CET 5.10.2020
Maturation phase of oogenesis Shift-I
Usually at which pH, the human sperms become motile is– 7.2 to 7.8 MHT CET 5.10.2020
Shift-I
The portion of human sperm that contain enzymes is– Acrosome UP CPMT-2012
The undergoes spermiogenesis is– Spermatids Uttarakhand PMT-2004 /
AMU-2005
The anterior portion of the sperm head which is covered by a cap-like structure J&K CET-2014
called– Acrosome
Each secondary spermatocyte after second meiotic division produces is– Kerala PMT-2015
Two haploid spermatids
The nuclear structure observed by Henkings in 50% of the insect sperm after Kerala PMT-2015
spermatogenesis was– X body
The activity that occurs first during the development of an egg is– Polarity Rajasthan PMT-1998
Total number of sperms are formed by four primary spermatocyte is– 16 JIPMER-2006,
MGIMS Wardha-2005
Polar bodies are produced during the formation of– Secondary oocyte CMC Vellore-2014 / UP
CPMT-2001,
Punjab MET-1999
In spermatogenesis the phase of maturation involves– The formation of Karnataka CET-2003
spermatids from primary spermatocytes through meiosis
Fertilizin is a chemical substance produced from– Mature eggs (ovum) Manipal-2015 / CMC
Ludhiana-2008,
AMU-2006 / AIPMT-1997,
1991
Total number of ova and sperms would be produced from 100 secondary oocytes and JIPMER-2001
100 secondary spermatocytes during gametogenesis in humans–
100 ova, 200 sperms
Enzyme hyaluronidase is synthesised in– Golgi body of acrosome Manipal-2013
The Leydig cells found in the human body are the secretary source of– J&K CET-2015
Androgens
Middle piece of sperm contains is– Mitochondria, centriole, axial filament CMC Vellore-2010/ J&K
CET-2006
Polar bodies are formed during– Oogenesis CG PMT-2006
Total number of chromosomes are usually found in the human secondary MHT CET-07.10.2020 Shift-I /
oocyte– 23 JIPMER-2019,
VMMC-2002 / Rajasthan
PMT-2001
In human beings, how much quantity of semen is contributed by the prostate MHT CET-07.10.2020 Shift-I /
gland– 30% MHT-2017
The actual genetic part of sperm is– Head VMMC-2010
If the proximal centriole of the mature sperm is destroyed, The is likely to be VMMC-2015
affected– Cleavage

312
The process of release of mature spermatids from Sertoli cells into the Tripura JEE-2022
seminiferous tubule lumen is called– Spermiation
The present that in the middle piece of sperm is– Mitochondria AFMC-2010
Layers of an ovum from outside to inside is– BCECE-2008 / UP CPMT-
Corona radiata, zona pellucida and vitelline membrane 2007

Cytoplasm surrounding mitochondria present in the middle piece of sperm is– Manipal-2006
Microplasm
In human beings, the largest cell formed during oogenesis is– MHT CET-08.10.2020 Shift-I
Secondary oocyte
The corona radiata present around the female gamete is made up of– MHT CET-08.10.2020 Shift-I
Granulosa cells
A gamete normally contains– One allele of a gene UP CPMT-2013
The formation of egg and sperm is affected by– UP CPMT-2003
FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone)
The secondary spermatocytes of human are– Haploid Tripura JEE-2017
A role of Sertoli cells in Spermatogenesis is– They provide nutrition GUJCET-2008
to developing sperm; they direct morphogenesis of sperm
The chemical substance released by activated spermatozoa that acts on the Kerala PMT-2009
ground substances of the follicle cells is known as– Hyaluronidase
Extrusion of second polar body from egg nucleus occurs– NEET-2019
After entry of sperm but before at the completion fertilization
Number of chromosomes present in spermatogonium is– 46 JIPMER-2019
In telolecithal egg the yolk is found– On one side AIPMT-1993
In human beings, the eggs are– Alecithal AIPMT-1997
A cross section at the midpoint of the middle piece of a human sperm will show– AIIMS-2005
Mitochondria and 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules
Total number of sperms are formed from a secondary spermatocyte are– 2 AIIMS-2008, AIPMT-1990
On the fourteenth day of the menstrual cycle the female gamete released is– MHT CET-2019
Secondary oocyte
The termination of process of oogenesis is indicated by formation of– MHT CET-2018
Second polar body
An axial filament in the tail of sperm is modified– Distal centriole MHT CET-2017
The character that favours the process of normal spermatogenesis in human male Karnataka CET-2017
is– Descent of testes into scrotum
Mitochondria in middle piece of sperm is called– Chondriosome JIPMER-2002
Oogenesis is the process for the formation of– Ova CG PMT-2005
In a sperm, the mitochondria occur in– Middle piece CG PMT-2005
During gametogenesis Meiosis I occur in– AP EAMCET-24.09.2020
Primary spermatocytes and primary oocytes Shift-II
Primary spermatocyte differs from spermatogonium in– Size and volume DUMET-2011
The number of autosomes in human primary spermatocyte is– 44 DUMET-2011
Diploid cell is– Spermatogonium BCECE-2015
When released from ovary, human egg contain– One X chromosome JCECE-2007 / AMU-2001
/AIPMT-1991
During oogenesis, the small structure separated from egg is– Polar bodies JCECE-2006

313
Process of maturation and development of sperms is called– AFMC-2003
Spermatogenesis
Gametogenesis refers to the process of– Formation of two types of gametes AMU-2014
Spermatid to spermatozoa is produced by the process of – Spermatogenesis J&K CET-2013
The middle piece of the sperm contains– Mitochondria J&K CET-2013, 2011 / Punjab
MET-2011, 2010
Human gametes differ from all other body cells as they are– Haploid J&K CET-2013
The stage that of spermatogenesis sperm acquire their whole structural maturity and Rajasthan PMT-2002
they contain a haploid nucleus and other organs is–
Spermiogenesis
The reduction division in chromosomes takes place in– Rajasthan PMT-1999,
Megaspore mother cell MGIMS WARDHA - 2012
The groups of cells in the male gonad represent haploid cells is– Karnataka CET-2005
Secondary spermatocytes
The stage of life when oogenesis is initiated in a human female – AP EAPCET-07.09.2021
During embryonic development Shift-I
Spermatogenesis is induced by– FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone) BUP-2014,
Uttarakhand PMT-2009,
BCECE-2003,
Rajasthan PMT-2003
Only one primary spermatocyte formed is– Four sperms Rajasthan PMT-1995
Oogenesis comprises is– CG PMT-2004
multiplication phase, growth phase, maturation phase
Cumulus covers the – Ovum BVP-2011, AMU-1999
Gametes formation in animals is found in– Gonads MGIMS Wardha-2012
The release of sperms from the seminiferous tubules is called– Spermiation MHT CET-2019,
Kerala PMT-2014,
Kerala PMT-2008

Menstrual Cycle
If in a normal menstruating woman, menses occur on 5th April, what will be the Karnataka CET-2019
expected date of Ovulation– 18th April
Sudden reduction in estrogen and progesterone causes - Menstruation BCECE-2014 / JIPMER-
2012,
VMMC-2011 /
Uttarakhand PMT-2009
In a normal human menstrual cycle does rapid secretion of LH (popularly called AIPMT (Mains)-2011
LH-surge) normally occurs is– 14th day
Which induces the development of corpus luteum– LH (Luteinizing Hormone) AIPMT-1999
The time for optimum chances of conception in a woman is ______ starting from Karnataka CET-2012
the day of menstruation 14th day
In the human female, menstruation can be deferred by the administration of– AIPMT-2007
Combination of estrogen and progesterone
The immediate cause of induction of ovulation in female is the large plasma CMC Vellore-2010 / JIPMER-
surge of– LH 2004,
Punjab MET-2003 / DUMET-
2001

314
The hormone that level reaches peak during luteal phase of menstrual cycle is– J&K CET-2008
Progesterone
Menstrual cycle is exhibited by– Apes Karnataka CET-2022
In human females, the ovarian cycle begins when the– J&K CET-2012
Level of progesterone drops precipitously
Ovulation takes place in a month between– 14 - 16 day MGIMS Wardha-2008 /
JIPMER-2008
BCECE-2007,
Punjab MET-2004 / DUMET-
2001,
Manipal-2000 / AIPMT-1994,
1997
The first menstruation begins at puberty and is known as– Menarche JCECE-2018
Painful menstruation is known as– Dysmenorrhea Tripura JEE-2019
Progesterone level falls during– Menopause AMU-2008 / VMMC-2008
Uterine endometrium, epithelial glands and connective tissue are broken in CMC Ludhiana-2008
menstrual phase. That is due to– Lack of progesterone
Cessation of menstrual cycle in women is called– Menopause MGIMS Wardha-2010
Ovulation in the human female normally takes place during the menstrual cycle– MGIMS Wardha-2009 /
At the end of the proliferative phase AIPMT-2004
No new follicles develop in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle because– NEET (Odisha)-2019
Both FSH and LH levels are low in the luteal phase
Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of– Progesterone CMC Villore- 2014,
NEET-2013,
DUMET-2002, 2001
Withdrawal the hormones that is the immediate cause of menstruation is– AIPMT-2006
Progesterone
The secretory phase in the human menstrual cycle is also called– AIPMT (Mains)-2012
Luteal phase and lasts for about 13 days
Level of LH is maximum– at the time of ovulation JIPMER-2019
Most important hormone in post ovulatory phase– Progesterone AIIMS-26.05.2018 Shift-II
An oocyte is released from the ovary under the influence of LH– AIIMS-2001
After completion meiosis I and before release of polar bodies
The phase of menstrual cycle in humans that last for 7-8 days, is– Rajasthan PMT-2010 / WB
Follicular phase JEE-2006,
Punjab MET-2006 / AIIMS-
2003
Both corpus luteum and macula lutea are– AIIMS-2003
Characterized by a yellow colour
At menopause, here is rise in urinary excretion of– FSH AMU-2009

Fertilisation and Implantation

Fertilization in humans is practically feasible only if– NEET-2016 Phase-I
The ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously
to ampullary- isthmic junction of the fallopian tube
The area just opposite to the site of entry of sperm into ovum is -Grey crescent JIPMER-2007
The portion of the endometrium that covers the embryo and is located between JIPMER-2015
the embryo and the uterine cavity is the– Decidua capsularis

315
What happens when during fertilisation in humans after many sperms reach close AIPMT (Mains)-2011
to the ovum– Secretions of acrosome helps Manipal - 2005
one sperm enter cytoplasm of ovum through zona pellucida
After ovulation follicles converted into– Corpus luteum AIPMT-1999
Amount of cellular DNA increases during– Fertilisation AIPMT-1999
In human during fertilisation a sperm firstly comes in contact with the layerthat JIPMER-2014
of ovum is– Corona radiata
During Fertilization, zona pellucida of ovum is dissolved by the enzyme released TS EAMCET-10.08.2021
from the sperm– Acrosin Shift-I
Ovum receives the sperm in the region of– Animal pole UP CPMT-2011,
J & K CET-2006
The secretions that produced by the spermatozoa at the time of fertilization is– Karnataka CET-2006
Antifertilizin and sperm lysin
Fertilization of ovum takes place in rabbit, man and other placental mammals in– J&K CET-2012 / CMC
Fallopian tube Vellore-2009,
UP CPMT-2009 / Punjab
MET-2009,
Uttarakhand PMT-2007
The function of copper T is to prevent– Implantation of blastocyst AFMC-2007
Sperm penetration bring changes in ova, is– meiosis-ll Rajasthan PMT-1998
The semen fluid consists of sperm cells and secretion from– HP CET-2011 / BCECE-
Seminal vesicle, Prostate gland, Cowpers gland 2006,
VMMC-2005 / AMU-2004 /
BVP-2003
Fixing up of the blastocyst in the wall of the uterus is known as– VMMC-2006
Implantation
The placenta of human beings belong to the category– Hemochorial CG PMT-2006
During implantation, the cells of _____secrete lytic enzymes and destroy MHT CET-07.10.2020
endometrial cells– Syncytiotrophoblast Shift-I
The stage that in test tube babies, the zygote is implanted in human female– CMC Vellore-2009
32-celled stage
During oogenesis in mammals, the second meiotic division occurs is– KVPY SA-2019,
After fertilisation AIIMS-27.05.2018 Shift-I
The stage that of life the oogenesis process is initiated– NEET-2022
Embryonic development stage
Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due to in vitro fertilisation is NEET-2016 Phase-II
transferred into– Uterus
GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in reproduction, acts on– NEET-2017
Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and FSH
Sperm and egg nuclei fuse due to– Attraction of their protoplasts AIPMT-1990
Termination of gastrulation is indicated by– Obliteration of blastocoel AIPMT-1993

Pregnancy and Embryonic Development

In surrogacy the part provided by the woman for the development of some other
person's embryo until full development is– Uterus
In which process the ovum is extracted and fertilized outside and zygote is AP EAPCET-11.05.2023,
transferred into the fallopian tube - ZIFT (Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer) Shift-I
In human beings, the foetal placenta is derived from– Chorion MHT CET-07.10.2020
Shift-I,
Manipal-2006 / AFMC-
2002
316
If cells destined to form endoderm in a gastrula are removed, the new individual CG PMT-2011
will be devoid of– Visceral organs
The extra embryonic membranes of mammalian embryo are derived from– CG PMT-2010
Trophoblast
At the time of implantation, the human embryo is called– Blastocyst Rajasthan PMT-2011
The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on its head are usually Karnataka CET-2022 /
observed during the month that of pregnancy– Fifth month AIPMT (Screening)-2010
………. is regarded as urinary bladder of embryo. Allantois JIPMER-2012 /
Uttarakhand PMT-2009
Gonads are derived from– Mesoderm JIPMER-2015
In a normal pregnant woman, the amount of total gonadotropin activity was AIPMT (Screening)-2012
assessed. The result expected was– High levels of circulating
HCG to stimulate estrogen and progesterone synthesis
Oxytocin mainly helps in– Child birth AIPMT-1999
Total number of foetal membranes are formed during the development of human AP EAMCET-12.07.2022
embryo is– 4 Shift-II
……….. the height and weight of twelve weeks old human embryo is. GUJCET-2015
7.5 cm, 14 gram
The hormones that are secreted in large quantities during pregnancy in women is– Karnataka CET-2014,
hCG and hPL AIPMT-2014
The parts of that the vertebrate body arises from the mesoderm is– Karnataka CET-2012
Bony skeleton
Gastrula has a pore which is known as– Blastopore Karnataka CET-2010
th
In case of pregnancy the heartbeat of embryo starts at– 5 week JIPMER-2016
Lens of eyes is derived from– Ectoderm JIPMER-2016
The hormone that prepares and maintains the uterus during pregnancy is secreted AP EAMCET-2005 /
by– Corpus luteum NEET-2001
………. extraembryonic membrane in humans prevents desiccation of the JIPMER-2012 / BHU PMT
embryo inside the uterus. Amnion (Screening)-2010,
AIPMT-2008
Notochord, skeletal system and dermis of the skin are the derivatives of– Karnataka CET-2008
Mesoderm
The events observed by the end of second month of pregnancy are– AP EAMCET-25.04.2018
Development of limbs and digits Shift-II
The best definition of the process of gastrulation is that it is a process where the– UP CPMT-2011
Cells move to occupy their definite position
Medulla oblongata is originated from– Ectoderm UP CPMT-2011
Archenteron is formed during – Gastrulation Rajasthan PMT-2004
Epiboly and emboly takes place during – Gastrulation Rajasthan PMT-1996
The basic principles of embryonic development were first given by– Von Baer MGIMS Wardha-2014
Opening of gastrocoel is known as – Blastopore AIPMT-1992
Human embryo will be called as a foetus after– Two months Manipal-2011
A single layer of cells that composes epicardium is called– Mesothelium MHT CET 5.10.2020 Shift-
I

317
The membranous areas between the cranial bones of the fetal skull are called– DUMET-2010
Fontanelles
The internal cavity commonly formed by cell division prior to gastrulation is DUMET-2010
the– Blastocoel
Blastopore is the opening to the exterior of– Archenteron AFMC-2007
The foetal membrane that is directly connected with blood– Chorion Rajasthan PMT-1998
Placenta present in mammals acts as an endocrine tissue and produces is– BCECE-2014 / UP CPMT-
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) 2012
The recapitulation theory or biogenetic law was proposed by– Ernst Haeckel AMU -2000
The embryonic skeleton is formed by– Hyaline cartilage AMU-1999
The embryo at 16 celled stage is known as– Morula VMMC-2012 / BCECE-2010 /
JIPMER-2009,
UP CPMT-2008 /MGIMS
Wardha-2008
The formation of erythrocytes in foetus takes place in– Liver and spleen Karnataka CET-2003
The term blastocyst is applied to the blastula of– Mammals CG PMT-2007
Women who consumed the drug thalidomide for relief from vomiting during Haryana PMT-2004
early months of pregnancy gave birth to children with–
Under developed limbs
Gestation period of mouse is– 19 -21 days VMMC-2014
Cleavage is a unique form of mitotic cell division in that– JIPMER-2001
There is no growth of cells
During embryonic development endoskeleton and muscles develop from which BCECE-2006 / VMMC-2005,
germinal layer– Mesoderm AMU-2004 / Haryana PMT-
1999
In a pregnant woman, is the major source of progesterone during the first trimester– MHT CET-07.10.2020 Shift-I
Corpus luteum
The embryonic membranes structure is excretory in function is– Allantois CG PMT-2009 / MGIMS
Wardha-2009
Trophoblast of the blastocyst gets differentiated into– Chorion BVP-2015
Corpus luteum remains active during early pregnancy producing progesterone BVP-2015
because of human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG). But in the later stages the
production of progesterone is taken over by– Placenta
Chromosomal imbalance is most frequent during which stages of human CG PMT-2011
development– Embryonic
Nervous system develops from– Ectoderm Rajasthan PMT-2000
……………. layer develops first during embryonic development. Endoderm BCECE-2008 / UP CPMT-
2007
The gestation period of elephant is about– 22 months BCECE-2003
Gastrulation means– Formation of 3 germ layers JIPMER-2019
In Human beings, at the end of 12 weeks (first trimester) of pregnancy, the NEET-2020 Phase-II
following is observed– Most of the major organ systems are formed
Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as– AIPMT (Re-Exam)-2015
Implantation of embryo at site other than uterus
Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are– NEET-2018
hCG, hPL, progesterones, estrogens

318
The extra embryonic membranes of the mammalian embryo are derived from– AIPMT-1994
Trophoblast
Cells become variable in morphology and function in different regions of the AIPMT-1989
embryo. The process is– Differentiation
The hormone that helps in detection of pregnancy is– hCG AIIMS-27.05.2018 Shift-II
The early stage human embryo distinctly possesses– Gill slits AIIMS-2003
The structures that are derivatives of the endoderm is– Karnataka CET-2005
Alimentary canal and respiratory structures
Adult stem cells mostly belong to the type of– Multi potent AP EAMCET-12.07.2022
Shift-II
Zonary placenta is found in– Carnivores MP PMT-2013
Embryologist can draw the fate maps of future organs of embryo in– Blastula AMU-2003
In the development of the human body, the ectoderm is responsible for the Punjab MET-1999
formation of– Sweat glands, Nervous system, Lens of the eye

Parturition and Lactation Process

Signals from fully developed foetus and placenta ultimately lead to parturition NEET (Karnataka)-2013 /
which requires the release of– AIPMT (Mains)-2010
Oxytocin from maternal pituitary
Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by– AIPMT (Screening)-2012 /
Fully developed foetus and placenta AIPMT-2009

When the MTP act came into force in India– 1971 GUJCET-2018
Several mammary ducts join to form a wider structure called– Karnataka CET-2018
Mammary ampulla
Antibodies found in colostrums are mainly of this type– Ig A TS EAMCET-30.07.2022
Shift-II,
TS EAMCET-10.08.2021
Shift-I
The expulsion of completely developed foetus from the uterus is known as– BVP-2010
Parturition
The protein content is maximum in– Colostrum VMMC-2015
First milk produced after child birth is called– Colostrums AMU-2003
Name the hormone the stimulates that growth and development of breast in
preparation for lactation–
Human placental lactogen
The yellowish fluid "colostrums" secreted by mammary glands of mother during NEET-2020 Phase-II
the initial days of lactation has abundant antibodies (lgA) to protect the infant.
This type of immunity is called as–
Passive immunity
The contraceptive that methods do involve a role of hormone is– NEET-2019
Lactational amenorrhea, Pills- Emergency contraceptives
Colostrum the yellowish fluid, secreted by mother during the initial days of NEET-2019
lactation is very essential to impart immunity to the new born infants because it
contains– Immunoglobulin A
The hormones that is responsible for both the milk ejection reflex and the foetal NEET (Odisha)-2019
ejection reflex is– Oxytocin
Mammary glands are modified– Sweat gland AMU-2009

319
03.
REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
CuT is an intrauterine contraceptive device–––––––
3.1 Reproductive Health - Problems Cu ions suppress sperm motility and the fertilising
and Strategies capacity of the sperms– Defines the role of Cu.
■ RCH stands for– Reproduction and child Cu ions released from copper releasing intrauterine
health care devices (IUDs)– Suppress sperm motility
……..determine errors in amino acid metabolism in The birth control device used by women are–
embryo, Pin point specific ailments in embryo, Diaphragm, Vault, Copper T
Determine any hereditary genetic abnormality in Emergency contraceptive could be used to avoid
embryo- Amniocentesis technique possible pregnancy due to–
Prenatal defects in the foetus can be detected by– Casual unprotected intercourse
Amniocentesis The most important component of oral
3.2 Population Explosion and Birth contraceptive pills is– Progestogen-estrogen
Progesterone pill helps in preventing pregnancy by
Control not allowing– Ovulation, Fertilisation,
In case of a couple where the male is having a very Implantation
low sperm count, which technique will be suitable Birth control measures is considered to be highly
for fertilisation– Artificial Insemination, effective– Sterilisation techniques
Intracytoplasmic sperm injection The most widely accepted method of contraception
The function of copper ions in copper releasing in India at present– Intra uterine devices
IUDs is– They suppress sperm motility and Full method of contraception is– Sterilisation
fertilising capacity of sperms Multiload intrauterine device contains– Copper
Tubectomy is a method of sterilisation in which– ■ Side effects of ____ contraceptive method are almost
Small part of the fallopian tube is nil– Coitus interruptus
removed or tied up ■ Best contraceptive measure in males is– Condom
Oral contraceptive prevents pregnancy by– ■ The hormone stimulate milk production and secretion
Preventing implantation and participates in control of reproduction– Prolactin
One of the legal methods of birth control is– ■ _____ induces the lactational amenorrhea–
Abortion by taking an appropriate medicine Increased level of prolactin
Increased IMR and decreased MMR in a population ■ WHO stands for– World health organization
will– Result in decline in growth rate ■ 'Saheli' a new oral contraceptive developed by–
Intensely lactating mothers do not generally Central Drug Research Institute
conceive due to the–Suppression of gonadotropins ■ The marriageable age for the females and males
Cause for increased population growth in India is– respectively in India is– 18, 21
Increase in birth rate, Decrease in death rate, ■ The contraceptive also provides protection from
contacting STDs and AIDS– Condoms
Lack of education
■ The groups of contraceptives are included under
............. the pairs contributes to an increase in
barrier methods– Condom, Diaphragm,
population– Natality and immigration
Cervical caps, Vaults
That method of contraception has the higher failure
■ IUDs stands for– Intra Uterine Devices
rate is– Rhythm method
■ _____ ions plays an effective role in the activity of
An ideal contraceptive characteristic is not a–
IUDs– Copper
Irreversible ■ MTP was legalised in India– 1971
Non-medicated intrauterine device (IUD) is a – ■ Diseases which are transmitted through sexual
Lippes' Loop intercourse are– STD/VD/UTI
Inhibiting physiological and morphological uterine ■ Hepatitis B is transmitted through– Blood
changes required for implantation– transfusion, Intimate physical contact and
IUDs prevent pregnancy Sexual contact
320
■ The natural ways of avoiding chances of fertilization Periodic abstinence is a method in–
is– Natural methods of contraception Coitus is avoided for a particular duration
■ The coitus interruptus method shows very high Implants under the skin, when used as contraceptive
failure rate– Initial secretion in male, may also method–
contain sperms Provide longer effective period
■ Mechanism of action of oral contraceptive pills is– When …… surgical interventions are done for
Prevents ovulation contraceptive purpose, they act by–
■ GIFT technique is used in– Sterile female Blocking gamete transport
■ An ideal contraceptive should be– User-friendly, Insertion of IUDs within 72 hrs of coitus, to avoid
Easily available and Effective and reversible possible pregnancy due to rape or unprotected
with no or least side effects intercourse is termed as–
■ The natural methods of birth control is– By Emergency contraception
abstaining from coitus from day 10 to 17 of Emergency contraceptives are effective if used
menstrual cycle within– 72 hours of coitus
■ India's population crossed 1 billion in– May 2000
Vaults prevent conception by–
■ The family planning programme in India were
Blocking the entry of sperms
initiated in– 1951
■ The copper ions of IUDs– Suppress the motility Disadvantage of IUD is that– The devices are
and fertilization capacity of sperms expelled out without the knowledge of wearers
■ Progestasert and LNG-20 are– Hormone relating Work of progesterone which is present in oral
IUDs contraceptive pills– To inhibit ovulation
Most widely accepted method in India– IUD's 3.3 Medical Termination of
Saheli, a new oral contraceptive, for the females Pregnancy
developed by Indian scientists is a–
■ Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves
Non-steroidal preparation
transfer of– Zygote into the fallopian tube
In periodic abstinence method, coitus avoid from– ■ The diaphragm, cervical cap and vaults are–
10 to 17 days Reusable contraceptives
……Natural method has maximum chances of ■ Delaying pregnancy or spacing children the ideal
failing– contraceptive is– IUD (Intra Uterine Device)
Periodic abstinence ■ A weekly oral contraceptive is– Saheli
…… prevent the spread of STD's– Condom MTPs are considered safe up to how many weeks of
Copper releasing IUD's are– pregnancy– 12
Cu 7, Multiload 375 Government of India legalized MTP in the year–
Hormone releasing IUD's are– Progestasert 1971
Function of IUD's– Increase phagocytosis MTP stands for–
of sperm, Inhibit fertilization Medical termination of pregnancy
Function of copper releasing IUD's is– 3.4 Sexually Transmitted Diseases
Inhibit fertilization The groups includes all sexually transmitted
Function of pills– Inhibit ovulation diseases– Gonorrhoea, hepatitis-B, Chlamydiasis
…… Hormones is present in OCD– From the sexually transmitted diseases mentioned
Progesterone, Estrogen below, identify the one which does not specifically
CuT is an intrauterine contraceptive device. Function affect the sex organs– AIDS
of Cu ions is– Cu ions suppress STDs related to– Pelvic inflammatory disease
sperm motility and the fertilizing Diseases that is not completely curable–
capacity of the sperms HIV infection and Genital Herpes
Spermicidal creams, jellies and foams are usually …. will not be useful at a prevention in acquiring
used along with the barrier methods to– STDs– Use of oral pills
Increase their contraceptive efficiency 3.5 Miscellaneous
Progestogen-estrogen pills helps in preventing Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due
pregnancy by not allowing– to in vitro fertilisation is transferred into– Uterus
Ova formation, Implantation The test-tube baby programme employs which one
The birth control device used by women are– of the techniques is–
Copper T Zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT)
321
 IVF followed by ET is called– ■ The permissible use of the technique amniocentesis is
Test-tube baby programme for– Detecting any genetic abnormality
ART is– IUDs, GIFT, ZIFT ■ The technique called gamete intrafallopian transfer
(GIFT) is recommended for those female– Who
Artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor
cannot produce an ovum
into the vagina– Artificial insemination means.
■ Egg implantation for in vivo fertilization is– GIFT
Though all persons are vulnerable to STIs, their (Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer)
incidences are reported to be very high among ■ Tying up or removing a small part of fallopian duct is
persons in the age groups of– 15-24 years called– Tubectomy
Sexually transmitted infections is/are not completely In ZIFT method, there is– Transfer of zygote
curable– or early embryo upto 8 blastomeres
AIDS, Genital herpes, Hepatitis-B Method of birth control is– IUD's
Complications due to various STIs may lead to Full form of the GIFT–
pelvic inflammatory diseases, still births.– Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer
Ectopic pregnancies. Artificial Insemination means–
The groups includes sexually transmitted infections Artificial introduction of sperms of a
is– Gonorrhoea, hepatitis-B, chlamydiasis healthy donor into the vagina
X is an incurable STI in .......... itching, pain and If male is impotent and female is normal then which
swellings in the genital region occurs. Its name is– of the technique can be used– AI
Genital herpes In vitro fertilization different from natural
Blood transfusion, Infected mother to fetus, Sexual fertilization in humans– In vitro fertilization
contact transmitted through– Hepatitis B. happens outside the body
The common means of transmission of AIDS is– IVF involves transfer into fallopian tube of–
Sexual intercourse, Blood transfusion, Zygote or embryo upto 8-celled stage
The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum
Placental transfer
is assisted by reproductive technology is called–
ICSI
The technique called Gamete Intra Fallopian A national level approach to build up a
Transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females– reproductively healthy society was taken up in our
Who cannot produce an ovum country in– 1950s
The technique that will be suitable for fertilisation Surgical procedure as a contraceptive method is–
where the male is having a very low sperm count– Vasectomy
Artificial insemination Lippe's loop is a type of contraceptive used as–
––––––– is include a number of special techniques Non-Medicated IUD
which assist infertile couples to have children– The embryos are transferred to assist those females
Assisted reproductive technologies (ART) that cannot conceive, the techniques are–
■ Improved programmes covering wider reproductive- ZIFT and IUT
related areas are currently in operation under the All sexual transmitted diseases–
popular name– RCH programmes Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes
■ Amniocentesis involves the analysis of– Progestogens alone or in combination with estrogens
Amniotic fluid can be used as a contraceptive in the form of–
■ Implants under the skin and injections are also used Pills, injections and implants
as contraceptive device. These device has– The hormone-releasing Intra-Uterine devices–
Progestogen-estrogen combination Progestasert, LNG-20
■ Amniocentesis is employed for determining– Sexually transmitted diseases is not completely
Hereditary curable– Genital herpes
abnormally in embryo Contraceptive methods do involve a role of
■ In vitro fertilisation is a technique that involves hormone– Lactational amenorrhea, Pills,
transfer of ________ into the fallopian tube– Emergency contraceptives
Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage The contraceptive 'SAHELI' – Blocks estrogen
■ The action of SAHELI is– receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs
Releasing progesterone prevents implantation from getting implanted
322
 EXAM POINT
Reproductive Health-Difficulty and strategies
Hysterectomy is surgical removal of– Uterus AIPMT-2015
Auxetic growth is seen in– Rotifers, Nematodes, Tunicates CMC Vellore-2013

Population Explosion
Multiload 375 is– An intra uterine device AP EAPCET-10.05.2023,
Shift-II
Phenonmenal and rapid increase of population in a short period is called– J&K CET-2009
Population explosion
When members of a population attain sexual maturity at different times MHT CET-2017
preventing inter-breeding, it is termed as____isolation. Seasonal
One of the causes population explosion is– Decrease in death rate, Karnataka CET-2014
maternal mortality rate and infant mortality rate
The sex ratio in India in 2000 stands– 1000 males per 960 females Rajasthan PMT-2001

Methods of Birth Control

The new oral contraceptive named Saheli for female was developed by the VMMC-2011
scientists of– CDRI, Lucknow
Oral contraceptive pill is composed of– Estrogen and progesterone AP EAMCET-25.04.2018
Shift-I / BVP-2002
WB JEE-2012
Oral contraceptive pills help in birth control by– Preventing ovulation Tripura JEE-2021, 2017,
DUMET-2010, 2008
Permanent contraception in human male is called– Vasectomy UP CPMT-2012
One of the side-effect of the use of anabolic steroids in females–Masculinisation Karnataka CET-2022
The hormone releasing IUD is– LNG 20 Karnataka CET-20.05.2023
GUJCET-2022 / NEET-2021,
Kerala PMT-2015 / AIPMT-
2014,
J&K CET-2013
Family planning program was launched in– 1952 JCECE-2018 / Karnataka
CET-2017
Cu-T prevents pregnancy by preventing– Fertilization AFMC-2010
Purpose of tubectomy is to prevent– Fertilization BCECE-2003
Most important component of oral contraceptive is– Progesterone JIPMER-2011 / Punjab MET-
2010 / BCECE-2003
Lippe loop is a type of contraceptive used as– Non-Medicated IUD NEET-2022
Oral contraceptive pills help in birth control by– Preventing ovulation AIIMS-2009
Saheli is an oral contraceptive pill that has very high contraceptive value with AIIMS-2014
little side effects. It is because– It contains centchroman
The contraceptive devices make uterus unsuitable for implantation– AIIMS-2013
Progestasert
One of the physical barrier in females– Vaults TS EAMCET-09.08.2021
Shift-I
The mechanical barrier that used in birth control is– Diaphragm Karnataka CET-2004

323
Cu ions released from copper-releasing Intra Uterine Devices (IUDs)– AIPMT (Screening)-2010
Suppress sperm motility
The control for human population methods can be used, such as– JIPMER-2012
Estrogen + Progesterone, IUCD and MTP, Tubectomy and Vasectomy
Depo-provera refers to– Injectable contraceptive JIPMER-2015
The contraceptives that could be effective in avoiding pregnancy if used within Karnataka CET-2020
72 hours after casual unprotected intercourse–
Progestogen – Estrogen combination
IUDs, …… are used by female. Karnataka CET-2014
Release copper ions in the uterus that increase phagocytosis of sperms
The birth control measure that can be considered as the safest– Karnataka CET-2006
Sterilization techniques
______ is natural category of contraceptive method. Coitus interrupts GUJCET-2020
Multiload 375 is _______ type of IUDs. Cu releasing GUJCET-2020
The birth control pill contains– Progesterone and estrogen MHT CET-2017
The sterilization procedure in human female is– Tubectomy MHT CET-2016
The technique used to block the passage of sperm in male– Vasectomy MHT CET-2014
The hormonal method for birth control is– Contraceptive Pill AMU-2014
With regard to Birth control methods in humans DMPA stands for– TS EAMCET-15.05.2016
Contraceptive injection
Progestasert is an IUD which makes the uterus unsuitable and cervix hostile to Karnataka CET-2015
the sperms as they are– Hormone releasing IUDs
Surgical removal of testes is termed as– Castration Rajasthan PMT-2001
CuT, LNG-20 and Cu7 are examples for– Intrauterine device (IUDs) Kerala PMT-2013

Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs)

In HIV infection, number of these cells progressively decrease in human beings– AP EAPCET-10.05.2023,
TH-cells Shift-II
The sexually transmitted infections that are completely curable– RE-NEET (UG)-06.06.2023
Syphilis and Trichomoniasis (Manipur)

The blood corpuscles, that the HIV undergoes replication and produces progeny NEET (UG) 07.05.2023
viruses is– TH cells
The common sexually transmitted diseases that is completely curable when NEET (UG) 07.05.2023
detected early and treated properly– Gonorrhoea
The sexually transmitted bacterial disease is– Syphilis Tripura JEE-2018 / CG PMT-
2005 / BVP-2002
The organisms causes that the sexual disease syphilis is– Treponema pallidum KVPY SA-2016 / Haryana
PMT-1999 / AMU-1999
Gonorrhoea, Hepatitis-B, Chlamydiasis are – Sexually transmitted diseases NEET-2020 Phase-I,
NEET-2020 Phase-II,
AMU-2012
It is a disease which mainly affects mucous membrane of urinogenital tract. In AMU-2012
males, burning feeling on passing urine, after a yellow discharge occurs, that is
accompanied by fever, headache and feeling of illness is– Gonorrhea
Direct contact, i.e. person to person direct or intimate contact is necessary for, CMC Ludhiana-2015
the diseases is– Syphilis
Hepatitis-B is also called– Serum jaundice BCECE-2003

324
The sexually transmitted diseases that is not completely curable– NEET-2019
Genital herpes
The sexually transmitted diseases that do not specifically affect reproductive organs– NEET (Odisha)-2019
AIDS and Hepatitis B
Genes for cytoplasmic male sterility in plants are generally located in– AIPMT-2003
Mitochondrial genome
The sexually transmitted disease, that can affect both the male and the female Karnataka CET-2012
genitals and may damage the eyes of babies born of infected mothers is–
Gonorrhoea
A sexually transmitted disease symptomised by the development of chancre on Karnataka CET-2008
genitals is caused by the infection of– Treponema pallidium
The T-cells that are destroyed by HIV is– Helper T-cells Uttarakhand PMT-2011
Treponema pallidum is responsible for– Syphilis Tripura JEE-2017
The appearance of chancre, rashes all over the body are the symptoms of– Karnataka CET-2013
Syphilis
Human Papilloma virus causes– Cervical cancer AP EAMCET-24.04.2019
Shift-I
Gonorrhoea is caused by– Neisseria gonorrhoeae Manipal-2005

Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)

MTPs are considered relatively safe during– First trimester of pregnancy Karnataka CET-20.05.2023
A process to determine any genetic disease of the embryo is known as – Karnataka CET-2022 /
Amniocentesis TS EAMCET-10.08.2021
Shift-I,
TS EAMCET-28.09.2020
Shift-II,
TS EAMCET-08.05.2019
Shift-I,
TS EAMCET-02.05.2018
Shift-II,
Karnataka CET-2016 /
VMMC-2014,
AMU-2003 / JIPMER-2002
Technique to know the sex congenital diseases and metabolic disorders is known AMU-1998
as– Amniocentesis
The test which is misused for identification of an unborn baby is– J&K CET-2007
Amniocentesis
Capacitation refers to changes in the– Sperm before fertilization AIPMT-2015
The permissible use of the technique amniocentesis is for – AIPMT (Screening)-2010
Detecting any genetic abnormality
Medical Termination of pregnancy (MTP) is considered safe up to how many AIPMT (Screening)-2011
weeks of pregnancy– Twelve weeks
In amniocentesis technique, which is used for biochemical assay to examine fluid UP CPMT-2014
karyotypically and to detect hereditary and chromosomal disorders in growing
foetus by pathologist– Amniotic fluid, Exfoliated foetal cells
Oral contraceptives are prescribed in females to check– Ovulation J&K CET-2004
In MOET (Multiple Ovulation and Embryo Transfer) at which cell stage TS EAMCET-02.05.2018
embryos are recovered non-surgically and transferred to surrogate mother– 8 - 32 Shift-II
In birth control methods, an Uterine Device is– LNG-20 TS EAMCET-2015

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Foetal sex can be determined by examining cells from the amniotic fluid by Assam CEE-2014
looking for– Barr bodies
High frequency sound waves are used in – Ultrasonography JCECE-2014, 2012
Non-invasive technique of genetic counseling is– Ultrasonography J&K CET-2001 / AMU 1996

Infertility and Test Tube Baby Programme

Test tube baby implies– Fertilisation in test tube and development in uterus BVP-2010,
JIPMER-1999,
AIPMT-1996
The cell stage a blastula that can be implanted in uterus in test tube baby Rajasthan PMT-1996 /
development– 32 cell VMMC-2014,
Rajasthan PMT-2009 / UP
CPMT-2009
In the production of test tube babies– Karnataka CET-2002
Fertilization is external and foetus formation is internal
The technique advised by a doctor to overcome the problem of infertility– ART Karnataka CET-2022
The first case of IVF-ET technique success, was reported by– Karnataka CET-2003
Patrick Steptoe and Robert Edward
Intra Ovarian Fertilisation (IOF) means fertilization– Manipal-2013
By putting pollens directly into ovary-wall
A childless couple can be assisted to have a child through a technique called AP EAPCET-12.07.2022
GIFT. The full form of this technique is– Gamete intra fallopian transfer Shift-I
AIPMT (Re-Exam)-2015
Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves transfer of– AIPMT-2014
Zygote into the fallopian tube
The process in which artificial introduction of sperms of healthy donor into the NEET-2013
vagina is called – Artificial insemination
The signals for parturition originate from – AIPMT (Screening)-2010
Placenta as well as fully developed foetus
The technique called gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) is recommended for AIPMT (Mains)-2011
those females– Who cannot produce an ovum
The stage transferred into the uterus after induced fertilization of ova in the NEET (Karnataka)-2013
laboratory is– Morula
In coelomates the problem of diffusion of food from gut to tissues is solved by– Manipal-2009
Developing a circulatory system
Intermediate community between pioneer and climax communities is called– Rajasthan PMT-2011
Seral community
The name of Norman Borlaug is associated with– Green Revolution AIPMT-2005
The ART method more than 8 blastomeres that are transferred into the uterus to GUJCET-2022
complete its further development– IUT
The most infertility problems are generally due to– Tripura JEE-2017
Inadequate sperm production, Failure of ovulation
The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum is called– ICSI Karnataka CET-2021,
JIPMER-2017
Surrogate mother is used for– Future mother with transplanted embryo BVP-2000
Testicular Sperm Aspiration (TESA) technique involves– MGIMS Wardha-2015
Collection of sperms from the testis surgically
The female that develops the offspring of another one in its womb is – TS EAMCET-02.05.2018
Surrogate mother Shift-I

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04.
PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE
AND VARIATION
4.1 Mendel's Law of Inheritance The reason for Mendel's success was–
Traits chosen by him had genes far
How many true breeding pea plant varieties did
mendel select as pairs, which were similar except in apart so that linkage was absent
one character with contrasting traits– 14 Genetics deals with– Heredity and variations
Among the seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea Heterozygous purple flower is crossed with
plant as studied by Mendel, the number of traits recessive white flower. The progeny has the ratio–
related to flower, pod and seed respectively were– 50% purple and 50% white
2, 2, 2 A cross between the heterozygous F1 hybrid and the
double recessive homozygous parent is known as–
The colour based contrasting traits in seven
Test cross
contrasting pairs, studied by Mendel in pea plant
were– 3 4.2 Inheritance of One Gene
............ pairs of contrasting traits were studied by A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with
Mendel in pea plant– 7 a dwarf true breeding garden pea plant. When the F1
Some of the dominant traits studied by Mendel plants were selfed the resulting genotypes were in
were– Violet flower colour, green pod the ratio of– 1 : 2 : 1 : : Tall homozygous :
colour and round seed shape Tall heterozygous : Dwarf
■ In Mendelian genetics _____ is the dominant– A child with mother of A blood group and father of
Green colour of pods AB blood group will not have the blood group– O
■ Genes _____ code for a pair of contrasting traits– ABO blood grouping in human beings cites the
example of– Co-dominance, Multiple allelism
Alleles
On crossing two heterozygous tall plants (Tt), a total
Mendel selected how many true breeding pea plant–
of 500 plants were obtained in F1 generation. What
14 be the respective number of tall and dwarf plants
Genotype is– obtained in F1 generation– 375, 125
Genetic composition of an individual ............ the probability of production of dwarf
Characters are control by discrete unit called– offsprings in a cross between two heterozygous tall
Factors pea plants– 25%
Some of the dominant traits studied by Mendel A tobacco plant heterozygous for a recessive
were– Violet flower colour, green pod colour, character is self-pollinated and 1200 seeds are
subsequently germinated. How many seedilings
round seed shape
would have the parental genotype– 600
An organism with two identical alleles is–
To determine the genotype of a tall plant of F2
Homozygous generation, Mendel crossed this plant wih a dwarf
In Mendel's experiments, colour of seed coat, nature plant. This cross represents a– Test cross
of flower, position of flower, colour of pod, height Mendel formulated the law of purity of gametes on
of stem, are called– Phenotype the basis of– Monohybrid cross
The unit of inheritance– Gene In Antirrhinum (dog flower), phenotypic ratio in F2
Gregor Mendel conducted hybridization experiments generation for the inheritance of flower colour
for– Seven years (1856–1863) would be– 1:2:1

327
 Phenotypic and genotypic ratio is similar in case of– The ratio of genotypic and phenotypic are same in–
Incomplete dominance Incomplete dominance
............... code for a pair of contrasting traits of Examples of co-dominance is–
same gene– Alleles Human blood group
A recessive allele is expressed in– Punnett square is used to know–
Homozygous condition only Probable result of a cross
The characters ........... appear in the first filial In a monohybrid cross between two heterozygous
generation are called– Dominant characters individuals, percentage of pure homozygous
■ In Mirabilis jalapa, the percentage of plants having individuals obtained in F1 generation is– 50%
pink and red flowers would be _____ when pink Crosses will give tall and dwarf plants in same
flower plant is test crossed– 50% pink & 0% red proportions– Tt × tt
■ In a certain taxon of insects some have 17 Types of gametes can be produced by a diploid
chromosomes and the other have 18 chromosomes. organism is heterozygous for 4 loci– 16
The 17 and 18 chromosomes bearing organisms are–
Test cross is a cross between–
Male and females, respectively
Hybrid × Recessive parent (Tt × tt)
■ The percentage inheritance of a disorder from an X-
Monohybrid ratio is– 3:1
linked diseased father to his son will be– 0%
A cross between F1 hybrid and a recessive parent (Tt
■ A colourblind female marries a normal male (XY)–
× tt) gives a ratio of– 1:1
All the sons are colourblind Multiple alleles are characterized by–
■ The ratio between carrier, disease free & diseased
More than two alternate forms of a gene
individual on marriage between two carriers of sickle
found at same locus
cell anaemia will be– 2:1:1
Genes located on same locus but having different
■ The frequency of pure round seeded pea plants in F1
expression are– Multiple alleles
generation of a dihybrid cross is– 4/16
A recessive trait in garden pea is–
■ _______ types of gametes are produced from
individual of AABBCcDdee genotype– 4 Wrinkled seeds
■ Test cross in plants or in Drosophila involves Multiple alleles control inheritance of–
crossing– The F1 hybrid with a recessive trait Blood groups
■ Dug flower plant is also known as– Snapdragon, A gamete normally contains–
Antirrhium One allele of a gene
■ A man with blood group 'A' marries a woman with Children have A and B types of blood, the blood
blood group 'B', the possible blood groups of their types of parents is–
offsprings– A, B, AB and O AB and O
Mendel work got rediscovered in– 1900 The cross used to test whether an individual is
Rediscovered the Mendel work by– De Vries, homozygous (pure) or heterozygous (hybrid) is
Correns, Von Tschermark called– Test cross
Hybrid of pure red flowered and white flowered pea Possible blood groups of children born to parents
is crossed to pure red flowered plant. The progeny having A and AB group are– A, B, AB
shall be– Red flowered Human blood grouping is ABO instead of ABC
When both alleles express their effect on being because O in it refers to–
present together, the phenomenon is called– No antigen A or B on RBCs
Co-dominance Monohybrid test cross ratio is– 1:1
A heterozygous tall plant is selfed. It produces both In Punnett square, the possible gametes are written
tall and dwarf plant. This confirms the Mendel's law on two sides, usually the–
called as– Law of segregation Top row and left columns
Example of incomplete dominance– An allele is dominant if it is expressed in both–
Snapdragon, Dog flower, Antirrhinum sp. Homozygous and Heterozygous states

328
 4.3 Inheritance of Two Genes ■ All genes located on the same chromosome–
In a cross between a male and female, both Form one linkage group
heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what ■ The term 'linkage' coined by– T.H. Morgan
percentage of the progeny will be diseased– 25% Homozygous plants for both dominant characters in
If a colour-blind man marries a woman who is F2 of a dihybrid cross, the ratio of– 1/16
homozygous for normal colour vision, the Mendel's law of independent assortment is based on
probability of their son being colour-blind is– 0 F2 ratio of– 9:3:3:1
Mendel's law of independent assortment holds good The percentage of ab gamete produced by AaBb
for genes situated on the– parent will be– 25%
Homologous chromosomes Plant YyRr is self pollinated, the result will–
Experimental verification of 'chromosomal theory of 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio of phenotypes only
inheritance' was done by– Morgan et al Percentage of heterozygous individuals obtained
Genes located very close to one another on same from selfing of Rr individuals is– 50
chromosome tend to be transmitted together and are F2 generation is produced by– Selfing the progeny
called– Linked genes of two individual parents
True about the crossing over between linked genes– Ratio 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 is due to– Dihybrid cross
Hardly any crossing over Polygenes show– Different phenotypes
Chromosome maps/genetic maps were first prepared Genotypic ratio of a dihybrid cross is–
by– Sturtevant (1911)
1:2:2:4:1:2:1:2:1
Statements is not true for two genes that show 50% Number of gamete types formed by AaBbCc
recombination frequency– individual/heterozygous for three gene loci is– 8
The genes are tightly linked The ratio of 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 is due to–
Mendel's law of independent assortment does not
Independent assortment of genes
hold true for the genes that are located closely on–
Chromosomal theory of inheritance is proposed by–
Same chromosome
Sutton and Boveri
If linkage was known at the time of Mendel then
A dihybrid ratio of 1 : 4 : 6 : 4 : 1 is obtained instead
which of the laws, he would not have been able to
of 9 : 3 : 3 : 1. This is an example of–
explain– Law of independent assortment
Polygenic inheritance
In Mendelian dihybrid cross, when heterozygous
round yellow are self crossed, round green offspring Morgan worked on drosophila because–
are represented by the genotype– Rryy, RRyy Short life span, Production of many offspring
Types of kinds, gametes can be produced by a by single mating
diploid organism who is heterozygous for 4 loci– 16 According to the law of independent assortment in a
Law of independent assortment can be explained dihybrid cross– There is a single individual
with the help of– Dihybrid cross which is homozygous recessive for
■ ______ different kinds of gametes will be produced both the characters
by a plant having the genotype AABbCC– Two For finding the different types of gametes produced
■ A diploid organism is heterozygous for 3 loci, ____ by genotype AaBb, it should be crossed with
types of gametes produced– 8 genotype– aabb
■ A marriage between a colourblind man and a normal Phenomenon of an allele of one gene suppressing the
woman produces– All carrier daughters and activity of allele of another gene is called–
normal sons Epistasis
■ A man whose father was colour blind marries a Source of mendelian recombinations is–
woman who had a colourblind mother and normal
Independent assortment
father, percentage of male children of this couple will
be colourbilind– 50% Behaviour of chromosome was shown by–
■ A women has an X-linked condition on one of her X Walter Sutton
chromosomes. This chromosome inherited by– When non - parental gene combine with itself;
Both sons and daughters termed as– Recombination

329
The parental gene combine with itself; termed as– Female heterogamy is shown by– Birds
Linkage Grasshopper in is an example of XO type of sex
Genetic map is one that– Establishes sites of determination in which the male have–
genes on a chromosome One X chromosome
Linkage in plants was first shown in– Haplodiploidy is found in……..
Lathyrus odoratus Honeybees, ants and wasps
Segregation of Mendelian factors (no linkage, no
4.4 Polygenic Inheritance and crossing over) occurs during– Anaphase I
Pleiotropy Grasshopper is an example of–
In polygenic inheritance– XO type of sex determination
Many genes govern a single character In human beings, 45 chromosomes/single X/XO
A pleiotropic gene– abnormality causes– Turner's syndrome
Controls multiple traits in an individual An autosome is–
The gene disorder phenylketonuria is an example Chromosome other than sex chromosome
for– Pleiotropy In Drosophila, the sex is determined by–
Genes with multiple phenotypic effects are known The ratio of number of X–chromosomes
as– Pleiotropic genes to the sets of autosomes
Pleiotropic gene has– Multiple phenotype C
A colour blind man (X Y) has a colour blind sister
A polygenic inheritance in human beings is– (XCXC) and a normal brother (XY). Genotype of
Skin colour father and mother is– XCY, XCX
Occasionally, a single gene may express more than The most suitable medium for culture of Drosophila
one effect. This is– Pleiotropy melanogaster is– Ripe Banana
Skin colour in humans is regulated by– Sex chromosomes of a female bird has been
3 dominant and 3 recessive genes designated as– Z and W
Phenylketonuria is caused by mutation in the gene In honeybee, the sex is determined by–
that codes for the enzyme– Whether the egg is fertilized or develops
Phenylalanine hydroxylase parthenogenetically
…….different kinds of gametes will be produced by 4.6 Mutation
a plant having the genotype AABbCC– Two
Change in genotype which may result in new
Inheritance of skin colour in human beings is an
expression of a characteristic is a– Mutation
example of– Polygenic Quantitative inheritance
Insertion or deletion of a single base causes–
4.5 Sex Determination Frame-shift mutation
XO type of sex determination can be found in– Rate of mutation is affected by– X-rays,
Grasshoppers Temperature, Gamma rays
XO type of sex determination and XY type of sex Classic example of point mutation is –
determination are the examples of– Sickle-cell anemia
Male heterogamety Gene mutations is caused by–
A couple has six daughters. What is the possibility Changes in sequence of nitrogenous bases
of their having a girl next time– 50%
Mutations result in– Death, Better varieties,
Number of autosomes present in liver cells of a
Change in genetic constitution
human female is– 22 pairs
Point mutation involves–
In XO type of sex determination–
Change in single base pair
Males produce two different types of gametes
Loss or gain of a segment of DNA results in–
An unfertilized egg in honeybees develops as a
Chromosomal aberrations
drone by means of– Parthenogenesis
Chromosomal aberrations are commonly observed
Male heterogamy is shown by– in. The type of cells is known as–
Grasshopper, Human being Cancer cells
330
A strong mutagen is– X-ray ■ A genetic disease is transferred from phenotypically
Shape of chromosomes is determined by position of– normal but carrier female is only some of the male
Centromere progeny, the disease is– Sex-linked recessive
Aneuploidy is– Gain or loss of a chromosome ■ Is sickle-cell anaemia, shape of RBCs under oxygen
tension becomes– Elongated and sickle shaped
Polyploidy is–
■ A genetic disease is– Phenylketonuria
Increase in whole set of chromosome,
The technique exployed in human genetic
Failure of cytokinesis after telophase stage
counselling is– Pedigree analysis
Total hereditary material outside the chromosome is
The disease is an autosomal recessive–
called– Plasmon
Phenylketonuria, Sickle cell anemia
4.7 Genetic Disorders The pedigree of Queen Victoria disease is–
Number of X-chromosome in Turner's syndrome Haemophilia
is/are– 1
Individual are affected by sickle cell anaemia is–
Klinefelter's syndrome is characterised by a
HbS HbS
karyotype of– XXY
Sickle cell anemia is– Autosomal recessive trait
Father of a child is colourblind and mother is carrier
for colourblindness, the probability of the child Sickle cell anemia is caused because of–
being colourblind is– 50% Substitution of glutamic acid by valine
A marriage between a colourblind man and a at 6th position of β- globin chain
normal woman produces– Down syndrome is– Presence of addition copy
All carrier daughters and normal sons of chromosome number 21
Red green colourblindness is a sex linked trait. Furrowed tongue, round head, broad palm,
Which of the given statements is not correct psychomotor are the symptoms of which disease–
regarding colourblindness– Down syndrome
Males can be carriers of the trait Turner's syndrome occurs in– Female
If a haemophilic man marries a carrier woman then Klinefelter's syndrome occurs in– Male
which of the holds true for their progenies–
Rudimentary ovary and lack of secondary sexual
50% daughters are carrier and characters are symptoms of– Turner's syndrome
50% are haemophilic In sickle - cell anaemia, shape of RBCs under
The possibility of a female becoming haemophilic is oxygen tension becomes– Sickle shape
extremely rare because mother of such a female has Haemophilia is a genetic disorder in which–
to be at least (i) and father should be (ii)–
Delayed coagulation of blood
(i) carrier, (ii) haemophilic
Extra chromosome 'X' is present in which one of the
Result of a cross between a normal homozygous following cases– Klinefelter syndrome
female and a haemophilic male would be–
Thalassemia is a/an–
Normal males and carrier females
Autosome-linked recessive disease
The amino acid that is substituted in sickle cell
Dominant trait is a– Rh+ factor
anaemia– Glutamic acid by valine in β-chain
Amino acid is substituted in sickle cell anaemia–
An individual affected by phenylketonuria lacks an
enzyme that converts the amino acid ......... into ....... Glutamic acid by valine in β-chain
Phenylalanine, tyrosine Haemophilic man marries a carrier woman.
Percentage of daughters becoming haemophilic shall
If both parents are carriers for thalassemia, which is
be– 50%
an autosomal recessive disorder, what are the
chances of pregnancy resulting in an affected child– Colour blindness is due to one–
25% Recessive allele in males
That caused by recessive autosomal genes when Down's syndrome is due to–
present in homozygous condition– Thalassemia, Non disjunction of chromosomes
Phenylketonuria, Sickle cell anaemia Klinefelter's syndrome has– 45 + XXY

331
β-thalassemia is controlled by a single gene HBB If a genetic disease is transferred from a
on– Chromosome 11 phenotypically normal but carrier female to only
Ratio of heterozygous, homozygous and hemizygous some of the male progeny, the disease is–
in offsprings of a colour blind husband & a carrier Sex-linked recessive
A B
wife– 1:1:1 Person having genotype I I show the blood group
Edward's syndrome characterized by mental as AB. This is because of– Codominance
deficiency is caused by trisomy of chromosome– ZZ/ZW type of sex determination is seen in–
18 Peacock
Pattern baldness, moustaches and beard in human A cross between two tall plants resulted in offspring
males are examples of– Sex limited traits having few dwarf plants. The genotypes of both the
A genetic disease in many Africans which reduces parents– Tt and Tt
the oxygen uptake by RBC is known as– In a dihybrid corss, if you get 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio it
Sickle-cell anaemia denotes that– The alleles of two genes are
In sickle-cell anaemia, glutamic acid is replaced by segregating independently
valine. One of the the triplet codes for valine– In the F1 generation of a Mendelian dihybrid cross
GUG the number of phenotypes and genotypes are–
A colour blind daughter is born in case of– Phenotypes-4, genotypes-9
The occurs due to the presence of autosome linked
Carrier mother, colour blind father
dominant trait– Myotonic dystrophy
A colourblind man marries a woman with normal
If a colour blind female marries a man whose mother
vision. The offspring will be–
was also colour blind, what are the chances of her
All sons & daughters normal but progeny having colour blindness–
daughters are carriers 100%
Defect in amino acid metabolism may result in– The production for gametes by the parents,
Phenylketonuria formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be
A woman with normal vision, but whose father was understood from a diagram called–
colour blind, marries a colour blind man. Suppose Punnett square
that the fourth child of this couple was a boy. This In a cross between a male and female, both
boy– May be colour blind heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, the
or may be normal vision percentage of the progeny will be diseased– 25%
Colour blindness is due to one– Experimental verification of the chromosomal theory
Recessive allele in males of inheritance was done by– Morgan
The number of contrasting characters studied by
4.8 Miscellaneous
Mendel for his experiments was– 7
The trait that is controlled by sex linked recessive
The best example for pleiotropy is–
genes– Haemophilia
Phenylketonuria
Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell
An individual has an overall masculine development,
division results in the gain or loss of chromosomes,
gynaecomastia, and is sterile, the genetic disorder
this is called– Aneuploidy
in– Klinefelter's syndrome
Failure of cytokinesis after telophase stage of cell
The frequency of recombination between gene pairs
division results in an increase in a whole set of
on the same chromosome as a measure of the
chromosomes in an organism. The phenomenon is
distance between genes was explained by–
called– Polyploidy
Alfred Sturtevant
All genes located on the same chromosome–
Inheritance of blood groups in humans, the
Form one linkage group characteristics represent – Dominance,
Conditions of a karyotype 2n + 1, 2n – 1 and 2n + 2, Co-dominance, Multiple dominance
2n – 2 are called– Aneuploidy A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her X
Distance between the genes and percentage of chromosomes. This chromosome can be inherited
recombination shows– A direct relationship by– Both sons and daughters
332
 EXAM POINT
Laws of Inheritance by Mendel
When a tall pea plant crossed with dwarf pea plant the F2 generation produced AP EAPCET-10.05.2023,
390 tall and 130 dwarf plants, then the plants that will show Heterozygous Shift-II
condition is– 260
Name the Mendel's factors and pair of contrasting traits– Genes and Alleles AP EAPCET-23.05.2023,
Shift-II
Heterozygous tall plants were crossed with dwarf plants, then the percentage of AP EAPCET-23.05.2023,
dwarf plants produced in the next progeny– 50 Shift-II
F1 generation resembles both the parents in this phenomenon is– Co-dominance AP EAPCET-11.05.2023,
Shift-I
The ratio of homozygous tall and dwarf plant in F2 generation in monohybrid AP EAPCET-22.05.2023,
cross is– 1:1 Shift-II
The experimental material in Mendels experiment was– Pisum sativum AMU-2015 / J&K CET-
2007
During the experiments, Mendel called genes by the term– Factors AMU-2015
Mendels principles rediscovered by– Correns UP CPMT-2010
First geneticist, father of genetics was– Mendel MGIMS Wardha-2007,
AIPMT-1991
The gene controlling seven traits in pea studied by Mendel were later found to be MGIMS Wardha-2014,
located on the number of chromosomes– Four AIPMT-2003
A common test to find the genotype of a hybrid is– Manipal-2012
Crossing of one F1 progeny with recessive parent
A gamete normally contains– One allele of a gene Karnataka CET-2002
Mendel conducted hybridisation experiments on garden peas for– 7 years J&K CET-2014
The term gene was coined by– Johannsen VMMC-2013 / BHU PMT
(Screening)-2009,
Uttarakhand PMT-2009
1 : 2 : 1 phenotypic and genotypic ratio is found in– Blending inheritance AMU-2011
Genes exhibiting multiple effects are known as– Pleiotropic genes BCECE-2014
The phenotypic variation is restricted to certain clear cut characteristics. This AMU-1998
variation is commonly known as– Qualitative inheritance
Genes are made up of– Polynucleotides Uttarakhand PMT-2009,
BHU PMT-2002
The term "allelomorphic" implies– A pair of contrasting character VMMC-2006 / CG PMT-
2004
The trait of garden pea studied by Mendel that was recessive feature is– CG PMT-2007 / Rajasthan
Green seed colour PMT-2007,
Uttarakhand PMT-2006 /
AIPMT-2003
The scientist that rediscovered Mendel's theory– E Von Tschermak CG PMT-2007
Genetics deals with– Heredity, Variation Haryana PMT-2002
The modified 15 : 1 phenotype ratio indicate– Duplicate genes JIPMER-1995
Who introduced the term‘Heterosis’– George Shull AP EAMCET-2001

333
The colour based contrasting traits in seven contrasting pairs studied by Mendel AMU-2012
in pea were– 3
Some of the dominant traits studied by Mendel were– AMU-2012
Violet flower color, green pod color, round seed shape
Among the seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plant, studied by Mendel, the AMU-2012
number of traits related to flower, pod and seed respectively was– 2, 2, 2
Mendel observed that certain characters did assort independently. Later CG PMT-2006
researchers found it to be due to– Linkage
Pure line breed refers to– Homozygosity Tripura JEE-2017 / MGIMS
Wardha-2011,
Punjab MET-2011 / AIIMS-
2007
Genes are responsible for the growth and differentiation in an organism through DUMET-2001
regulation of– Translation and transcription
Externally observable characters of an individual are called– Phenotype DUMET-2001
A cell is heterozygous at three gene loci. Total number of different type of DUMET-2001
gamete can it form– 8
An organism with two different alleles for a gene is – CG PMT-2010
Heterozygous for that trait
Natural selection acts on an organism’s is– Phenotype CG PMT-2010
Alternate forms of a gene is known as – Alleles AP EAMCET-24.09.2020
Shift-II,
VMMC-2007 / Rajasthan
PMT-2005
Law of segregation of gametes was proposed by– Mendel HP CET-2012
The branch of science related with improvement of mankind by genetics is– BCECE-2002
Eugenics
Mendel enunciated– Three principles of inheritance MGIMS Wardha-2013
In Mendelian monohybrid cross, phenotypic ratio in F2 is 3 : 1. Total number of MGIMS Wardha-2013
gametes are formed in F1 - generation– Two types
The offsprings obtained by mating two pure strains having constrasting MGIMS Wardha-2013
characters are called as– Hybrids
Polyploidy leads to rapid formation of new species because of– Manipal-2006
Development of multiple sets of chromosomes
Terminal flower will produce in garden pea when crossed– Aa × Aa JIPMER-2013
The differences between parents and offspring, among offsprings of the same MHT CET-06.10.2020
parents and individuals of the same species are called– Variations Shift-I
The ratio for test cross in dihybrid experiment of Mendel is– 1:1:1:1 GUJCET-2018
The type of gene that regulate sex-determination in spinach plant is– Single gene GUJCET-2015
A condition where a certain gene is present in only a single copy in a diploid cell Karnataka CET-2008
is called– Hemizygous
The visual display of chromosomes arranged by size, shape and banding pattern SRM JEEE-2019
is called as– Karyotype
According to Mendelism the character which shows dominance– AIPMT-2000
Green pod colour WB JEE-2006

334
AA Bb Cc genotypes form total number of types of gametes is– 4 AIPMT-1998
If Mendel might have studied 7 pairs of characters in a plant with 12 AIPMT-1998
chromosomes instead of 14 then–
He could not have discovered independent assortment
A child has single kidney since birth. This variation is– Negative meristic VMMC-2005 / AMU-2004 /
BVP-2003
Differentiation of organs and tissues in a developing organism, is associated Rajasthan PMT-2010
with– Differential expression of genes
Biometric genetics deals with– The inheritance of quantitative traits AMU-2002
The theory of random genetic drift was proposed by– Sewall Wright J&K CET-2011
Light coloured peppered moth/Biston betularia gets changed to its darker Uttarakhand PMT-2006
carbonaria variety due to– Mutation of single Mendelian gene
for survival in smoke laden industrial environment
In the F2 generation of a dihybrid cross of homozygous parents, the number of MHT CET-01.10.2020
genotypes and phenotypes will be respectively– Shift-I
Phenotype -4; Genotype -9
In his seminal work on genetics, Gregor Mendel described the physical traits in KVPY (SA)-2010
the pea plant as being controlled by two factors’ The term that is used to define
these factors today– Alleles
The production of gametes by the parents, the formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 NEET (Odisha)-2019
plants, can be understood from a diagram called – Punnet square
The period for Mendel's hybridization experiments is– 1856 - 1863 NEET-2017
Crossing the F1 hybrid with a double recessive genotype is called – Test cross AIPMT-2006
Phenotype of an organism is the result of– AIPMT-2006
Genotype and environment interactions
Genetic variation cannot be effectively brought by– Amplification JIPMER-2019
Total number of different types of gametes will be formed by a pea plant with MHT CET-2017
genotype TtYy is– 04
During hybridization offsprings with hybrid vigour superior to both parents are MHT CET-2016
self- pollinated for few successive generations to get– Homozygosity
The total number of types of gametes produced in a cross between a negro and MHT CET-2014
albino parent is– 08
During meiosis, the alleles of the parental pair separate or segregate from each Kerala PMT-2011
other. Total number of allele (s) are then transmitted to a gamete– One
Allelic sequence variations where more than one variant (allele) at a locus in Kerala PMT-2011
human population with a frequency greater than 0.01 is referred to as–
DNA polymorphism
The loss of a chromosomal segment is due to– Deletions Kerala PMT-2011
Coined the term allele by– Bateson AP EAMCET-24.09.2020
Shift-II
Genes were first artificially synthesized by– Khorana J&K CET-2005
The three scientists who rediscovered the Mendels law were– Rajasthan PMT-1997
Hugo de Vries, Carl Correns and Tschermak
An example of sex-influenced inheritance is– Baldness Uttarakhand PMT-2010
Meiosis in AaBb will produce gametes– AB, aB, Ab, ab JCECE-2004

335
Pea plants were more suitable than dogs for Mendels experiment, because– CMC Vellore-2011
Pea plants can be self fertilized
Mendel was successful in discovering the principles of inheritance as– J&K CET-2011
He did not encounter linkage between the genes
for the characters he considered
In human being brown eye (B) is dominant over blue eye (b). A brown-eyed AP EAMCET-24.09.2020
couple has a blue-eyed child. What are the possible genotypes of the couple– Shift-I
Bb × Bb

Inheritance of one Gene

Genotype of dominant trait of plant can be determined by crossing F1 hybrid with AP EAPCET-22.05.2023,
the parent and the genotypic ratio is– Shift-I
Homozygous recessive trait 1 : 1
When two mutations are located in the same functional unit or different WB JEE-2006
functional units then it is confirmed by– Complementation test
If a child is of blood group -O and his father is of blood group -B, the genotype VMMC-2011
of father will be– I°IB
If a cross is made between AA and aa, the nature of F1 progeny will be– UP CPMT-2004
Genotypically Aa, phenotypically A
A woman with straight hair marries a man with curly hair who is known to be CMC Vellore-2013,
heterozygous of the trait. What is the chance that their first child will have curly BCECE-2011
hair– One in two
The percentage of heterozygous individuals obtained from selfing Rr individual, BCECE-2011
is– 50
When a negro marries white, total number of phenotypes are obtained– 7 VMMC-2013
In pigs, white coat (W) is dominant to black (w). Two white pigs are breed to AMU-2008
procedure 9 white and 2 black pigs. The genotype of the parents is–
Ww × Ww
In Mirabilis jalapa when two pink flowered plants were crossed with each other, JIPMER-1995
the F2 generation produced 40 red, 80 pink and 40 white flowering plants. This is
a case of– Incomplete dominance
Extra nuclear inheritance is a consequence of presence of genes in– CG PMT-2006
Mitochondria and chloroplasts
The dominant among the wing sizes in Drosophila is– Normal wings MHT CET-07.10.2020
Shift-I
The dominant epistasis ratio is– 12:3:1 JIPMER-2014
In man, the blue eye colour is recessive to the brown eye colour. If the boy has Karnataka CET-2007
brown eye and his mother is blue eyed, what would be the phenotype of his
father– Brown eye
F2 generation in a Mendelian cross showed that both genotypic and phenotypic AIPMT (Screening)-2012
ratio are same as 1 : 2 : 1. It represents a case of–
Monohybrid cross with incomplete dominance
A plant which lives on rocks under water with photosynthetic roots is– AP EAMCET-2004
Podostemom
A plant of F1-generation has genotype "AABbCC". On selfing of this plant what AIPMT-2002
is the phenotypic ratio in F2-generation– 3:1

336
The genotype of a husband and wife are AB & AO. Among the blood of their Karnataka CET-2021
children, how many different genotypes & phenotypes are possible–
4 genotypes; 3 phenotypes
A self-fertilizing trihybrid plant forms– AIPMT-2004
8 different gametes and 64 different zygotes
A gene is said to be dominant if– AIPMT-2002
It is expressed both in homozygous and heterozygous condition
Cross between AaBB and aaBB will form– 1AaBB : 1aaBB AIPMT-1990
If a gene has four alleles, number of expected genotypes is– 10 TS EAMCET-29.09.2020
Shift-I

Law of Dominance
The characters that studied by Mendel in garden pea was found to be dominant Haryana PMT-2010,
is– Green pod colour AFMC-2007
In pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a heterozygous yellow AIPMT-2007
seeded plant is crossed with a green seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green
seeded plants would you expect in F1 generation– 50 : 50
A tall plant was grown in nutrient deficient soil and remained dwarf, when it is AP EAMCET-2011
crossed with dwarf plant, then– All hybrid plants are tall
A homozygous red flower is crossed with recessive white. Red is dominant over BVP-2004
white. The progeny in the F1 generation will be– All red VMMC-2006 / CPMT-2004
/ AIIMS-2002
Incomplete dominance is found in– Antirrhinum majus CG PMT-2005

Law of Segregation
A pea with white flower was crossed with another pea with white flower. When they MGIMS Wardha-2014
selfed the F2 - generation produced purple and white in the ratio of 9:7. The reason
for the result is that– It is a complementary factor
Mendel's principle of segregation means that the germ cells always receive– DUMET-2011,2010
One of the paired alleles
The best suited for co dominance is– Both are dominance DUMET-2008

In order to find out the different types of gametes produced by a pea plant having JIPMER-2007
the genotype AaBb, is should be crossed to a plant with the genotype– aabb
The characteristic feature of Dog flower plant shows incomplete dominance– GUJCET-2021
Colour of the flower
Test cross is the cross between phenotypically dominant F1 hybrid with– Assam CEE-2014
Recessive parent
AB blood group shows– Codominance JIPMER-2018
One of the reasons why law of segregation of gametes is universally applicable, MHT CET-2019
is– Gametes are haploid in higher organisms
In order to know the genotype of a dominant phenotype. It is crossed with a TS EAMCET-03.05.2018
recessive parent. The cross resulted in 50% of recessive phenotypes. The Shift-I
genotype of the dominant phenotype used in the test cross is– Ww
Leaf colour in Mirabilis jalapa is an example of– Non-Mendelian inheritance DUMET-2006

337
 Inheritance of Two Gene
Mutation is more common when it is present in– Dominant condition Punjab MET-2009
A man with blood group B marries a women with blood group A and their first UP CPMT-2004
child is having blood group B. What is the genotype of child– I B Io
A dwarf pea plant in which bolting has occurred is crossed with a tall pure pea BHU PMT (Mains)-2009
plant. What will be the phenotypic ratio in F1 generation– 100% tall plants
When a tall and red flowered individual is crossed with a dwarf and white BHU PMT-2001
flowered individual, phenotype of the progeny will be–
Heterozygous tall and red
In a dihybrid cross between RRYY and rryy-parents, the number of RrYy J&K CET-2008
genotypes in F2 generation will be– 4
The genotype will show darkest kernel in wheat is– AABB MHT CET-06.10.2020
Shift-I
Polygenic concept of inheritance was first experimentally shown by– AMU-2003
Nilsson Ehle
Walter Sutton is famous for his contribution to– UP CPMT-2013
Chromosomal theory of inheritance
In which complementary gene interaction ratio of 9 : 7 is observed– Kerala PMT-2009
Flower colour in pea
If a plant having yellow or round seeds was crossed with another plant having JIPMER-2005
green and wrinkled seeds then F1 progeny are in the ratio–
All yellow and round seeds

Law of Independent Assortment

Some individuals with blood group A may inherit the genes for blond hair, while AFMC -2009
other individuals with blood group A may inherit the gene for brown hair. This
can be best explained by the principle of– Indepemdent assortment
Change in the number of body parts is called– Meristic variation Uttarakhand PMT-2009
Mendels law of independent assortment can be proved by– Dihybrid cross CMC Vellore-2014,
Rajasthan PMT-1998
A dihybrid ratio of 1 : 4 : 6 : 4 : 1 is obtained instead of 9 : 3 : 3 : 1. This is an Haryana PMT-2002
example of– Polygenic inheritance
Mendel studies inheritance of seven pairs of traits in pea which can have 21 AIPMT-1993
possible combinations. If you are told that in one of these combinations,
independent assortment is not observed in later studies, your reaction will be–
Mendel might not have studied all the combinations
Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance
Experimental verification of chromosomal theory of inheritance was done by– AP EAPCET-23.05.2023,
Thomas Hunt Morgan Shift-I
This is the cross between F1 generation and either of their parents– Back cross AP EAPCET-23.05.2023,
Shift-I
The animals possesses giant chromosome is– Drosophila WB JEE-2012
The chromosome theory of heredity was proposed by– Sutton and Boveri Rajasthan PMT-1995,
NEET Re Exam-
04.09.2022,
Tripura JEE-2019

338
X-chromosomes of female in a sex- linked inheritance case can be passed on to– CMC Ludhiana-2008
Male and female progeny
The fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster was found to be very suitable for AIPMT (Mains)-2010
experimental verification of chromosomal theory of inheritance by Morgan and
his colleagues because– It completes life cycle in about two weeks
Balbiani rings are the structural features of– Polytene chromosomes JIPMER-2010
Taylor conducted the experiments to prove semi conservative mode of NEET-2016 Phase-II
chromosome replication on– Vicia faba
The chromosome number in meiocyte is 34. The organism could be– Apple Karnataka CET-2015
Chromosome consists of– DNA and histone Rajasthan PMT-2001
Genotypic and phenotypic ratio in monohybrid cross remains same in case of– J&K CET-2011
Intermediate inheritance

Linkage and Recombination

‘Gene-mapping’ technology was developed by– Sturetevent Karnataka CET-20.05.2023
The term 'linkage' was coined by– Thomas Hunt Morgan TS EAMCET 10.05.2023
Shift-I
The unit of recombination is– Recon Rajasthan PMT-1996
When a cluster of genes show linkage behavior they– BVP-2008 / Rajasthan PMT-
do not show independent assortment 2007,
Uttarakhand PMT-2007 /
AIPMT-2003
Percentage of recombination between A and B is 9%, A and C is 17%, B and C VMMC-2013 / AIIMS-2009
is 26%, then the arrangement of genes is– BAC
Crossing over in diploid organisms is responsible for– BVP-2012 / MGIMS Wardha-
Recombination of linked genes 2007

The formulated the chromosomal theory of linkage by– MGIMS Wardha-2014

T H Morgan and W Castle
The exception of Mendel's law of segregation is– Linkage JIPMER-1998 / J&K CET-
2006,
Punjab MET-2006 / JCECE-
2003,
Rajasthan PMT-2002
Genes when close together on a chromosomes are known as– Linkage Kerala PMT -2015 / DUMET-
2008
Father of experimental genetics is– T.H. Morgan VMMC-2014
Depending upon the distance between any two genes which is inversely AMU-2012
proportional to the strength of linkage, cross overs will vary from– 0 - 50 %
An inheritable change in genetic material is known as – Mutation MHT CET-06.10.2020
Shift-I
An example of complete sex linkage is– Myopia MHT CET-06.10.2020
Shift-I
Recombination is involved in the process of– Crossing over DUMET-2009
In sex-linkage the specialty is– Criss cross inheritance Haryana PMT-2003
In male human, total linkage of groups occur in their chromosome is– 24 CG PMT-2010

339
Lack of independent assortment of two genes A and B in fruitfly Drosophila is CMC Ludhiana-2009 / AFMC-
due to– Linkage 2008,
JCECE-2009,2014 / AMU-
2007 / CG PMT-
2006,
Manipal-2007,2013,2014 / WB
JEE-2006
Two genes R and Y are located very close on the chromosomal linkage map of AIPMT-2007
maize plant. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridized, the F2 segregation
will show– Higher number of the parental types
In Morgan's experiment with Drosophila, when yellow bodied white eyed female Karnataka CET-2019
was crossed with brown bodied red eyed male and their F1 progeny were
intercrossed. What was the percentage of recombinants in F2 generation– 37.2%
Irregularity is found in Drosophila, during the organ differentiation for example, AIPMT-2000
in place of wing, long legs are formed. The gene that is responsible for–
Homeotic gene
A and B genes are linked. What shall be genotype of progeny in a cross between AIPMT-2001
AB/ab and ab/ab– AaBb and aabb
Ratio of complementry genes is– 9:7 AIPMT-2001
Genetic recombination is due to– Fertilization and meiosis Rajasthan PMT-2005, 2006
'
Linkage is contradictory to the Mendel s law of– Independent assortment Tripura JEE-2017
Linked genes HBA1 and HBA2 are located on the pair of chromosomes is– 16 GUJCET-2021
Maize has ten pairs of chromosomes. Total number of linkage groups will be AIIMS-1994
present, if all the genes are mapped– 10
Crossing over that results in genetic recombination in higher organisms occurs AIPMT-2004
between– Non-sister chromatids of a bivalent
The recessive genes located on the X-chromosomes in humans are always– AIPMT-2004,
Manipal -2007
Expressed in males
The frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome as NEET-2019
a measure of the distance between genes was explained by– Alfred Sturtevant
The map that unit (Centimorgan) is adopted in the construction of genetic maps– NEET-2019
A unit of distance between genes on chromosomes,
representing 1% cross over
The movement of a gene from one linkage group to another is called– AIPMT-2015
Translocation
A gene showing codominance has– AIPMT (Re-Exam)-2015
Both alleles independently expressed in the heterozygote
Primary source of allelic variation is– Recombination AIIMS-2005
The distance between two genes in a chromosome is measured in cross-over AIIMS-2008
units the represent is– Percentage of crossing over between them
The suitable for experiment on linkage is– AABB×aabb AIPMT-1993
Crossing over is the exchange of genetic material between– J&K CET-2011
Non-sister chromatids of the homologous chromosomes
When two genetic loci produce identical phenotypes in cis and trans position Punjab MET-2005
they are considered to be– Pseudoalleles
The information is essential to determine the genetic map distance between two WB JEE-2015
genes located on the same chromosome is–Percentage of crossing
over or recombinant frequency between the two genes

340
 Sex Determination
The Drosophila with the karyotype AAA+XX is– Intersex genotype AP EAPCET-11.05.2023,
Shift-II
AP EAMCET-28.04.2017
Shift-I
The symbols are used for representing chromosome of birds is– ZZ-ZW JCECE-2008
A couple has 6 children, 5 are girls and 1 is boy. The percentage of having a girl AFMC-2000
on next time is– 50%
Y- chromosome present in– Male Rajasthan PMT-1996
The type of sex determination is found in grasshopper– XX-XO type UP CPMT-2010
Autosomes in humans are– 22 pairs BVP-2012 / MGIMS
Wardha-2007,
CG PMT-2007 / Manipal-2001
Sex chromosomes are also known as– Allosomes AMU-2005 / Manipal-2004
Drosophila flies with XXY genotype are females, but human beings with such AFMC-2007
genotype are abnormal males. It shows that–
Y-chromosome is male determining in human beings
Number of Barr- bodies in XXXX female is– Three BHU PMT (Screening)-2010
Gene TDF occurs in– Y-chromosome AMU-2011
Drosophila melanogaster has– 3 pair of autosomes and CG PMT-2007 / VMMC-
one pair of sex chromosomes 2006
According to genic balance theory of Bridges X/A = 1.5 will make the VMMC-2006 / BCECE-
individual– Meta or Super female 2001
In man, the normal number of chromosomes are– 46 CG PMT-2007
The twenty third pair of chromosomes in man is known as– Heterosome AP EAMCET-2004
Male sex is determined in human zygote by– Haryana PMT-2002
Chromosome composition of sperm
Ishihara chart is used to detect– Colour blindness Haryana PMT-2005
In upon amniocentesis of a pregnant woman, it is found that the embryo contains Haryana PMT-2004
both, Barr body and F-body. The syndrome likely to be associated with the
embryo is– Klinefelters syndrome
When an animal has both the characters of male and female, it is called– AMU-2006
Gynandromorph
Result of reciprocal crosses are different in– Cytoplasmic inheritance JIPMER-1995
Based on the experiments conducted by Bridges on Drosophila, the female sex of AP EAMCET-2001
the Drosophila is determined by the genes located on which chromosome– X
Chromosomal mechanism of sex determination in human beings is called– MHT CET-06.10.2020
Heterogamesis Shift-I
Two sets of chromosomes are found in – Diploid cells DUMET-2009
In human sex determination the key factor is– Y-chromosome VMMC-2010
An example for sex influenced inheritance– Baldness AP EAMCET-2002
In Drosophila the XXY condition leads to femaleness where as in human beings BVP-2015
the same condition leads to Klinefelters’s syndrome in male. It proves–
In human beings Y-chromosome is active in sex determination
When released from ovary, human egg contain– One X chromosome AFMC-2006
341
The chromosomal basis of sex determination was discovered in the plant– VMMC-2015
Melandrium
A colourblind mother and normal father would have– BVP-2012
Colour blind sons and normal/carrier daughters
Barr body is associated with– Sex chromosome of female VMMC-2007,
Rajasthan PMT-2007
In human the inheritance of sex linkage takes place through– MGIMS Wardha-2003
Y - chromosome, X - chromosome
Sex determination in humans takes place by– Sex chromosomes of father MGIMS Wardha-2003
Human female possess 44 + XX chromosomes. The secondary oocyte shall Manipal-2006
have– 22 + X
Excessive growth of hair on the pinna is a feature found only in males because– Karnataka CET-2008
The gene responsible for the character is present
on the Y chromosome only
The conditions that of the zygotic cell would lead to the birth of a normal human AIPMT (Mains)-2011
female child– Two X chromosomes
Drumstick Barr bodies are found in– Some neutrophils of females AP EAMCET-2010
Human chromosome number was determined correctly by– Tjio and Levan AMU-1997
Pattern baldness, moustaches and beard in human males are examples of– AMU-2007
Sex limited traits
X-chromosomes of female in a sex-linked inheritance case can be passed on to– AMU-2007
Male and female progeny AMU-1998
In humans dosage compensation– AMU-2015
Brings about equality in X–coded gene product
Mental retardation in man associated with sex chromosomal abnormality is AMU-2002
usually due to– Increase in X complement
Sex chromosomes of male bird are– ZZ MHT CET-08.10.2020
Shift-I
‘Sex-determination’, in humans is identified by– GUJCET-2023
Germ cell → sex chromosomes
A boy receives his X-chromosome from– His mother only Uttarakhand PMT-2011
XO type of sex determination can be found in– Grasshoppers NEET-2022 / Kerala PMT-
2011
A man can inherit which chromosome from his maternal grand mother or Kerala PMT-2008
maternal grand father – X chromosome
Genes present on Y-chromosome are called– Holandric gene AIIMS-1997 / Assam CEE-
2014
BVP-2001
What should be avoided in biological marriages– A+ boy and A– girl Uttarakhand PMT-2006
Sex is determined in human beings– At time of fertilisation AIPMT-1993
A family of five daughters only is expecting sixth issue. The chance of its being a AIPMT-1988
son is– 50%
Genetic identity of a human male is determined by– Y-Sex-chromosome AIPMT-1997
A fruit fly is heterozygous for sex linked genes, when mated with normal female AIPMT-1997
fruit fly, the males specific chromosome will enter egg cell in the proportion–
1:1

342
Chromosomal constitution of normal human female can be written as– MHT CET-2019
44 + XX
Peacock shows genotype– ZZ MHT CET-2016,
AP EAPCET-07.09.2021
Shift-I
The type of sex determination in honey bee is– Haplo-diploidy Karnataka CET-2017
Double lines in pedigree analysis show– Consanguineous marriage Karnataka CET-2015
Chromosome other than sex chromosome is known as– Autosome Rajasthan PMT-2001
Super male and super female type determination of sex in Drosophila is based CG PMT-2004
on– Genic balance
A hereditary disease which is never passed on from father to son is– JIPMER-2011
X-chromosomal linked disease
A woman with two genes (one on each X-chromosome) for haemophilia and one JIPMER-2011
gene for colour blindness on the X-chromosome marries a normal man. How will
the progeny be–
50% haemophilic colourblind sons and 50% haemophilic sons
Mutations in Oenothera lamarckiana plants was first identified by– AP EAPCET-11.05.2023,
Hugo de Vries Shift-I
Change in one base in mRNA leading to termination of polypeptide is known as Uttarakhand PMT-2007
which type of mutations– Nonsense mutation
The major cause of evolution of genes and protein is– Point mutation DUMET-2010
The point mutations A to G, C to T, C to G and T to A in DNA are– JIPMER-1997
Transition, transition, transversion and transversion respectively
XO type of sex determination and XY type of sex determination are the Karnataka CET-2022
examples of– Male Heterogamety
Forthcoming generations are less adapting than their parental generation due to– BHU PMT (Screening)-
Mutation 2010,
UP CPMT-2009
Haploids are more suitable for mutation studies than the diploids. This is BHU PMT (Screening)-
because– All mutations, whether dominant or recessive 2010
are expressed in haploids
Mutation is more common when it is present in– Dominant condition Rajasthan PMT-2009,
MGIMS Wardha-2005
When purine substituted by pyrimidine, the resulting mutation is– AMU-1998
Transversion mutation
Mutation theory to explain mechanism of evolution was given by Hugo de Vries VMMC-2006
and he experimented on– Evening primrose
When the discovery is made by accident and unexpectedly the phenomenon is Haryana PMT-2002
called– Serendipity
The mutagenic agent is– 2, 4-D Haryana PMT-2009
MGIMS Wardha-2009
de Vries gave his mutation theory on organic evolution, while working on– JIPMER-2007,
Oenothera lamarckiana CG PMT-2006
Normally DNA molecule has A-T, G-C pairing. However, these bases can exist DUMET-2001
in alternative valency status, owing to rearrangement called–
Tautomerisational mutation
343
Mutation generally produces– Recessive genes Haryana PMT-2010
Allelic sequence variation where more than one variant allele at a locus in a JIPMER-2014
human population with a frequency greater than 0.01 is referred to as–
DNA polymorphism
Generally used for induced mutagenesis in crop plants is– SRM JEEE-2018 /
Gamma rays (from cobalt 60) JIPMER-2007
Responsible for hot spots for spontaneous point mutations is– 5-bromouracil JIPMER-2015
Change occurs by changing one base in DNA is– AIPMT-1999
Does not necessarily change the phenotype
If a diploid cell is treated with colchicines then it becomes– Tetraploid AIPMT-2002
Euploidy is best explained by– Exact multiple of a haploid set of chromosomes AMU-2009
Rarely observed phenotype in population is called– Mutant type MGIMS Wardha-2011
The formation of multivalent at meiosis in dipioid organism is due to– BHU PMT (Mains)-2006,
Reciprocal translocation 2010
If mutation changes codon in such a way that there is no effect on functioning SRM JEEE -2017
and overall structure of protein. This type of mutation is termed as–
Silent mutation
Theory of 'saltations' was given by– Hugo de Vries AIIMS-2011
One of the parents of a cross has mutation in its mitochondria. In that cross, the Manipal-2014
parent is taken as male. During segregation of F2 progenies that mutation is
found in– None of the progenies
Identify the mutation and the amino acid involved in causing sickle cell anaemia TS EAMCET-31.07.2022
disease– Point mutation, Valine Shift-II
H.J. Muller had received Nobel prize for– Haryana PMT-2000
Discovering the induced mutations by X-rays
The effect of todays radioactive fallout will probably be more harmful to children Punjab MET-2005
of future generation than to children now living because–
Mutated genes are frequently recessive
A mutagen pollutant is– Hydrocarbons Punjab MET-2005

Genetic Disorders
Down’s syndrome is due to– Trisomy of 21st chromosome
Sickle cell anemia is an example of– Pleiotrophy TS EAMCET 10.05.2023
Shift-I
Trisomy of 18th chromosome causes– Edwards syndrome AP EAPCET-23.05.2023,
Shift-II
Chromosome which represents Klinefelters syndrome is– XXY Manipal-2012 / WB JEE-
2006,
BCECE-2002 / AFMC-2002
XO chromosomal abnormality in humans causes– Turners syndrome Rajasthan PMT-2009 /
Punjab MET-
2009,
CMC Vellore-2009 / UP
CPMT-2009,
AIIMS-2007, 1999 /
MGIMS Wardha-2003

344
The most common type of haemophilia results from the congenital absence of– UP CPMT-2004
Factor-VIII
Defect in amino acid metabolism may results in– Phenylketonuria UP CPMT-2004
In man, which of the genotypes and phenotypes may be the correct result of SRM JEE-2017 / UP
aneuploidy in sex chromosomes– 22 pairs + XXY males CPMT-2004
The condition that is called monosomic– 2n – 1 WB JEE-2010
If a boys father has haemophilia and his mother has one gene for haemophilia, Punjab MET-1999
what is the chance that the boy will inherit the disease– 50%
Number of chromosomes in Down syndrome is– 47 AFMC-2005
Sex linked disease is– Colour blindness, Haemophilia BCECE-2008,
UP CPMT-2003
The loss of one single chromosome creates a condition called– Monosomy VMMC-2013
If a haemophilic carrier female marries a normal man, the chances are that– MGIMS Wardha-2014
50% of the sons will have haemophilia
Balbiani rings are the structural features of– Polytene chromosomes Karnataka CET-2002
The gene for haemophilia is known to be located on– X chromosome Rajasthan PMT-2004
JIPMER-1997
Gynecomastia is a symptom of– Klinefelter's syndrome Karnataka CET-2022,2013,
JIPMER-2019,
Kerala PMT-2008
A haemophilic man marries a normal homozygous woman what is the AMU-2011
probability that their son will be haemophilic– 0%
Both sickle cell anaemia and Huntingtons chorea are– Congenital disorders BCECE-2014,2013 / BHU
PMT(Mains)-
2010,
AFMC-2008
Absorption of toxic amounts of iron due to a genetically defective control AMU-1998
mechanisms is known as– Hemochromatosis
Haemophilic man marries a carrier woman. Percentage of daughter becoming VMMC-2006 / Haryana
haemophilic shall be– 50% PMT-2002
The Christmas disease patient lacks antihaemophilic– Factor IX Karnataka CET-2003
Queen Victoria of England was– Haemophilic carrier Haryana PMT-2002 /
Karnataka CET-2000
The genotype that will indicate colour blindness in male– Xc Y Haryana PMT-2002
Albinism is caused by deficiency of– Tyrosinase Haryana PMT-2005
A woman has haemophilic son and three normal children. Her genotype and that MGIMS Wardha-2009 /
of her husband with respect to this gene would be– XhX and XY CG PMT-2009
A haemophilic man marries a carrier woman, their daughter progenies are– AMU-2006
Half haemophilic and half carrier
If haemoglobin (Hb) of a normal individual and a sickle-cell patient are run in AMU-2012
electrophoretic field, they will show– Different mobilities
Occurrence of an extra chromosome in a diploid set of chromosome is called– MHT CET-07.10.2020
Trisomy Shift-I
Genetic counsellors can identify heterozygous individuals by– BVP-2007,
Screening procedures BHU PMT-2004

345
Dominant lethal gene is one is– Kills the organism Haryana PMT-2003
Carrier organisms refers to an individual which carries a– Haryana PMT-2003
Recessive gene that is not expressed
The genetic basis of haemophilia was revealed by studies of– Family pedigree CG PMT-2010
If a man who is colour blind marries a woman who is pure normal for colour vision, Rajasthan PMT-2006
the chances of their sons having colour blindness is– 0% (zero)
The main cause of Edward syndrome Patau syndrome and Down syndrome is– Manipal -2010 / MGIMS
Change in autosomes Wardha-2003
An example for holandric inheritance is– Webbed toes AP EAMCET-2002
JCECE-2002
A normal son of Haemophilic father marries a daughter of haemophilic father. GUJCET-2019
State the possibility of first born daughter child– 0% CG PMT-2009 / MGIMS
Wardha-2009
Blood stained clothing of Abraham Lincoln has been analysed for evidence of, GUJCET-2017
the genetic disorder is– Marfan’s syndrome
Alkaptonuria (aa) is which type of error– Metabolism error GUJCET-2017
If father shows normal genotype and mother shows a carrier trait for Karnataka CET-2012
haemophilia– A male offspring has 50% chances of active disease
Number of Barr body ……. will found in case of Turner's syndrome. 0 JIPMER-2016
The phenotype of the offsprings born to a woman with normal vision AP EAMCET-2013
(homozygous) and a colourblind man is–
All the sons and daughters are with normal vision
Male children born to a colour blind mother and a normal father is– TS EAMCET-30.07.2022
100% Colour blind only Shift-II
Inheritance of skin colour in human is an example of– UP CPMT-2011
Polygenic inheritance
Genetic disorders such as haemophilia and Duchenne muscular dystrophy more SRM JEEE-2018
prevalent in males than females because–
They are X-linked recessive disorders
The gene for haemophilia is located on 'X' chromosome. Hence it is normally Karnataka CET-2016
impossible for a– Haemophilic father to pass the gene to his son
A woman with normal vision, but whose father was colourblind, marries a JIPMER-2007
colourblind man. Suppose that the fourth child of this couple was a boy. This
boy – May be colourblind or may be of normal vision
The ratio that is expected in offsprings if father is colour blind and mother-father AIPMT-1999
was colour blind is– 50% daughter – colour blind
The disease that occurs only in males is– Lesch-Nyhan disease AMU-2002
A woman with albinic father marries an albinic man. The proportion of her Rajasthan PMT-2011
progeny is– 1 normal : 1 albinic
Absence of teeth, bifid tongue and mental retardness are observed in– GUJCET-2022
Oral-facial-digital syndrome
Myotonic dystrophy occurs due to the presence of which type of dominant trait– NEET-2022
Autosome linked dominant trait
Philadelphia chromosome is found in the patient suffering from– AIIMS-1994
Myelocytic leukaemia

346
In man, four phenotypes of blood groups are due to the presence of antigen-A JCECE-2010
and antigen-B on the RBC. The chromosome that has the gene to control these
antigens is– 9th chromosome
In a marriage between male with blood group A and female with blood group B, NEET (Odisha)-2019
the progeny had either blood group AB or B. What could be the possible
genotype of parents– IA i (Male) ; IB IB (Female)
If both parents are carries for thalessemia, which is an autosomal recessive NEET-2013
disorder, what are the chances of pregnancy resulting in an affected child? 25%
If a diploid cell is treated with colchicine then it becomes– Tetraploid AIPMT-2002
A normal man and a normal woman both having one of their parent albino, if get JIPMER-2019
married then what is the probability of their child of being albino– 25%
Of a normal couple, half the sons are haemophiliac while half the daughters are AIPMT-1993
carriers. the gene is located on– One X-chromosome of mother
A colour blind mother and normal father would have– AIPMT-1992
Colour blind sons and normal/carrier daughters
In a person suffering from sickle cell anaemia, the____becomes half moon MHT CET-2018
shaped. RBC
Feminised males have____chromosomes. 47 MHT CET-2017
A couple, both carriers for the gene sickle cell anaemia planning to get married, MHT CET-2014
want to know the chances of having anaemic progeny is– 25%
2n - 2 is known as– Nullisomy DUMET-2006
The colour blind daughter is born in case of a– CMC Vellore-2015
Carrier mother and colour blind father
A colourblind man marries the daughter of another colourblind man whose wife Karnataka CET-2013
had a normal genotype for colour vision. In their progeny–
Half of their sons and half of their daughter would be colourblind
If a colour blind man marries a woman who is normal but carries this trait, the MP PMT-2013
progeny will be– 50% males and 50% females colour blind
Gauchers disease is genetic disorder, which is associated with the abnormal BVP-2014
metabolism of– Fat
Hurlers disease is caused by– Deficiency of lysosomes BVP-2014
An autosomal recessive genetic disorder is– Cystic fibrosis TS EAMCET-29.09.2020
Shift-I
A man, whose father is colourblind, marries a lady who is daughter of a colour J&K CET-2013
blindman. Their off springs will be– All sons colourblind

Chromosomal Disorders
Number of barr bodies in XXXX female would be– 3 Haryana PMT-2002
Male XX and female XY sometime occur due to– AIPMT-2001
Transfer of segments in X and Y chromosomes
If a germ cell in a female gonad and a germ cell in a male gonad begin Karnataka CET-2005
undergoing meiosis simultaneously what will be the ratio of over and sperms
produced– 1:4
Webbed neck, low set ears and broad chest are the symptoms associated with– Rajasthan PMT-2001
Females having XO chromosomes
Abnormal sterile male, with under developed genitalia, feeble breasts and Rajasthan PMT-2001
sponsely hairy body are symptoms associates with–
Males having XXY chromosomes

347
05.
MOLECULAR BASIS OF
INHERITANCE
The purine bases are – Adenine and Guanine
5.1 The DNA
The type of bond is present between nitrogenous
In DNA strand, the nucleotides are linked together
base and pentose sugar is– N-glycosidic linkage
by– Phosphodiester bonds
The type of bond is present between nucleoside and
In a DNA molecule, the phosphate group is attached
OH group is– Phosphodiester linkage
to carbon .............. of the sugar residue of its own
nucleotide and carbon ........... of the sugar residue of 5-methyl uracil is also known as– Thymine
the next nucleotide by ................ bonds–
5', 3', phosphodiester
DNA as an acidic substance present in nucleus was (i) → Replication, (ii) → Transcription,
first identified by ............... in 1869; he named it as (iii) → Translation
............. Meischer, nuclein -------------- are the amino acids of histones–
Watson and Crick (1953) proposed DNA double Lysine and Arginine
helix model and won the Nobel Prize; their model of
Negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the
DNA was based on X-ray diffraction studies of
positively charged histone octamer called–
DNA done by – Wilkins and Franklin, Chargaff's
base equivalence rule Nucleosome
If a double stranded DNA has 20% of cytosine, the Nucleosome consist of repeated unit of structure in
percentage of adenine in it will be– 30% nucleus called– Chromatin
If the sequence of bases in one strand of DNA is Chromatin further coiled and condensed at, that
ATGCATGCA, what would be the sequence of phase is– Metaphase
bases on complementary strand– TACGTACGT The helical structure of protein is stabilized by–
Synthesis of DNA from RNA is explained by– Hydrogen bonds
Reverse transcription Each base pair from the next one in DNA double
Histone proteins are– Basic, positively charged helix model in– 0.34 nm
The structure in chromatin seen as 'beads-on string' In one polynucleotide strand of a DNA molecule, the
when viewed under electron microscope are called– ratio of A+T/G + C is 0.3, the A+G/T+C ratio of the
Nucleosomes entire DNA molecule is– 1
The packaging of chromatin at higher level requires A = T and G = C. The given relationship of DNA is–
additional set of proteins that are referred to as– Chargaff's rule
Non-histone chromosomal (NHC) proteins Negatively charged DNA wrapped around positively
■ DNA is a long polymer of– Deoxyribonucleotides charged histone octamer is called - Nucleosome
■ Histones are– Positively charged, basic protein DNA packaging in eukaryotes is done by formation
■ The length of the DNA of Baceriophage lambda is– of– Nucleosome
48502 bp If DNA of a particular species was analyzed and it
■ The distance between a base pair in a helix is was found that it contains 27 percent A, the
approximately equal to– 0.34 nm percentage of C is– 23 percent
■ ______ proposed the central dogma in molecular 5.2 Search for Genetic Material
biology– Francis Crick
The process of transformation is not affected by the
■ Diploid content of human DNA is– 6.6 × 109 bp enzymes is– RNase, Peptidase, Lipase
■ _____ present in RNA but not in DNA– Uracil To prove that DNA is the genetic material, which
■ The backbone in a polynucleotide chain is formed– radioactive isotopes were used by Hershey and
32
Sugar and phosphate Chase (1952) in their experiments– P and 35S
348
 If the DNA of a virus is labelled with 32P and the 5.3 RNA World
protein of the virus is labelled with 35S, after
transduction which molecule(s) would be present The first genetic material was– RNA
32 The life that processes are evolved around RNA–
inside the bacterial cells– P only
RNA is the genetic material in– Metabolism, Translation, Splicing
Tobacco mosaic virus (TMV) ■ Viruses having RNA genome evolve faster because–
■ ____ enzyme inhibit transformation of R-strain RNA is comparatively unstable, so mutate at a
bacteria to S-strain– DNase faster rate
■ A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by The bases of RNA are the same as those of DNA
the– Promoter, Structural gene and Terminator with the exception that RNA contains–
■ Best genetic material is– A nucleic acid that is Uracil instead of thymine
capable of being used as a template in Nucleic acids were discovered by– F. Miescher
replication and transcription Ribosome act as a catalyst in the formation of–
■ A segment of DNA molecule contains 20,000 base Peptide bond
pairs, the number of phosphate molecule in this
Genetic RNA is–
DNA molecule is– 40,000
RNA that carries genetic message
■ Duplication of polynucleotides, Transcription of
DNA template and Recognition of triplet codons RNA primer is used in– Replication
by– t-RNA 5.4 Replication
■ Avery, Mc Leod and Mc Carty proved the– ............... phenomena was experimentally proved by
Transforming material is DNA Meselson and Stahl is– Semi-conservative
■ The bacteria used in experiments of transformation DNA replication
by Griffith– Streptococus pneumoniae First experimental proof for semi-conservative DNA
■ Radioactive elements used by Hershey and Chase replication was shown in– Escherichia coli
35
experiment were– S and 32P The average rate of polymerisation of base pairs
■ Third step in Hershey and Chase experiment was– during replication in E. coli is-
Centrifugation 2000 bp per second
■ The density gradient used in Meselson and Stahl DNA replication takes place at ........... phase of the
experiment is– Cesium chloride cell cycle– S
■ In a phoshodiester bond formation a phosphate ■ Represents the dominance of RNA world–
group is bounded with– Process of splicing, Translation, metabolism
3'-OH of one sugar and 5'-OH ■ After _______ time total 30 normal DNA (14N)
of next sugar molecules will be produced in E.coli– 100 minute
■ A typical nucleosome contains ____ bp of DNA Two strands of DNA are held together by–
helix– 200
Hydrogen bonds
■ _____ proposed the Double Helix model for the
structure of DNA– Watson and Crick Okazaki segments are formed during– Replication
The identification of the transforming principle Okazaki fragments during DNA replication–
proved that– Polymerise in 5'→3' direction and explain
Genetic information is contained in DNA 3'→5' DNA replication
Name the scientist proved experimentally that DNA DNA polymerase helps in–
is the genetic material– Griffith Make DNA from nucleotides
Semi – conservative nature of DNA experiment In ….. type of DNA replication of the two newly
given by– Meselson and Stahl.
formed molecules, one is purely a new one and the
Jacob and Monod won Nobel Prize for their work other one is old– Semiconservative
on– Operon model
The discontinuously synthesized fragments are
The experiments by Hershey and Chase helped
joined by the enzyme– DNA ligase
confirm that DNA was the hereditary material on the
basis of the finding that– The reaction is required for proofreading during
Radioactive phosphorus was found in the cell DNA replication by DNA polymerase III–
In Griffith's transforming principle, if heat killed S - 3' to 5' exonuclease activity
strain is injected into mice, then– Mice will live DNA unwinding is done by– Helicase
349
 5.5 Transcription RNA carries the amino acids from the amino acid
pool to mRNA during protein synthesis–
The process of copying genetic information from
tRNA
one strand of DNA into RNA is termed as .............
UTRs are the untranslated regions present on–
Transcription
mRNA
The enzyme DNA dependent RNA polymerase
catalyses the polymerisation reaction in ................ The process of transfer of genetic information from
direction– only 5' → 3' DNA to RNA/formation of RNA from DNA is–
Transcription
If the sequence of bases in coding strand of DNA is
ATTCGATG, then the sequence of bases in mRNA Termination of polypeptide chain is brought about
will be– AUUCGAUG by– UAA, UAG and UGA
If the sequence of bases in DNA is A DNA nucleotide chain has AGCTTCGA
GCTTAGGCAA, then the sequence of bases in its sequence. The nucleotide sequence of other chain
transcript will be– CGAAUCCGUU would be– TCGAAGCT
Starts with promoter region and ends in terminator Pyrimidine base present in RNA in place of thymine
region– Transcription unit of DNA is– Uracil
During transcription, the site of DNA molecule at The process of copying genetic information from
which RNA polymerase binds is called– Promoter one strand of DNA into RNA is termed as–
Polycistronic messenger RNA (mRNA) usually Transcription
occurs in– Bacteria, Prokaryotes Eukaryotic RNA polymerase transcribes tRNA–
In transcription in eukaryotes, heterogenous nuclear RNA polymerase III
RNA (hnRNA) is transcribed by– While working on Neurospora crassa, Beadle and
RNA polymerase II Tatum proved that– Every gene is responsible
Methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to the 5' end for a specific enzyme
of hnRNA in a process of– Capping In eukaryotes RNA polymerase-I transcribes–
In eukaryotes, the process of processing of primary r RNAs(28 S, 18 S and 5.8S)
transcript involves Removal of introns, Capping at
The DNA sequence that provides binding site for
5' end– Tailing (polyadenylation) at 3' end
RNA polymerase is– Promoter
■ Pre dominant site for control of gene expression in
prokaryotes– Transcriptional initiation 5.6 Genetic Code
■ ___ binds specific amino acid by the help of Amino acids ........... are specified by single codons
aminoacyl tRNA synthetase– Transfer RNA are– Tryptophan and methionine
■ Several proteins may be produced at the same time ......... codons respectively code for proline and
from a single mRNA by– Polyribosome valine amino acids– CCU and GUU
■ Assemblies of protein and snRNPs, called Some amino acids are coded by more than one
spliceosomes, may catalyze splicing– codon hence the genetic code is– Degenerate
RNA Processing The mutations that involve addition, deletion or
■ _____ transcribed and then translated to form a substitution of a single base pair in a gene are
protein product– Gene for transcription factor referred to as– Point mutations
■ The RNA has structural and catalytic in translation– Sickle cell anemia results from a single base
r-RNA substitution in a gene, thus it is an example of–
Segment of DNA coding for polypeptide is– Point mutation
Cistron About tRNA is true–
Coding sequence appear in mature RNA is– It is also called adepter molecule
Exon Amino acid acceptor end to tRNA lies at– 3' end
RNA polymerase (II) transcribes– mRNA Codons code for amino acid– 61
Capping is a process in– Methyl guanosine One codon codes for only one amino acid. This
triphosphate is added at 5' end means that the genetic code is– Unambiguous
If the sequence of bases in coding strand of DNA is AUG codes for– Methionine
ATTCGATG, then the sequence of bases in mRNA Delete mutation can result in– Point mutation,
will be – UAAGCUAC Frame shift mutation
350
 Frame shift mutations are caused by– In eukaryotes, initiation of polypeptide chain in
Deletion and insertion protein synthesis is induced by–
Genetic code is universal because– From bacteria Methionine
to human, UUU would code for phenylalanine During elongation occurring in translation, the
enzyme which catalyses the synthesis of peptide
tRNA cannot read the codons–
bond is– Peptidyl transferase
UAA, UAG, UGA
Termination of the translation process occurs at the–
Deletion or insertion of three or its multiple bases 3' end of the mRNA
results in– No effect on reading frame
RNA that picks up specific amino acid from amino
A nonsense/termination codon is– UAG/UAA acid pool of cytoplasm to carry it to ribosome during
The clover-leaf model of tRNA depict its– protein synthesis is– tRNA
Secondary structure Amino acid sequence in protein synthesis is
Genetic code determines– The sequence of determined by sequence of– mRNA
amino acid in a protein 5.8 Regulation of Gene Expression
A messenger acid is 336 nucleotides long, including Can not act as inducer– Glucose, Galactose
the initiator and termination codons. The number of
■ Segments of chain of nucleotides formed during
amino acids in the protein translated from this
transcription are – Okazaki fragements
mRNA is– 111
■ RNA act as enzyme for the formation of peptide bond
The first codon to be deciphered and the 'amino acid'
in bacteria are– 23s rRNA
it codes for, respectively, are–
■ ______Codon has dual function– AUG
UUU, phenylalanine
■ The same amino acid sequence of a polypeptide chain
5.7 Translation can be represented by more than one type of
.............Carries the amino acids from the amono nucleotide sequence in mRNA. It explains–
acid pool to mRNA during protein synthesis– tRNA Degeneracy property of genetic code
During translation, activated amino acids get linked ■ Primary induction of lac operon, depend on the
to tRNA. This process is commonly called– interaction between the– Inducer and the
Charging of tRNA, Aminoacylation of tRNA repressor molecule
In a mRNA molecule, untranslated regions (UTRs) ■ The substrate for the enzyme β-Galactosidase is–
are present at– 5' - end (before start codon), Lactose
3' - end (after stop codon) ■ Regulation of an operon by the repressor is referred
UTRs are the untranslated regions present on– as– Negative control
mRNA ■ Because most of the amino acids are represented by
What would happen if in a gene encoding a more than one codons, the genetic code is–
polypeptide of 50 amino acids, 25th codon (UAU) is Degenerate
mutated to UAA– A polypeptide of 24 amino Genes that are involved in turning on or off the
acids will be formed transcription of a set of structural genes are called–
■ The process of translation requires the transfer of Operator genes
genetic information from– A polymer of Polymorphism is– Variation at genetic level
nucelotides to a polymer of amino acids During expression of an operon, RNA polymerase
■ The region of transcription unit is located towards 3' binds to– Promoter
end of coding strand and it usually defines the end of Regulation of gene expression occur at the level of–
the process of transcription– Terminator Transcription, Translation, Splicing
Aminoacylation of tRNA also known as– The sequence of a structural gene in lac operon is–
Charging of tRNA lac z, lac y and lac a
The process of translation is– Protein synthesis Gene is responsible for the synthesis of a
anticodon present of tRNA complementary to polypeptide chain is called– Structural gene
initiator codon AUG of mRNA is– If repressor binds to operator of lac operon–
UAC Structural genes Z, Y and A fail to transcribe
During translation ATP are directly used for– In lac operon model, lactose function as–
Activation of amino acids Inducer that binds to repressor protein
351
 Lac operon consists of– One regulatory gene ............Should be most abundant in animal cell–
and three structural genes rRNA
The inducer of lac operon is– Lactose A complex of ribosomes attached to a single strand
of RNA is known as– Polysome
E. coli cells, with a mutated z gene of the lac operon,
cannot grow in medium containing only lactose as That types of RNA act as adapter molecule is–
the source of energy because– tRNA
They cannot synthesize functional Uridine, present only in RNA is a– Nucleoside
beta-galactosidase The lagging strand away from the replication fork,
Okazaki fragments are used to elongate–
5.9 Human Genome Project DNA replication
Human genome consists of approximately–
DNA polymorphism forms the basis of–
3 × 109 bp
Both genetic mapping and DNA fingerprinting
Estimated number of genes in human beings is
about– 30,000
A nucleoside differs from a nucleotide. It lacks the–
■ The methods of sequencing of Human Genome
Phosphate group
involved– Expressed Sequence Tags and
The promoter site and the terminator site for
Sequence Annotation transcription are located at 5' (upstream) end and 3'
........ and ........ gene are present in mega project– (downstream) end–
3 × 109 bp and 20000 gene respectively Respectively of the transcription unit
Sequence of human genome project was launched Exons appear but introns do not appear in the
in– 1990 mature RNA with regard to–
HGP is closely associated with ........ branch of Mature mRNA in eukaryotes.
biology– Bioinformatics DNA is a polymer of nucleotides which are linked
The commonly used vector in human genome to each other by 3'-5' phosphodiester bond. To
project was – Yeast artificial chromosome prevent polymerisation of nucleotides, which of the
The commonly used hosts in HGP were– modifications would you choose–
Bacteria and yeast Remove/Replace 3' OH group in deoxyribose
5.10 DNA Fingerprinting ........... steps in transcription is catalysed by RNA
polymerase– Initiation, Elongation, Termination
■ DNA fingerprints developed by– Alec Jeffrey
If Meselson and Stahl's experiment is continued for
■ In DNA fingerprinting, hybridised DNA fragments four generations in bacteria, the ratio of 15N/15N:
are detected by– Autoradiography 15
N/14N: 14N/14N containing DNA in the fourth
■ The last human chromosome to be completely generation would be– 0:1:7
sequenced– Chromosome 1 If the sequence of nitrogen bases of the coding
DNA fingerprinting recognizes the differences in– strand of DNA in a transcription unit is : 5' -
Satellite DNA, Repetitive DNA ATGAATG - 3', the sequence of bases in its RNA
The technique is used in DNA fingerprinting– transcript would be– 5' - AUGAAUG - 3'
Southern blotting If the base sequence of a codon in mRNA is 5'-
VNTRs refers to– AUG-3', the sequence of tRNA pairing with it must
be– 5' - UAC - 3'
Variable Number of Tandom Repeats
■ Chromatin fibres are further coiled and condensed to
If an inheritable mutation is observed in a population
form chromosomes in– Metaphase stage of
at high frequency, it is referred as–
cell division
DNA polymorphism
In a DNA strand the nucleotides are linked together
5.11 Miscellaneous by– Phosphodiester bonds
In a 3.2 Kbp long piece of DNA, 820 adenine bases Both deoxyribose and ribose belong to a class of
were found. What would be the number of cytosine sugars called– Pentoses
bases– 780 The fact that a purine base always pairs through
The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome hydrogen bonds with a pyrimidine base in the DNA
indicates that– The DNA is condensed into double helix–
a chromatin fibre Uniform width throughout DNA
352
The net electric charge on DNA and histones is– Ten E.coli with 15N- dsDNA are incubated in
Negative and positive respectively medium containing 14N nucleotide. After 60
The promoter site and the terminator site for minutes, how many E.coli cells will have DNA
transcription are located at– 5' (upstream) totally free from 15N– 60 cells
end and 3' (downstream) end, The role of RNA polymerase III in the process of
respectively of the transcription unit transcription in eukaryotes–
The most appropriate for sickle cell anaemia is– Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and sn RNA
It is a molecular disease, DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences
It confers resistance to acquiring malaria in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called
The first genetic material could be– RNA as– Repetitive DNA
With regard to mature mRNA in eukaryotes– If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what
Exons appear but introns do not appear in will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and
the mature RNA Cytosine in it– T : 30; G : 20; C : 20
The human chromosome with the highest and least "Only enzyme" that has "Capability" to catalyse
number of genes in them are respectively– Initiation, Elongation and Termination in the process
Chromosome 1 and Y of transcription in prokaryotes–
……Scientists had no contribution in the
DNA dependent RNA polymerase
development of the double helix model for the
structure of DNA– RNAs is not required for the synthesis of protein–
Meselson and Stahl siRNA
Discontinuous synthesis of DNA occurs in one Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA
strand, because– DNA dependent helix during transcription–
DNA polymerase catalyses polymerisation RNA polymerase
only in one direction (5'→3') The first phase of translation is–
The steps in transcription is catalyzed by RNA Aminoacylation of tRNA
polymerase– Elongation
The term 'Nuclein' for the genetic material was used
Control of gene expression takes place at the level
by– Meischer
of– Transcription
The last human chromosome to be completely In the polynucleotide chain of DNA, a nitrogenous
sequenced– Chromosome 1 base is linked to the –OH of–
RNA functions is– 1'C pentose sugar
It carries amino acids to ribosomes, The basis of genetic mapping of human genome as
In some viruses, DNA is synthesized by using RNA well as DNA finger printing is–
as template. Such a DNA is called– cDNA Polymorphism in DNA sequence
The RNA polymerase holoenzyme transcribes– E. Coli has only 4.6 × 106 base pairs and completes
The structural gene only the process of replication within 18 minutes; then the
If the base sequence of a codon in mRNA is 5'- average rate of polymerization is approximately–
AUG-3', the sequence of tRNA pairing with it must
4000 base pairs/second
be– 5' - CAU - 3'
The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its– 3'-end Purines found both in DNA and RNA are–
To initiate translation, the mRNA first binds to– Adenine and guanine
The smaller ribosomal subunit Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to–
In E. coli, the lac operon gets switched on when– Genes expressed as RNA
Lactose is present and it binds to the repressor Features of genetic code does allow bacteria to
The process of translation of mRNA to proteins produce human insulin by recombinant DNA
begins as soon as– The small subunit of technology– Genetic code is nearly universal
ribosome encounters mRNA The experimental proof for semi conservative
DNA polymorphism forms the basis of– replication of DNA was first shown in a–
Both genetic mapping and DNA finger printing Bacterium
If a geneticist uses the blind approach for sequencing AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding
the whole genome of an organism, followed by
strand of a gene. The corresponding sequence of the
assignment of function to different segments, the
methodology adopted by him is called as– transcribed mRNA– AGGUAUCGCAU
Sequence annotation All are the part of an operon except– An enhancer

353
 EXAM POINT
The DNA
Histone proteins are positively charged because they are rich in basic amino acid Karnataka CET-20.05.2023
residues– Arginine and Lysine
Introduction of Genetically modified DNA into eukaryotic cell is called– AP EAPCET-22.05.2023,
Transfection Shift-II
Scientist associated with DNA sequencing is– Frederick Sanger AP EAPCET-22.05.2023,
Shift-II
Number of base pairs in full turn of the helical stand and the distance between AP EAPCET-22.05.2023,
base pairs in B-DNA– 10, 3.4 Ǻ Shift-II
The diameter of DNA molecule is– 20 Å VMMC-2011
The total hereditary material outside the chromosome is called as– Plasmon VMMC-2011
o
If isolated strain of DNA is kept at 82-90 C then– Punjab MET-2009
It uncoils and the two strands separate
Melting of DNA at an elevated temperature (70 0C) is primarily due to the WB JEE-2012
breakdown of– Hydrogen bonds
The length of DNA having 23 base pair is– 78.2 Å WB JEE-2009
The double helix model of Watson and Crick is known as– B-DNA UP CPMT-2004
The structural subunit of DNA is– Nucleotide WB JEE-2010
Chromosome is made up of– DNA and histone WB JEE-2010
Har Govind Khorana was awarded the Nobel Prize for– Gene synthesis Punjab MET-1999
Unit of nucleic acid is– Nucleotide BCECE-2005
The banding pattern of chromosome three and six of human beings and BVP-2010
chimpanzee show that they had– Common origin
A genome contains– Haploid chromosomal set Rajasthan PMT-1996
The enzyme is used in DNA multiplication is– DNA polymerase UP CPMT-2003
The progresses leads to DNA ladder formation is– Apoptosis KVPY SB & SX-2015
Melting temperature for double stranded DNA is the temperature at which 50% KVPY SB & SX-2015
of the double stranded molecules are converted into single stranded molecules.
Which DNA will have the highest melting temperature–
DNA with 30% cytosine
The determination of order of bases in a DNA molecule takes place– MGIMS Wardha-2014
Gene sequencing
Regarding a double helical molecule of DNA is– Manipal-2011
Bases are perpendicular to the axis
Total number of the nitrogen containing bases are common among both DNA MHT CET 5.10.2020
and RNA is– Three (Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine) Shift-I
cDNA library is mostly constructed for organisms like– Yeast MHT CET 5.10.2020
Shift-I
Coliphage φ × 174 contains– ssDNA BHU PMT (Mains)-2005
If the total amount of adenine and thymine in a double-stranded DNA is 45%, the DUMET-2010
amount of guanine in this DNA will be– 27.5%
DNA can be formed by– RNA dependent DNA polymerase DUMET-2008

354
Genes are made up of– Polynucleotides BHU PMT (Screening)-
2009
Nucleotides are formed by– Purine, pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate Uttarakhand PMT-2009,
BHU PMT (Screening)-2009
The moiety present at the 5'end of ribose sugar in a polynucleotide is– Kerala PMT-2015
Phosphate
A structure formed by wrapping of negatively charged DNA around positively Kerala PMT-2015
charged histone octamer – Nucleosome
In the double-helical structure of DNA, the pitch of the helix is– 3.4 nm Kerala PMT-2015
If a dsDNA has 20% adenine, what would be its cytosine content– 30% KVPY SA-2016
In DNA molecule – There are two strands, which run Rajasthan PMT-2010
antiparallel one in 5→3 direction and other in 3→5 AIPMT - 2008
c-DNA is formed from m-RNA by which enzyme– Reverse transcriptase MGIMS Wardha-2005
A typical nucleosome contains – 200 bp of DNA helix AMU-2010
The small segment of DNA which helps to detect the presence of a gene or a AMU-1998
long DNA sequence in biological system is termed as– DNA probe
In DNA when AGCT occurs, their association is as per …… pair. AT -GC VMMC-2006 / JIPMER-2013
DNA wrapped around histone protein is called – Nucleosome HP CET-2012,
Rajasthan PMT-1998
The number of hydrogen bonds between adenine and thymine in a DNA VMMC-2012 / DUMET-2009,
molecule is– two BHU PMT (Screening)-2008,
UP CPMT-2008 / CG PMT-
2008,
BVP-2007 / MGIMS Wardha-
2006
DNA element with ability to change position is called– Transposon VMMC-2012 / UP CPMT-
2008,
BCECE-2006
Nucleotide arrangement in DNA can be seen by– X-ray crystallography Manipal-2015,
AIPMT-1993
The modern concept of gene is– Functional unit of DNA Haryana PMT-2004,
Manipal-2003
Locations on sites in the human DNA where single base DNA differences occur JCECE-2018
are called– SNP
The bonds that hold the two complementary strands of DNA together are– JCECE-2018 / Rajasthan
Hydrogen bonds PMT-2011

The complementary synthetic and random DNA are used as– Manipal-2013
Passenger DNA
DNA can be– A-DNA, B-DNA, Z-DNA BHU PMT (Mains)-2008,
2005
McClintock is related to– Transposons BCECE-2006 / VMMC-2005 /
AMU-2004
Nitrogen base + Pentose sugar + Phosphate group is– Nucleotide AMU-2012
DNA is present in– Nucleus, Mitochondria, Chloroplast CG PMT-2006 / BVP-2002 /
Haryana PMT-1999

355
In DNA molecule at the 5' end there is a free– Phosphate MHT CET-07.10.2020
Shift-I
When DNA is formed from RNA, it is called– c-DNA BHU PMT (Screening)-
2011
The anti-parallel nature of DNA refers to– DUMET-2009
The opposite direction of the two strands
Beadle and Tatum showed that each kind of mutant bread mould they studied DUMET-2009
lacked a specific enzyme. Their experiments demonstrated that–
Genes carry information for making proteins
In DNA helix cytosine paired with guanine by– Three H2 bonds DUMET-2001 / HP CET-2012
/ Manipal-2010
DNA is acidic due to– Phosphoric acid Haryana PMT-2008
Stain used by Feulgen to stain DNA is– Basic fuchsin Haryana PMT-2008
A, B, and Z are the three forms of DNA, in – All three are right-handed, VMMC-2015
but the number of bases per turn in the three are different
DNA unit is– Nucleotide CG PMT-2010
The total nucleosomes are found in helical coil of 30 nm chromatin fibre is– 6 Rajasthan PMT-2000
The barr body is observed in– 3% female neutrophils AMU-1996
Model of DNA structure was proposed by– Watson and Crick VMMC-2003 / J&K CET-2002
Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means that– The phosphate groups BCECE-2013 / CMC
at the start of two DNA strands are in opposite position (pole) Ludhiana-2009,
AIPMT-2006
A nucleoside is– Purine/ pyramidine + sugar BCECE-2007
Unwinding of DNA is done by– Helicase Haryana PMT-2011
Kappa particles are– Submicroscopic granules formed AMU-2003 , 2007
by the folding of naked DNA
Plasmids are the molecules of– DNA AMU-2001
Jumping genes are known as – Transposon Manipal-2006
The processes/technique that was used by Watson and Crick for giving double Manipal-2006
helical DNA model– Franklin's X-ray diffraction
Teminism related to– Manipal-2006
RNA → DNA → RNA → Protein (Reverse transcription)
Who was awarded Nobel Prize in 1959 for in vitro synthesis of UP CPMT-2011
polyribonucleotide. Arthur Kornberg
Mutant strains of pink mould better known a Drosophila of plant kingdom was VMMC-2014
produced by Beadle and Tatum with the help of– X - rays
The enzymes that are used to join bits of DNA– Ligase AIPMT-2002
In the polynucleotide chain of DNA, a nitrogenous base is linked to the –OH of– NEET-2020 Phase-II
1′ C pentose sugar
When the centromere is situated in the middle of two equal arms of NEET-2021
chromosomes, the chromosome is referred as– Metacentric
Which DNA shows high degree of polymorphism in population and also the AIPMT (Re-Exam)-2015
same degree of polymorphism in an individual, which is heritable from parents to
children – Satellite DNA

356
DNA fragments are– Negatively charged NEET-2017
One turn of the helix in a B-form DNA is approximately– 3.4 nm AIPMT-2006
Nucleotides are building blocks of nucleic acids. Each nucleotide is a composite AIPMT-2005
molecule formed by– Base-sugar-phosphate
In a DNA segment having six coils, there are 22 nitrogen base pairs linked by AP EAMCET-2008
two hydrogen bonds. Total number of cytosine bases that are found in that
segment is– 38
A genophore is made up of– A single,naked, double stranded DNA JIPMER-2008
In DNA 20% bases are adenine. Total percentage of bases are pyrimidines– JIPMER-2019
60%
Nucleosome core is made of– H2A, H2B, H3 and H4 AIPMT-1993
A DNA with unequal nitrogen bases would most probably be– AIPMT-1993
Single stranded
An octamer of 4 histones complexed with DNA forms – Nucleosome AMU-2002 / AIPMT-1990
The length of DNA helix in a typical nucleosome is– 200 bp Karnataka CET-2020
DNA, present in the nucleus, was named as 'Nuclein' by– Friedrich Miescher Karnataka CET-2018
The two polynucleotide chain in DNA are– Antiparallel AIPMT-2007
The length of DNA molecule greatly exceeds the dimensions of the nucleus in AIPMT-2007
eukaryotic cells. How is this DNA accommodated–
Super-coiling in nucleosomes
A distinct mechanism that usually involves a short segment of DNA with UP CPMT-2005
remarkable capacity to move from one location in a chromosome to another is
called– DNA transposition
Satellite DNA is useful tool in– Forensic science JIPMER-2014
Assume that a DNA molecule is having three full helical turns and each turn with TS EAMCET-30.07.2022
three guanines. Total number of double bonds that are possible between purines Shift-II
and pyrimidines in the above mentioned DNA molecule is– 21
Two molecule of DNA are sideways linked by– UP CPMT-2014
Purine-pyrimidine hydrogen bond
The structures that are present in core particle of nucleosome is– SRM JEEE-2018
Octamer of histone proteins
DNA or RNA segment tagged with a radioactive molecule is called – Probe AIPMT (Screening)-2010
Nitrogen base which is only found in DNA is– Thymine Karnataka CET-2019
Viable material of endangered species can be preserved by– Gene bank AIPMT-2000
Length of one loop of B- DNA– 3.4 nm AIPMT-2000
Similarity in DNA and RNA is– Both are polymer of nucleotides AIPMT-2000
Variations in proteins are due to– Sequence of amino acids AIPMT-1998
Gene and cistron words are sometimes used synonymously because– AIPMT-2001
One gene contains one cistron

Searching of Genetic Material

Separated bands of DNA are cut out from the agarose gel and extracted from gel TS EAMCET 10.05.2023
piece. This step is known as– Elution Shift-I
Rediscoverer of Mendel’s work was– Rajasthan PMT-2004
Hugo DeVries, Carl Correns and Erich von Tschermak

357
A mutant strain of T4-bacteriophage R-II, fails to lyse the E. coli but when two BHU PMT (Screening)-
stains R-IIx and R-IIy are mixed then they lyse the E. coli. The possible reason 2010
may be– Both strains have different cistrons
Taylor (1958) studied chromosome replication by using - CG PMT-2007
Radioactive Thymidine
Wilkins X-ray diffraction showed the diameter of the DNA helix as– 20 Å CG PMT-2007
The unequivocal proof of DNA as genetic material come from studies on a– Manipal-2015
Bacterial virus (Bacteriophages)
The key finding from Griffith's experiments using live and heat killed pathogenic JCECE-2018
bacteria is– Genetic material can be transferred
from dead to live bacteria
Griffith in his experiment with Diplococcus pneumoniae discovered– MHT CET-06.10.2020
Transformation Shift-I
In vitro synthesis of RNA and DNA was carried out first by– Haryana PMT-2003
Ochoa and Kornberg
In polytene chromosomes dark bands are visible. These bands are formed by the AFMC-2006
apposition of– Chromomeres on chromonemata
Genes which are not located within the nucleus are almost always found in– CG PMT-2011
Cytosol
Jumping genes in maize were discovered by– Barbara McClintock VMMC-2012 / MGIMS
Wardha-2008,
2005,
UP CPMT-2008 / Uttarakhand
PMT-2007,
UP CPMT-2003
Heavier and lighter isotopic from of an element can be separated by the DUMET-2008
technique of– Buoyant density centrifugation
Phosphorus -32 emits– β-particles DUMET-2010
Transformation experiment was first performed on the bacteria is– AIPMT-2002
Streptococcus pneumoniae
The term 'Nuclein' for the genetic material was used by– Friedrich Miescher NEET-2020 Phase-II
A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be NEET-2016 Phase-II
joined to form a recombinant plasmid using– Ligase
The experimental proof for semiconservative replication of DNA was first NEET-2018
shown in a– Bacterium E.coli
In recent years, DNA sequences (nucleotide sequence) of mt-DNA and Y AIPMT-2003
chromosomes were considered for the study of human evolution, because–
They are uniparental in origin
and do not take part in recombination
Manipulation of DNA in genetic engineering became possible due to the AIPMT-2002
discovery of– Restriction endonuclease
Transfer of some genes from one bacteria to another bacteria through virus is AIPMT-2002
known as – Bacterial transduction
The transforming principle of Pneumococcus as found out by Avery, MacLeod AIPMT-1993
and McCarty was– DNA
The first step for genetically modifying an organism is– AP EAMCET-24.09.2020
Identification of DNA with desirable gene Shift-I

358
The result of the reaction/experiment carried out by Avery et. al. on Karnataka CET-2014
Streptococcus pneumoniae has proved conclusively that DNA is genetic
material– Live ‘R’ strain + DNA from ‘S’ strain + DNAase
One gene-one enzyme relationship was established for the first time in– AIPMT-2007
Neurospora crassa
Work of Beadle and Tatum on Neuropora crassa proved that– UP CPMT-2011
Every gene is responsible for specific enzymes
In 1944, Avery, McCarty and MacLeod isolated a substance from heat killed JIPMER-2015
virulent form of bacteria and added to non-virulent to virulent from this
substance can be distroyed by– DNAase

Qualities and Function of Genetic Material (DNA)

Eukaryotic genes are monocistronic but they are split genes because– Karnataka CET-20.05.2023
Exons are interrupted by Introns
In a rDNA cloning experiment, which helps to identify and eliminate non- AP EAPCET-11.05.2023,
trnsformant normal Escherichia coli cells– Selectable marker Shift-II
The number of nitrogen base pairs in haploid human DNA and Escherichia coli AP EAPCET-11.05.2023,
DNA respectively are– 3.3 × 109 bp and 4.6 × 106 bp Shift-II
The first artificial rDNA was constructed by using a native plasmid of the AP EAPCET-11.05.2023,
organisms that is– Salmonella typhimurium Shift-II
The chemical nature of chromatin is as– WB JEE-2009
Nucleic acids, histone and non- histone proteins
Out of A-T, G-C pairing, bases of DNA may exist in alternate valency state WB JEE-2009
owing to arrangement called– Tautomerizational mutation
Genetic information is carried by long chain macromolecules made up of– Uttarakhand PMT-2007
Nucleotides
Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means that– JCECE-2009
The phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands
are in opposite position (pole)
Small extrachromosomal circular self replicating DNA that can carry genes into MGIMS Wardha-2007
host organism is called– Plasmid
Geneticist plots the relative locations of genes on chromosomes by- JIPMER-1998
Determine the frequency of crossing over
A series of experiments were conducted by Frederick Griffith in 1928, on Karnataka CET-2022
transforming principle with– Streptococcus pneumoniae
The autosomes are– Somatic chromosomes Rajasthan PMT-1998
DNA is a better genetic material than RNA because of– Presence of Thymine AP EAMCET-25.09.2020
Shift-II
Prokaryotic genetic system has– DNA but no histone VMMC-2007
Considering the average molecules of a base to be 500 Da, the molecular mass of KVPY SA-2015
a double stranded DNA of 10 base pairs is– 10 kDa
Recognition sequence in Eco RI is– GAATTC MGIMS Wardha-2013
Flavr savr variety of tomato is a– Transgenic crop MGIMS Wardha-2013
The term genetic engineering is used for– Recombinant DNA technique MGIMS Wardha-2003
DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide when viewed under UV NEET-2021
radiation, appear as– Bright orange bands

359
In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments can be visualized with the help NEET-2020 Phase-I
of– Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
If DNA contained sulfur instead of phosphorus and proteins contained NEET (Re-Exam)-
phosphorus instead of sulfur, what would have been the outcome of Hershey and 04.09.2022
Chase experiment– Radioactive sulfur in bacterial cells
"DNA is the sole genetic material in bacteriophage" proved by– NEET (Odisha)-2019
Hershey and Chase
The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome indicates– NEET-2017
The DNA is condensed into a Chromatin fibre
Chromosomes in a bacterial cell can be 1–3 in number and– AIPMT-2003
Are always circular
Satellite of chromosome is– Rich in RNA and deficient in DNA AIIMS-2011
A nucleosome is a portion of the chromonema containing– Karnataka CET-2005
Both DNA and histones
DNA is mainly found in– Nucleus only Punjab MET-2010
Most of the mutations are– Harmful and recessive AIPMT-2000
If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous base sequence as ATCTG, what would AIPMT (Screening)-2012
be the complementary RNA strand sequence– UAGAC
Segments of DNA which can move in genome are called– Transposons AIPMT-1998

The RNA
Purines in RNA are– Adenine and guanine J&K CET-2002
Against the codon 5' UAC 3', what would be the sequence of anticodon on NEET (Re-Exam)-
tRNA– 5'- GUA -3' 04.09.2022
Form of RNA has a structure resembling clover leaf is– t-RNA Manipal-2007 / AIPMT-2004
The biosynthesis of ribosomal RNA occurs in– Nucleolus NEET-2020 Phase-II
The role of RNA polymerase III in the process of transcription in eukaryotes is NEET-2021
Transcribes tRNA, Sc RNA,5S rRNA and snRNA
Balbiani rings are sites of– RNA and protein synthesis AIPMT (Re-Exam)-2015,
WB JEE-2009
Non-membranous nucleoplasmic structures in nucleus are the site for active NEET (Odisha)-2019
synthesis of– rRNA
Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a NEET-2018
polypeptide simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are termed as– Polysome
The RNAs that should be most abundant found in animal cell is– r-RNA NEET-2017
Ribotide is– Ribose + Uracil + Phosphate JIPMER-2018
Telomerase is a– Ribonucleoprotein AIPMT-2005
Soluble RNA is called– t - RNA JIPMER-2006
The back bone of RNA consists of the sugar that is– Ribose JIPMER-2008 / DUMET-2005,
UPCPMT-2003,
BHU PMT (Screening)-2003
There are special proteins that help to open up DNA double helix in front of the AIPMT-1994
replication fork. These proteins are– DNA gyrase
RNA is found in– All living cells AIIMS-27.05.2018 Shift-II
In RNA, thymine is replaced by– Uracil AIPMT-1992

360
Total types of Non-genetic RNA is – Three types (rRNA, tRNA and mRNA) JIPMER-2006,
Haryana PMT-2002
Heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA) is converted to mRNA by– AMU-2014
Splicing, Capping, Tailing
Activation of an amino acid during protein synthesis requires a participation of J&K CET-2003
specific molecule of– t-RNA
The transfer continuously from nucleus to cytoplasm is– RNA Rajasthan PMT-2001
Synthesis of mRNA and tRNA occurs in– G1 – phase JCECE-2014
The RNA that picks up specific amino acid from the amino acid pool in the Kerala PMT-2013
cytoplasm to the ribosome during protein synthesis is– t-RNA
The constitute about 10-20% of total cellular RNA is– t- RNA UP CPMT-2005
Ribozymes are– Catalytic RNA, Non-Protein enzymes TS EAMCET-10.08.2021
Shift-I
A nicked RNA molecule can be ligated by– T4 RNA ligase SRM JEEE-2018
The common point of similarity between DNA and RNA is– Karnataka CET-2006
Both are polymers of nucleotides
Specific radioactive identification of ribosomal RNA can be achieved by using JIPMER-2015
C14 labelled– Uracil
Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesized in– Nucleolus AIPMT (Screening)-2012
Types of RNA polymerase required in nucleus for RNA synthesis– 3 AIPMT-2001
Acts as a catalyst in a bacterial cell is– 23 S rRNA AIPMT (Screening)-2011

Replication & Transcription

During transcription the DNA strand with 3' → 5' polarity of the structural gene Karnataka CET-20.05.2023
always acts as a template because–
Enzyme DNA dependent RNA polymerase
always catalyse the polymerization in 5' →3' direction
There are having the ability to replicate within the bacterial cell, independent of AP EAPCET-22.05.2023,
control of chromosomal DNA– Plasmids and bacteriophage Shift-I
The DNA polymerase of prokaryotes that have both 3-5 and 5-3 exonuclease AMU-2015
activity is– DNA polymerase - I
Certain RNA viruses carry a gene for an enzyme that uses viral RNA as a AMU-2002
template in the synthesis of DNA. This enzyme is– Reverse transcriptase
Exon part of m-RNAs have code for– Proteins AIPMT-2002
DNA replication is– Semiconservative Tripura JEE-2017,
VMMC-2006
From a DNA template with the sequence CTGATAGC, the mRNA sequence Assam CEE-2014
formed would be– GACUAUCG
Sigma factor is related to– RNA polymerase BVP-2005,
Haryana PMT-2004
DNA multiplication is called– Replication BVP-2001
The enzyme used to join the DNA fragments is– DNA ligase Kerala PMT-2009
During transcription, if the nucleotide sequence of the DNA strand that is being AIPMT-2004
coded is ATACG, then the nucleotide sequence in the mRNA would be–
UAUGC

361
Split genes are made up of exons and introns. The coding sequences are called BVP-2000
as– Exons
Restriction enzymes recognize and cleave/cut at specific site of the molecule of– AMU-1995
DNA
Okazaki fragments form in– Lagging strand AIIMS-2000
The sequence that controls the copy number of the linked DNA in the vector, is NEET-2020 Phase-I
termed– Ori site
Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix during transcription– NEET-2020 Phase-I
RNA polymerase
E. coli has only 4.6 × 106 base pairs and completes the process of replication NEET-2020 Phase-II
within 18 minutes; then the average rate of polymerisation is approximately–
2000 base pairs
The "Only enzyme" that has "Capability" to catalyse Initiation, Elongation and NEET-2021
Termination in the process of transcription in prokaryotes is–
DNA dependent RNA polymerase
The most common mechanism of genetic variation in the population of sexually AIPMT-2015
reproducing organism is– Recombination
The initiation and termination that factors are involved in transcription in NEET (Odisha)-2019
Eukaryotes is– σ and ρ, respectively
DNA replication in bacteria occurs– Prior to fission NEET-2017
The mRNA can be transcripted as– AUG, UGA, UUU JIPMER-2018
During transcription, the DNA site at which RNA polymerase binds is called as- J&K CET-2014,
Promoter Uttarakhand PMT-2007,
AIPMT-2003
During translation initiation in prokaryotes, a GTP molecule is needed in– AIPMT-2003
Association of 30 S-mRNA with formyl met- tRNA
The reunites that exon segments after RNA splicing is– RNA ligase AIPMT-2002
The restriction enzyme was discovered by – Nathan, Arber and Smith Tripura JEE-2017
During DNA replication, supercoilling is relaxed by– DNA topoisomerase JIPMER-2019
During DNA replication, the strands separate by– Helicase VMMC-2006,
AIPMT-1993
In a eukaryotic transcription and translation takes place in– MHT CET-2019
Nucleus and cytoplasm
During replication of DNA, the two strands of the double helix are separated MHT CET-2016
from each other under the influence of enzyme– Rep-protein
During DNA replication, the addition of nucleotides on the lagging strand MHT CET-2015
occurs– Discontinuously
Semiconservative method is associated with– DNA replication MHT CET-2009
The first step in DNA replication is– Formation of template strand MHT CET-2009
m–RNA synthesis is known as– Transcription MHT CET-2004
Polymerisation of DNA nucleotides during the synthesis of lagging strand occurs Karnataka CET-2017
in– 5' → 3' direction
The enzyme responsible for transcription is– RNA polymerase CG PMT-2005
The transcription unit extends from– TATA box to stop codon DUMET-2006

362
cDNA probes are copied from the messenger RNA molecules with the help of– AIIMS-2005
Reverse transcriptase
The enzyme, which helps to cut one strand of DNA duplex to release tension of JCECE-2007
coiling of two strands is– Topo-isomerase
If the sequence of bases in DNA is ATTCGATG, then the sequence of bases in AIPMT-1995
its transcript will be– UAAGCUAC
In split genes, the coding sequences are called– Exons AIPMT-1995
The process by which language of DNA is converted into language of m-RNA is J&K CET-2001
called– Transcription
DNA chromosome replication takes place during– S-phase MGIMS Wardha-2006
The first suggest, the conservative model of DNA replication is– DUMET-2007
Meselson and Stahl
The place where RNA polymerase attaches with the DNA is called– BVP-2006
Promoter site
The heavy isotope used for proving semi-conservative replication of DNA by Kerala PMT-2013
15
Meselson and Stahl was– N
During replication of retrovirus is– Viral RNA is introduced into the host cell Karnataka CET-2018
When DNA replication starts– Karnataka CET-2009
The hydrogen bonds between the nucleotides of two strands break
DNA gyrase, the enzyme that participates in the process of DNA replication is a Karnataka CET-2010
type of– DNA Topoisomerase
During transcription, RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds to a gene promoter and AIPMT-2007
assumes a saddle-like structure. DNA-binding sequence is– TATA
Molecular basis of organ differentiation depends on the modulation in AIPMT-2007
transcription by– Transcription factor
The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain growth– Polymerize in the AIPMT-2007
5'-to-3' direction and explain 3'- to 5' DNA replication
A eukaryotic gene contains two kinds of base sequences. Which plays an JIPMER-2009
important role in protein synthesis. Exons
c-DNA is formed from m- RNA by which enzyme– Reverse transcriptase UP CPMT-2005
Sequence of DNA (non-coding) is known as– Introns UP CPMT-2005
Rho factor is associated with– RNA polymerase TS EAMCET-10.08.2021
Shift-I
When a radioactive DNA of bacterium E.coli (incorporated with N15 isotope) was UP CPMT-2014
placed in medium containing N14 isotope for three generation the percentage of
radioactive strand is– 25%
In eukaryotic cell transcription, RNA splicing and RNA capping take place AIPMT (Mains)-2010
inside the– Nucleus
Semiconservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in– AIPMT-2009
Escherichia coli
Removal of introns and joining the exons in a defined order in a transcription AIPMT-2009
unit is called– Splicing
In Prokaryotes, the transcription of DNA is initiated with the help of– Karnataka CET-2019
Sigma factor
DNA polymerase enzyme is required for synthesis of– DNA from DNA JIPMER-2004

363
Intron transcripts in heterogenous nuclear RNA (in RNA) are removed and exon AP EAMCET-2007
transcripts are joined together under the direction of protein complexes. These
complexes are– Spliceosomes
Method of DNA replication in which two strands of DNA separates and AIPMT-2000
synthesize new strands is called as – Semiconservative
Initiation codon is– AUG AIPMT-2000
Ribosomes are engaged in protein synthesis in animal cell– AIPMT-2000
Ribosomes which occur on nuclear membrane and E.R
Removal of RNA polymerase III from nucleoplasm will effect the synthesis of– AIPMT (Screening)-2012
t-RNA
The exercise that a control over transcription is– Regulator AIPMT-1998
Genetic Code and Translation
Polymerization of amino acids to form polypeptide is called as– Translation TS EAMCET 10.05.2023
Shift-I
At the end of translation the release factor binds to the codon to complete AP EAPCET-22.05.2023,
polypeptide from the ribosome– UAA Shift-I
A codon is made up of– Three nucleotides DUMET-2005,
UP CPMT-2003
A eukaryotic gene contains two kinds of base sequences. The plays that an VMMC-2012,
important role in protein synthesis is– Exons UP CPMT-2008,
Uttarakhand PMT-2008
The scientist who was awarded Nobel prize in 1959 for in vitro synthesis of J&K CET-2006
polyribonucleotide is– Ochoa and Kornberg
One gene-one enzyme relationship was established for the first time in– Rajasthan PMT-2010
Neurospora crassa
Out of 64 codons, 61 codons code for 20 types of amino acid it is called– AIPMT-2002
Degeneracy of genetic code
The process of translation of mRNA to proteins begins as soon as– NEET-2022
The small subunit of ribosome encounters mRNA
After a mutation at a genetic locus, the character of an organism changes due to AIPMT-2004
the change in– Protein structure
In a mutational event, when adenine is replaced by guanine, it is a case of– AIPMT-2004
Transition
The first phase of translation is– Aminoacylation of tRNA NEET-2020 Phase-I
The equivalent of a structural gene is– Cistron NEET-2016 Phase-II
The features of genetic code that does allow bacteria to produce human insulin NEET-2019
by recombinant DNA technology is–
Genetic code is nearly universal
Protein with 333 amino acids and the base at position 901 is deleted such that the NEET-2017
length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, total number of codons will be altered–33
Degeneration of a genetic code is attributed to the– Third member of a codon AMU-2007 / AIPMT-2003
In the genetic code dictionary, total number of codons are used to code for all the AIPMT-2003
20 essential amino acids is– 61
Stop codons are– UAA, UGA, UAG JIPMER-2008,
BHU PMT (Screening)-
2007,
MGIMS Wardha-2005

364
The RNA that pick up specific amino acid from amino acid pool in the cytoplasm AIPMT-1997
to ribosome during protein synthesis is called– tRNA
The codons causing chain termination are– UAG, UGA, UAA AIPMT-1997
If the DNA codons are ATGATGATG and a cytosine base is inserted at the Punjab MET-2005
beginning, then result will– CAT, GAT, GAT, G
Anticodon is an unpaired triplet of bases in an exposed position of– tRNA AIPMT-1995
Initiation codon for protein synthesis (in eukaryotes) is– AUG AIPMT-1993
In the genetic dictionary, there are 64 codons as– Genetic code is triplet AIPMT-1990
Genetic code consists of– AIPMT-1988
Adenine and guanine, Cytosine and uracil, Cytosine and guanine
Codons of alanine is– GCU, GCC, GCG AIIMS-27.05.2019 Shift-II,
AIIMS-27.05.2018 Shift-II
If the sequence of bases in the coding strand of a double stranded DNA is 5' AIIMS-2016
GTTCGAGTC -3' the sequence of bases in its transcript will be–
5'-GUUCGAGUC-3'
The binding site of tRNA with mRNA and amino acids respectively are– AIIMS-2009
mRNA with anticodon loop and amino acid with CCA end
If in a gene encoding a polypeptide of 50 amino acids. 25th codon (UAU) is AIIMS-2015
mutated to UAA because–
UAA is a termination codon which will stop the polypeptide synthesis
The codons codes for the same information as UGC– UGU AIIMS-2003
Initiation codon in eukaryotes is– AUG AIPMT-1999, 1994
The sequence of nitrogen bases in a portion of a coding segment of DNA was Karnataka CET-2005
AAT GCT TAG GCA. The sequence of nitrogen bases in the corresponding
region of the transcripted mRNA is–
UUA CGA AUC CGU
During protein synthesis AUG functions as the initiator codon in mRNA. The Karnataka CET-2005
anticodon on the tRNA molecule that picks up and brings the amino acid
specified by this codon– UAC
The types of RNA that carries amino acids towards ribosome during translation– Karnataka CET-2020
tRNA
Several of the amino acids are coded by more than one codon in – KVPY (SA)-05.11.2017
Codon degeneracy
The terminator codons begin with the nucleotide of– Uracil Karnataka CET-2006
The 3'-5' phosphodiester linkages inside a polynucleotide chain serve to join– AIPMT (Mains)-2010
One nucleotide with another nucleotide
The amino acids is coded by single codon is– Tryptophan Karnataka CET-2019
m-RNA is synthesised on DNA template, the direction is– 5' → 3' AIPMT-2001

DNA Fingerprinting and Human Genome Project

Labelled probes are used in DNA fingerprinting for– Hybridisation AP EAPCET-11.05.2023,
Shift-I
The function of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is– DNA amplification UP CPMT-2003
A sequential expression of set of human gene occurs when steroid molecule Manipal-2012
binds to the– DNA sequence

365
The applications of DNA finger printing technique are EXCEPT– MHT CET 5.10.2020
To study chromosomal types Shift-I
On the basis of Human Genome Project report; human genome contains is– Haryana PMT-2002
30,000 genes
The total number of nitrogenous bases in human genome is estimated to be Haryana PMT-2004
about– 3.1 billion
VNTRs is used in– DNA fingerprinting AMU-2002
The device which can remove particulate matter present in the exhaust from a NEET-2022
thermal power plant is– Electrostatic Precipitator
DNA polymorphism forms the basis of– NEET-2022
Both genetic mapping and DNA finger printing
The enzymes that cut the DNA molecule at specific nucleotide sequence is– SRM JEEE -2017
Restriction endonuclease
Molecular glue also called– DNA ligase JIPMER-2019
The first step in the Southern Blot technique is– AIIMS-2004
Digestion Of DNA with restriction enzymes
PCR is associated with– JCECE-2014
DNA cloning, Amplification of DNA, DNA selective replicaiton
The chief enzyme that is involved in PCR technique is– Taq polymerase TS EAMCET-29.09.2020
Shift-I
Thermal cycler is used in this reaction– PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) BVP-2008,
Uttrakhand PMT-2007
The steps in DNA fingerprinting technique are labelled VNTR probes used– Karnataka CET-2018
During hybridization
In genetic fingerprinting the ‘probe’ refers to– Karnataka CET-2010
A radioactively labelled single stranded DNA molecule
The main aim of the human genome project is– Karnataka CET-2010
To identify and sequence all the genes present in human DNA
The fragments of DNA formed after treatment with endonucleases are separated AP EAMCET-2005
by this technique– Electrophoresis
Process which separation of DNA fragments according to their size – AIPMT-2008
Gel electrophoresis
Probes, used in DNA fingerprinting, are initially– Mini-satellite JIPMER-2014
BR
Key tools r–DNA technology are– Molecular scissors, P 322 AP EAMCET-25.04.2018
Shift-II
According to Human Genome Project (HGP), the total number of genes in Karnataka CET-2019
human genome is estimated at 30,000, the number of genes present on Y-
chromosome are– 231 genes

Regulation of Gene Expression

Plasmids are suitable vectors for gene cloning because– These are small AFMC-2007
circular DNA molecules with their own replication origin site
Sigma factor is related to– RNA polymerase Manipal-2003
The enzyme that is used to remove the introns is– Ribozyme CMC Vellore-2014
Skin colour is controlled by– 3 pairs of gene JIPMER-2013
The largest gene in man is– Dystrophin JIPMER-2013

366
The terminator gene technology causes– Rajasthan PMT-2009
Failure of seed setting after one generation
A functional complex comprising a cluster of genes including structural gene, a Uttarakhand PMT-2006
promoter gene, an operator region and a regulatory gene was discovered by–
Jacob and Monad (1961)
During polynucleotide synthesis by the enzymes, in the case that elongation AMU-2014
occurs in 5 → 3 direction is–
DNA polymerase, RNA polymerase, Reverse transcriptase
The function of restriction enzyme is– Cleavages of DNA Rajasthan PMT-2001
Central dogma in molecular biology is– DNA→ RNA→ Protein WB JEE-2015
Restriction endonuclease – Hind II always cuts DNA molecules at a particular Kerala PMT-2013
point by recognizing a specific sequence of– Six base pairs
Genes that are involved in turning on or off the transcription of a set structural Punjab MET-2010
genes are called– Regulatory genes
RNA interference which is employed in making tobacco plant resistant to Karnataka CET-2014
Meloidogyne incognita is essentially involved in–
Preventing the process of translation of mRNA
Differentiation of organs and tissues in a developing organism, is associated AIPMT-2007
with– Differential expression of genes
A sequential expression of a set of human genes occurs when a steroid molecule AIPMT-2007
binds to the– DNA sequence

The Lac Operon

The Lac-Operon model was elucidated by– Karnataka CET-20.05.2023
Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod
Lac Operon concept is introduced by these bio chemist and geneticist is– AP EAPCET-23.05.2023,
Monod & Jacob Shift-II
In operon concept, regulator gene functions as– Repressor WB JEE-2006
Operon unit consists of– Regulator, structural, operator and promoter gene Manipal-2013,
BVP-2010
Substances will repress the lac operon is– Glucose KVPY SB & SX-2015
Co-repressor binds with repressor in – Negative Operon BHU PMT (Screening)-
2010
Number of structural genes in lac operon is– 3 AP EAMCET-25.09.2020
Shift-II
Jacob and Monod studied lactose metabolism in E. coli and proposed operon AIPMT-2002
concept. Operon concept applicable for–
All prokaryotes
In E. coli, during lactose metabolism repressor binds to– Operator gene AIPMT-2002
An environmental agent, the triggers that transcription from as operon, is a– VMMC-2013,
Inducer AIPMT-1995
When Escherichia coli cells are cultured in a medium where Lactose is absent, Karnataka CET-2020
the ‘i’ gene of Lac Operon continues to produce repressor mRNA, because it is–
a constitutive gene
The Lac Operon is turned on when allolactose molecules bind to– Karnataka CET-2012
Repressor protein

367
06.
EVOLUTION
........ amino-acids was found to be synthesized
6.1 Origin of Life Miller experiment- Alanine
In Miller's experiment, he used a mixture of CH4, Miller performed experiment to prove abiogenetic
NH3, H2 and water vapour in a closed flask to mimic molecular evolution of life. That molecule was not
early earth conditions. The temperature at which present in Miller's experiment– Oxygen
this flask was kept– 8000C That organisms develop from pre-existing
Abiogenesis theory of origin of life supports– organisms, said by– Louis Pasteur
Spontaneous generation Compounds were formed in the direction of the
.................. proposed that the first form of life could origin of life– Proteins, nucleic acid
have come from pre-existing non-living organic Stanley Miller synthesized in his experiment–
molecules– Alfred Wallace Amino acid
According to one of the most widely accepted Miller synthesized simple amino-acid from–
theories, earth's atmosphere before origin of life
was– Reducing with oxygen absent in O2 form Hydrogen, methane, ammonia, water
Primitive atmosphere was made up of the mixture
The concept of ............... is based on possible origin
of– Hydrogen, steam, methane, ammonia
of life by combination of chemicals under suitable
environment conditions– Chemical evolution On the earth surface, reducing atmosphere changed
into oxidizing atmosphere with the release of free
Theory of abiogenesis or spontaneous generation
oxygen. This took place due to the–
was disapproved by– Louis Pasteur
From the point of view of early chemical evolution Evolution of oxygenic photoautotrophs
that preceded the origin of life on earth, the simple 6.2 Evolution of Life Forms – A
organic molecules formed were– Sugars, Theory
Amino acids, Purines and pyrimidines
Fitness according to Darwin refers to–
Earth was supposed to have been formed about-4.5
Billion year ago Reproductive fitness of an organism
In the Miller's experiment .............. the groups of Alfred Wallace worked in– Malay Archipelago
gases were used to simulate primitive atmosphere– The theory of natural selection was given by–
NH3, CH4, H2, water vapour Charles Darwin
The first life originated– In water ■ Presence of different types of beaks in finches of
■ According to some early Greek philosophers life can Galapagos island adapted to different feeding habits
transfer from planet to planet in form of a unit are provides evidence for– Natural selection
called as– Spores Approximate age of earth (in million years) is–
■ Fact can best support that the earth is very old– 4000
Fossilized earlier life forms According to Darwin, fitness refers to–
■ The swan neck flask experiment of Louis Pasteur Ability to survive and reproduce
proves– Life cannot be originated from decaying Species are differentiated on the basis of–
and rotting matter Reproductive isolation
■ Most advanced theory of origin of life is that of– Major defect of Darwinism was–
Haldane and Oparin Nondescription of reason for variations
■ Theory of spontaneous creation– Van Helmont Based on the observations, Charles Darwin
■ One of the greatest advocates of the theory of special concluded that– The existing life-forms share
creation– Father Saurez
■ Coacervates– Mixtures of ammonia, similarities with life forms that existed
carbohydrates and water millions of years ago
■ The first form of life arose slowly through Name of the ship in which charles Darwin went for
evolutionary forces from non-living molecules by– his expedition– H.M.S. Beagle
Abiogenesis Darwin explained origin of species through–
One of the possible early sources of energy were– Natural selection
UV rays & lightning Darwin's Theory of Natural Selection was based on–
According to Oparin, was not present in the Struggle for existence
primitive atmosphere of the ease– Oxygen and survival of the fittest
Evolution is– History and development of a race If population of a species is transferred to more
alongwith variations suitable environment then it will show–
…… demonstrated that life comes from life with the More individuals would survive
help of flask with boiled broth– Pasteur The Finches of Galapagos islands provide an
Experiment to prove that synthesis of organic evidence in favour of– Biogeographical Evolution
compounds formed the basis of origin of life was One major criticism of Darwin's theory is that–
performed by– Oparin It does not explain variations with heredity
368
■ The two key concepts of Darwinian theory of ■ The presence of vestigial organs in man supports–
evolution are– The theory of evolution, but not Lamarck's
Branching descent and natural selection theory of inheritance of acquired characters
■ The common ancestor of all the modern reptiles birds ■ For natural selection the important factor is–
and dinosaurs is– Sauropsids Variation
■ Flying squirrel and flying phalanger show–
6.3 What are the Evidence for Convergent evolution
Evolution ■ Dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from the earth
The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs of about– 65 mya (million years ago)
many vertebrates is an example of– Homologous ■ The first true cellular form of like appeared on earth
about– 2k mya
The wings of a bird and the wings of an insect are–
■ The resistant varieties are being evolved in much
Analogous structures and lesser time than before, it is– Anthropogenic
represent convergent evolution activities
■ Evolutionary convergence is development of– The important consequence of geographical
Common set of characters in group of different isolation is–
ancestry Speciation through reproductive isolation
Golden age of reptiles was– Mesozoic era Divergent evolution is– Homologous structure
Periods of cenozoic era are– Examples of convergent evolution are–
Quaternary and Tertiary Sweet potato and potato
The preserved fossil remains of Archaeopteryx Phenomenon of 'industrial melanism' demonstrates–
show that– Reptiles gave rise to birds Natural selection
The most evident source of evolution is– Fossils One provides direct and solid evidence in favour of
Evidence for evolution from fossils belong to the– organic evolution through ages–
Paleontology Palaeontology/fossils
................. set includes structures formed as a result Wings of bat/bird and insect show– Analogy
of divergent evolution– In some organisms the existence of analogous
Forelimbs of man and wings of bat structures (wings of insect and bat, jointed legs of
Organs with anatomical similarities, but performing insect and vertebrates) is due to phenomenon of–
different functions describes the– Convergent evolution
Homologous structure Darwin's finches provide an excellent evidence in
Development of a common set of characteristics in favour of organic evolution. These are related to –
groups of different ancestry – Biogeography
Evolutionary convergence Organs having similar functions but different origin
The eye of octopus and eye of cat show different and development are known as–
patterns of structure, yet they perform similar Analogous organs
function. This is an example of– Fossilization can occur where– Animals are buried
Analogous organs and preserved by natural process
that have evolved due to convergent evolution In some organisms the existence of homologous
............ phenomena supports Darwin's concept of structures in due to phenomenon of–
natural selection in organic evolution– Divergent evolution
Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects Industrial melanism is an example of–
Replacement of the lighter-coloured variety of Protective resemblance with the surrounding
peppered moth (Biston betularia) to its darker The animal that explains industrial melanism is–
variety (Biston carbonaria) in England is the Winged Moth
example of– Natural selection An important evidence in favour of organic
The true black melanic forms escaped unnoticed so evolution is the occurrence of–
they managed to survive resulting in more Homologous and vestigial organs
population of black moths as observed in peppered Best explains the atavism, is–
moth proves that– Industrial Long, thick and dense hair
melanism Two species of different genealogy come to
■ Speciation within same areas by reproductive resemble each other as a result of adaptation, the
isolation– Sympatric phenomenon is termed– Convergent evolution
■ Ancestor is shared by birds, crocodiles and Evolutionary convergence is characterized by–
dinosaurs– Thecodonts Development of a common set of characteristics
■ Connecting link between reptiles and mammals– in groups of different ancestry
Platypus Fossil X can be considered to have evolved earlier
■ Phenomenon of industrial melanism demonstrates– than fossil Y if–
Natural selection Y has vestigial structures that are
■ Tasmanian wolf is a marsupial while wolf is a homologous to functional structures in fossil X
placental mammal. This shows– A baby has been born with a small tail. It is the case
Convergent evolution exhibiting– Atavism
369
The phenomenon industrial melanism proved that– Single step large mutation leading to speciation is
The population of grey moths decreased during also called– Saltation
industrial revolution by natural selection Mutations, discovered by Hugo deVries, are–
Random and directionless
6.4 What is Adaptive Radiation Transfer of genes from one gene pool to another is–
The diversity in the type of beaks of finches adapted Gene flow
to different feeding habits on the Galapagos Island,
Hugo deVries gave his mutation theory on organic
as observed by Darwin, provides evidence for–
evolution while working on–
Origin of species by natural selection
Oenothera lamarckiana
Adaptive radiation refers to– Evolution of Single step large mutations leading to speciation is
different species from a common ancestor also called– Saltational speciation
Parallelism is– Adaptive convergence of closely Extinct animal shows evidences of evolution–
related groups Archaeopteryx
Darwin finches from various islands of Galapagos Mutations are considered raw materials of evolution
island differed in size and shape of bill due to– because they–
Adaptive radiation Contribute to new variations
One of the important consequences of geographical De Vries theory of mutation is–
isolation is–
Not opposed to natural selection theory
Speciation through reproductive isolation According to the theory of mutation by Hugo de
The evolution of numerous species, such as Darwin's Vries– Both small and large mutation
finches, from a single ancestor is called–
cause variation in species
Adaptive radiation A highly competitive groups of animals of same
Australian marsupials are a good example of– species are living in a highly variable environmental
Adaptive radiation conditions. The type of natural selection that is going
Shows adaptive radiation is– Disruptive selection to operate on them is–
6.5 Biological Evolution Disruptive selection
By the statement 'survival of the fittest', Darwin 6.7 Hardy-Weinberg Principle
meant that– The species most adaptable to
■ The change in gene frequency occurred in small
changes survives
population by chance is – Genetic drift
According to Lamarckism, long necked
■ Frequency of an allele may change in isolated
..................evolved because of stretching of necks
population– Genetic drift
over many generations by short necked ones– ■ Genetic drift operates in– Small population
Giraffes.
■ Random change in gene frequency is called–
The evidences that does not favour the Lamarchian Genetic drift
concept of inheritance of acquired characters– Change in gene frequency of population due to
Melanisation in peppered moth chance is– Genetic drift
"Human population grows in geometric ratio while Hardy - Weinberg equation is binomial expansion
food materials increase in arithmetic proportion." It of– (p + q)2
is a statement from– MalthusStabilising selection favours–
Variations may or may not be inherited from parents Intermediate forms of a trait
to offspring through genes all the except– Change in frequency of alleles in population results
Darwinism explainsin evolution as proposed by–
The key concept of Darwin theory of evolution– Hardy–Weinberg principle
Branching descent, Natural selectionGenetic drift operates only in– Smaller population
Closely related, morphologically similar,
Disturbance of Hardy - Weinberg equilibrium results
reproductively isolated sympatric populations are in– Evolution
designated as– Sibling species
Hardy - Weinberg equilibrium is known to be
The factors involved in the formation of new species affected by gene - flow, genetic drift, mutation,
are – Isolation and variation
genetic recombination and– Natural selection
Lamarck's theory of evolution is also called– Random genetic drift in a population probably
Inheritance of acquired charactersresults from–
Biological concept of species is mainly based on– Interbreeding within small population
In random mating population in equilibrium, which
Reproductive isolation
There would be no evolution if– of the following brings about a change in gene
frequency in a non-directional manner–
Genetic variations
were not found among members of population Random drift
In England, weights of babies in a large sample were
6.6 Mechanism of Evolution taken. This is an example for–
Inheritable factors influence phenotypes this Stabilising selection
statement is given by – Mendel In a population in Hardy - Weinberg equilibrium, if
Amphibians were dominant during ............ period– the dominant allele frequency is 0.50, then the
Carboniferous frequency of heterozygotes is– 0.50
370
At a particular locus, frequency of allele A is 0.6 and 6.9 Miscellaneous
that of allele is, 0.4, what would be the frequency of
heterozygotes in a random mating population at The young ones are protected inside the mother's
equilibrium– 0.48 body and are looked after they are born leading to
more chances of survival is considered to be more
In a population of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, evolved– Viviparity
there are 64% of non-tasters of phenylthiocarbamide,
For the MN-blood group system, the frequencies of
which is a recessive trait. The percentage of M and N alleles are 0.7 and 0.3, respectively. The
homozygous tasters in that population– 4% expected frequency of MN-blood group bearing
6.8 Origin and Evolution of Man organisms is likely to be– 42%
The most accepted line of descent in human ........... is used as an atmospheric pollution
evolution is– Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → indicator– Lichens
■ 'Golden Age of Dinosaures'/Age of reptiles–
Homo erectus → Homo sapiens
Mesozoic Era
If the Neanderthals are not the direct ancestors of ■ Fossil remains of Archaeopteryx indicates–
humans, is it still possible for humans and Reptiles gave rise to birds during Jurassic
Neanderthals to be related– Yes, because we
The theory of spontaneous generation stated that–
share a common ancestor
Life can arise from non-living things only
Man like primates were first found in– East Africa Animal husbandry and plant breeding programmes
Australopithecus found in– are the examples of–
East African grassland Artificial selection
The first human-like being, is called – Palaeontological evidences for evolution refer to
Homo habilis the– Fossils
The brain capacity at Homo erectus was about– The bones of forelimbs of whale, bat, cheetah and
900 cc man are similar in structure, because–
The extinct human ancestor, who ate only fruits and They share a common ancestor
hunted with stone weapons, was– Analogous organs arise due to–
Australopithecus Convergent evolution
The cranial capacity was largest among the– (p + q)2 = p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1, represents an equation
Neanderthal man used in– Population genetics
About 15 mya, primates were hairy and walked like Appearance of antibiotic-resistant bacteria is an
gorillas and chimpanzees. They were– example of–
Dryopithecus, Ramapithecus Pre-existing variation in the population
The most apparent change during the evolutionary Evolution of life shows that life forms had a trend of
history of Homo sapiens is traced in– Remarkable moving from– Water to land
increase in brain capacities Fossils are generally found in– Sedimentary rocks
Evolution of man was possible because our ape-like An example for link species– Lobe fish
ancestors– Showed bipedal movement Natural selection where more individuals acquired
on open land specific character value other than the mean
…… drew excellent pictures of animals in caves, character value, leads to –
made tools, carved ornaments from ivory stone, Directional change
arrows, etc.– Cro-magnon man The factor that leads to Founder effect in a
Scientific name of Java man is– population is– Genetic drift
Homo erectus erectus Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples of–
The proper burial of dead for the first time started Convergent evolution
with which prehistoric man– Neanderthal man Embryological support for evolution was
…… arose between 75,000–10,000 years ago, i.e., disapproved by– Karl Ernst von Baer
during ice age– Homo sapiens From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino
The least cranial capacity was that of– acids by mixing the closed flask–
Homo habilis CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 8000C
Homo sapiens arise in– Africa After about how many years of formation of earth,
life appeared on this planet–
Cro-Magnon Man was– Carnivorous
500 million years
Modern man differs from apes in–
Embryological support for evolution was proposed
Arms shorter than legs by– Ernst Haeckel
Direct ancestor of Homo sapiens is– Homo erectus A Hominid fossil discovered in Java in 1891, now
The most primitive ancestor of man is– extinct, having cranial capacity of about 900 cc was–
Ramapithecus Homo erectus
Cave paintings by Pre-historic humans can be seen According Hugo-de-vries, the mechanism of
at Bhimbetka rock shelter in– evolution is–
Madhya Pradesh Saltation
371
 EXAM POINT
The Origin of Life
The ratio of methane, ammonia and hydrogen in Stanley Millers experiment MHT CET-6.10.2020-Shift-I /
was– 2:1:2 APEAMCET-
2011,
UP CPMT-2009 / Punjab
MET-2009 / DUMET-2008
The important gas which was absent during the formation of Earth is– WB JEE-2012 / CMC Vellore-
Oxygen 2012,
CMC Ludhiana-2009
JCECE-2009,
Manipal -2007 / UPCPMT -
2006,
Karnataka CET-2006 / BVP-
2004,
DUMET-2003 / AIPMT-1991
The abiogenesis occured about how many billion years ago– 3.5 billion Punjab MET-1999
Theory of spontaneous generation was first refuted experimentally by– AFMC-2000
Louis Pasteurand John Tyndall
Life originated in– Water BCECE-2011 / VMMC-2002
The famous book "Origin of Species" was written by Charles Darwin in– 1859 WB JEE -2011 / BVP-2010,
Rajasthan PMT -2005 /
AIPMT-1989
Formation of similar structure in embryo represents– Biogenetic law UP CPMT-2010 / J&K CET
2005 / AIIMS -1998
First conducted experiments on evolution to prove biochemical origin of life by– DUMET-2008,05 / UP CPMT-
Miller and Urey 2003
Ontogeny repeats phylogeny is a part of– Recapitulation theory Punjab MET-2009 / J&K
CET-2009, 2008,
UP CPMT-2003, 2009 /
DUMET-2005, 2002, 2001
Embryo evolution theory gave by– Ernst Haeckel UP CPMT-2003
Believers of spontaneous generation theory assumed that– Uttarakhand PMT-2007 /
Organisms arise-from non-living material BVP-2014, 2008

The category of molecules produced by the Miller-Urey experiment was– JCECE-2018 / Manipal-2011,
Organic monomers CMC VELLORE-2011
The results of Miller's experiments were discussed in the book ''The Planets'' AFMC -2009
written by– Harold Urey
The theory of pangenesis was rejected due to the acceptance of– DUMET-2008
Weismann theory of germplasm
In the origin of life, microspheres are most primitive protobiont, which have a DUMET-2008
membrane of– Lipid and proteins
The term hot dilute soup was used by– Haldane DUMET-2008
Biological concept of species is mainly based on– Reproductive isolation UP CPMT-2012
Urey-Millers experiment mixture had the except– CO2 J&K CET-2009
Due to discovery of 1980s, the evolution was termed as RNA world due to the BHU PMT (Screening)-
discovery of – 2010
RNA enzymes

372
Similarities in organisms with different genotypes indicates– BHU PMT (Screening)-
Convergent evolution 2010
The unit of evolution is now known to be the– Population J&K CET-2012
The concept of chemical evolution is based on– Origin of life Rajasthan PMT-2010 /
by combination of chemicals under suitable environmental conditions AIIMS-2010
The compound that has very important role in prebiotic evolution is– CH4 MGIMS Wardha-2008 /
Rajasthan PMT -
2005,
UPCPMT-2002 / AIIMS-1997
Theory of pangenesis was given by– Darwin (in 1868) BHU PMT (Mains)-2010 /
BCECE-2014,
DUMET-2006 / BVP-
2004,2001 / DUMET-2003
Basic elements of life are– C, H, O, N AMU-1998
Discovery of fossils of cyanobacteria indicates that life originated sometime– AMU-1998
More than 3600 million years ago
Origin of life occurred in– Precambrian Era Uttarakhand PMT-2009,
BVP-2009
Miller and Urey performed an experiment to prove the origin of life. They took AMU-2012 / JIPMER-2008,
gases NH3, and H2 alongwith– H2O and CH4 Rajasthan PMT-2006, 2003,
Punjab MET-2006, 2003
/MGIMS Wardha -
2003,
Manipal -2001 / UP CPMT-
2001 /Haryana PMT- 2000
First organisms to evolve on the earth were– Chemoheterotrophs CMC Vellore-2014 / BHU
PMT (Screening)-
2010,
UP CPMT-2001 / AIPMT-
2001, 1992
In S. Miller's experiment was formed– Amino acids MHT CET -2016 / VMMC-
2012,
Uttarakhand PMT-2008 / CG
PMT-2008,
Rajasthan PMT-2008 / UP
CPMT-2008,
BVP-2007 / AIPMT-1999 /
Rajasthan PMT-1999
Origin of first mammals occurred in– 220 million years ago Haryana PMT-2002
Chemical theory of origin of life was given by– Oparin and Haldane JCECE-2018 / Kerala PMT-
2012,
JIPMER-2001 / CG-PMT-
2006
Pasteur's Swan necked flask experiment proved– Biogenesis TS EAMCET-2018 / AMU-
2005,
Karnataka CET -2001
The long gap of 300 million years between the origin of earth and of life was due to AMU-1997
lack of– Suitable temperature, O2
Whereas the earth is believed to be 4,500 million years old, life on this planet is NEET -2020 Phase II / AMU-
estimated to have originated not earlier than– 3,500 million years ago 1997
According to abiogenesis life originate from– Non-living matter J & K CET -2011 / DUMET-
2009

373
The most primitive cell like chemical aggregates capable of growth and division BVP-2012
were– Microspheres
There is no life on moon due to the absence of– Water AIPMT-2002
Earth originated approximately– 4.6 billion years ago JIPMER -2015 / J&K CET-
2004
Experimental verification of chemical origin of life was successfully proved by– TS EAMCET-02.05.2018
Urey and Miller (in 1953) Shift-II,
JIPMER-1996
"Continuity of germplasm" theory was given by– Weismann (in 1892) Manipal -2014 / JIPMER -
2012 /VMMC-
2009,
AMU-2007 / Haryana PMT -
2003,
APEAMCET -1998 / AIPMT -
1989
The origin of species from pre-existing species is– Speciation J&K CET-2002
Fossil evidences of evolution are called– Palaeontology J&K CET-2002
Spontaneous generation theory was given by– Louis Pasteur (in 1859) BVP-2005
Big bang theory was proposed by– Lemaitre BVP-2001
Panspermia, an idea that is still a favourite for some astronomers, means– NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022
Transfer of spores as unit of life from other planets to Earth
The protein first hypothesis (in origin of life) is given by– Sidney Fox CMC Vellore-2013
The mostly accepted theories on the origin of life is– Chemical origin Karnataka CET-2011
The Coacervates were discovered by– Oparin and Haldane JIPMER-2019 / APEAMCET -
2011,
Punjab MET -2005 /
Karnataka CET -2004
Francisco Redi and Spallanzani disproved the theory of by their classical MHT CET-2017
experiment–
Abiogenesis
Origin of life took place in/on– Sea water CG PMT-2005
Theory of catastropism was supported by– Cuvier DUMET-2006
In Miller's experiment, he used a mixture of CH4, NH3, H2 and water vapour in a AIIMS-2013
closed flask to mimic early earth conditions. What was the temperature at which
this flask was kept– 800ºC
………… these are considered most essential in the origin of life– AIIMS-2001
Nucleic acids
Theory of abiogenesis was conclusively disproved by– AP EAMCET-25.09.2020
Conducting swan neck experiment by Pasteur Shift-I

Primitive earth had– Reducing atmosphere (without free oxygen) CMC Vellore-2012
The term protobiogenesis used for theory of– Biochemical origin of life Manipal-2002
Evolution is– History and development of race along with variations AIPMT-1989
The presence of gill slits, in the embryos of all vertebrates, supports the theory AIPMT-1995
of– Recapitulation
Evolutionary history of an organism is known as– Phylogeny JCECE-2009 / AFMC-2008,
AIPMT-2006 / CGPMT-2004
Stanley Miller proposed origin of life by– Chemical synthesis Manipal-2005
The material for organic evolution is– Mutation CG PMT-2004

374
Modern theory of organic evolution is based on– CG PMT-2004
Mutation, Isolation, Natural selection
For natural selection, the important factor is– Variation BVP-2011

The most recent period in human evolution is– Neolithic BVP-2011

To Cuvier, the differences in fossils from different strata were evidences for– Punjab MET-2005
Local catastrophic events such as droughts or floods
The oldest fossil record from India is of a blue-green alga which is 2.9 billion Punjab MET-2005
years old. It is– Archaeo Spheroides
The gases present that were in prebiotic atmosphere– Ammonia, Methane WB JEE-2015
Total number of years are considered in one minute in Geological clock is– GUJCET-2015
3,125,000 years
The prebiotic atmosphere of the earth was of a reducing nature. It was Karnataka CET-2012
transformed into an oxidizing atmosphere of present day due to the emergence
of– Cyanobacteria
Transformation of the early reducing atmosphere of the earth into an oxidizing Karnataka CET-2008
atmosphere was mainly due to the activities of–
Aerobic photosynthesizers

Evidences for Evolution

“Inheritance of acquired characters” suggested by Lamarck to be false, proved TS EAMCET 10.05.2023
by– August Weismann Shift-I
The branch of botany which helps in understanding the course of evolution in plants AP EAMCET-11.07.2022
is– Paleobotany Shift-II,
Karnataka CET -2013 /
AFMC -2004
The relatively most accurate method for dating of fossils is– Uttarakhand PMT -2010 /
Electron-spin resonance method AIPMT-2005

Prototherians are the connecting links between– Reptiles and mammals WB JEE-2006
The pioneers in the field of organic evolution are– WB JEE-2006
Darwin, Hugo de Vries, Lamarck, Huxley
Foot prints, trails, tracks and tunnels of various organisms made in mud are AMU-2015
rapidly filled in with sand and covered by sediments. This is an example of
………… type of fossil– Impressions
The vestigial organ of human is– Wisdom teeth DUMET-2006 / BVP -2005 /
Haryana PMT -
2004 /
Punjab MET-2003 / Manipal -
2003
The earliest fossil form in phylogeny of horses is– Eohippus MGIMS Wardha-2007
The wings of bat, locust and pigeon are the examples of– Analogous organs Manipal-2012 / AFMC -2002
Birbal Sahni worked on– Fossil plants Manipal-2011
Cosmozoic theory was proposed by– Richter (1865) Manipal-2004
The theory of use and disuse of organ was proposed by– Lamarck J&K CET-2008
S L Miller's closed flask contained– CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapour J&K CET-2008
The first fossil evidence of life dates from about– 3.7 billion years ago DUMET-2010
An important evidence in favour of organic evolution is the occurrence of– DUMET-2008
Homologous and vestigial organs
375
The isotopes is used for finding the fossil having age more than 4500 year– DUMET-2008
238
U
Sweet potato and potato are examples of– Analogous structure DUMET-2008
The characters that provides a strong evidence in support of organic ovulation is– UP CPMT-2012
Gill clefts in vertebrate embryos
As per geological time scale, hominids evolved during– Pliocene AFMC-2007
Darwins finches provide excellent evidence in favour of organic evolution. These Haryana PMT-2010 / AFMC-
are related to the evidences is– 2007
Biogeography (or geographic distribution)
Half life period of C14 is– 5,730 years BHU PMT (Screening)-2010 /
BVP-2008
Prehistoric forms of life are found in fossils. The probability of finding fossils of KVPY SA-2012
more complex organisms–
Increases from lower to upper strata
Industrial melanism as observed in peppered moth proves that– Rajasthan PMT-2010
The true black melanic form arise by a recurring random mutation
The set that includes only analogous organs is– UP CPMT - 2005 / JIPMER-
Wings of butterfly and Sparrow and bat 2006,
MGIMS Wardha-2005
Myrmecobius and Myrmecophaga are closely related and have similar BCECE-2010
adaptations for the same habitat. This phenomenon is–
Parallel evolution
An evolutionary pattern characterized by a rapid increase in the number and AMU-2010, 2012
kinds of closely related species is called– Adaptive radiation
Most fossils have been found in– Sedimentary rocks AMU-1999
The most provided evident proof of evolution is– Fossils JIPMER - 2009 / UP CPMT-
2012, 2008,
VMMC-2012 / DUMET -2004
The oldest living fossil is– Neopilina AFMC-2010 / CG PMT-2007
Homologous organs are– Paddle of Whale, front legs of Haryana PMT-2002 / JIPMER
horse and arms of humans 1996 / AIPMT-1999

A pair of analogous organs is– Contractile vacuole in BVP -2005 / Haryana PMT-
Amoeba and uriniferous tubules in frog 2004 / Manipal-2003

The living fossil are– Latimeria, Cycas, Coelacanth, Limulus, Sphenodon AMU-2008V / MMC-2008
The phenomena supports Darwin′s concept of natural selection in organic CG PMT-2006
evolution is– Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects
Lamarck was– French scientist (inheritance of acquired characters) DUMET-2002,2001
Phrase Survival of the Fittest was used by– Herbert Spencer APEAMCET -2018 / Haryana
PMT-2003
Vestigial organs present in an adult individual are examples of basis of evidences J&K CET-2007
of evolution– Anatomical
Peripatus is a connecting link of– Annelida and Arthropoda CG PMT-2010
Lungs of rabbit and gills of rohu are example of– Homologous organ BVP-2013
Beak is toothed in– Archaeopteryx BVP-2012
Homologous organs indicate the– Common descendants Rajasthan PMT-2011

376
Eusthenopteron connects– Fishes and amphibians AP EAMCET-1999
The type of fossil where hard parts like bone or trunks of trees are preserved are AMU-1996
known as– Petrifiction
Regeneration of a limb is the example of– Epimorphosis CMC Ludhiana -2013
The banding pattern of chromosomes 3 and 6 of human beings and chimpanzee BCECE-2003
shows that they had– Common origin
Resemblance between widely different groups due to a common adaptation is Manipal-2006
known as– Convergent evolution
Sudden appearance of an ancestral character is known as– Atavism JCECE -2014 / Manipal-
2006
Plants of the Galapagos Islands resembles most closely to the plants of– Manipal-2006, 2014
South America
According to fossils which discovered up to present time, origin and evolution of AIPMT-2002
man was started from (country)– Africa
Cretaceous, Jurassic and Triassic periods are included in – Mesozoic era MHT CET-04.10.2020
Shift-I
Industrial melanism was highlighted by– Biston betularia (Moth) Kerala PMT-2008
Which was having lowest brain capacity during human evolution– GUJCET-2020
Homo habillis
Wings of pigeon, mosquito and bat shows– Convergent evolution AIIMS-1999
The terms that represents a pair of contrasting character is– Allelomorphs AIIMS-1994
Homologous organs are– Similar in origin and different in functions HP CET-2018
Human ancestors who left cave paintings were– Cro-magnon man JIPMER-2010
Embryological support for evolution was disapproved by– NEET-2020 Phase-I / AIPMT -
Karl Ernst von Baer 1990

According to Darwinism the term fitness is– SRM JEE -2017

Ability to survive and reproduce
Phenetic classification is based on– AIPMT-2003
Observable characteristics of existing organisms
The sequences that was proposed by Darwin and Wallace for organic evolution AIPMT-2003
are– Overproduction, constancy of population size,
variations, natural selection
In turnip, 2/3 part of swollen area is derived from– Hypocotyl JIPMER-2006
Seymouria is a connecting link between– Amphibians and Reptiles MHT CET-2017
Vestigial organs are those organs which are– not of much use today CG PMT-2005
Philosophic zoologique written by– Lamarck DUMET-2006
Coverstone of theory of Darwin was– Natural selection DUMET-2005
Tendrils in plants are an example of– Divergent evolution DUMET-2011
Darwins judged the fitness of an individual by– Number of offsprings DUMET-2011
The postulates that is related with Neo-Darwinism is– AIIMS-2009
Mutations are believed to help form new species,
It incorporates isolation as an essential component of evolution
Genetic drift operates only in– Smaller population AIIMS-2001

377
Who explained the evolution in most acceptable form– AIIMS-27.05.2018 Shift-I
Lamarck, Darwin, Hugo de Vries
Descent with modification is the main theme of– Evolution Punjab MET-2007
Parallelism is– Adaptive convergence of closely related groups AIPMT-1990
The isotopes that is most dangerous to Homo sapiens is– Strontium-90 AIPMT-1996

The change of the lighter-coloured variety of peppered moth (Biston betularia) to AIPMT-1996
its darker variety (Biston carbonaria) is due to– Mutation
Evolutionary convergence is characterised by– Development of a WB JEE-2006,
common set of characteristics in groups of different ancestry AIPMT-1997
The mammals (animals) from colder climate generally have shorter hair and not J&K CET-2013
fully developed ear, eyes and other phenotypic characters. This known as–
Allen's rule
Paleontological evidence for evolution is– Archaeopteryx Punjab MET-2011
Change in the number of body parts is called– Meristic variation VMMC-2009
Neoteny refers to– Retention of larval or embryonic trait in the adult body WBJEE-2015,
CMC Vellore-2008
The animal used to explain industrial melanism is– Peppered moth Karnataka CET-2000
Fossilized faecal material of animals are known as– Coprolites J&K CET-2011
The original features of Darwin's finches in Galapagos islands were adapted for– Kerala PMT-2013
Seed eating characteristics
The diversity in the type of beaks of finches adapted to different feeding habits Punjab MET-2010
on the Galapagos Islands, as observed by Darwin, provides evidence for–
Origin of species by natural selection
Analogous structures are a result of– Convergent evolution NEET-2016 Phase-I
In the case of peppered moth (Biston betularia) the black-coloured from became AIPMT-2009
dominant over the light-coloured form in England during industrial revolution.
This is an example of–
Natural selection whereby the darker forms were selected
In Bougainvillea and Cucurbita, the axillary bud is modified into thorn and Karnataka CET-2019
tendril respectively. This is an example of– Divergent Evolution
The evidence of evolution related to Darwin's finches is– AIPMT-2000
Evidences from biogeographical distribution
Dinosaurs dominated the world in geological era is– NEET (Karnataka)-2013
Jurassic Period of Mesozoic Era
The theory that environment can bring about changes in individuals was AP EAMCET-2011
proposed by– Lamarck
Development of Pentadactylous nature in vertebrates is example of– UP CPMT-2006
Divergent and adaptative radiation
Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita are example for– AIPMT - 2008,
Divergent evolution Karnataka CET-2014
Among the human ancestors the brain size was more than 1000 CC in– AIPMT-2007
Homo neanderthalensis
The common to whale, that seal and shark is– Convergent evolution AIPMT-2007
According to de Vries theory, evolution is– Discontinuous, Jerky UP CPMT-2011

378
 Adaptive Radiation
Wings of birds (Sparrow) and Pectoral fins of fish are - Homologous organs AIPMT-2002
Convergent evolution is illustrated by– Dog fish and whale AP EAMCET-24.09.2020
Shift-I
Australian Marsupials exhibiting adaptive radiation are– NEET (UG) 07.05.2023
Numbat, Spotted cuscus, Flying phalanger
Analogous organs have– Different origin but similar functions CMC Vellore-2014 / VMMC-
2011
Darwin's finches refers to– A type of birds present of Galapagos islands Punjab MET-2009 / Rajasthan
PMT-2009
The classical example of adaptive radiation in development of new species is– UP CPMT-2004
Darwin finches, Marsupials of Australia, Giant turtle
The burrowing marsupial is– Notoryctus Punjab MET-1999 / AP
EAMCET-1997
The adaptive similarities in different animals, found in the same habitat, is Punjab MET-1999
called– Convergent evolution
An evolutionary process, giving rise to new species adapting to new habitats and DUMET-2008
ways of life is called– Adaptive radiation
Darwin's finches provide an excellent evidence in favor of organic evolution. Manipal-2012, 2000 / AMU-
These are related to evidences of evolution – 2007 / WB JEE-2006
Biogeographical or geographic distribution
An example of Adaptive radiation in selection is– Diversifying selection Uttarakhand PMT-2010 / AP
EAMCET-2003
Darwin′s theory of natural selection fails to explain– Arrival of the fittest AP EAMCET-2001
Finches of Galapagos islands differ from main land finches in size, colour and MHT CET-07.10.2020
food habits. It is due to– Geographical isolation Shift-I
The homologous organs are– BCECE-2008
Whales flipper, horses forelimb, human hand
The mode of speciation mediated by geographical isolation is referred to as– KVPY SA-2019
Allopatric speciation
Natural selection where more individuals acquire specific character value other NEET-2022
than the mean character value, leads to– Directional change
Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples of– Convergent evolution NEET-2020 Phase-I
Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking ; forelimbs of whale used in swimming and AIPMT-2014
forelimbs of bats used in flying are an example of–
Homologous organs
Analogous structures are– Gills of prawn and lungs of man AIPMT-2014
In Australia, marsupials and placental mammals have evolved to share many NEET (Odisha)-2019
similar characteristics. This type of evolution may be referred to as–
Convergent Evolution
A population of a species invades a new area. The condition that will lead to NEET (Odisha)-2019
Adaptive Radiation is– Area with many types of vacant habitats
The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs of many vertebrates is an NEET-2018
example of– Homology
The process by which organisms with different evolutionary history evolve NEET-2013
similar phenotypic adaptation in response to a common environmental challenge,
is called– Convergent evolution

379
The eye of octopus and eye of cat show different patterns of structure, yet they NEET-2013
perform similar function. This is an example of Analogous organs that have
evolved due to – convergent evolution
Praying mantis is a good example of– Camouflage by mimicry AIPMT-2006
More than 70% of world's fresh water is contained in– Polar ice AIPMT-2005
As an example of adaptive radiation, Darwin observed a variety of finches in– MHT CET-2018
Galapagos Islands
The animals that shows discontinuous distribution is– Lung fishes DUMET-2011
Reproductive isolation in sympatric speciation develops without– AIIMS-2017
Geographical barrier
Darwin's finches are a good example of– Adaptive radiation JIPMER-2012 / AIPMT
(Screening)-2010,
AIPMT-2008
Evolution of different species in a given area starting from a point and spreading NEET-2020 Phase-II / AIPMT
to other geographical areas is known as– Adaptive radiation (Screening)-2012
The peculiar primitive animals found in Madagascar but absent in Africa are– AP EAMCET-2008
Lemurs
One of the important consequences of geographical isolation is– AIPMT-2007
Speciation through reproductive isolation
The finches of Galapagos islands provide an evidence in favor of– AIPMT-2007
Biogeographical Evolution
Hardy Weinberg Principle
In a population, Hardy Weinberg equilibrium is disturbed by factors EXCEPT– MHT CET-2019
Gene flow
The chance of elimination of genes from a small population is an example of– UP CPMT-2004
Genetic drift
Genetic drift is the elimination of– BVP-2010
Gene of some original characteristic of a species due to epidemics
Change in frequency of alleles in a population results in evolution is proposed J&K CET-2008
in– Hardy-Weinberg principle
A change in the relative abundance of an allele (the allelic frequency) within a HP CET-2011
population, over a succession of generations is called– Micro evolution
The mechanism of evolution affects that the genetic makeup of a population is– J&K CET-2014
Genetic drift
Group of genes present in an ecosystem is called as– Gene pool Rajasthan PMT-1998
The concept of genetic drift was introduced by– Sewall Wright Punjab MET-2011,
Karnataka CET-2003
Darwinian fitness is lowered from minimum to zero, to check the undue AP EAMCET-2002
accumulation of deleterious mutations by– Normalizing selection
For natural selection, the important factor is– Variation CG PMT-2011
Random genetic drift in a population leads to– JCECE-2015 / AIPMT-2003
Increased inbreeding within a population
In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of heterozygous individual is NEET-2016 Phase-II
represented by– 2pq
A population will not exist in Hardy - Weinberg equilibrium if– AIPMT-2015
Individuals mate selectively

380
Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher milk output represents– NEET-2017
Directional as it pushes the mean of the character in one direction
In which condition, the gene ratio remains constant for any species– AIPMT-2002
Random mating
Hardy Weinberg equilibrium is affected by– AIIMS-25.05.2019 Shift-I
Natural selection, New mutation, Genetic drift
The natural selection that acts against change in the form and keeps the Manipal-2010 / AP EAMCET-
population constant through the time is– Stabilizing 2006
Transfer of genetic material between populations is best defined as– KVPY (SA)-05.11.2017
Gene flow
Brief Account of Evolution
If speciation takes place due to geographical isolation, it is called– AP EAPCET-10.05.2023,
Allopatric speciation Shift-II
Darwin proposed the theory of– Natural selection BCECE-2005 / Rajasthan
PMT-2009,
Punjab MET-2009
The struggle for existence and survival of the fittest theories was given by– JCECE-2008
Darwin
First mammal occur in ……….. -– Triassic period -Mesozoic era JCECE-2008
Phenomenon of industrial melanism demonstrates– Natural selection Rajasthan PMT-2004
Dinosaurs become extinct in– Cretaceous period Punjab MET-2003
Dominant era of amphibians is– Carboniferous UP CPMT-2010
Triassic and Jurassic Periods belong to Era– Mesozoic Tripura JEE-2018
The golden age of reptiles is– Mesozoic era CMC Ludhiana-2015 / J&K
CET-2008,
AIIMS-1994 / BVP-2002 / UP
CPMT-2003
The method of classification, called cladistics, is based on– Uttarakhand PMT-2004
Evolutionary history
The gymnosperms formed the dominant vegetation on the earth during the AMU-1999
geological period called– Triassic Period
Abiogenetic theory of origin states– Spontaneous generation Manipal-2000
The phenomenon ontogeny repeats phylogeny is explained by– Manipal-2000
Inheritance theory
Mammals are believed to have evolved from reptiles in– Triassic CG PMT-2011 / Haryana
PMT-2002 / AMU-1997
The periods that is largely associated with extinction of dinosaurs and increase in JCECE-2018 / DUMET-2009
the plants and reptiles is– Cretaceous
Dinosaurs were most abundant in– Jurassic SRM JEEE-2019 / J&K CET-
2004,
Haryana PMT-2003
The dominant animal during Mesozoic era is– Reptiles (Plesiosaurus) AP EAMCET-1997 / Manipal-
2002
According to the Neo-Darwinian theory that is responsible for the origin of new AFMC-2006
species– Mutations together with natural selection
Survival of the fittest is the basic principle of a competition. Its importance in J&K CET-2007
organic evolution was explained by– Charles Darwin

381
The earliest fossil form in phylogeny of horse is– Eohippus BVP-2012
Two or more species occupying same or over lapping areas are– Sympatric BVP-2012
The fossil record of placoderms is found in era– Palaeozoic AP EAMCET-2000
The presence of gill slits in the embryos of all vertebrates supports the theory of– CMC Vellore-2014
Recapitulation
The first organisms appears on earth were– Chemoheterotrophs CMC Vellore-2014
Cenozoic era refers to the age of– Birds and mammals AP EAMCET-1999
The devonian period is considered to be as– Age of fishes AMU-1996
For evolution the most important requirement is– Variation AMU-2003
Diversification in plant life appeared– AIPMT-2004
Due to long periods of evolutionary changes
The factor that leads to founder effect in a population is– Genetic drift NEET-2021
Variation in gene frequencies within population can occur by chance rather than NEET-2013
by natural selection. This is referred to as– Genetic drift
According to Darwin, the organic evolution is due to– NEET-2013
Interspecific competition between species
Jurassic period of the Mesozoic era is characterized by– AIPMT-2006
Gymnosperms are dominant plants and first birds appear
The animals that developed the ability of using ribs and intercostals muscle in AP EAMCET-11.07.2022
ventilation for the first time in vertebrate evolution is– Reptiles Shift-II
During the geological period of evolution that did the greatest diversification of JIPMER-2015
life occurred on the earth is– Cambrian Period
Mammals evolved from therapsids reptiles in Triassic period. The type of skull AP EAMCET-2007
in these reptiles is– Synapsid skull
A group of plants representing one or more ecospecies of common evolutionary SRM JEEE-2018
origin is– Cenospecies
Cuscuta is an example of– Ectoparasitism AIPMT (Mains)-2012
Collagen is– Fibrous protein AIPMT-2002
Origin and Evolution of MAN
According to fossils discovered up to present time, the origin and evolution of AIPMT-2002
man started from which country– Africa
The most recent and direct prehistoric ancestor of present man is– Cro-magnon Punjab MET-2009 / Rajasthan
PMT-2009,
UP CPMT-2009
Modern man is evolved– Between 75000-10000 year ago Uttarakhand PMT-2004
The early man whose skeleton is almost indistinguishable from that of modern HP CET-2011
man – Cro-magnon man
Homo erectus evolved during– Pleistocene WB JEE-2012 / AIIMS-2009
Ancestors of man, who first time showed bipedal movement in - WB JEE-2009
Australopithecus
Each embryo's developing stage represent an adult form of an evolutionary BVP-2012 / MGIMS Wardha-
ancestor recapitulation theory states that– Haeckel's biogenetic law 2007
Modern man differs from apes in– Arms shorter than legs Manipal-2011
Agriculture was originated in Mesolithic age about– 7000-15000 years ago BHU PMT-2001
The brain capacity of Homo erectus is– 900 cc Kerala CPMT-2011 / J&K
CET-2008 / BVP-2002

382
Name given to fossil hominid of Shivalik hills in India is– Ramapithecus HP CET-2011 / Manipal-2010,
AMU-2009, 2004 / VMMC-
2005,
Uttarakhand PMT-2004
The chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent is– J&K CET-2009
Ramapithecus-Australopithecus-Homo habilis -Homo erectus
The first human-like being was– Homo habilis Karnataka CET-2022 / Kerala
PMT-2015,
AP EAMCET-2015
Among the human ancestors, the brain size was more than 1000 cc in– Rajasthan PMT-2010
Homo neanderthalensis
The cranial capacity of Peking man was about– 1075 cc MGIMS Wardha-2008
Highest cranial capacity is present in– Cro - magnon man (around 1660 cc) AMU-2011, 2005, 2004 / UP
CPMT-2006,
VMMC-2005 / Haryana PMT-
2004
The biological name of the Java man is– CG PMT-2007 / Haryana
Homo erectus, Pithecanthropus erectus PMT-2002

In human evolution, the most recent is– Neolithic VMMC-2008 / AMU-2008 /

CG PMT-2007
Bipedal locomotion is advantageous because It– Haryana PMT-2002
Releases forlimbs for other purposes
Prehistoric man was– Food gatherer Haryana PMT-2002
The fossils of this man provide first evidence for the burial of their dead is– JCECE-2018,
Neanderthal man UP CPMT-2002
Dubois in 1891 found the fossil of Java ape man. It is– Pithecanthropus erectus JIPMER-2000,
MHT CET-2017
"Lucy" is the fossil of– Australopithecus AP EAMCET-25.09.2020
Shift-II
A Hominid fossil discovered in Java in 1891, now extinct, having cranial NEET-2020 Phase-II
capacity of about 900 cc was– Homo erectus
"Homo sapiens" implies – Modern man AIIMS-2007
The extinct human ancestor, who eat only fruits and hunted with stone weapons AIIMS-2012
was– Australopithecus
The cranial capacity was largest among the– Neanderthal man AIIMS-2002
The changes for man in the course of evolution that is probably useless– AIPMT-1996
Loss of tail
The direct ancestor of Homo sapiens– Homo erectus AIPMT-1996
The brain capacity of Homo habilis is– Between 650 cc–800 cc Karnataka CET-2019
Homo sapiens have evolved in– Pleistocene AIPMT-2000
The most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from AIPMT (Screening)-2012
his ancestors was– Increasing cranial capacity
The Mediterranean type of popular fowls are called– White leghorn AP EAMCET-2003
A baby has been born with a small tail. It is the case exhibiting– Atavism Haryana PMT-2004
Feature and shared characters depicting evolution in the form of a diagram- BHU PMT (Screening)-2011
Cladogram represents

383
Mass extinction at the end of Mesozoic era was probably due to– DUMET-2009
The collision of earth with large meteorites
The period that is dubbed as the age of prokaryotic microbes– Proterozoic Era AIPMT-1995
Origin of life occurred in– Precambrian Era JIPMER-2012
The most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from AIPMT (Screening)-2011
his ancestors is– Increasing brain capacity
Common link between apes and man was– Dryopithecus AP EAMCET-2011
The fossils of java man was obtained from– Java AP EAMCET-2011
The human ancestors is known as tool maker that is– Homo habilis JIPMER-2016
The most recent and direct pre-historic ancestor is– Cro-magnon JIPMER-2014
3
The cranial capacity of modern man is– 1200-1600 cc UP CPMT-2011

Biological Evolution
The method of representing phylogeny by branching diagram was introduced by– AP EAPCET-23.05.2023,
Ernst Haeckel Shift-I
Coverstone of theory of Darwin was– Natural selection UP CPMT-2003,2009 / J&K
CET-2006
Some bacteria able to grow in streptomycin containing medium due to– AIPMT-2002
Natural selection
From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino acids by mixing the following NEET-2020 Phase-I
in a closed flask– CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 800°C
The chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent is– NEET-2016 Phase-II
Ramapithecus→Australopithecus→Homo habilis→Homo erectus
Alexander Von Humboldt described for the first time– NEET-2017
Species area relationships
Weismann cut off tails of mice generation after generation but tails neither SRM JEEE -2017 / AIPMT-
disappeared nor shortened showing that– Lamarckism was wrong 1993
De Vries gave his mutation theory on organic evolution while working on – AIPMT-2005
Oenothera lamarckiana
The phenomena that supports Darwin's concept of natural selection in organic AIPMT-2005
evolution is– Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects
Descent of man and selection in relation to sex was written by– Darwin AP EAMCET-24.09.2020
Shift-I
Lederberg's replica experiment explains– Darwin's theory AP EAMCET-2011
Darwin's book "Origin of New Species by Natural Selection" was published in– UP CPMT-2002
1859
According to Darwin, evolution is– A slow, gradual and continuous process Karnataka CET-2010
The best description of natural selection is– The reproductive success JIPMER-2016
of the members of a population best adapted to environment
Higher frequency of melanic British moths and DDT resistance in mosquitoes Karnataka CET-2008
are cited as examples for– Natural selection
Variations are inherited from parents to offspring through genes- JIPMER-2014 / Karnataka
Darwinism explains CET-2009

Darwins finches represent– Geographical isolations JIPMER-2014

McDougall experiment with rats supported– Neo-Lamarckism SRM JEEE-2018
Jean-Baptiste Lamarck explained evolution based on– KVPY (SA)-05.11.2017
Inheritance of acquired characteristics

384
07.
HUMAN HEALTH AND DISEASE
Where will you look for the sporozoites of malarial
7.1 Common Diseases in Humans
parasite–
Ringworm is the causal organism–
Saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito
Many fungi belong to the genera microsprorum,
An intestinal parasite which causes blockage of the
Trichophyton and Epidermophyton
intestinal passage and whose eggs are excreted
Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by– along with the faces of infected person is ---------
Drinking water containing eggs of Ascaris
Ascaris
Disease which is always present at a low level in a
Wuchereria bancrofti is affected by the infection of–
given population or a region is termed as– Endemic
Lymphatic vessels
Common cold is not cured by antibiotics because it
The diseases transmitted by the bite of the female
is– Caused by a virus
mosquito vector is– Filariasis
The term 'Health' is defined in many ways. The
The pathogen Microsporum responsible for
most accurate definition of the health would be
ringworm disease in humans belongs to the same
health is a state of complete–
kingdom as that of– Rhizopus, a mould
Physical, mental and social well-being
Appearance of dry, scaly lesions with itching on
The sporozoites that cause infection, when a female
various parts of the body are the symptoms of–
Anopheles mosquito bites a person, are formed in–
Ringworm
Intestine of mosquito
Gambusia is a fish which is being introduced into
Many diseases can be diagnosed by observing the
the ponds in order to check the vector borne
symptoms in the patient. Which group of symptoms
diseases such as– Dengue, Malaria, Chikungunya
are indicative of pneumonia–
■ Salmonella typhi is a bacteria and causes typhoid, this
Difficulty in respiration, fever,
pathogen causes lesions and ulcer in the–
chills, cough, headache
Intestinal wall
Typhoid fever in human beings is caused by–
■ The lymphoid organ provides the site for the
Salmonella typhi
interaction of lymphocytes with the antigen– Spleen
Bacterial diseases includes– ■ Bacteria like streptococcus and Haemophilus
Typhoid, Pneumonia, Plague influenzae are responsible for– Pneumonia
A person suffering from a disease caused by ■ The bacterial disease– Diphtheria, leprosy, plague
Plasmodium, experiences recurring chills and fever ■ In DPT vaccine 'T' stands for– Tetanus
at the time when the parasite after its rapid ■ An autoimmune disease is– Myasthenia gravis
multiplication inside releasing the haemozoin– ■ Dengue fever is caused by– Virus
RBCs ruptures ■ A metastatic cancerous tumour is termed sarcoma, if
The common cold is caused by– Rhinoviruses the disorder in– Fibroblasts
...............Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli ■ Diseases is viral as well as transmitted by
whereas common cold affects nose and respiratory mosquitoes– Yellow fever and dengue
passage but not the lungs– ■ Sporozoites of the malarial parasites are found in
Common cold differs from Pneumonia saliva of infected – Female Anopheles Mosquito.
Elephantiasis is transmitted through– ■ An autoimmune disease– Rheumatoid arthritis
Bite by female mosquito vector The sexual cycle of Plasmodium is completed in–
A toxic substance, responsible for the chills and The gut of mosquito
high fever recurring every three to four days in Typhoid bacteria enters first in– Small intestine
malarial fever, is– Haemozoin Pneumonia is caused by– Haemophilus influenzae
During the life cycle of Plasmodium, sexual ■ Disease confirmed by widal test– Typhoid
reproduction takes place in the hosts is– ■ The toxic substance haemozoin, related to high fever
Female Anopheles mosquito and chill is– Malaria
385
■ The site Wuchereria is normally found on human The term 'health' is defined in many ways. The most
body– Lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs accurate definition of health would be–
■ Food poisoning caused by– Escherichia coli Health is a state of complete physical mental
■ The set includes bacterial disease– Tetanus, typhoid, and social well being
tuberculosis Malarial parasite is best obtained from a patient–
■ A communicable or contagious disease is– Malaria While temperature is rising sharply
■ Disease, transmitted through contaminated water and 7.2 Immunity
food– Typhoid
Colostrum, the yellowish fluid, secreted by mother
Dysentery, plague, diphtheria are– Bacterial during the initial days of lactation is very essential
diseases to impart immunity to the new born infants because
Malaria is a– Protozoan disease it contans– Immunoglobulin A
The most fatal Plasmodium is– P. falciparum Humoral immunity is mediated by–
Haemozoin released as a result of– Antibody formation by B-lymphocytes
Rupture of RBC ■ Primary and secondary immune response are carried
Fertilization and development of malarial parasite out with the help of two special types of ____ present
takes place in– Gut of mosquito in our blood– Lymphocytes
Amoebic dysentery is caused by– ■ Diseases, easily transmitted from one person to
another– Communicable disease
Entamoeba histolytica
The class of immunoglobulins (Igs) which is
That form of malarial parasite reach the liver
mediator of allergic response is– IgE
through blood– Sporozoite
A protein or polysaccharide molecule that
Filariasis is caused by– Wuchereria
stimulates antibody formation is– Antigen
Intestinal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anaemia
Passive immunity can be conferred directly by–
are the common symptoms of– Ascariasis
Antitoxins, Colostrum
The pairs contains an infectious and a non-infectious
The form of pathogen is used in vaccination–
disease respectively– AIDS & cancer
Inactivated and weakened pathogenic antigens
The disease is caused by the bite of the female Injection of antitoxin in tetanus confers which type
mosquito vector– Filariasis of immunisation– Passive immunisation
Do you see sporozoites of malarial parasite– The term 'antitoxin' refers to a preparation
Saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito containing– Antibodies to the toxin
The pairs of disease is viral as well as transmitted by The injection given against the snake venom
mosquitoes– Chikungunya and dengue contains– Antigenic proteins,
Influenza is caused by – Virus Preformed antibodies, Attenuated pathogen
The insectivorous fish used for mosquito control– The site where lymphocytes interact with antigens
Gambusia and proliferate to become effector cells are spleen
Malarial parasite can be obtained in RBCs of and lymph nodes and–
patient– When temperature rises with rigor Peyer's patches of small intestine and tonsils
Appearance of dry, scaly lesions on various parts of Use of vaccination and immunisation programmes
the body such as skin, nails and scalp are the main have controlled infectious diseases–
symptoms of a fungal disease caused by– Polio and small pox, Diphtheria and pneumonia
An auto-immune disease is– rheumatoid arthritis,
Epidermophyton
Myasthenia gravis
The alveoli (air filled sacs) of the lungs are infected
The drugs used to quickly reduce the symptoms of
in– Pneumonia
allergy are–
Infectious stage of Plasmodium is– Sporozoite
Anti-histamine and adrenaline and steroids
Dengue is caused by– Female Aedes
The primary lymphoid organs are–
Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by–
Bone marrow and thymus
Contaminated water and vegetables Humoral immunity is associated with– B-cells
Ringworms are generally acquired from– The principle of vaccination and immunisation is
Soil, Clothes, Comb based on– Memory cells
386
 Ability of the host to fight the disease causing An antiviral substance known to prevent the
organisms refers to the term– Immunity synthesis of new virus in the cells is known as–
Mucosa Associated Lymphoid Tissue (MALT) is– Interferon
Constitutes about in human body 50% Inflammatory responses in allergy are caused by the
The lymphoid tissue, located within the lining of release of one of the mast cells– Histamines
digestive tract is– MALT Physiological barrier is a– Acid in stomach
A person has developed interferons in his body. He Cytokine barriers are– Interferons
seems to carry an infection of– Common cold The immune response is responsible for graft
Primary response produced due to first time rejection– Cell-mediated immune response
encounter with a pathogen is of– Low intensity The secondary lymphoid organ is– Lymph nodes,
The components that does not participate in innate Peyer's patches, Appendix
immunity– B-Lymphocytes .............. is a organ located near the heart beneath the
Antibodies are secreted by– B-Lymphocytes breast bone– Thymus
Two light peptide chains and two heavy peptide After getting into the person's body virus first enters
chains consists of– Antibody into the– Macrophages
■ They can enter our body by various means multiply The injection given against the snake venom
and interfere with normal vital activities resulting in contains– Preformed antibodies
morphological and functional damage– Pathogen
Colostrum provides the infant with–
■ Cells are involved in allergic response–
Passive immunity
Basophils and Mast cells
■ A quick immune response is required due to infection Passive immunity can be obtained by injecting–
of a deadly microbe, the patient is injected with– Antibodies
Preformed antibodies Type of immunoglobulin present in colostrum/only
■ The principle of vaccination is based upon the– mother's milk is– IgA
Memory of immune system Neutrophils and monocytes are important cells
■ The foetus gets immunized after receiving antibodies participating in– Phagocytosis
from mother through placenta, called– Characters of acquired immunity are–
Passive immunity Specificity of antigen, Retains memory
■ The exaggerated response of the immune system to Treatment of snake bite by antivenom is providing–
certain antigens– Allergy Artificial acquired passive immunity
■ The antibodies produced during allergy– IgE type
The type of barriers under innate immunity, the
■ Primarily concerned with protection against germs–
saliva in the mouth and the tears from the eyes
Lymphatic tissue
belong– Physiological barriers
■ Active immunity means– Resistance developed
Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to
after disease
foetus across placenta or through mother's milk to
■ Antibody formation and immunity production is done
the infant is categorized as– Passive immunity
by a protein called globulin present in– Plasma
■ A person is injected with globulin against hepatitis, Vaccination works by producing–
this is– Artificially acquired passive immunity Memory lymphocytes
■ The use of antihistamine, adrenalin and steroids Damage to thymus in a child may lead to–
quickly reduce the symptoms of– Allergy Loss of cell mediated immunity
■ Cyclosporin is used as– Immunosuppresive agent The most active phagocytic white blood cells are–
■ Acts as a physical barrier to the entry of micro Neutrophils and monocytes
organisms in human body– Skin
■ Immunoglobulins are– Antibodies
7.3 AIDS
■ Antigens are present– Surface on RBC The genetic material of HIV is– ssRNA
■ The serum of other animals enriched in antibodies The human immuno deficiency virus is–
achieved through- Passive immunity An enveloped, RNA genome containing
■ Short-lived immunity acquired from mother by foetus retrovirus
across placenta or through mother's milk to the infant, Viral DNA after being converted from viral RNA
is categorized as– Passive immunity by X, incorporates into host genome to undergo
PMNL is– Polymorpho - nuclear leukocytes replication. 'X' is– Reverse transcriptase
387
 The cells called 'HIV factory' is– Macrophages ■ The rapid growth and division of cancer cells by–
HIV is a retrovirus that attacks– Helper T-cells Breakdown of normal gene regulation
Decrease in the number of helper T-cells is ■ Techniques like radiography (use of X-rays), CT
characterized by– AIDS scanning in relation with MRI are very useful to
■ Disease is caused by the member of Retro-virus detect an uncontrolled division of abnormal cell of
internal organ- Cancer disease
group– AIDS
■ HIV causes reduction in– Helper T- lymphocytes Ionization radiation that cause cancer– γ - Rays
■ Hepatitis B and AIDS are– Transmitted through MRI is– Strong magnetic field and
infected blood non - ionization radiation
■ The cell in the human body invaded by the human The substance given to cancer patients in order to
immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is– activate their immune system and destroy tumor is–
Helper T- lymphocytes α - interferons
■ There is always time lag between the infection and The genes concerned with the production of cancer
appearance of the symptoms of that disease– AIDS are called– Oncogenes
AIDS can spread– Infected needles & syringes Alteration of genes leads to cancer–
AIDS is due to– Cell proliferation gene (proto-oncogenes)
Reduction in number of helper T-cells Bone marrow test is beneficial in case– Leukemia
Full form of AIDS is– Treatment of cancer, are used–
Acquired immuno deficiency syndrome Radiation therapy,
Surgery and chemotherapy, Immunotherapy
The AIDS test is known as– ELISA
The most feared property of malignant tumors is–
Viral DNA after being converted from viral RNA
Metastasis
genome with the help of X, incorporates into host
genome to undergo replication. 'X' is– Carcinogenic agent is–
X-ray radiation,
Reverse transcriptase
UV radiation, Nicotine
At stage of HIV infection does one usually show
The spread of cancerous cells to distant sites is
symptoms of AIDS– When HIV replicates
termed as– Metastasis
rapidly in helper T-lymphocytes and damages
large number of these 7.5 Drugs and Alcohol Abuse
Development of vaccine is difficult for AIDS Heroin is commonly called as– Smack
because gene– Undergoes mutation at rapid rate Marijuana is extracted from–
Dried leaves of Cannabis sativa
7.4 Cancer
■ Cannabinoid receptors present principally in– Brain
The process of spreading the cancerous cells to Charas and ganja are the drugs which affect–
distant site is known as– Metastasis
Cardiovascular system
Cancer cells do not exhibit the property of– Cocaine is commonly called as– Coke, Crack
Contact inhibition Erythroxylum coca, Atropa belladonna, Datura
A person suffering from leukaemia has– stramonium plants possesses–
Increased number of WBCs Hallucinogenic properties.
A chemical carcinogen present in tobacco smoke is The drug that is used as medicine to help patients
a major cause of– Lung cancer cope with depression and insomnia–
Major factors that cause cancer are– Amphetamines, Barbiturates
Oncogenes and carcinogens Opiate narcotic is– Morphine
■ Oestrogen works in cancer as– Tumour promoters The addictive chemical present in tobacco is–
■ Techniques is safest for the detection of cancers– Nicotine
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) Level of ............. hormones get elevated by the
■ α-Interferon is used in– Cancer treatment and Viral intake of nicotine–
growth inhibition Adrenaline, nor-adrenaline
■ Non-infectious disease is a major cause of death in The chronic use of alcohol results in–
human– Cancer Cirrhosis and nervous system damage
388
■ The period between _____ of age may be thought of In malignant tumors, the cells proliferate, grow
as adolescence period– 12-18 yrs. rapidly and move to other parts of the body to form
■ ______ of Atropa belladona is the drug 'belladona' new tumors. This stage of disease is called–
obtained– Dried leaves and roots Metastasis
■ Cirrhosis of the liver is caused by– Alcohol When an apparently healthy person is diagnosed as
Tobacco smoke contains carbon monoxide is– unhealthy by a psychiatrist, the reason could be that–
Reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood
Smoking addiction is harmful because it produces The patient shows behavioural and
polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons, causes is– social maladjustment
Cancer AIDS is caused by HIV. Among the one is not a
The affect central nervous system is– Opioid mode of transmission of HIV–
Diacetylmorphine is– Opioids Shaking hands with infected persons
The drug is taken by sports person– Cannabinoids 'Smack' is a drug obtained from the–
The drug relieves intense pain are– Opioids Latex of Papaver somniferum
The plant will show hallucination property– The substance produced by a cell in viral infection
Erythroxylum coca that can protect other cells from further infection is–
............. is a CNS stimulant as it interferes with the Interferon
transport of the neuro-transmitter .............. Antibodies present in colostrum .......... protect the
Cocaine, dopamine new born from certain diseases is–
Organ most affected by alcohol is– Cerebellum IgA type
Fatty liver syndrome is due to excessive intake of– Tobacco consumption is known to stimulate
secretion of adrenaline and noradrenaline. The
Alcohol
component causing this could be– Nicotine
Ingestion of Marijuana leads to illusions and alters
Antivenom against snake poison contains–
the thoughts, feelings and perceptions of a person,
Antibodies
Marijuana is a– Hallucinogen
Spleen is a– Lymphoid tissue
marijuana is obtained from– Cannabis sativa
The glands is large sized at birth but reduces in size
Cirrhosis of liver is– Shrinkage & fibrosis of liver
with ageing– Thymus
One of the act as depressant and slows down body
Haemozoin is–
functions– Heroin
Toxin released from
Internal bleeding, muscular pain, blockage of
Plasmodium infected cells
intestinal passage and anaemia are symptoms of
A person with sickle-cell anaemia is–
infection by– Ascaris
Less prone to malaria
7.6 Miscellaneous In gene therapy of Adenosine Deaminase (ADA)
In humans, receptors for opioids are present in– deficiency, the patient requires periodic infusion
Central nervous system, Gastrointestinal tract genetically engineered lymphocytes because–
■ _______ disproved "Good humor hypothesis"– Genetically engineered lymphocytes
William Harvey are not immortal cells
■ An insect bite may result in inflammation of that spot. The infections stage of Plasmodium that enters the
This is triggered by the alarm chemicals such as– human body is– Sporozoites
Histamine The immune responses is responsible for rejection of
The organisms ........... cause diseases in plants and kidney graft–
animals are called– Pathogens Cell-mediated immune response
The chemical test that is used for diagnosis of Drug called 'Heroin' is synthesized by–
typhoid is– Widal Acetylation of morphine
The sporozoites that cause infection when a female ........... part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug
Anopheles mosquito bites a human being are formed "Smack"– Latex
in– Gut of mosquito ............ Disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen
The disease chikungunya is transmitted by– cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels–
Aedes mosquitoes Elephantiasis
389
 EXAM POINT
The Diseases
Broad palm with single palm crease is visible in a person suffering from–
Down's syndrome NEET (UG) 07.05.2023
The disease caused due to deposition of iron particles in tissues is– Siderosis AP EAPCET-10.05.2023,
Shift-II
AP EAPCET – 24.04.2019
Shift-II
Tropical splenomegaly syndrome is a symptom of this disease– Malaria AP EAPCET-10.05.2023,
Shift-II
Phenylketonuria, sickle cell anemia and cystic fibrosis are caused respectively AP EAPCET-11.05.2023,
due to– Chromosome 12, Chromosome 11, Chromosome 7 Shift-I
Kwashiorkor and beri-beri are– Deficiency diseases AFMC-2005
Tay Sach's disease is due to– Mutation in hexosaminidase - A MGIMS Wardha-2007
Leprosy is also called as– Hansen's disease BVP-2012 / BHU PMT - 2011,
MGIMS Wardha-2007 /
Haryana PMT-2002
Critical state of disease is called– Acme AMU -2000
Cholera, leprosy and diphtheria are– Bacterial diseases Manipal-2000
The scientific name of pinworm of man is– Enterobius vermicularis Manipal-2000
DPT vaccine is given for– Diphtheria, whooping cough, tetanus Manipal-2000
Achondroplasia is a disease related with the defect in the formation of– JIPMER-2013
Cartilage
Congenital diseases are– Diseases present at birth Haryana PMT-2003
The bacterium Bdellovibrio bacteriovorus is– Parasite AP EAMCET-1999
The organism that carries a disease from one organism to another is called– HP CET-2012
Vector
If a person shows production of interferons in his body the chance are that he has VMMC-2013, 2003
got an infection of– Measles
The interval between infection and appearance of disease is known as– AMU-2002
Incubation period
Amoebiasis in human is acquired through– Contamination of food with cysts J & K CET - 2003 / AMU-2001
Marasmus in children is caused by deficiency of– Protein MGIMS Wardha-2013
Christmas disease is another name for– Haemophilia -B MGIMS Wardha-2010
Pullorum disease of poultry is caused by– Salmonella MGIMS Wardha-2010
The chief advantage of encystment of an Amoeba is– MGIMS Wardha-2010
The ability to survive during adverse physical conditions
Kala - azar disease is transmitted by– Phlebotomus MGIMS Wardha-2003
Pebrine is a disease of– Silk worm JIPMER-2013
Diabetes mellitus is due to lack of– Insulin in blood BVP - 2002
Black water fever is caused by– P. falciparum UP CPMT-2013
Disorders like alkaptonuria and phenylketonuria are referred to as– Assam CEE-2014
Congenital disease
A microbial disease that spreads over a very large geographic area is called– SRM JEEE -2017
A pandemic
Cri-du-chat syndrome in humans is caused by the– AIPMT-2006
Loss of half of the short arm of chromosome 5
G-6-P dehydrogenase deficiency is associated with haemolysis of– RBCs AIPMT-2005
Anthrax is caused by– Bacteria BCECE-2015
An autoimmune disease is– Myasthenia gravis AIIMS-2011
Non-pathogenic bacteria of colon is– Escherichia coli AIIMS-2001

390
Viral diseases have no cure because– AIIMS-2001
Viruses can multiply repeatedly within the host cell
Non-communicable disease is a– Arthritis J&K CET-2000
The infectious and contagious bacterial disease that affects cattle, buffaloes, J&K CET-2010
horses, sheeps and goats, is– Anthrax
Pellagra is caused due to deficiency of– Niacin J&K CET-2011 / VMMC -
2011 / Manipal-2001
Black foot disease occurs due to– Arsenic J&K CET-2011
Oocysts in the stomach of female Anopheles is discovered by– Ronald Ross BVP-2009
Toxin produced by tetanus affects– Voluntary muscles
A certain patient is suspected to be suffering from Acquired Immuno Deficiency AIPMT (Screening)-2011,
Syndrome. The diagnostic technique will recommend for its detection– BVP - 2004
ELISA
The state that HIV replicates rapidly in helper T-lymphocytes and damages AIPMT (Screening)-2011
larger number of these cells, which infection show– Symptoms of AIDS

In Humans-Common Diseases
The toxic substance 'haemozoin' responsible for high fever and chill, is released, Karnataka CET-20.05.2023
diseases is– Malaria
Difficulty in breathing, fever, chills cough, headache are symptoms of– Karnataka CET-20.05.2023
Pneumonia
World Malaria day celebrated on– 25th April TS EAMCET 10.05.2023
Shift-I
Inhalation of iron particles causes– Pneumoconiosis AP EAPCET-11.05.2023,
Shift-I
The fungal disease among the– Ring worm AP EAPCET-23.05.2023,
Shift-I
Rajasthan PMT -1996
The nocturnal periodicity is exhibited by– Microfilaria AP EAPCET-22.05.2023,
Shift-II
The bacterial disease is found in chickens, is– Fowl cholera WB JEE-2006
Sensation of stomach pain is due to– Interoceptors Punjab MET-2009
Genus of insects prefer to breed in clean water and their larvae lie parallel to the WB JEE-2012
surface of water, that is– Anopheles
The life cycle stages of Wuchereria bancrofti that is infective to man– WB JEE-2012
3rd stage larva
The life cycle stages of malarial parasite is responsible for relapse of malarial WB JEE-2012
symptoms is– Hypnozoite
Mention the Incubation Period of Plasmodium vivax is– 10-14 days WB JEE-2009 / BCECE-2007
Tetanus disease is caused by– Bacteria AFMC - 2005 / UP CPMT-
2004
Infection of Enterobius is caused to man is by– Contamination Punjab MET-1999
Microfilaria is found in the peripheral blood of man during– Night time Punjab MET-1999
The infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica is– Cyst Punjab MET-1999
Communicable disease is– Diphtheria Uttarakhand-2005 / Punjab
MET-1999
A disease caused by one of the smallest viruses is– Poliomyelitis BCECE-2011
In saliva of mosquito ........ is present during its bite– Anticoagulant Rajasthan PMT-1996
Polio is a– Viral disease UP CPMT-2003
Infection by the bacterium that is responsible for peptic ulcer in human being is– Tripura JEE-2018
Helicobacter pylori
Fear of dirt, disease and contaminants is– Mysophobia AFMC -2011

391
Typhoid fever is caused by a species of– Salmonella UP CPMT-2010 / DUMET-
2010
Tuberculosis is caused by– Mycobacterium DUMET-2008
The malnutrition disease in man is– Potbelly syndrome J&K CET-2009

Genus Aedes of mosquito is a vector of– Dengue fever Rajasthan PMT-1998

Hepatitis B is transmitted through– AMU-1999
Blood transfusion, Intimate physical contact, Sexually
Fever in malaria is due to– Release of merozoites from red blood cells AMU-2006 / MGIMS Wardha-
2004
Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS), a fatal disease is caused by– VMMC-2014
A variant of common cold virus (corona)
The pair of disease caused by virus is– Rabies, mumps AMU-2006
The only mammal, other than man which suffer from leprosy is– Dasypus Manipal-2013
Widal Test is a confirmation test for– Typhoid AP EAMCET 10.05.2023
Shift-I
AP EAMCET-25.09.2020
Shift-II / JCECE-
2018,
KVPY SA-2015 / J&K CET-
2014, 2012
Bone softening disease Itai-Itali occurred first– Japan VMMC-2005 / AMU-2004
Athletes foot is caused by– Tinea pedis AMU-2012
Hepatitis-B virus is a– Hepadnavirus AMU-2012
Diphtheria is caused by– Corynebacterium diphtheriae CG PMT-2006
The effect of cigarette smoking and radon in combination on lungs is– JIPMER-2013
Synergistic
Tissue injury causing redness, swelling pain and production of heat and fever are MHT CET-06.10.2020 Shift-I
localized manifestations of _______ response. Inflammatory
Used for external application in the cure of leprosy is– Neem seed oil VMMC-2010
Quinine used for treatment of malarial fever extracted from– BCECE-2008 / Haryana PMT-
Cinchona officinalis 2006
Pandemic disease is– Influenza CG PMT-2010
The insect which spreads the yellow fever is– Aedes AP EAMCET-2000
Malignant malaria is caused by– Plasmodium falciparum Rajasthan PMT-2006
The disease caused by a helminth parasite of man that has a gastropoda members AP EAMCET-1999
as an intermediate host is– Bilharziasis
Sprinkling of oil on stagnant water helps in the control of malaria because– AFMC-2001
Mosquito larvae get asphyxiated (cannot breath)
Signet ring stage of Plasmodium is found in– RBC of man CMC Ludhiana-2011
A man shows outbursts of emotions, quarrelsome behaviour and conflicts with CMC Ludhiana-2010
others is suffering from– Borderline personality disorder
The conditions though harmful in itself, that is also a potential savior from a MGIMS Wardha-2010
mosquito borne infectious disease is– Sickle cell anaemia
The plant that is a medicine for respiratory disorders obtained – Ephedra JIPMER-2010
Water- borne disease is– Cholera KVPY (SA)-2010
The kind of therapy that was given in 1990 to a four-year-old girl with NEET-2016 Phase-II
Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency is– Gene therapy
The term “oriental sore” is associated with– Leishmania tropica VMMC-2011 / BVP-2005 / CG
PMT-2005
Malaria is a common disease caused by– Plasmodium J&K CET-2004
Major cause of anaemia is deficiency of– Fe2+ Uttarakhand PMT-2011
Pneumonia is caused by– Streptococcus pneumonia, Haemophilus influenzae Karnataka CET-2021
392
Human protein α -1- antitrypsin is used to treat that disease is– Emphysema GUJCET-2021
Polio causes– Paralysis J&K CET-2002
The disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of NEET-2018
lymphatic vessels is– Elephantiasis
Both sickle cell anemia and Huntington's chorea are– Congenital disorders AIPMT-2006
Pathogenicity of Salmonella typhi is due to____ present in its outer membrane– MHT CET-2019
Lipopolysaccharides
A change in a wart or mole on the skin is observed in– Melanoma MHT CET-2016
The only drug effective in the treatment of filariasis, hetrazan was discovered TS EAMCET-03.05.2018, 2017
by– Dr. Yellapragada Subba Rao Shift-I
In humans, common cold is caused by– Rhinovirus Karnataka CET-2017
In man, Epidermophyton causes– Ring worm TS EAMCET-30.07.2022
Shift-I
When children play bare footed in pools of dirty water and flood water, they may AIIMS-2006
suffer from disease like– Leptospirosis and bilharzia
Formation of non - functional methaemoglobin causes blue- baby syndrome. AIIMS-2005
This is due to– Excess of nitrates in drinking water
The brain disease caused due to accumulation of amyloid β-peptide is– AIIMS-2014
Alzheimer's disease
Type-1 diabetes is – Insulin dependent AIIMS-27.05.2018 Shift-I
Just as Xenopsylla is a vector to Yersinia pestis, so is– AIIMS-2003
Phlebotomus to Leishmania donovani
Continued consumption of a diet rich in butter, red meat and eggs for a long AIIMS-2003
period may lead to– Hypercholesterolemia
Haemophilus influenzae causes this disease in human beings– Pneumonia TS EAMCET-31.07.2022
Shift-I / AMU-2014
Plasmodium in RBC of human beings discovered by– Laveran AIPMT-1991
The symptoms that indicate red sickness is– AIPMT-1997
Ulcerated skin, nausea and loss of hair
The diseases that is now considered completely eradicated from India– AIPMT-1997
Small pox
Dum-dum fever is caused by– Leishmania donovani Punjab MET-2011
The organ that is enlarged in malarial patient is– Spleen Rajasthan PMT-1999
The disease that is the result of thiamine deficiency is– Beri-beri Haryana PMT-2001
Dysentery disease spread by– Entamoeba histolytica Rajasthan PMT-1995
Cerebral malaria is spread by– Plasmodium falciparum Rajasthan PMT-1995
The chemical used in National Malaria Eradication Programme is– DDT BVP-2007 / MGIMS Wardha-
2006
Yellow colour of eyes and skin in jaundice caused by– Bilirubin JCECE-2014
Saline solution is given to patients of Cholera because– AIPMT-2000
Na+ prevents water loss from body
The disease of man that is similar with cattle's, bovine spongiform AIPMT-2000
encephalopathy– Jakob-creutzfeldt disease
Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the chronic intake of– Alcohol AIPMT (Screening)-2012
Common cold differs from pneumonia in, that– Pneumonia pathogen AIPMT (Screening)-2012
infects alveoli whereas the common cold affects nose and
respiratory passage but not the lungs
A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial infarction is normally immediately AIPMT (Screening)-2012
given– Streptokinase
The pathogen Microsporum responsible for ringworm disease in humans belongs AIPMT (Mains)-2011
to the same Kingdom of organisms at that of– Rhizopus, a mould
Interferons are synthesized in response to– Viruses AIPMT-2001

393
The process by which a new structure is formed in the tissue of the host during AP EAMCET-2010
parasitic infection– Neoplasia
Pulse – Polio programme is organized in our country to– Eradicate polio AP EAMCET-03.09.2021
Shift-I

Immunity and its types

………… antibody is pentamer– IgM AMU-2015,1999
Histamine is secreted by– Mast cell UP CPMT-2003 / AFMC-2002
The technique of production of monoclonal antibodies was developed by– VMMC-2013
Milstein and kohler
In the cell mediated immuno response, T-lymphocytes divide and secrete– AFMC -2009
Cytokines
The predominant antibody in saliva is– IgA DUMET-2010
The immune processes that is most effectively controlled by anti-histamines is– KVPY SB & SX-2019
IgE-mediated exaggerated immune response
An antibody is a– Molecule that specifically inactivates an antigen HP CET-2011 / BCECE-2006 /
VMMC-2005,
AMU-2004 / Haryana PMT-
1999
An anti-viral substance, known to prevent the synthesis of new virus in the cell, Haryana PMT 2002 / AFMC -
is known as– Interferons 2001 / JIPMER-1999
Magic bullets are the– Monoclonal antibodies VMMC - 2015 / J&K CET-
2009
Passive immunity is– Inherited from parents J&K CET-2014
The type of antibodies produced during the allergic reaction is– Ig E Karnataka CET-2022 / AMU-
2012,
CG PMT-2010 / BCECE-2005
The product of that immune system attaches to bacteria, making them easier to J&K CET-2012
be eaten by white blood cells is– Antibody
B-lymphocytes alre– Formed in bone marrow BCECE-2014
Immediate hypersensitivity which result in the release of histamine and other AMU-2010
inflammatory substances is mediated by– IgE
Immunoglobulins are proteins that show …. Structure– Quaternary AMU-2010
An antigen in the white blood corpuscles of man is known as– HLA AMU -2000
The antibody dependent cytotoxicity is seen in– AP EAMCET-2003
Non-compatible blood transfusion
Antibody is produced by– B - Lymphocyte Haryana PMT-2005 /
APEAMCET - 2001
Immunoglobulins are made up of– Four polypeptide chains BVP - 2005 / Haryana PMT-
2004 / Manipal-2003
The most abundant type of antibodies is– IgG MGIMS Wardha-2007 /
JIPMER-2001
Antigen is bound to antibody through– Electrostatic interaction BVP-2013
The antibody classes provides some degree of immune protection to fetus is– Tripura JEE-2022
IgG
The number of immunoglobulin classes found in human being is– 5 Tripura JEE-2021
The molecular weight of lgG antibody is– 150, 000 Daltaons Rajasthan PMT-2000
Thymosin is the hormone of the thymus and it stimulates the development of Rajasthan PMT-2000
diseases fighting– T-lymphocytes cells
The cell types that is a part of innate immunity is– Skin epithelial cells KVPY SA-2015
Antibodies are– Immunoglobulins BCECE-2007
Short-lived immunity acquired from mother to foetus across placenta or through MGIMS Wardha-2010
mother's milk to the infant is categorized as– Passive immunity

394
The reaction between antibodies and soluble antigens is– Precipitation AMU-1995
______quickly reduce the symptoms of allergy– Adrenaline GUJCET-2022
The disease that is caused by allergic reactions is– Asthma UP CPMT-2013
A person is injected with globulin against hepatitis. This is– BVP-2004 / DUMET-2003
Artificially acquired passive immunity
The cells that are related with inflammatory reactions and immediate BVP-2005
hypersensitivity is– Mast cells
The element that is important to maintain structure of immunoglobulin is– S GUJCET-2008
Grafted kidney may be rejected in a patient due to– AIPMT (Re-Exam)-2015
Cell-mediated immune response
The affinity of an antibody can be determined by measuring– SRM JEEE -2017
The amount of antibody bound at various antigen concentrations
The treatment of snake-bite by antivenom is an example of– KVPY SA-2014 / Haryana
Artificially acquired passive immunity PMT-2004 / AIIMS-2004
The diseases that is due to an allergic reaction is– Hay fever AIPMT-1995
Antigens are present– On cell surface AIPMT-1995
In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-self. NEET-2016 Phase-I
If this property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self- cells, then it
leads to Auto-immune disease
The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers to– Thymus AIPMT-2009
Use of anti-histamines and steroids give a quick relief from– Allergy AIPMT-2009
Globulins contained in human blood plasma are primarily involved in– AIPMT-2009
Defense mechanisms of body
A person shows symptoms like sneezing, watery eyes, running nose and Karnataka CET-2019
difficulty in breathing, on exposure to certain substances in air. The type of
antibody that is produced during such condition– IgE
Agglutination occurs in blood present in a test tube. This indicate– AIPMT-1999
Antigens are present on R.B.C.
The monomer forms of the antibodies among the groups– IgD, IgE, IgG AP EAMCET-12.07.2022
Shift-II
The progenitors that are formed in bone marrow and differentiated elsewhere AP EAMCET-2005
are– Pre-T Cell
Increased asthmatic attacks in certain seasons are related to– AIPMT-2007
Inhalation of seasonal pollen
If you suspect deficiency of antibodies in a person, would you look for AIPMT-2007
confirmatory evidence– Serum globulins
The recognised as the father of Immunology is– Edward Jenner Karnataka CET-2008

Vaccination and Immunisation

Vaccine for influenza is– Inactivated whole agent vaccine AP EAPCET-11.05.2023,
Shift-II
BCG vaccine is used against– Tuberculosis JIPMER-2000,
AFMC-2005, 2009
The Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus (DPT) vaccine consists of– KVPY SA-2016
Toxoid of Diphtheria, Tetanus and heat killed whole cells of Pertussis
Allergic reaction can be controlled by– Antihistamines AMU-1999
Antibody that is capable of crossing the placenta is– IgG Tripura JEE-2019
All antibodies are commonly known as– Immunoglobulin Tripura JEE-2019
The term vaccine was introduced by– Edward Jenner Rajasthan PMT-2011
DNA vaccines are called– Third generation CG PMT-2011 / VMMC-
2003
VCRC stand for– Vector Control Research Centre BCECE-2003
395
The vaccine of Hepatitis-B is a– Second generation vaccine MGIMS Wardha-2003
Scientific basis of vaccination is– Louis Pasteur Manipal-2006
Fastest distribution of some injectible material / medicine and with no risk of any AIPMT (Mains)-2010
kind can be achieved by injecting it into the– Veins
A person likely to develop tetanus is immunized by administering– AIPMT-2009
Weakened germs
He was awarded the Nobel Prize in 1951 for the development of vaccine for JIPMER-2015
yellow fever, that is– Max Theiler
Polio inactivated vaccine is also called– Salk vaccine AP EAMCET-12.07.2022
Shift-II

Immune System
The primary lymphoid organ are the– Thymus gland and Red bone marrow AP EAPCET-22.05.2023,
Shift-II
The removal or absence of thymus in early life shall bring about– Punjab MET-2009
Lack of lymphocytes, Lack of antibodies, decreased immune response
lg is produced in primary immune response– IgM WB JEE-2009
Total number of variable segments that are present in the basic structure of WB JEE-2010
antibody molecule is– Four
The best explains the difference between an Epitope and an antigen is– AMU-2015
An Epitope is the part of an antigen where an
antibody or lymphocyte receptor binds
Broad spectrum antibiotic– Acts on a variety of pathogenic micro organisms HP CET-2011
The organ that can be called a sort of “blood bank” is– Spleen MGIMS Wardha-2008
Reticular tissue forms the supporting frame work of– AMU-1999
Bone marrow, Lymph gland, Spleen
Iron is stored in bone marrow as– Ferritin MGIMS Wardha-2011
Immunodeficiency makes a person highly susceptible to infection. It is caused AFMC-2006
by– Lack of both B and T cells
The inflammatory reactions induced by histamine is– J&K CET-2007
Vasodilation of peripheral blood vessels
Antiserum is a serum containing– Antibodies CG PMT-2011
The cell of immune system that cause pore formation at the surface of the plasma CMC Vellore-2010
membrane– Killer T-cell
The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into– NEET-2021
Dysfunction of Immune system
An insect bite may result in inflammation of that spot. This is triggered by the AIIMS-2005
alarm chemicals such as– Histamine and kinins
Lysis of foreign cell is mediated through– IgM and IgG AIIMS-2002
Immune tolerance is display– B-cells, T-cells AIIMS-2002
Immunity tolerance is developed by– Interaction with the antigen AIIMS-26.05.2019 Shift-II
Minute quantity of hormones and steroid are detected by– Radio immunoassay AIPMT-1999
The enzymes are released from the cytotoxic T-lymphocytes that help in the AP EAMCET-11.07.2022
Apoptosis– Granzymes Shift-II

AIDS
Individuals, who have multiple sexual partners, Drug addicts, who take drugs VMMC-2011
intravenously, Individuals, Who require repeated blood transfusions,this activity
are high risk of– HIV infection
In AIDS, HIV Kills– T- helper cell WB JEE-2009,
MGIMS Wardha-2007

396
ELISA test is used for detection of– Antibodies, Viral disease, AIDS UP CPMT-2003
Full form of AIDS– Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome J&K CET-2014
AIDS virus contains– RNA with protein Uttarakhand PMT-2009,
BHU PMT (Screening)-2009
AIDS disease was first reported in– USA VMMC-2002
AIDS is caused by a– Retrovirus J&K CET-2012
Viral STD disease is– AIDS CG PMT-2006
AIDS related complex (ARC) is a disease, which leads to fever, swollen lymph CG PMT-2006
nodes, night sweats, loss in weight etc represents– Initial form of AIDS
ELISA is used to detect viruses where the key reagent is– Alkaline phosphatase CMC Ludhiana-2008 /
VMMC-2007
In India AIDS was reported in– 1986 BCECE-2003
The spread of AIDS is promoted by– Homosexuality, AMU-2002
Immoral way of life, Use of infected needles in blood transfusion
Received Nobel Prize in 2008 for the discovery of HIV– Luc Montagnier JIPMER-2016

CANCER
Metastasis is– Spread of cancer cells to new sites VMMC-2011
The expanded name of MRI is– Magnetic Resonance Imaging WB JEE-2012
The carcinoma, a type of cancer, originates from– Epithelial tissue WB JEE-2012
The treatment of cancer with X- rays or gamma rays is called– VMMC-2013 / Haryana PMT-
Radiotherapy 2002
Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiation than normal cells because Manipal-2012, 2007 / CMC
they are– undergoing rapid division Ludhiana-2009,
JCECE-2009 / CG PMT-2006 /
Haryana PMT-2003
Antibodies, interferons are useful in treatment of– Cancer KVPY SB & SX-2015
Cancer causing genes (oncogenes) were discovered by– Bishop and Varmus BVP-2012 / MGIMS Wardha-
2007
This tumor normally confined to their original location and do not spread to other AFMC -2009
parts of the body– Benign tumor
Magnetic resonance based on– NMR scanning HP CET-2011
Prostate cancer causes is– Cadmium oxide J&K CET-2009 / DUMET-
2001
The blood cancer is known as– Leukemia VMMC-2002
Cervical cancer can be caused by– Human papilloma virus J&K CET-2012
Aromatic amines used in the manufacture of synthetic dyes cause cancer of the– AMU-1999
Urinary bladder
Interferon suppresses the pathogenic activity of– Viruses AMU-2011 / VMMC-2006
Hodgkins disease is– Cancer of the lymphoid tissue Karnataka CET-2003
Recently discovered anti-cancer drug is obtained from– Taxus BVP-2013 / Haryana PMT-
2009 / CG PMT-2009
The most commonly used marker enzyme in clinical diagnosis of prostate cancer Manipal-2015
is– Acid phosphatase
In humans retrovirus is considered as a cause of cancer because– Manipal-2015
in their genome there may be cellular proto oncogene
Electron beam therapy is a kind of radiation therapy to treat– Haryana PMT-2004
Certain types of cancer
Symptoms of radiation disease– Haryana PMT-2004
Ulcerated skin, anaemia, nausea and loss of hair
Genes involved in cancer are– Oncogenes VMMC-2008 / AMU-2008
Cancer is related to– Uncontrolled growth of tissues Haryana PMT-1999

397
It is normally a rare cancer but became a marker for AIDS/HIV patients– AMU-2012
Kaposi’s sarcoma
Cancer characterized by a change in wart or mole on the skin is called– MHT CET-07.10.2020
Melanoma Shift-I
Hela cells used in cell biology are– Haryana PMT-2008
Cancerous cells grown in cancer research laboratory,
Cervical cancer cell derivatives
Cancerous cells spread through– Lymph, Blood, Haryana PMT-2003
Secondary growth of malignant tumour
Cancerous cells can easily be destroyed by radiations due to– Rajasthan PMT-2007 /
Rapid cell division AIPMT-2002
Carcinoma refers to– Malignant tumours of the skin or mucous membrane AIPMT-2003
Used in the treatment of thyroid cancer– I131 AIPMT-2002
Smoking addiction is harmful because it produces polycyclic aromatic AIIMS-2008
hydrocarbons, the cause is– Cancer
Fibroid (leiomyoma) uterus is a– Benign tumor of uterus AIIMS-26.05.2018 Shift-I
Characteristics of cancer is– Cancers show metastasis AIIMS-26.05.2018 Shift-II
A metastatic cancerous tumor is termed 'sarcoma' if the disorder is in– AIPMT-1994
Fibroblasts
Epithelial cancer is known as– Carcinoma AP EAMCET-11.07.2022
Shift-II
Continuous exposure to vinyl chloride may cause cancer of the– Liver JIPMER-2015
Reason of lung cancer– Cement factory AIPMT-2001
Direct causes of cancer– Obesity GUJCET-2014

Drugs and their effect

Marijuana, hashish, charas and ganja are– Halucinogens TS EAMCET 10.05.2023
Shift-I
Diacetyl morphine is also called as– Smack RE-NEET (UG)-06.06.2023
(Manipur)
Morphine is extracted from– Papaver somniferum VMMC-2011 / Haryana PMT-
2003 / JIPMER-2013
Heroin is– Diacetylmorphine Rajasthan PMT-2006, 2004,
Karnataka CET-2014
Liver cirrhosis is caused by– Excess alcoholism BCECE-2005
Reserpine is obtained from– Rauwolfia serpentina BCECE-2005 / Rajasthan
PMT-1996
The drug belladonna is obtained from– Atropa CG PMT-2011 / BVP-2010
Quinine is obtained from– Bark of Cinchona UP CPMT-2003
Mescaline an alkaloid is found in– Lophophora williamsii BHU PMT (Mains)-2005
Cyclosporine and endospores are the drugs that are used as– VMMC-2014 / J&K CET-2009
Immunosuppressants / AIIMS-2002
Medicine for curing respiratory problems is obtained from– Ephedra BCECE-2010 / MGIMS
Wardha-2008
Most commonly used analgesic during self medication by persons is– AMU-2011
Aspirin, Acetaminophen
Commercial opium is obtained from– Unripened capsule Rajasthan PMT-1998
The alkaloids that are present in opium– Codeine, Morphine, thebaine CG PMT-2007
The psychedelic drug is– LSD, Marijuana, Bhang Haryana PMT-2002
Addiction of LSD will eventually lead to– Hallucination Haryana PMT-1999
Most of the plant products used for drugs are– Alkaloids VMMC-2010
398
Tobacco smoke contains– CO polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons and tar CG PMT-2010
An alkaloid, which arrest cell division is obtained from– Colchicum CMC Vellore-2014
Fatty liver syndrome is due to excessive intake of– Alcohol BCECE-2003
Streptomycin was isolated first time by– S. Waksman MGIMS Wardha-2003
Carcinogen present in cigarette smoke is– Benzopyrene JIPMER-2019
Ergotamine tartrate extracted from Claviceps, is used for cure of– Headache AIIMS-2011
A young drug addict used to show symptoms of depressed brain activity, feeling AIIMS-2005 / JIPMER-
of calmness, relaxation and drowsiness, Possibly he was taking– 2007
Valium
A drug addict showed symptoms such as increased appetite, chest pain, redness AIIMS-2014
of eyes, increased urination. He was possibly taking–
Cannabis compounds
Microtubule depolymerizing drug such as colchicine is expected to– AIIMS-2012
Inhibit spindle formation during mitosis
Cocaine is a stimulant, which may cause addiction. It is an alkaloid obtained AIIMS-2001 / Haryana
from– Erythroxylum PMT-2003,
Manipal-2006
Vinblastine is obtained from – Catharanthus roseus AIIMS-27.05.2018 Shift-I
Women who consumed the drug thalidomide for relief from vomiting during AIIMS-2004
early months of pregnancy gave birth to children with–
Under developed limbs
Nicotine acts as a stimulant, because it mimic the effect of– Acetylcholine AIPMT-1995
The use of prohibited drugs by athletes with the intention of improving athletic AP EAMCET-11.07.2022
performance is called– Doping Shift-II
Vaccine is a– Treated bacteria, virus & protein AIPMT-1999
The transport of which neurotransmitter is interfered by cocaine– Dopamine Karnataka CET-2020

Alcohol abuse and its effect

"AA" stands for– Alcoholics Anonymous BHU PMT (Mains)-2005
Ethanol is used to treat methanol toxicity because ethanol– KVPY SB & SX-2019
Is a competitive inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase
Alcohol addiction is harmful because it causes– CG PMT-2007
Deposition of extra fat in liver
Alcohol depresses nervous system and acts as– CG PMT-2010
Sedative agents, Analgesic agent, Anesthetic agents
The disorder is associated with chronic alcoholism and malnutrition is– AMU-2002
Laennecs cirrhosis
In alcohol fermentation is– Triose phosphate is the electron AIPMT-2003
donor while acetaldehyde is the electron acceptor
The alcoholic beverage that will be formed by distillation is– Brandy AIIMS-27.05.2018 Shift-II
Alcohol is the most socially accepted narcotic drug. Excessive consumption of Karnataka CET-2005
alcohol leads to– Cirrhosis of liver
A temporary feeling of an exaggerated joy, well being, pride and optimism AP EAMCET-12.07.2022
associated with drugs and alcohol is known as– Euphoria Shift-II
Due to alcohol abuse brain related diseases Korsakoff's syndrome occurs. Which JIPMER-2016
nutrient is responsible for this syndrome– Vitamin-B1

How to Prevent and Control

Mechanical support, enzyme circulation, protein synthesis and detoxification of AFMC-2006
drugs are function of– ER

399
08.
MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE
8.1 Microbes in Household Products Aspergillus niger is used for commercial and
industrial production of– Citric acid
■ Big holes in swiss chesse are formed due to ■ Statins used for lowering blood-cholesterol level,
production of large amount of CO2 by - extracted from– Yeast
Propioni bacterium
The Enzymes are utilized for making the bottled
■ Puffed up appearance of dough is due to–
fruit juices– Pectinases and proteases
Production of CO2
■ Lactic acid bacteria (LAB)– Partially digest the Alcoholic drinks that is produced without
milk proteins distillation– Beer and Wine
■ Bioactive molecule cyclosprine A is used– As an The organisms that is used in the production of
immunosuppressive agent beverages– Saccharomyces cerevisiae
■ Organism is useful in the preparation of Roquefort The chemical substances produced by some
cheese– Penicillium microbes which can kill or retard the growth of
The inoculum is added to the fresh milk in order to other microbes are called– Antibiotics
convert milk into curd, the term 'inoculum' here Ernst chain and Howard Florey's contribution was
refers to– A starter containing millions of Lab establishing the potential of penicillin as an –
The responsible for the formation and flavour of Effective antibiotic
yogurt is– Lactobacillus The antibiotics was extensively used to read
■ The products are produced by fermentative activity of American soldiers wounded in world war II–
bacteria– Dosa, Idli Penicillin
■ Dough used for making dosa and bread are fermented The diseases are treated by antibiotics– Plague,
respectively by– Bacteria, Yeast Diphtheria, Leprosy, Whooping cough
■ Curd is prepared from pasteurized milk by the The diseases cannot be treated by using antibiotics–
process of curding. It is initiated by adding a starter Chicken pox
culture of– Lactobacillus bulgariens The unwashed culture plate of growing mould
where Staphylococci could not grow lead to the
……. used in swiss cheese– discovery of which antibiotic– Penicillin
Propionibacterium shermanii ................. produced by bacterium Streptococcus
…. used in industrial preparation of ethanol– and modified by genetic engineering is used as a
Saccharomyces "clot buster" for removing clots from the blood
Big holes in Swiss cheese are made by– vessels of patients who have undergone myocardial
infarction leading to heart attack– Streptokinase
A bacterium that producing a large amount
Monescus purpureus is a yeast commercially used in
of carbon dioxide the production of–
The bacterium is used in the preparation of curd–
Blood cholesterol lowering agent
Lactobacillus ............. contains the end products formed during
……. is responsible for ripening of Roquefort anaerobic respiration in yeast–
cheese– Fungi CO2, C2H5OH and energy
For purpose of curdling, an inoculum is added to the ■ Wine and beer are produced by– Fermentation
milk. This inoculum contains– One is useful as immunosuppressive agent in organ
Lactic acid bacteria transplant– Cyclosporin A
Saccharomyces is commonly used in the production The produced by distillation–
of – Ethyl alcohol Whisky and Rum, Brandy
Yeast is used in the production of– Bread & beer Statin, used as blood-cholesterol lowering agent, is
8.2 Microbes in Industrial Products isolated from– Monascus purpureus
■ Fruit juice are made clearer by the activity of– ……help in removing oily stains from the laundry–
Pectinases and proteases Lipase
■ The most significant discoveries of the twentieth Aspergillus niger produce– Citric acid
century that greatly contributed towards the welfare …..used in detergents– Lipase
of human society– Used in condition myocardial infarction–
Penicillin in 1928 by Sir Alexander fleming Streptokinase
400
 First antibiotic was discovered is– Penicillin Sewage water is treated before release into water
Cyclosporin A is produced by– bodies. The type of microbes used to treat sewage
Trichoderma polysporum water is– Heterotrophic microbes
The producer of butyric acid is– A sewage treatment process in which bacterial flocs
Clostridium butaricum are allowed to sediment alter significant reduction
The 'clot buster' produced by Streptococcus and of BOD and then passing into a settling tank is
modified by genetic engineering is– Streptokinase called–
Yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used in the Activated sludge treatment
industrial production of– Ethanol
The steps that are taken by the Ministry of
Acitic acid produced from-
Environment and Forests to protect rivers from
Acetobactor aceti
water pollution–
Baker's yeast and Brewer's yeast is called–
Ganga Action Plan, Yamuna Action Plan
Saccharomyces
Antibiotics are– Produced by microbes, BOD is ............... in polluted water and .............. in
Act against microbes potable water– More, Less
The bread becomes soft and porous, when the yeast In the sewage treatment, bacterial flocs are allowed
cells are mixed in the lump of dough of wheat flour, to sediment in a settling tank. This sediment is
because – Yeast produces CO2 known as– Activated sludge
and alcohol, which gives ■ It is possible to estimate the amount of biodegradable
softness to the bread organic matter in sewage water by measuring–
Biochemical oxygen demand
8.3 Microbes in Sewage Treatment ■ BOD is a measure of the– Organic matter present
Sewage treatment removes suspended solids–
in water
Primary treatment ■ BOD of waste water is estimated by measuring the–
.............. is put into anaerobic sludge digester for
Oxygen consumption
further sewage treatment– Activated sludge
■ In the sewage treatment, bacterial flocs are allowed to
When domestic sewage mixes with river water the
sediment in a settling tank, called– Activated sludge
increased microbial activity uses up–
■ Initial step in primary treatment of sewage–
Dissolved oxygen
It will slow down the rate of degradation of organic Sequential Filteration
matter, Death of bacteria & eventully breakage of ….. initiate the Ganga and Yamuna action plan–
flocs to activated sludge floes is reduced will occur– Ministry of forest, Ministry of environment
Oxygen availability. The step large and small particles are removed from
Waste water treatment generates a large quantity of sewage through sequential filtration and
sludge, ........ can be treated by– Anaerobic sedimentation– Primary treatment
digesters The gases are produced from anaerobic sludge
Methanogenic bacteria are not found in– digester– H2S, CH4, CO2
Activated sludge Sewage treatment decomposer bacteria are recycled
The primary treatment of wastewater involves the into starting process is–
removal of– Stable particles
Activated sludge treatment
BOD of wastewater is estimated by measuring the
amount of– Oxygen consumption During secondary treatment in a sewage treatment
The first step of sewage is– Filtration plant, sewage is treated untill–
During the primary treatment of sewage, solid BOD is decreased significantly
particles that settle down are called– Primary The effluent obtained after secondary treatment in a
sludge sewage treatment plant (STP) is–
The purpose of biological treatment of waste water Less polluting
is to– Reduce BOD and is released into rivers and streams
The masses of bacteria held together by slime and STPs (Sewage Treatment Plants) make the sewage–
fungal filaments to form mesh-like structures are
called– Flocs Less polluting
The sewage treatment removes suspended solids is– The greater BOD of waste water relates–
Primary treatment Decreased oxygen content of water
Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) in a river BOD of waste water is estimated by measuring the
water– amount of– Oxygen consumption
Increases when sewage gets mixed with river Process floating debris and grit are removed in STPs
water respectively– Filtration & Sedimentation
401
 Domestic sewage mixes with river water– Trichoderma, Baculovirus, Bacillus thuringiensis
The increased microbial activity group of– Biocontrol agents.
uses up dissolved oxygen Methanogens produce– Carbon dioxide
■ Primary sludge is– Floating debris removed by Lactic acid bacteria (LAB) grow in milk and
sequential filtration convert it to curd and also improve its nutritional
8.4 Microbes in Production of Biogas quality by increasing– Vitamin B12
The gases that are produced in anaerobic sludge The free-living fungus Trichoderma can be used
digesters– Methane, Hydrogen sulphide & CO2 for–
The technology of biogas production from cow Biological control of plant diseases
dung was developed in India largely due to the The living organisms or their products which are
efforts of– used for the pest control are– Biopesticides
Indian Agricultural Research Institute and When a natural predator (living organism) is applied
Khadi & Village Industries Commission on the other pathogen organisms to control them,
Methanogens, growing anaerobically on cellulosic this process is called as– Biological control
material produce– Dragonflies are used to get rid of– Mosquitoes
Methane, carbon dioxide and hydrogen A microbial biocontrol agent that can be used to
The bacteria that is present in the rumen of cattle– control butterfly caterpillars is–
Methanobacterium Bacillus thuringiensis
Process of biogas production is– Anaerobic process
Bacillus thuringiensis is used to control– Insect
These bacteria grow anaerobically on cellulosic
pests
material, produce large amount of methane along
with CO2 and H2, and are collectively called Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been used
methanogens. Examples of such bacteria is– for designing novel– Bio-insecticides
Methanobacterium The fungus Trichoderma has proved to be a useful
Methanogenic bacteria are not found in– microorganism for–
Activated sludge Biological control of plant pathogens
■ Production of biogas in a biogas plant is determined Integrated Pest Management (IPM) discourages the
by– Floating cover excessive use of– Chemical pesticides
■ Methanogens, growing anaerobically on cellulosic ■ Biological control of soil - born plant pathogens
material, produce– Methane, carbon dioxide and proved to be a useful microorganism - Trichoderma
hydrogen horzianum
■ Anaerobic breakdown of biomass, with the help of ■ A nitrogen fixing microbe associated with the fern
methanogenic bacteria is produced by - Biogas
Azolla in rice fields is– Anabaena
■ Indian agriculture research institute and Khadi village
industries commission of _____ production from cow Commonly present in root ecosystems and control
dung was developed in india largely to the efforts of various of plant pathogens– Trichoderma
- Biogas .............. discourage the excessive use of chemical
Gases are produced by methanogens– pesticide– IPM
Carbon dioxide Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains has been used for
Biogas is produced by– designing novel– Bio - insecticidal plants
Anaerobic breakdown of biomass, 8.6 Microbes as Biofertilizers
With the help of methanogenic bacteria
In biogas plant, biowaste and slurry of dung are Mycorrhiza does not help the host plant in–
added to– Digester Increasing its resistance to insects
Initiation for the production of technology of biogas The reason that the chemical/synthetic fertilizers
production– should be replaced by biofertilisers is that the
Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI), farmer– Are expensive,
Khadi & Village Industries Commission (KVIC) Are source of environmental pollution
Institutions have contributed to the production of Use of fertilisers and pesticides of biological origin,
biogas– IARI, KVIC IPM (Integrated Pest Management) includes–
The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the Organic farming
production of biogas from the dung of ruminant Living organisms used to enrich the nutrient quality
animals include the– Methanogens of the soil are known as– Biofertilisers
8.5 Microbes in Biocontrol Agents Biofertilisers are organisms that enrich the nutrient
Identify the microorganism which is responsible for quality of the soil. ........... can be used as
the production of an immunosuppressive molecule biofertilisers– Nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria,
cyclosporin A– Trichoderma polysporum Nitrogen fixing bacteria, Mycorrhizae
402
 Bring about soil nutrient enrichment, Maximise the Some blue green algae are used as biofertilizer
ecological benefits are the living organisms– because they can– Fix nitrogen
Biofertilisers Living organisms used to enrich the nutrient quality
Unicellular symbiotic organisms improve yield of of the soil are called as– Biofertilizers
legumes by– Fixing atmospheric nitrogen and Micro-organisms forms symbiotic association with
colonising roots of host plant plants and helps them in their nutrition–
Biofertiliser can be used as– Azolla anabaena Glomus
Non-symbiotic biofertilizers– Azotobacter
The symbiotic association between fungi and roots
of higher plants is referred to as– Mycorrhiza A free living nitrogen fixing cyanobacterium also
forms symbiotic association with Azolla is–
............. the microorganisms forms symbiotic
Anabaena
association with plants and helps them in their
nutrition– Glomus 8.7 Miscellaneous
............. the pairs fix atmospheric nitrogen while The residue left after methane production from
free living in soil– Azospirillum and Azotobacter cattle dung is– Used as manure
Cyanobacteria are– Autotrophs The vitamin whose content increases the conversion
Benefits shown by plants having symbiotic of milk into curd by lactic acid bacteria is–Vitamin-
associations include(s)– B12
Tolerance to salinity & drought, Waste water treatment generates a large quantity of
Resistance to root-borne pathogens sludge, can be treated by– Anaerobic digesters
The plants that shows symbiotic association with Methanogenic bacteria are found in–
Rhizobium– Sweet pea, Lentils, Alfalfa, Rumen of cattle
Biogas is the mixture of gases produced by the
Biofertilisers includes –
microbial activity. The type of the gas produced
Nostoc, Oscillatoria, anabaena depends upon the – Type of microbes,
Non-symbiotic biofertiliser is– Azotobacter Type of organic substrate/waste
Farmers have reported over 50% higher yields of The primary treatment of sewage involves–
rice by using that biofertilisers– Anabaena Sedimentation and Filtration
■ The effective biocontrol agent of several plant The primary treatment of waste water involves the
pathogen is– Bacillus thuringiensis removal of– Stable particles
■ Baculoviruses are– Specific insecticides BOD of waste water is estimated by measuring the
■ Autotrophic organism is widely distributed in aquatic amount of– Oxygen consumption
and terrestrial environments and can fix atmospheric The free-living fungus Trichoderma can be used for–
nitrogen– Anabaena
■ The main source of biofertilizers– Bacteria, Fungi Biological control of plant diseases
and Cyanobacteria Nitrogen-fixing organism is not a– Pseudomonas
■ No negative impacts on non target organisms– Activated sludge should have the ability to settle
Nucleopolyhedroviruses quickly so that it can– Be rapidly pumped
■ A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial back from sedimentation tank to aeration tank
infarction is normally immediately given– LAB stands for– Lactic acid bacteria
Streptokinase Responsible for the production of an
■ TMV (Tobacco Mosaic Viruses) is – Rod shaped immunosuppressive molecule cyclosporin A,
■ Blue - green algae, Rhizobium other nitrogen- fixing Microorganism is– Trichoderma polysporum
bacteria and mycorrhizal fungi are - Biofertiliser ….. Put into Anaerobic sludge digester for further
■ Bt cotton is resistant to– Insects sewage treatment– Activated sludge
■ ______ microbes is a proteinactious infectious agent– Secondary metabolites such as nicotine, strychnine
Prions and caffeine are produced by plants for their–
■ A non-symbolic biofertilizer is– Azotobacter Defence action
Free living, atmospheric nitrogen fixers are– For the commercial and industrial production of
Azospirillum, Azotobacter Citric Acid, microbes is used– Aspergillus niger
Cyanobacteria are– Can be used as a biocontrol agent in the treatment of
Anabaena, Nostoc, Oscillatoria plant disease– Trichoderma
Controlled by using biopesticides can be– Commercial blood cholesterol lowering agent is–
Insects, Diseases, Weeds Statin
Glomus is a– Mycorrhizal fungus Conversion of milk to curd improves its nutritional
In paddy fields, act as an important biofertilizer– value by increasing the amount of–
Cyanobacteria Vitamin B12
403
 EXAM POINT
Microbes as in Household Products
Streptococcus is responsible for– Conversion of milk into curd Rajasthan PMT-1996
Probiotics are– Live microbial food supplements DUMET-2010 / AIPMT-
2007
Lactobacillus mediated conversion of milk to curd results because of– DUMET-2010
Coagulation and partial digestion of milk proteins
A microbial mutant requiring growth factor in addition to minimal medium is– HP CET-2011
Auxotroph
Lactic Acid Bacteria (LAB) grow in milk and convert it to curd and improve its JCECE-2018,
nutritional quality by increasing– Vitamin – B12 AMU-2012
The fermented food of Mucor are– Furu, meju, murcha, sufu CG PMT-2010
Cheese and yogurt are the products of– Fermentation MGIMS Wardha-2003
The combination of microbes that is responsible for the formation and flavour of Manipal-2006
yogurt–
Lactobacillus bulgaricus and Streptococcus thermophilus
Lactic acid formation is a two step anaerobic process. Both steps are carried at Manipal-2006
one stage by– Lactobacillus
The bacteria that converts milk to curd is– Lactic Acid Bacteria (LAB) AP EAMCET-12.07.2022
Shift-II

Microbes as in Industrial Products

Roquefort cheese is ripened by– Fungi (Penicillium roquefortii) Karnataka CET-20.05.2023
Commercial broiler strains used in India are– Cornish crosses, Hubbard AP EAPCET-11.05.2023,
Shift-I
Beer has an alcoholic content of– 3-6% AMU-2015
The principle agent of alcoholic fermentation and bread making is– BVP-2010
Saccharomyces cerevisiae
The microbes that is used for commercial production of ethanol is– DUMET-2010
Saccharomyces cerevisiae
The large hole in 'Swiss - Cheese' are made by a– Karnataka CET-2022
Propioni Bacterium producing a large amount of CO2
The source of intoxicating beverage called sake is– Oryza sativa BCECE-2010,
AP EAMCET-2007
Brewer's yeast lack which of these– Diastase and amylase AMU-2011
The enzyme used in the beverage industry to flavour soft drinks and in the AMU -2000
baking industry to sweeten the biscuits and cakes is– Glucoamylase
The activity of bacteria that is very helpful in the preparation and flavouring of CG PMT-2007
tea leaves is known as– Bacillus megaterium
Surgical instruments are boiled in water before use because– CG PMT-2007
For killing the pathogens present on them
For retting of jute the fermenting microbe used is– Butyric acid bacteria AMU-2007
Petroleum can be replaced by– Ethanol Haryana PMT-2002
Fermentation of sugar to yield alcohol is carried out by– Yeast CMC Ludhiana-2010,
Haryana PMT-2002
Vinegar is prepared from alcohol with the help of– Acetobacter Haryana PMT-2002

404
Pasteurization is a process means heating of drinks at– AMU-2006 / Rajasthan PMT-
60°-70°C for 30 minutes 2009
To speed up the making process in brewing industry, the growth hormone used AMU-2012
is– Gibberellic acid
Ethyl alcohol is commercially manufactured from– Sugarcane BHU PMT(Screening)-2008 /
Manipal-2008,
BVP-2007 / BHU PMT-2004
Industrial production of ethanol from starch is brought about by a certain species Assam CEE-2014 / Haryana
of– Oenococcus oeni PMT-2010,
AMU-2008 / VMMC-2008 /
BVP-2006
Malolactic fermentation during wine production is performed by– CG PMT-2010
Lactobacillus
For the commercial and industrial production of citric acid, the microbes that is used NEET-2020 Phase-II
Aspergillus niger
During the formation of bread it becomes porous due to release of CO2 by the AIPMT-2002
action of– Yeast
Dough kept overnight in warm weather becomes soft and spongy because of– AIPMT-2004
Fermentation
A good producer of citric acid is– Aspergillus NEET-2013 / DUMET-2006 /
Haryana PMT-
2003,
BVP-2001 / AIPMET-1995
Idlies become puffy because– Bubbles of CO2 trapped in glutein MHT CET-2019
The process of making the milk bacterialess is called– Pasteurization Rajasthan PMT-1996

Microbes as Antibiotics
Alexander Fleming in 1928 discovered– Penicillin JCECE-2005 / Manipal-2000,
Punjab MET-2004 / AIIMS-
2000
Highest number of antibiotics are produced by– Streptomyces CMC VELLORE-2013 / BHU
PMT (Screening)-
2009,
Uttarakhand PMT-2009 /
VMMC-2009 / BVP-2009
A chemical substance produced by a microorganism for inhibiting the growth of BCECE-2014
another is– Antibiotic
………… antibiotic act on the cell wall of bacteria– β-lactum group Manipal-2013
The antibiotic terramycin is obtained from– Streptomyces rimosus Haryana PMT-1999
Broad spectrum antibiotic are– VMMC-2005 / AMU-2004 /
Acts on a variety of pathogenic micro organisms BVP-2003
The antibiotic penicillin has inhibitory effect through– VMMC-2010
Dissolution of cell wall synthesis
The population interactions is widely used in medical science for the production NEET-2018
of antibiotics– Amensalism
The term "antibiotic" was coined by– Selman Waksman AIPMT-2003 / BVP-2007
The ways bacteria become resistant to antibiotic except– AIIMS-2009
Moving away from the drug
Chloromycetin is obtained from– Streptomyces venezualae AIIMS-2001
The microbe which is opted for narrow spectrum insecticide is– AP EAMCET-24.09.2020
Nucleo polyhedro virus Shift-I

405
 Microbes as Chemicals, Enzymes and other Bioactive Molecules
Aspergillus niger produces– Citric acid and gluconic acid VMMC-2013
Lemon is sour due to the presence of– Citric acid Manipal-2012
Vitamin-C was first vitamin to be produced by Fementation process using– Manipal-2012
Acetobactor
The microbial product that is often referred to as a "clot buster" is– KVPY SB & SX-2019
Streptokinase
The end products of fermentation are– Ethyl alcohol and CO2 AFMC-2002
The chemical produced by the host plant to protect themselves against fungal JCECE-2005
infection is– Phytoalexin
Citric acid is produced by fermentation of cane molasses (sucrose) by– Punjab MET-2010 / AMU-
Aspergillus niger 1998
Streptomycin is obtained from– Streptomyces griseus VMMC-2012 / BCECE-2010,
Rajasthan PMT-2008 / CG
PMT-2008,
BHU PMT(Screening)-2006 /
UP CPMT-2008,
2004,
AIIMS-1998
An immunosuppressive agent produced by a microbe– Cyclosporin A JCECE-2018
Cyclosporine is used as– Immuno suppressant CMC Vellore-2014
The triggers that activation of protoxin to active Bt toxin of Bacillus NEET-2019
thuringiensis in boll worm is– Alkaline pH of gut
The preparation and flavoring of leaves of tea and tobacco is due to the activities AIIMS-2017
of– Bacillus megatherium
The bacteria Pseudomonas is useful because of its ability to– AIIMS-2004
Plant growth promotion and pathogenicity control
Statins produced by this Yeast have been commercialized as Blood-Cholesterol AP EAMCET-11.07.2022
lowering agents– Monascus purpureus Shift-II
A commercial blood cholesterol lowering agent is– Statin NEET-2019

Microbes play a role in Sewage Treatment

Sewage water turns black due to action of– H 2S BCECE-2011
The high amount of E. coli in water is an indicator of– Sewage pollution Uttarakhand PMT-2007
The sediments in the settling tanks of tertiary treatment in STP called– MHT CET 5.10.2020
Activated sludge Shift-I
Foul smell in the water bodies of tanks, ponds etc. is due to– Anaerobiosis Manipal-2004
The biodegradable pollutant is– Sewage JCECE-2005
In domestic sewage impurities in the form of suspended solid, colloidal material AMU-2012
and dissolved materials, are about– 0.1 %
A sewage treatment process in which a part of decomposer bacteria present in the DUMET-2009
waste is recycled into the starting of the process is called–
Activated sludge treatment
The gases are produced in anaerobic sludge digesters is– AIPMT-2014
Methane, Hydrogen Sulphide and CO2
In sewage treatment, secondary treatment is considered highly significant. Karnataka CET-2020
because– It reduces the BOD level of sewage
Sewage water can be purified by– Microorganisms AP EAMCET-06.09.2021
Shift-I

406
The bacterium that is commonly found in the anaerobic sludge during sewage TS EAMCET-02.05.2018
treatment is called– Methanobacterium Shift-II
The primary treatment of sewage water involves– Karnataka CET-2016
Filtration and sedimentation
Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for – AIPMT (Screening)-2010
Availability of oxygen throughout the process

Microbes in Production of Biogas

By anaerobic process, the cow dung is used to produce– Methane MGIMS Wardha-2005
Bio-gas contains– CH4, CO2, H2 Haryana PMT-2002
Gobar gas contains mainly– CH4 + CO2 AMU-2006
Bio gas production from waste bio mass with the help of methanogenic bacteria Haryana PMT-2003
is– Three step process (Solubulization , acidogenesis, methanogensis)
The equipments that is essentially required for growing microbes on a large NEET-2019
scale, for industrial production of enzymes is– Bioreactor
Pollution from animal excreta and organic waste from kitchen can be most AIIMS-2006
profitably minimized by– Using them for producing biogas
Besides dung, the weed that can be used in biogas production is– JIPMER-2014
Eichhornia crassipes
The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung NEET-2016 Phase-I
of ruminant animals, include the– Methanogens

Microbes Work as Biocontrol Agents

A fungicide is– Bordeaux mixture VMMC-2011
Scirpophaga incertulus is an example of– Monophagus pest WB JEE-2009
Tiger beetle is used as – Biological insecticide WB JEE-2010
In plant disease control, the latest trend is– Biological control Punjab MET-1999
Bacillus thuringiensis is used to control– Insect pests DUMET-2010
Dragonflies play an important role because they– JIPMER-1999
Feed entirely on mosquito adults and mosquito larva
The microbial biocontrol agent for butterfly caterpillar is– Kerala PMT-2015
Bacillus thuringiensis
When a natural predator (living being) is applied on the other pathogen organism JIPMER-2003
to control them, this process is called– Biological control
Trichoderma harzianum has proved a useful microorganism for– Rajasthan PMT-2010,
Biological control of soil-borne plant pathogens AIPMT-2008
…………….. the microbes are commonly employed in dairy industry– MHT CET-07.10.2020
Lactobacillus, Streptomyces, Penicillium Shift-I
A common biocontrol agent for the control of plant diseases is– Trichoderma Rajasthan PMT-2011
………….. can be used as a biocontrol agent in the treatment of plant disease– NEET-2019
Trichoderma
A biocontrol agent to be a part of an integrated pest management should be– NEET (Odisha)-2019
Species-specific and inactive on non-target organisms
The first bioherbicide developed in 1981 was based on– AIIMS-2009
Phytophthora palmivora
The proved effective for biological control of nematodal disease in plants is– AIPMT-2008
Paecilomyces lilacinus
Excellent biocontrol agents to treat ecologically sensitive areas is– AP EAMCET-25.04.2018
Nucleopolyhedrovirus Shift-II

407
The bio-engineered bacteria that is utilized for cleaning of marine oil slicks is– JIPMER-2012 / AP EAMCET-
Pseudomonas putida 2011
…………… can be controlled by using biopesticides– JIPMER-2012
Insects, Diseases, Weeds
To control the stored grain pests the better and safe method is– AMU-1998
The biological control of pests

Microbes work as a Biofertilizer

A gas produced by paddy fields and connected with global warming is– J&K CET-2008
Methane
Some blue-green algae can be used as biofertilizer because– Karnataka CET-2002
They can fix nitrogen
Biofertilizers are– Anabaena and Azolla HP CET-2013 / VMMC-2003 /
AIPMT-1997
Symbiotic bacteria is– Rhizobium Manipal-2000
Root nodules for nitrogen fixation in non leguminous trees are produced by CG PMT-2007
species of the genus– Frankia
Bio-fertilizers include– Nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria, Nitrogen bacteria, Haryana PMT-2002 / J&K
fixing Cyanobacteria, bacteria and mycorrhizal fungi CET-2002
VAM is– Endo-mycorrhiza Haryana PMT-2002
Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association between– Haryana PMT-2007 / Haryana
Fungi and roots of higher plants PMT-2002
Rhizobium is found in the roots of – Legumes Haryana PMT-2002
A green manure is– Sesbania Haryana PMT-2002
Green manure is used as– Crotalaria juncea Haryana PMT-2005
BGA (blue-green algae) is chiefly used as biofertilizer in the crop of– Paddy Haryana PMT-1999
Nostoc is known to perform– CG PMT-2006
Photosynthesis and nitrogen fixation simultaneously
The organism that used as a biofertilizer is free living and never shows symbiosis MHT CET-07.10.2020
is– Azotobacter Shift-I
Bacillus thuringiensis is a soil bacterium that produces a _____ with insecticidal MHT CET-07.10.2020
properties– Protein Shift-I
Azolla is used as bio-fertilizer as it has– Cyanobacteria Haryana PMT-2003
VAM is useful for– Phosphate nutrition Haryana PMT-2003
Mycorrhizal association of which plant enables it to utilize amino acid as N – CG PMT-2010
source is– Pinus
Rhizobia form nodule in Glycine max (Soybean) is– Bradyrhizobium CG PMT-2010
The most efficient free nitrogen fixer cyanobacterium in field of rice is– BVP-2013
Aulosira
Nodules with nitrogen -fixing bacteria are found in– Gram MGIMS Wardha-2010
Natural silk contains is– Nitrogen CG PMT-2011
Lowest number of chromosomes are found in– Brachyscome,Haplopappus Rajasthan PMT-2004
Fuel wood required per person per day is– 3 kg Haryana PMT-2002
Gasohol contains– 10 – 15% alcohol Haryana PMT-2002
A scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical industrial plant removes– AIPMT-2014
Gases like sulphur dioxide
During Lactic acid fermentation– Neither O2 is used, nor CO2 is liberated Karnataka CET-2010
The principle upon which a lactometer works is– Density KVPY (SA)-2011

408
09.
BIOTECHNOLOGY : PRINCIPLES
AND PROCESSES
■ Restriction endonculease purified from bacteria can
9.1 Principles of Biotechnology be used in vitro is possible - Genetic engineering
.................. should be chosen for best yield if one ■ Advancement in genetic engineering has been
were to produce a recombinant protein in large possible due to– Endonucleases
amounts– A continuous culture system ■ Cleaving DNA segments with endonuclease and
The most important feature in a plasmid to be used rejoining them with ligase construction of -
as a vector is– Origin of replication (ori) Recombinant DNA
An antibiotic resistance gene in a vector usually ■ Nobel Prize of 1978 for restriction endonuclease
helps in the selection of– Transformed cells technology was given to– Arber, Nathans and Smith
The controlled use of biological agents, such as ■ Vector must be present to make it autonomously
microorganisms, plant or animal cells, for beneficial replicate in host cell– Ori site
use to humans is called– Biotechnology ■ The restriction enzyme Hind II isolated from
Gene cloning, Synthesis of a gene, Correcting a bacterium– Haemophilus influenzae
defective gene, Developing a DNA vaccine the Gave the definition of biotechnology–
techniques can be included under– Biotechnology European federation of biotechnology
The core techniques of modern biotechnology ............. techniques has given the birth of
is/are– biotechnology– Genetic engineering,
Genetic engineering, Bioprocess engineering Maintenance of sterile ambience
The term 'recombinant DNA' refers to– First recombinant DNA was developed– 1972
DNA with a piece of foreign DNA Structure is involved in genetic engineering–
Plasmid used to construct the first recombinant Plasmid
DNA was isolated from ............... bacterium Genetic engineering aims at– Destroying wild gene,
species– Replacing defective gene, Curing human disease
Salmonella typhimurium by introducing new gene
We can cut DNA at specific sites by restriction The procedure through a piece of DNA is introduced
endonucleases is possible– Genetic engineering. in a host bacterium is called–
The term 'chemical knife' refers to– Endonucleases Transformation
EFB stands for– European Federation of
In recombinant DNA technology, the term vector
Biotechnology
refers to– A plasmid used to transfer DNA into a
Extrachromosomal, self-replicating double stranded
living cell circular DNA in bacterial cell is called–
One of the key factors, which makes the plasmid the Plasmid
vector in genetic engineering is– Biotechnology is not related to– Transfer of a
Its ability to carry a foreign gene gene from parent to offspring
■ First recombinant DNA was made using– Sexual reproduction results in– Introduction of
Plasmid for antibiotic many undersirable variation along
resistant gene for Salmonella with desirable variations.
■ Genetic engineering and bioprocess engineering are - Genetic engineering has been made possible due to–
Principles of Biotechnology Availability of restriction endonucleases
■ In EcoRI 'R' stands for– Strain RY13 in purified form
■ DNA fragments are– Negative charged Growth of desired organism in biotechnology results
■ The DNA fragments movement on agarose gel. The in– Genetic engineering,
smaller the fragment size, the farther it move is Use of restriction enzyme,
known as- Gel electrophoresis Maintenance of sterile ambience
409
Technique result in introduction of one or more Technique of separation of DNA fragments through
desired gene only into the specific host – the pores of agarose gel under the influence of
Tissue culture electric field is known as – Gel electrophoresis.
Modern biotechnology is based on– Having become an expert on gel electrophoresis,
Genetic engineering you are asked to examine a gel. Where would you
find the smallest segments of DNA– Near the
9.2 Tools of Recombinant DNA positive electrode, farthest away from the wells.
Technology The steps that should be performed by a person in
order to visualise the bands of DNA fragments
A gene whose expression helps to identify obtained from gel electrophoresis Staining with
transformed cell is known as– Selectable marker ethidium bromide followed by –
During the purification process for recombinant Exposure to UV radiations
DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol Separation of DNA fragments according to their
precipitates out– DNA size is used for– Gel electrophoresis
The Nobel Prize for the development of PCR If we want to recover many copies of the target
technique was awarded by– Kary Mullis DNA, we will choose a vector– Whose origin
The techniques that made it possible to genetically supports high copy number
engineer living organisms– The effect that if pBR322, a cloning vector does not
Recombinant DNA techniques carry 'ori' site– Replication will not take place
The equipments that is essentially required for Cloning vector is– pBR 322
growing microbes on a large scale, for industrial The gene 'rop' present in pBR322 cloning vector,
production of enzymes– Bioreactor codes for–The proteins involved in the replication
DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium of the plasmid
bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear A recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding
as– sequence of enzyme β-galactosidase, resulting in
Bright orange bands inactivation of the enzyme– Insertion inactivation
The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel The bacteria that is used as a vector for plant genetic
can be visualised after staining with– engineering– Agrobacterium tumefaciens
Ethidium bromide The microbes transform normal plant and animal
Formation of phosphodiester bond between two cells to cancerous cells respectively–
DNA fragments construction of recombinant DNA Agrobacterium tumefaciens and retroviruses
molecule is– The role of DNA ligase Increasing the efficiency with which DNA enters
the bacterium through pores in its cell wall refers
The steps that are catalysed by Taq polymerase in a
to– Competent
PCR reaction– Extension of primer end on the
Required for gene gun method of gene transfer is–
template DNA
Microparticles
In agarose gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules are
Inject recombinant DNA into the nucleus of an
separated on the basis of their– Size only animal cell is a method used to– Micro-injection
Rising of dough is due to– In biolistic method of gene transfer, the micro-
Production of CO2 particles coated with foreign DNA are bombarded
The first restriction endonuclease isolated was– into target cells at a very high velocity. These
Hind II micro-particles are made up of– Gold or tungsten
The source of the restriction enzyme EcoR I is– ■ Autoradiography technique is used in-
Escherichia coli RY 13 Photographic film
The sticky ends of a fragmented DNA molecule are ■ ELISA is based on the principle– Antigen-antibody
made of– Unpaired bases interaction
■ Ethidium bromide can be used to visualize the DNA-
If a plasmid vector is digested with EcoR I at a
In agarose gel electrophoresis
single site, then– ■ DNA staining dye used in elctrophoresis is–
Two sticky ends will be produced Ethidium Bromide
In recombinant DNA technology, a plasmid vector ■ Popularised the ____ Avaliability of thermostable
is cleaved by– The same enzyme that cleaves DNA polymerase -
the donor DNA PCR (Polymerase chain Reactions)
410
■ The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a powerful pBR322 has two antibiotic resistance genes. These
technique to– Amplify genes are against– Ampicillin and Tetracycline
■ Primers get attached with DNA strands in– Genetic engineering would not have been possible if
Annealing step of PCR one of these were absent– DNA ligase
■ Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in– Restriction enzyme cut the palindromic DNA
Gel electrophoresis, DNA fingerprinting sequences– At little away from centre and
■ In gel electrophoresis, the separated bands of DNA between the same bases on opposite strands
are cut out and extracted from the gel piece, step is The 'sticky' ends of a fragmented DNA molecule are
called– Elution made of– Unpaired bases
■ Heat is applied in PCR– Denaturation In pBR322, BamH1 site is located in–
Enzyme joins sticky ends of DNA– Tetracycline resistance gene
DNA ligase Ideally in a process of genetically modifying an
Specific region or sequence of DNA is responsible organism a vector should have– Recognition site
for initiating replication– First restriction endonuclease is– Hind - II
Origin of replication nd
While naming the restricting enzyme, 2 word is–
Vector can clone only a small fragment of DNA– Species name
Plasmid The virus have ability to transform normal cells to
Plasmids are used as vectors in genetic engineering cancerous cell– Retrovirus
because of their– Restriction endonucleases are the most widely used
Ability to carry foreign genes in recombinant DNA technology. They are obtained
Biolistic technique is used in– from– Bacterial cells
Gene transfer process DNA sequence of base pairs that reads same on the
Types of bonding facilitates the action of DNA two strands when orientation of reading is kept the
ligases– Hydrogen bonding same is– Palindrome sequence
Electrophoresis is used to separate molecule– In presence of chromogenic substrate, recombinant
DNA, RNA, Protein bacteria will give–
Most common matrix used in gel - electrophoresis– Colourless colonies
Agarose The substrate for restriction enzyme is–
DNA fragments separate according to size through– Double stranded DNA
Sieving effect Biolistics (gen-gun) is suitable for–
Visualize DNA fragment help to– Transformation of plant cells
For a DNA to function as a cloning vector the most
Ethidium bromide, Exposure to UV radiation
essential requirement is– Ori sequence
................ proteins involved in replication of
For transformation, micro-particles coated with
plasmid– Rop
DNA to be bombarded with gene gun are made up
If the r-plasmid does not have an insert, it will give
of– Gold or Tungsten
colonies of colour is– Blue colour
DNA cannot pass through a cell membrane as–
A restriction endonuclease breaks bond between–
It is hydrophilic molecule
Sugar & phosphate components of
Recombinant DNA bearing ampicillin resistance
a nucleic acid molecule
gene is passed in E.coli. The latter are spread on agar
........... is not cloning vector- Sal I plates containing ampicillin. Then–
r
In pBR 322, tetracycline resistance gene (tet ) has Transformed recipient cells grow
recognition site for endonuclease– BamH I
and untransformed cells die
........... is not a tool of genetic engineering– GMO After incubation of bacterial cells with recombinant
Enzyme will get inactivated in insertional DNA on ice, heat shock is given in, the bacterial
inactivation– β-galactosidase cells are exposed to a temperature of– 420C
Palindromic DNA sequence for EcoRI is– The criterion for DNA fragments movement on
3' - CTTAAG - 5' agarose gel during gel electrophoresis is–
Minimum number of plasmids in a bacteria can be– The smaller the fragment size,
1-2 the farther it moves
411
 In r-DNA technology or genetic engineering elution The polymerase chain reaction is a technique used
means– The separated band of for– Amplification of DNA
DNA are cut from the gel and Chemically synthesised oligonucleotides that are
extracted from the gel piece complementary to the regions of DNA are– Primers
9.3 Processes of Recombinant DNA Enzyme 'Taq polymerase' used in PCR, has been
isolated from bacterium– Thermus aquaticus
Technology
The required to perform polymerase chain reaction
The genetically-modified (GM) brinjal in India has
is– Primers, Taq DNA polymerase
been developed for– Insect-resistance
DNA polymerase used in PCR–
The commonly used as a vector for introducing a
It remains active at high temperature
DNA fragment in human lymphocytes is–
Retrovirus Used to transfer the recombinant DNA into the host
In RNAi, genes are silenced using– dsRNA is– Bioreactors
Silencing of a gene could be achieved through the A device in which large volume of living cells are
use of– Both RNAi and antisense RNA cultured in order to get a specific product is called–
A probe which is a molecule used to locate specific Bioreactor
sequences in a mixture to DNA or RNA molecules Stirred tank bioreactor have been designed for–
could be– Either RNA or DNA Availability of oxygen throughout the process
A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same After completion of the biosynthetic stage in the
restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a bioreactors, the product undergoes separation and
recombinant plasmid using– Ligase purification processes, collectively termed as–
The feature of the plasmids is not a– Single- Downstream processing
stranded At which stage after fermentation, its desired
The cutting of DNA at specific locations became product is screened and purified– Downstream
possible with the discovery of–Restriction enzymes processing
The organism is used to transfer T-DNA– ■ There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRI, 'co'
Agrobacterium tumefaciens stands for– Coli
The enzyme used to join the fragments of DNA ■ Restriction endonuclease-Hind II always cuts DNA
during the process of replication is– DNA ligase molecules at a particular point by recognizing
The vector that can clone only a small fragment of specific sequence of– Six base pairs
DNA– Plasmid ■ Restriction enzymes belong to a large class of the
enzyme called– Nucleases
■ Using recombinant technology, genes from a donor
Significance of 'heat shock' method in bacterial
cell can be transplanted into a bacterium for DNA
transformation is to facilitate– Uptake of DNA
replication and protein synthesis. The kinds of cells
through transient pores in the bacterial cell wall
that can be used as a donor in this technology are–
An enzyme catalysing the removal of nucleotides
Any kind of cells
from the ends of DNA is– Exonuclease
■ The first restriction endonuclease– Hind II
The transfer of genetic material from one bacterium
■ _____ enzyme is used to degrade cell wall of plants–
to another through the mediation of a vector like
Cellulase
virus is termed as– Transduction
■ The palindromes are groups of letters that form the
'Restriction' in restriction enzyme refers to– _____ when read in both direction forward and
Cutting of DNA at specific position only backward– Same words
In the isolation of DNA, removal of protein and ■ First step in genetic engineering is– Isolation of
RNA is carried out by enzymes .............. and genetic material
............ respectively– Protease, ribonuclease ■ _______ discovered recombinant DNA (rDNA)
During isolation of genetic material, the chemical technology– Stanley Cohen and Herber Boyer
used to precipitate out the purified DNA is– ■ Utilization of living organisms/systems/processes for
Chilled ethanol producing materials useful to human society is known
Process used for amplification or multiplication of as– Biotechnology
DNA in DNA fingerprinting is– ■ Any protein encoding gene is expressed in a
Polymerase chain reaction heterologus host, it is called– Recombinant protein
412
■ A procedure through which a piece of DNA is ■ Stirred-tank bioreactors designed for– Availability of
introduced in a host bacterium– Transformation oxygen throughout the process
■ Additional or removal of gene is - ■ Large scale production of biotechnological products
Genetic engineering involves use of– Bioreactor/fermenter
■ Thermostable enzyme– Taq polymerase ■ Bolivar and rodriguez the scientists who synthesized
■ DNA polymerase (Taq) and deoxynucleotides are the plasmid- Plasmid pBR322
added (works) during the PCR– Before extension ■ In a plasmid vector, any restriction endonuclease site
■ In convention for naming restriction endonuclease, should be preferably– Only one
second two letter com from species of the ____ from ■ The introduction of T- DNA into plant involves
which they were isolated - Prokaryotic cell
infection of the plant by- Agrobacterium
■ To isolated plasmid from a yeast cell, this purpose we
tumefaciens
used ______ enzyme in initial step– Chitinase
■ The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in
To isolate DNA, bacterial cell is treated by–
contrast to blue colonies of non- recombinant bacteria
Lysozyme
because of insertion inactivation of _________ in
Process used for amplification or multiplication of
recombinant bacteria. β- galactosidase
DNA in– PCR
■ First artificial cloning vector– pBR322
Stirred - tank bioreactors have advantages over
shake flasks because they– Provide better 9.4 Miscellaneous
aeration & mixing properties 'Restriction' in restriction enzyme refers to–
Isolation of the genetic material in pure form, free Prevention of the multiplication of
from other macromolecules can be achieved by
bacteriophage by the host bacteria
treating the bacterial cells/plant or animal tissues
with enzymes except– Ligase Isolating DNA from bacteria, enzymes is not used–
Chilled ethanol Deoxyribonuclease
Component of a stirring tank bioreactor is meant for Contributed in popularising the PCR (Polymerase
mixing the oxygen with the contents– Chain Reaction)– Availability of 'Thermostable'
Agitator system DNA polymerase
Appropriate techniques have been developed for An antibiotic resistance gene in a vector usually
large scale cell culture using bioreactors for helps in the selection of–
producing– Vaccines, Hormones, Transformed bacterial cells
Foreign gene product Significance of 'heat shock' method in bacterial
Taq polymerase enzyme is a– transformation is to facilitate– Uptake of DNA
DNA polymerase obtained from a bacterium through transient pores in the bacterial cell wall
Most important enzyme in Polymerase Chain The role of DNA ligase in the construction of a
Reaction (PCR) is– DNA polymerase recombinant DNA molecule is– Formation of
■ The properties of a good vector– It should be able phosphodiester bond between
to replicate autonomously two DNA fragments
■ Competent host in recombinant DNA technology is–
During the purification process for recombinant
The cell ready to uptake alien DNA
DNA technology, addition of chilled ethanol
■ Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic
engineering experiments– Escherichia and precipitates out– DNA
Agrobacterium The sequence that controls the copy number of the
■ In the process of recombinant DNA technology, the linked DNA in the vector, is termed–
isolated foreign DNA is inserted into another DNA Ori site
molecule known as– Closing vector In a mixture, DNA fragments are separated by–
■ A foreign DNA precipitated on the surface of Electrophoresis
tungsten or gold particles and shot into the target cells In recombinant DNA technology antibiotics are
is known as– Biolistic method used– As selectable markers
■ A method of gene transfer in animals–
Spooling is– Collection of isolated DNA
Microinjection
■ In recombinant DNA technology, a plasmid vector The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain
must be cleaved by– The same enzyme that Reaction (PCR) is–
cleaves the donor genes Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
413
 EXAM POINT
What is Biotechnology?
Bioinformatics is an interdisciplinary branch which is concerned with the Karnataka CET-2006
application of– Information science in analysing the biological data
Product of biotechnology is– JIPMER-2012
Transgenic crops (GM crops), Humulin, Biofertilizer
Genetic engineering involves– Use of restriction endonuclease on AIPMT-1998
bacterial DNA and formation of new traits
In India, the organization responsible for assessing the safety of introducing NEET-2018
genetically modified organisms for public use is–
Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)

Principles of Biotechnology
Cloning is meant for– To preserve the genotype of organism AMU-2011
Plasmids are ideal vectors for gene cloning as they– are self-replicating CG PMT-2007
Extra nuclear genes occur in– Mitochondria and inherited by female CG PMT-2007
Useful in identifying the different strains of a causal microbe of an infectious AP EAMCET-2003
disease is– Complementary DNA
Extra,Circular double helical DNA molecule is a– Plasmid AP EAMCET-2001
Production of a human protein in bacteria by genetic engineering is possible CG PMT-2006
because– The genetic code is universal
Genetic recombination by transduction in bacteria was discovered first in this– AP EAMCET-2002
Salmonella typhimurium
The vector suitable to clone long fragments of DNA as– Cosmids AP EAMCET-2002
The first live healthy cloned mammal of the world was– Dolly sheep CMC Vellore-2007
A technique which involves deliberate manipulation of genes within or between J&K CET-2007
species– Genetic engineering
Produced by genetically engineered bacteria is– Insulin AFMC-2010
The two microbes found to be very useful in genetic engineering are– CMC Ludhiana-2015 /
Escherichia coli and Agrobacterium tumefaciens JCECE-2013,
AIPMT-2006 / VMMC-2002
Manipulation of DNA in genetic engineering become easy due to the invention Manipal-2006
of– Polymerase chain reaction
Genetic Map is one that– Establishes sites of the genes on a chromosome AIPMT-2003
Eugenics is the branch concerned with– Improving the quality of AIIMS-2009
human populations by the application of genetic principles
Scientists make an animal superior by view of genotype, introducing some AIPMT-1996
foreign genes in its called– Genetic engineering
The organelles that is related with genetic engineering is– Plasmids AIPMT-1994
Ti plasmid is obtained from– Agrobacterium AP EAMCET-24.09.2020
Shift-I
A technique to alter the chemistry of the genetic material DNA and RNA is– AP EAMCET 11.07.2022
Genetic engineering Shift-II
Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in– Gel electrophoresis AIPMT (Screening)-2011

Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology

In EcoRI. R and I denote– Enzyme isolated from strain of bacteria AP EAPCET-23.05.2023,
Shift-II
GUJCET-2017
The technique used to detect the antibodies synthesized by host against the AP EAPCET-11.05.2023,
pathogen– ELISA Shift-I

414
Restriction endonucleases are – AMU-2015 / AIPMT-2004
Enzymes that recognize a specific DNA sequence
Animal is mostly used in genetics experiments– Fruit fly UP CPMT-2003
GAATTC is the recognition site for restriction endonuclease– Eco RI VMMC-2013
Construction of a recombinant DNA involves– Cleaving DNA segments Karnataka CET-2002
with endonuclease and rejoining them with ligase
Used in the production of insulin by genetic engineering is– Eschereria coli UP CPMT-2012 / DUMET-
2008
The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the plasmid vector became possible JCECE-2018 / BHU PMT
with– DNA ligase (Screening)-2010
Separation of proteins on the basis of their being polyelectrolytes can be brought CG PMT-2007
about by– Electrophoresis
Restriction enzyme was discovered by– A. Warner , H. Smith and Nathans Haryana PMT-2002
Cultivation of Bt cotton has been much in the news. The prefix Bt means– Haryana PMT-2004
Carrying an endotoxin gene from Bacillus thuringiensis
The first step in the Southern blot technique is– Haryana PMT-2004
Digestion of DNA by restriction enzyme
Various enzymes and hormones can be produced on large scale by employing the Haryana PMT-2004,
recombinant– DNA technique Manipal-2003
Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for– Transformation of plant cells JCECE-2018
The plasmid pBR 322 used in biotechnology is– Cloning vehicle Uttarakhand PMT-2010,
AP EAMCET-2002
Antibiotic which inhibits cell wall synthesis in bacteria– Penicillin CG PMT-2010
The enzyme employed for amplification of DNA during PCR is commercially Manipal-2010
obtained from– Thermus aquaticus
First discovered restriction endonuclease that always cuts DNA molecule at a NEET-2020 Phase-II
particular point by recognising a specific sequence of six base pairs is–
Hind II
The most throughly studied of the known bacteria-plant interactions is the– AIPMT-2004
Gall formation on certain Angiosperms by Agrobacterium
Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are– BAC and YAC AIPMT-2014
The vector that can clone only a small fragment of DNA is– Plasmid AIPMT-2014
The two antibiotic resistance genes on vector pBR322 are for– NEET (Odisha)-2019
Ampicillin and Tetracycline
An enzyme catalysing the removal of nucleotides from ends of DNA is– NEET (Odisha)-2019
Exonuclease
Commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human NEET-2018
lymphocytes is– Retrovirus
DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction NEET-2013
can be separated by– Electrophoresis
A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cell is known as– NEET-2017
Selectable marker
In gene cloning that are used as vehicles for carrying foreign DNA fragment is– SRM JEEE -2017
Vector
In E. Coli, during lactose metabolism repressor binds to– Operator gene AIPMT-2002
A tumor inducing plasmid widely used in the production of transgenic plants is AIIMS-2005
that of– Agrobacterium tumefaciens
In ti-plasmid is removed– Virulent gene AIIMS-25.05.2019 Shift-II
Chimeric DNA is– Recombinant-DNA AIIMS-25.05.2019 Shift-II
EcoRI is– A restriction enzyme Karnataka CET-2014
The enzymes that absolutely necessary for recombinant DNA technology are– Karnataka CET-2012
Restriction endonucleases and Ligases
415
The vector for T–DNA is– Agrobacterium tumefaciens JIPMER-2014
Restriction endonucleases are most widely used in recombinant DNA Karnataka CET-2006
technology. They are obtained from– Bacterial cells
In cloning vectors, antibiotic resistant genes are helpful for– Karnataka CET-2019
Selection of recombinants
A giant rat is formed in the laboratory, the reason is– Gene manipulation AIPMT-2000
For transformation, micro-particles coated with DNA to be bombarded with gene AIPMT (Screening)-2012
gun are made up of– Gold or Tungsten
The techniques made it possible to genetically engineer living organisms– AIPMT (Mains)-2011
Recombinant DNA techniques
During the process of isolation of DNA, chilled ethanol is added to– NEET (Karnataka)-2013
Precipitate DNA
Genes of interest can be selected from a genomic library by using– NEET (Karnataka)-2013
DNA probes
There is a restriction endonuclease called EcoRl. "co" part in it stand for– AIPMT (Screening)-2011
Coli

Method of Recombinant DNA Technology

PCR is used for– DNA amplification Karnataka CET-20.05.2023
McClintock is related to– Transposons HP CET-2011
An antibiotic resistance gene in a vector usually helps in the selection of– Karnataka CET-2022
Transformed cells
Annealing’ is a phenomenon related to– Renaturation of DNA CG PMT-2010
In biotechnology now-a-day a much use technology in biolistic. Identify the CMC Ludhiana-2015
method where this technique is used during genetic engineering experiments–
Gene transfer process
Spooling is– Collection of isolated DNA NEET-2020 Phase-II
DNA- dependent RNA polymerase catalyses transcription on one strand of the NEET-2016 Phase-II
DNA is called the– Template strand
Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for– NEET-2016 Phase-II
Availability of oxygen throughout the process
During the purification process for recombinant DNA technology, addition of NEET-2021
chilled ethanol precipitates out– DNA
The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can be visualised after staining NEET-2017
with– Ethidium bromide
The antibiotic inhibits interaction between tRNA and mRNA during bacterial AIPMT-2006
protein synthesis– Neomycin
Recombinant DNA technology involves several steps in which initial step is of AIIMS-2010
isolation of the DNA. Which enzymes are used in the process for the breakdown
of fungal cell, plant cell and bacterial cell respectively–
Chitinase, cellulase, lysozyme
Electroporation procedure involves– Making transient pores AIIMS-2005
in the cell membrane to introduce gene constructs
Now-a-days, the early diagnosis of bacterial or viral infection in humans is Karnataka CET-2020
possible using– PCR
Biolistics method is suitable for gene transfer into– Plants cells Karnataka CET-2020
dsRNA is used to develop pest resistant tobacco plant by a technique called– Karnataka CET-2018
RNA interference (RNAi)
The equipment that introduces DNA into cells is– Gene gun SRM JEEE-2019
Polyethylene glycol method is used for– Gene transfer without a vector AIPMT-2009

416
10.
BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS
APPLICATIONS
10.1 Biotechnological Applications in The Bt toxin is not toxic to human beings because–
Conversion of pro Bt toxin to Bt toxin takes
Agriculture place in highly alkaline conditions
Protein encoded by gene crylAb controls the Cryll Ab and cryl Ab produce toxins that control–
infestation of which of the insects– Corn borer Cotton bollworms & corn borer respectively
Genetically Modified (GM) crops can be produced Bt corn has been made resistant from corn borer
by– Recombinant DNA technology disease by introduction of the gene– cryl Ab
Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals which
Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are–
contain insecticidal protein. This protein–
High yield and resistance to bollworms
Binds with epithelial cells of midgut of the
The process of RNA interference has been used to
insect pest ultimately killing it
make tobacco plant resistant to–
An improved variety of transgenic basmati rice–
Meloidogyne incognitia
Gives high yield and is rich in vitamin A
The nematode that attacks the roots of tobacco
Salt tolerant transgenic has been developed for–
plants– Meloidogyne incognitia
Tomato
Silencing of specific mRNA due to complementary
Bt cotton variety that was developed by the RNA involves– RNA interference
introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis
RNA interference method do not include–
(Bt) is resistant to– Insect pests
Silencing of a specific mRNA due to a
Golden rice is a genetically modified crop plant
complementary ssDNA molecule
where the incorporated gene is meant for
biosynthesis of– Vitamin A Meloidogyne incognitia is a– Nematode
Study of altered physiology of host is the– Mobile genetic elements also known as–
Pathophysiology Transposons
The trigger for activation of toxin of Bacillus The best solution to increase crop production
thuringiensis is– Alkaline pH of gut without causing environmental hazard is–
A transgenic rice having gene for β-carotene is– Use of genetically modified crops
Golden rice All are the biotechnological applications in order to
Bt toxin genes have been expressed in plants in increase food production except– Apiculture
order to provide resistance against– Agrochemical based agriculture includes–
Coleopterans and dipterans, Lepidopterans Fertilisers and pesticides
Bt toxins are– Intracellular crystalline proteins Biotechnology essentially deals with the industrial
Bt toxin protein crystals present in bacterium scale production of
Bacillus thuringiensis, do not kill the bacteria Biopharmaceuticals, Biologicals
themselves because– Toxins occur as inactive It gives high yield and is rich in vitamin A–
protoxins in bacteria Golden rice
The inactive form of Bt toxin (protoxin) to get Bioremediation, waste treatment and energy
converted into its active form in the body of an production are applications of– Biotechnology
insect– Alkaline pH of the gut A transgenic food crop which may help in solving
Creating pores in the midgut epithelial cells, leading the problem of night blindness in developing
to cell swelling and lysis– Bt toxin kills insects countries is– Golden rice
417
 Bt toxin gene has been cloned from the bacteria and ■ Indian traditional products were tried to used by other
expressed in plants to provide resistance to insects nations or companies as their own patent–
without the need for insecticides. Examples of such Basmati rice, Turmeric, Neem
plants are– Cotton and corn, Rice and potato, Revolution helped in triple the food supply–
Tomato and Soybean Green revolution
First genetically modified plant commercially The tumor inducing capacity of Agrobacterium
released in India is– Bt cotton tumifaciens is located in large extrachromosomal
GM crops can effect human health by causing plasmid called– Ti - plasmid
allergic reactions, Production of GM crops cause CrylAc endotoxins obtained from Bacillus
damage to the natural environment and is always thuringiensis are effective against–
costly– Disadvantages of GM crops Boll worms
The agricultural challenges that cannot be solved B. thuringiensis form protein crystal, that phase of
with transgenic techniques– their life– Growth phase
Public preference for organic vegetables ............... gene control cotton bollworms–
■ A transgenic food crop which may help in solving the CryIAc, CryIIAb
problem of night blindness in developing countries ............. gene controls corn borer– CryIAb
is– Golden rice Golden Rice– GM rice, Rich in Vit A,
■ As most Bt toxins are insect group specific, so the Prevents blindness
choice of Bt genes of depends– Crop, Targeted pest
All are biotechnological applications in order to
■ Bt toxin is obtained from a prokaryote and is–
increase food production except– Apiculture
Intracellular crystalline protein
Insect resistance transgenic cotton has been
■ A strain of "golden" rice contains high content of–
produced by inserting a piece of DNA from–
Vitamin A
A bacterium
■ The first genetically engineered human insulin
(Humulin) which is a protein, was launched on 5 th The mechanism of using of complimentary dsRNA
July 1983 by an American company named– Eli Lilly that binds to and prevents translation of a particular
■ Silencing of a specific mRNA due to a mRNA is called– RNA silencing
complementary ds RNA involves- RNA i The combination of risk are associated with
■ In an experiment we want to induce tumor in root of genetically modified food–
plant, we use– Agrobacterium tumifaciens Toxicity, Alergic reaction
■ Golden rice is also called because grains are yellow In RNAi, genes are silenced using– dsRNA
coloured due to the presence of large quantity of - Bacterium commonly used in plant genetic
β- Carotene engineering is– Agrobacterium tumefaciens
■ The problem of loss of crop by insects can be The used as a best genetic vector in plants–
overcome by using– Bt brinjal Agrobacterium tumefaciens
■ An estimated _____ varieties of rice in India alone– Tobacco plants resistant to a nematode have been
200,000 developed by the introduction of DNA that produces
■ Cotton bollworms are controlled by– (in the host cells)–
Cry I Ac and Cry II Ab gene Both sense and anti-sense RNA
■ Plants, bacteria, fungi and animals whose genes have RNAi takes place in all eukaryotes as a method of–
been altered by manipulation are called– Genetically
Cellular defense
modified organisms (GMO)
The genetically-modified (GM) cotton in India has
■ Bt cotton is resistant against– Dipterans,
been developed for– Insect-resistance
Lepidopterans, Coleopterans
The agricultural challenges cannot be solved with
■ An American company who prepared two DNA
transgenic techniques–
sequences corresponding to A and B chains of human
insulin to produce insulin chain with the help of Public preference for organic vegetables
plasmids of E.Coli– Eli Lilly An improved variety of transgenic basmati rice–
■ T-DNA is– Tumor inducing DNA Gives high yield and is rich in vitamin A

418
 Transgenic crops are modified through genetic Technique used to detect the DNA in a clone is–
engineering to develop natural resistance to insect Autoradiography
pests. One is a transgenic plant– Tobacco & cotton Identify the process based on principle of antigen
antibody interaction– ELISA
High yield & production of toxic protein crystals
ADA enzyme is majorly synthesized in–
which kill dipteran pests −
Lymphocytes
Characteristics of Bt cotton ■ ______ of the Government of India regulates GM
10.2 Biotechnological Applications in research and safety of introducing GM organisms for
public services– Genetic Engineering Approval
Medicine
Committee
Transposons can be used– Gene silencing ■ DNA probe used in fingerprinting are– DNA
■ Human insulin is synthesized as a prohormone, which segments having radioactive isotopes
contains as extra stretch is called– C-peptide ■ Introduction of gene for adenosine deaminase in
When gene targeting involving gene amplification is persons suffering from Severe Combined Immuno
attempted in an individual's tissue to treat disease, it Deficiency (SCID)– Gene therapy
is known as– Gene therapy ■ Genetically engineered insulin contains A and B
The first clinical gene therapy was done for the chain linked together by - Disulphide bridges
treatment of– SCID (Severe Combined Immuno ■ Malfunctioning of immune system due to the
Deficiency) resulting form deficiency of ADA deficiency of adenosine deaminase– ADA deficiency
ADA is an enzyme which is deficient in a genetic ■ About ____ recombinant therapeutics have been
disorder SCID. What is the full form of ADA– approved worldwide for human use– 30
Adenosine deaminase ■ T-DNA is used by– Agrobacterium tumifaciens
■ Meloidegyne incognitia causes infection in roots of
C-peptide of human insulin is–
tobacco plant belongs to– Nematoda
Removed during maturation
■ ADA deficiency can be cured by-
of pro-insulin to insulin
Bone marrow transplantation
Human insulin is being commercially produced ■ First clinical gene therapy given in– 1990
from a transgenic species of– Escherichia ■ Safety of batches of vaccine is tested on–
A genetic disorder can be cured through– Transgenic monkey
Gene therapy ■ GM plants useful in– Make crops more
Gene therapy can be referred to as– tolerant to stresses
Treatment of diseases caused by genetic defect ■ α-1-antitrypsin is used– Treatment of Emphysema
The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to ■ Technique is of least importance for early diagnosis
a 4- year old girl with- of disease– Serum biochemical study
ADA (Adensoine deaminase deficiency) Removed during maturation of insulin is−
Adenosine deaminase deficiency can be The C-peptide
permanently cured by the methods that is– Early molecular diagnosis can be done by–
Gene therapy at early embryonic stages PCR, ELISA
Introduction of gene isolated from the bone marrow ELISA is based on–
cells which produce ADA into the cells of the Antigen - Antibody interaction
patient at early embryonic stages the permanent cure Correction of a genetic defect involves delivery of a
of adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency in– normal gene into the individual or embryo to take
children over the function of and compensate for the normal
Early detection of a disease is possible by– PCR, functional gene is called– Gene therapy
Recombinant DNA technology and ELISA ADA deficiency results in– Inability of immune
A doctor while operating on an HIV(+)ve patient system to function normally
accidentally cuts himself with a scalpel. Suspecting Early diagnosis and understanding of it
himself to have contracted the virus which test will pathophysiology are required−
he take to rule out/confirm his suspicion– PCR For effective treatment of a disease
419
 Technique used to detect the complementary DNA The country that has got patent rights on Basmati
in a clone– Autoradiography rice– America
It is a single stranded DNA or RNA, tagged with a Exploitation of bioresources without authentic
radioactive molecule and is used to detect mutated
permission– Biopiracy
gene– Probe
The genetic defect - adenosine deaminase (ADA) ■ Genetic engineering approval committee stands -
deficiency may be cured permanently by– GEAC
■ In India ____ recombinant therapeutics are marketed
Introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA
till 2006– 12
into cells at early embryonic stages
■ An infection by viruses having RNA genome, mobile
10.3 Transgenic Animals genetic elements (transposons) that replicates via and
Animals that have had their DNA manipulated to RNA intermediate source of complementary RNA is -
possess and express a foreign gene are called– RNA interference
Transgenic animals GEAC (Genetic Engineering Approval Committee)
The transgenic animals are those which have– is set by– Indian government
Foreign DNA in all its cells Unauthorized use of bio-resources and traditional
Genetic engineering has been successfully used for knowledge of bio-resources is− Biopiracy
producing– Transgenic mice for testing safety of The government of India to cater to the requirement
polio vaccine before use in humans of patent terms and other emergency provisional in
■ It is beneficial to have _____ by biotechnology this regard. The step is–
because it is less expensive, it is non- allergic and it Indian patents bill
can be produced in mass - Insulin The illegal and unlawful development of
■ The milk produced by Rosie contained– biomaterials without payment to the inhabitants of
Human alpha-lactalbumin their origin is called– Biopiracy
Transgenic plants are developed by– That indian plants have been patented many times by
Introducing foreign genes western countries for their commercial use–
The transgenic animals are those which have– Turmeric, Neem, Basmati
Foreign DNA in all its cells That varieties of Basmati rice are grown in India–
Introduction of transgenes will result in– 27
Formation of a new species, Organisms that can be used to gain commercial
Formation of a new protein benefits are called– Bioresources
Transgenic models exist for all of the disease 10.5 Miscellaneous
except– Hypertension
A probe ............ is a molecule used to locate
10.4 Ethical Issues homologous sequences in a mixture of DNA or RNA
The step that has been taken by Government of molecules could be–
India to cater to the requirement of patent terms and Either RNA or DNA
other emergency provisions in this regard– Pathophysiology is the–
Indian Patents Bill Study of altered physiology of host
A monopoly granted to a person who has either ADA is an enzyme ............. is deficient in a genetic
invented a new and useful article, made disorder SCID. The full form of ADA is–
improvement in an existing article or invented a Adenosine deaminase
new process of making an article is called– Patent Molecular diagnostic techniques is very useful for
That variety of rice was patented by a U.S. company early detection disease– ELISA Technique
even though the highest number of varieties of this The adenosine deaminase deficiency results into–
rice are found in India– Basmati Dysfunction of Immune system
The organisation which makes decisions regarding A 'new' variety of rice was patented by a foreign
the validity of GM research and the safety of company though such varieties have been present in
introducing GM-organisms for public services is– India for a long time. This is related to–
Genetic Engineering Approval Committee Basmati
420
 EXAM POINT
Role of Biotechnological Application in Agriculture
Pusa komal for bacteria blight and pusa swarnim for white rust are processed in AP EAPCET-10.05.2023,
these crops respectively– Cow pea and Brassica Shift-II
Insect resistance transgenic cotton has been produced by inserting a piece of UP CPMT-2004
DNA from– A bacterium
The Triticale is an intergeneric hybrid between– Wheat and rye BHU PMT-2003
The toxic substances released from Bacillus thuringiensis affects _____ of insect MHT CET 5.10.2020
larva. Gut Shift-I
Rotenone is a– Bioinsecticide DUMET-2010
Obtained from genetic engineering is– Golden rice DUMET-2008
Pesticides is banned now-a-days– DDT HP CET-2011
The strategy used to prevent the nematode infection in the roots of tobacco plant J&K CET-2014
is called– RNA interference
Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been used for designing novel– J&K CET-2014 / AIPMT-2005
Bioinsecticidal plants / SRM JEE-2017
Cry-IAC effectively controls– Cotton bollworms Karnataka CET-2022
Main objective of production/use of herbicide resistant GM crops is to– BHU PMT (Screening)-2010
Reduce herbicide accumulation in food particles for health safety
Biopesticides are derived from natural materials and are used to manage – Uttarakhand PMT-2009
Insects, Diseases, Weeds
The DNA of Ti-plasmid which is obtained from Agrobacterium tumefaciens is Haryana PMT-2002
used in genetic engineering this DNA is also called– T-DNA
The bacteria Pseudomonas is useful because of its ability to– Haryana PMT-2004
Decompose a variety of organic compounds
Transgenic crops are modified through genetic engineering to develop natural Haryana PMT-2003
resistance to insect pests. Transgenic plant is–
Tobacco and cotton
Name has been assigned to the genus produced by a cross between cabbage and Uttarakhand PMT-2008
radish is– Raphanobrassica
GM brinjal in India has been developed for resistance against– Insects Rajasthan PMT-2011
Flooding of the field is an effective control measure for this type of pathogen– BCECE-2009
Nematode
Fungicides, herbicides, insecticides nematicides and rodenticides are examples BCECE-2002
of– Pesticides
The part of cotton producing pure cellulose is– Seed hair BCECE-2007
The pesticide used as preventive measure in buildings is– Aldrin MGIMS Wardha-2003
Introduction of food plants developed by genetic engineering is not desirable AIPMT-2002
because – There is danger of coming viruses,
allergens and toxins with introduced crop
Tobacco plants resistant to Meloidogyne incognita were developed using a TS EAMCET-2015
method of cellular defence it relates to–
Silencing the translation of specific mRNA
Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals or higher proteins NEET-2022
and healthier fats is called– Bio-fortification
A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a foreign company, though such varieties NEET-2018
have been present in India for a long time. This is related to–
Basmati
The vaccine that is produced by using genetically modified yeast– AP EAPCET-11.07.2022
Hepatitis-B Shift-I
Enzymes, vitamins and hormones can be classified into a single category of AIPMT-2005
biological chemicals, because of–
Help in regulating metabolism
421
Tobacco plants resistant to a nematode have been developed by the introduction AIPMT (Mains)-2012
of DNA that is produced in the host cells as–
Both sense and anti-sense RNA
Bioinsecticide used as– Chrysanthemum cinerarifolium AIIMS-2016
Biolistic (gene gun) is suitable for– Transformation of plant cell AIIMS-2015
Cultivation of Bt cotton has been much in the news. The prefix Bt means– AIIMS-2004
Carrying an endotoxin gene from Bacillus thuringienesis
The antisense construct of ACC synthase gene (RNA) was used in production BCECE-2015
of– Flavr savr (tomato)
DEVINER and COLLEGO are two trade names in agriculture. They are used as– J&K CET-2001
Bioherbicides
Production of superior F1 hybrids is called– Heterosis J&K CET-2010
Insect pest resistant Bt cotton plant was developed using– WB JEE-2014
Transgenic technology
Hydroponics is the method of– Plant development in water without soil J&K CET-2011
Bio-engineered bacteria is utilized for cleaning of marine oil slicks– BVP-2009
Pseudomonas putida
The field application of biotechnology occurs is– GUJCET-2015
Bio-medicine, Agriculture, Environmental field
Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals the contain insecticidal protein is– AIPMT (Mains)-2011
Binds with epithelial cells of midgut of the
insect pest ultimately killing it
"Jaya" and "Ratna" developed for green revolution in India are the varieties of– AIPMT (Screening)-2011
Rice

Role of Biotechnological Applications in Medicines

The molecular structure of insulin was first described by– Sanger MGIMS Wardha-2004 / UP
CPMT-2004
First hormone produced artificially by culturing bacteria is– Insulin Haryana PMT-2007
Genetically engineered human insulin humulin was launched by American drug AMU-2006,
company on– 5th July 1983 VMMC-2006
Kohler and Milstein developed biotechnology for– Monoclonal antibodies MGIMS Wardha-2003
Hybridoma technology is used to– Formation of monoclonal antibodies MGIMS Wardha-2003
Production of a human protein in bacteria by genetic engineering is possible AIPMT-2005
because– The genetic code is universal
Vaccines prepared through recombinant DNA technology are called– CMC Vellore-2013
3rd generation vaccine
The ‘clot buster' produced by Streptococcus and modified by genetic engineering Kerala PMT-2012
is– Streptokinase
The first clinical gene therapy was given for treatment– AIPMT (Mains)-2012
Adenosine deaminase deficiency
In one of the techniques of recombinant insulin production the genes for α and β Karnataka CET-2013
polypeptides were inserted into the plasmid by the side of–
β galactosidase gene
An anticoagulant protein produced from transgenic Brassica napus, which AIIMS-2006
prevents blood clotting is known as– Hirudin
The Bacterial DNA that are used as biosensors is– Biomining AP EAMCET-25.09.2020
Shift-I
The number of amino acids in B chain of insulin– 30 AP EAMCET-25.04.2018
Shift-I
A drug obtained through genetic engineering and useful for treating infertility is– Punjab MET-2007
Chorionic gonadotropin
Rat poison is obtained from– Urginea J&K CET-2010
Insulin receptors are– Extrinsic protein DUMET-2007
The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked together by– NEET-2016 Phase-I
Disulphide bridges
422
Genetic engineering has been successfully used for producing– Transgenic AIPMT (Screening)-2010
mice for testing safety of polio vaccine before use in humans
Commercially produced by biotechnological procedures is– Insulin AIPMT (Mains)-2010
The function of protein GLUT-4 is– Enables glucose transport into cells Karnataka CET-2019
C peptide is mainly present in– Proinsulin TS EAMCET-02.05.2018
Shift-II

Gene Therapy and Molecular Diagnosis

Gene therapy is a treatment that can be done with– J&K CET-2014
Persons of any age and any condition
Total number of recombinant therapeutics have been used for human diseases J&K CET-2014
throughout the world– 30
The name of first cloned sheep is– Dolly BVP-2005
The transgenic animals are those which have– HP CET-2018
Foreign DNA in all of their cells
The reasons that is mainly responsible for graft rejection in transplantation of NEET (Re-Exam)-
organs is– Cell-mediated response 04.09.2022
Pathogenic bacteria gain resistance to antibiotics due to changes in their– NEET (Re-Exam)-
Plasmids 04.09.2022
The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white in contrast to blue colonies of NEET-2013
non-recombinant bacteria because of– Insertional
inactivation of alpha-galactosidase in recombinant bacteria
Mule is an example of– Interspecific hybridization MHT CET-2017
The first clinical gene therapy was administered to cure the deficiency of– TS EAMCET-30.07.2022
Severe Combined Immuno Deficiency Shift-I
Vital stains are employed to study– Living cells DUMET-2011
RNA interference is essential for the– Cell defence AIIMS-2012
Gene library or DNA library has collection of– c DNA only AIIMS-26.05.2019 Shift-II
The vector suitable to clone long fragments of DNA is– Cosmids Uttarakhand PMT-2010

Transgenic Animals
The first transgenic crop was– Tobacco WB JEE-2006
The transgenic animals are those which have– Foreign DNA in all its cells Punjab MET-1999
Holstein–Friesian, Brown–Swiss and Jersey are all well known– JCECE-2018
Exotic breeds of cow
Maximum number of existing transgenic animals is of– Mice AIPMT (Screening)-2011

Biopiracy and Ethical Issues

The laws and rules to prevent unauthorized exploitation of bio-resources are NEET-2020 Phase-II
termed as– Biopatenting
The human protein α-1 antitrypsin is obtained from– Transgenic animal Karnataka CET-2017
A transgenic rice (golden rice) has been developed for increased content of– DUMET-2011
Vitamin - A
A regulatory body working under MoEF for the release of transgenic crops is– DUMET-2011
GEAC
In transgenics, expression of transgene in target tissue is determined by– AIIMS-2008 / CMC Vellore-
Reporter 2012,
Manipal -2014 / AFMC-2008
'Hisardale' is a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by using the– TS EAMCET-08.05.2019
Cross-breeding technique Shift-I
Hinny is an interspecific hybrid of– Male horse and female donkey TS EAMCET-09.08.2021
Shift-I
Exploitation of bioresources of a nation by multinational companies without NEET (Odisha)-2019
authorization from the concerned country is referred to as– Biopiracy
Biopatent is granted for biological entities by____authority of a country. MHT CET-2018
Government
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11.
ORGANISMS AND POPULATIONS
11.1 Organism and its Environment Characteristics of a terrestrial biome are strongly
influenced– Flora, Climate, Fauna
In a growing population of a country pre-
............. occurs in equatorial regions where rainfall
reproductive individuals are more than the–
and warmth are abundant, while ......... biome lacks
Reproductive individuals rain–
Lichens are the associations of– Fungus and algae Tropical rainforest, desert
Partial root parasite is– Sandalwood The key elements that determine differences in
The organisms that reproduces sexually only once in environmental conditions of different habitats
its life time– Banana plant include– Temperature, light, Soil
Presence of plants arranged into well defined Mango trees can not grow in temperate regions. The
vertical layers depending on their height can be seen most important environmental factor responsible for
best in– it is– temperature
Tropical rainforest Temperature is considered as the most ecologically
Large woody vines are more commonly found in– relevant environmental factor because it affects–
Tropical rainforests Physiology, Morphology,
The most economical and effective method to Geographical distribution
control soil pH is the application of– CaCO3 Organisms that can tolerate a wide range of salt
Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which concentration are termed as– Euryhaline
mechanism the competing species might have A freshwater organism cannot survive in a water
evolved for their survival– Resource partitioning body that has greater ............ than its original
Pneumatophores occur in– Halophytes habitat– Salt concentration
The organisms which can tolerate and thrive in a Water plays vital role in living organisms because–
wide temperature range are known as–Eurythermal It makes 90% of the protoplasm
According to Allen's Rule, the mammals from A place has very scanty rainfall, the dominant plants
colder climates have–Shorter ears and shorter there may be– Opuntia
limbs Many freshwater organisms cannot live for long in
Salt concentration (salinity) of the sea measured in seawater because the surrounding water will be .......
parts per thousand is– 30-35 to body cells and .......... may occur–
A well growing herbaceous plant in the forest if it is Hypertonic, exosmosis
transplanted outside the forest in a park, will Many animals use the diurnal and seasonal
happen– variations in light intensity and photoperiod to time
It may not survive because of their–
change in its microclimate Migration, Reproductive activities, Foraging
–10C to 130C mean annual temperature and 50 to Nature and properties of soil depends upon–
250 cm precipitation account for the formation of a Climate,
biome– Coniferous forest Weathering process, Development of soil
The population is set of conditions that an organism Water holding capacity of the soil depends upon–
can tolerate and resource it uses– Ecological niche Chemical composition of soil, Particle size of soil,
Seasonal variations on earth occur due to its– Aggregation of soil particles
Tilted axis, Revolution around sun Tendency of biological systems to resist change–
Different biomes are formed due to annual Homeostasis
variations in ................ over the earth's surface– An animal that can survive at 10 C and 400C both,
0

Temperature, can be placed under the category of–

Precipitation, Incident solar radiation Regulators
Deserts, rainforest, tundra, etc. are examples of– Organisms that can maintain a constant internal
Biome temperature are called– Homoeothermic

424
 When we are in a hot room, we sweat profusely. It ■ Soil and their characteristics are concerned with -
is a ............. means of maintaining homeostasis– Edaphic factors
Physiological ■ Soil formation is initiated by the phenomenon of–
Adaptation of animals to the cold climate is an Weathering
important– Reduced surface area to volume ratio ■ The association between two species in which both
When organisms change their location temporarily benefit– Mutualism
to escape from stressful environment and return ■ A bird introduced from one country to another
when stressful period is over, it is called–Migration became a serious pest due to–
Organisms show migration in order to avoid Absence of natural competition
unfavourable conditions of– Temperature, ■ A population has more younger individuals compared
to the older individuals, the status of the population
Food availability, precipitation
after some years– It will increase
................. is an attribute of the organism
■ ________ parameters are used for tiger census in our
(morphological, physiological, behavioural) to
country's national parks and sanctuaries–
survive and reproduce in its habitat– Adaptation
Pug mark and faecal pellets
Opuntia has spine like leaves which help in–
The study of the interactions among organisms
Reducing the rate of transpiration
between organisms and its physical environment is
An inhabitant of Varanasi goes to Rohtang and called– Ecology
experiences nausea, fatigue and heart palpitations. It
Biome are distributed on earth. It kinds is– 6
is because– Altitude sickness, his RBC count is
................ is the most ecologically relevant
lower than required
environment factor– Temperature
Conformers are inactive in adverse conditions due
Temperature decreases as we go from–
to–
Plain to mountain tip, Equator to poles
Inability to maintain homeostasis
Mango is not able to grow in– Germany
■ A pond there were 40 lotus plants last year and
............... is a fish which breed once in their whole
through reproduction 10 new plants are added, taking
the current population to 50, the birth rate is– 0.25 life– Pacific salmon fish
■ Deep (>500 m) in the oceans, the environment is Homeostasis is–
perpetually dark and its inhabitants are not aware of Thermoregulation, Osmoregulation
the existence of a celestial sources of energy The living organisms which influence other
called_____. Sun organisms are −
■ The stage of suspended development is– Diapause Biotic factors
■ Predators in nature are prudent, because– They Deserts, rainforests, tundra, etc, are examples of–
do not over exploit their prey Biome
■ How different organisms are adapted to environments The important adaptation of animals to cold climate
in terms of not only survival but also reproduction is– Thick layer of body fat
tries to understand - Physiological ecology The condition in which certain organisms delay their
■ The Prickly pear cactus introduced into Australia the development and spend some period in a state of
early 1920's caused havoc by spreading rapidly in to inactiveness during periods of unfavorable
millions of hectares of rangeland because– conditions is called– Diapause
Absence of natural predator Very small animals are rarely found in polar regions.
■ Resource partitioning is an important mechanism The main region of this fact is–
which promotes - Co- existence
Because they have to expend much energy to
■ Competitive exclusion principle stating that inferior
generate body heat through metabolism
species is eliminated eventually after prolonged
Stenohaline animals are the animals ............ can
competition, given by– Gause
tolerate–
■ The interdependent evolution of flowering plants and
Narrow range of fluctuations in salinity
pollinating insects together is– Co-evolution
■ Reducing the rate of transpiration has spine like Organisms change their location to escape from
leaves help in– Opuntia plant harsh environment, it is called as– Migration
■ Relationships between organism and their Algae are found in deepest ocean waters–
environment is known as - Ecology Red algae
■ Ecology factors which are most strong determinants Example of hibernation in bear and aestivation is
of various biomes - Temperature and precipitation fishes is– Suspend
425
 Ecology is mainly concerned with four level of The physical position and functional role of a
organization. They are– species within the community is– Ecological niche
Organisms, population, community, biome If an organism's body pattern resembles its
Lead to the formation of a wide variety of habitats environment making it difficult to spot, it is called–
within each biome is– Camouflage
Regional variations, Local variations Some species of insects and frogs found in tropical
Niche of a species refers to– rainforests of South America are highly poisonous
Specific and habitual function as well as brightly coloured to avoid being detected
The salt concentration is measured as– easily by the predator. This is referred to as–
Salinity in parts per thousand Warning coloration
............ is not a quality of an adaptation to seasonal Total number of individuals of a species per unit
changes in habitat is– Migration area and per unit time is called–
The major biomes of India are– Deciduous forest, Population density
Desert, Sea coast, Tropical rain forest Percentage of individuals in successive age of a
Adaptive measure to protect against extreme heat by given population is called– Age distribution
poikilotherms is– Aestivation If the age distribution is plotted for a population, the
resulting structure is called– Age pyramid
The magnitude of salinity in inland water is–
The age structure of a population represents–
< 5 ppm
Type of fauna largely depends upon the– Relative number of individuals at each age
The age structure of a population influences
Type of vegetation
population growth because– Different age groups
Several plants and animal species present together at
a place constitute a– Biome have different reproductive capabilities
A population with a larger proportion of older
Sundarban contains mainly– Mangrove plants
individuals than younger ones will likely to–Decline
Adaptations in an organism are meant for–
An urn shaped population age pyramid represents–
Optimum survival and reproduction
Declining population
Praying mantis is a good example of–
In some cases, population density is measured in
Camouflage
terms of biomass rather than in terms of numbers
■ Interaction of sea anemone and clown fish is–
because it is a more meaningful measure when the
Commensalism
considered organisms– Vary greatly in size
■ Altitude sickness removed by– Physiological
The cases that population density can be easily
adaptation
determined by not utilising biological-entities
■ Behavioral, morphological and physiological are
directly– Tiger census
known as - Adaptation
The factors that has a negative effect on the
11.2 Populations population growth rate– Emigration
In the exponential growth equation Nt = N0ert, e The factors that influences population density under
represents– The base of natural logarithms normal conditions– Deaths
Amensalism can be represented as– Resources in the habitat are unlimited, each species
Species A (–); Species B (0) has the ability to realize its full innate potential to
Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained grow in number observed in a population–
when– K=N Exponential growth
Amensalism is an association between two species The maximum possible number of individuals that a
where– One species is harmed habitat can support is called its– Carrying capacity
and other is unaffected Species interaction with negative influence on both
Relation of an individual to its environment is the– is referred to as– Competition
Autecology You never see cattles or goats browsing on weed
A zone of transition between two communities– Calotropis, the reason is– The plant produces
Ecotone poisonous cardiac glycosides
Composed of all living organisms present on earth Two different species cannot live for long duration
which interact with the physical environment– in the same niche or habitat. This law is called–
Biosphere Competitive exclusion principle
426
 Two species competing for the same resource can Population density can be easily determined by
avoid competition by choosing different habits. This utilizing non - biological parameter is–
phenomenon is called ............ and was supported by Tiger census
– Resource partitioning, MacArthur Death rate and birth rate are the terms applicable to–
When two similar species live in the same area, they Population ecology
may evolve to become more different in order to– Mac Arthur observed that 5 species of Warblers
Reduce competition (birds) can coexist on same fig tree due to
■ Basic unit of ecological hierarchy is– behavioural difference in their foraging activities.
An organism or an Individual This is an example of–
■ Mango, tuna fish, snow leopards are– Stenothermal Resource partitioning
■ Smaller animals tend to lose body heat very fast as The age and distribution of a population is
compared to larger animals because they have– determined by the–
Higher surface area to volume ratio Timing of births & deaths,
■ ______ mammal excretes concentrated urine to avoid Rate at which population is growing
water loss– Kangaroo rat The movement of individuals of the same species
■ Decrease the density of a population– into a population is called– Immigration
Mortality and emigration The number of new individuals produced in a unit
■ The growth of human population shows– time per unit population is its– Natality
Sigmoid growth curve A population shows exponential growth when the–
■ _____ contributes an in increase in population Unlimited resources are present in the habitat
density– Natality Asymptote is a stage when a population is–
■ Realistic growth model– Logistic growth Stabilized
Large number of small size offspring is– Small fish gets stuck near the bottom of a shark and
Oysters, Pelagic fishes derive its nutrition from it. This kind of association
Monarch butterfly is highly distasteful because it is called as– Commensalism
acquires chemical while feeding on– Gause's principle of competitive exclusion states
Poisonous weed that– No two species can occupy the same niche
Organisms breed once in life– indefinitely for the same limiting resources
Pacific Salmon fish and bamboo 11.3 Miscellaneous
Generally the least affected by competition than
Composed of all living organisms present on earth
others– Carnivores
which interact with the physical environment is−
Exponential growth is– Geometrical growth,
Biosphere
Have unlimited resources,
Ecological niche is– The physical position and
J - shaped curved is obtained
functional role of a species within the community
If one species get benefit and the other species do
Formation of tropical forests needs mean annual
not have any effect, then this types of interaction is
temperature and mean annual precipitation as–
called– Commensalism
18 - 250C and 150 - 400 cm
Cuscuta is– Ectoparasites
The forest plants controls the light conditions at the
Barnacles growing on the back of the whale getting ground– Tall trees
benefit is an example of– Commensalism
Partial root parasite is– Orobanche
Number of immigration is more than emigration and
The impact of immigration on population density is–
death is lower than natality. Growth curve of
Positive
population will show– Exponential phase
The functional role played by the organism where it
Intrinsic rate may remain constant or increase in
lives− Niche
which type of interaction– Commensalism
Natality refers to– Birth rate
One of the petals of flower mimics female bee– In a growing population of a country–
Ophrys Pre-reproductive individuals are more than the
The age structure of a population influences reproductive individuals
population growth because– The population interactions is widely used in
Different age groups medical science for the production of antibiotics–
have different reproductive capabilities Amensalism
427
 EXAM POINT
Ecology
The study of organisms with their environment is called– Ecology Rajasthan PMT-1996 /
AIPMT-1993
A species which adds upto only a small proportion of the total biomass of a DUMET-2008 / WB JEE-2006,
community, yet has a huge impact on the communitys organization and survival BCECE-2012 / AIPMT-2004
is known as- Keystone species
The soil which is transported by wind is known as– Aeolian Manipal-2015 / VMMC-2012,
2007,
UP CPMT-2012, 2008 /
Rajasthan PMT-
2008,
BCECE-2001 /CG PMT-2008
Air spaces are present in– Hydrophytes BHU PMT (Mains)-2006
Ecotypes are– Only morphologically different, Only genetically different Uttarakhand PMT-2011
The cultivation of plants without the use of soil is called– Hydroponics Tripura JEE-2022
Study of ecological communities is called– Synecology AP EAPCET-12.07.2022
Shift-I
Plants growing in acidic soil are termed as– Oxylophytes JIPMER-2002 / Rajasthan
PMT-1997
In ecotone some species become abundant– Edge species DUMET-2006
The basic unit of study in Ecology is– Organism DUMET-2011
Different species residing in different geographical areas are– Allopatric DUMET-2006 / DUMET-2004
Greek word for ecology is– Oekologie AIIMS-2010
Two species occupying same or overlapping area are called as– Sympatric Punjab MET-2008 / MGIMS
Wardha-2006
The zone of the biosphere, no human activity is permitted– Core zone BCECE-2015
The ‘niche’ of a species is meant for– AIPMT-1996
Habitat and specific functions of a species
Those animals which are deep dweller in sea are called– Benthic animals AIPMT-1996
The abundance of a species population, within its habitat, is called– AIPMT-1995
Niche density
Niche overlap indicates– JCECE-2013
Sharing of one or more resources between the two species
The part of earth and atmosphere supporting life is– Biosphere BVP-2008
Earth has maximum amount of oxygen in– Troposphere BVP-2011
The term Ecology was coined by– Haeckel AP EAMCET-24.09.2020
Shift-I
Biological concept of species is mainly based on– Reproductive isolation
Ecological study of individual species is known as– Autoecology AP EAMCET-03.09.2021
Shift-I
Organisms living in constant environmental conditions get– TS EAMCET-09.08.2021
Niche specialisation Shift-II
The term Niche was first used by– Joseph Grinnel (1917) UP CPMT-2011

428
Plants growing in dry and saline soil are called– Halophyte UPCPMT-2002
Characteristics of a biological community is– Stratification AIPMT (Screening)-2010
The species of plants that play a vital role in controlling the relative abundance of AP EAMCET-2011
other species in a community are called– Keystone species
Recapitulation theory was proposed by– E. Haeckel UP CPMT-2002
A system of rotating crops with legume or grass pasture to improve soil structure NEET-2016 Phase-I
and fertility is called– Ley farming

Organism and its Environment

The interspecies relationship in which one organism is harmed while other TS EAMCET 10.05.2023
remains unaffected– Amensalism Shift-I
Nitrates and phosphates flowing from agricultural farms into water bodies are a RE-NEET (UG)-06.06.2023
significant cause of– Eutrophication (Manipur)
The species of plants that plays a vital role in controlling the relative abundance RE-NEET (UG)-06.06.2023
of other species in a community is called– Keystone ospecies (Manipur)
Among 'The Evil Quartet', which is considered the most important cause driving NEET (UG) 07.05.2023
extinction of species– Habitat loss and fragmentation
In our biosphere, the most important and vast area is covered by hydrosphere. AMU-1995
Hydrosphere has– 1.4 billion cubic km of water
Maximum and minimum, mean annual precipitation is observed respectively, the GUJCET-2022
region is– Tropical forest, Desert
A few organisms can tolerate and thrive in a wide range at temperatures. They are GUJCET-2023
known as– Eurythermal
The range of latitudes for temperate region is– 40o – 60o GUJCET-2011
The forests which is known as the 'lungs of the planet earth' is– Assam CEE-2014
Amazon rain forest
Ozone in stratosphere extends– 20-25 km AIIMS-2007
During summer the density of the surface of the water decreases due to increase TS EAMCET-03.05.2018
in its temperature. The upper most warm layer of a lake is called– Epilimnion Shift-I
The sphere of living matter together with water, air and soil on the surface of earth is AIIMS-2001, 1997
called– Biosphere
The boundry/transition between two or more communites sharply defined is CMC Vellore-2012
called– Ecotone
The thylakoid in chloroplast are arranged as– Stacked discs JIPMER-2005
Temperate coniferous forest of northern hemisphere are – Taiga MP PMT-2013
Bioenergy is always– Ecofriendly, Cheap CMC Vellore-2011
The element that percentage weight is highest in both earth’s crust and human Karnataka CET-2020
body is– Oxygen
The biome is richest source of biodiversity including both plant and animals is– UP CPMT-2014
Tropical evergreen forest
In summer, in lakes upper more warm water is separated from bottom cool water AP EAMCET-12.07.2022
by mid water is called– Thermal stratification Shift-II
5th June is celebrated as– World environment day Manipal-2002,
UPCPMT-2002

Factors of Environment
Humus is present in– Horizon-A Rajasthan PMT-2009 / Punjab
MET-2009,
CMC Vellore-2009 / UP
CPMT-2009, 2003,
DUMET-2005

429
All living organisms which influence other organisms is called – Biotic factors JIPMER-2006
Soil carried by gravity is– Colluvium soil WB JEE-2007
Littoral zone is located along the– Sea DUMET-2011
Soil particles determine its– Texture AIPMT-1992
Soil is a mixture of– Sand, clay and humus Manipal-2001
Nature and properties of soil depends upon– Weathering and climate AP EAMCET-05.10.2021
Shift-I
Soil type and its composition is considered best for growth and development of UP CPMT-2014
common vegetation– Loamy soil (25-36% field capacity)
a mixture of clay and sand
The soil with poorest water holding capacity is– Sandy UP CPMT-2011
Doubling of metabolic activity with every increase in temperature by 10° C is TSEAMCET-09.05.2019
called– Van't Hoff's rule Shift-I
TS EAMCET-02.05.2018
Shift-II
More than 70% of world's freshwater is contained in– Polar ice JIPMER-2007

Adaptations
Generally, bears avoid winter by undergoing– Hibernation Karnataka CET-20.05.2023
Animals having a built in thermostat to maintain constant body temperature are UP CPMT-2012 ,2003 /
known as– Homoeothermic DUMET-2005,
JIPMER-2009 / Rajasthan
PMT-2008,
CG PMT-2008
Homeostasis is used to describe– VMMC-2015 / CMC Vellore-
Tendency of the biological – system to resist change 2014 / AIPMT-1991

Significance of mimicry is– Attack (Offence), Protection (Defence) AIPMT-2002 / JIPMER-

2002
Presence of plants arranged into well defined vertical layers depending on their NEET-2017
height can be seen best in– Tropical Rain Forest
Mycorrhizae are the example of– Mutualism NEET-2017
A lizard-like member of reptilia is sitting on a tree with its tail coiled around a AIIMS-2006
twig. This animal could be– Chameleon showing protective coloration
The animals of cold countries have relatively shorter and poorly developed ears, AIPMT-1996
eyes, hairs and other phenotypic characters. This known by law–
Allen’s Law
During adverse season, the therophytes survive by– Seeds AIPMT-1997
The organisms which generate heat energy within body and also retain it are AP EAMCET-2005
known as– Endothermic
Animals undergoes inactive stage during winter, is known as– Hibernation VMMC-2012 / UP CPMT-
2008 / JIPMER-2009
Maintenance of relatively constant internal conditions (steady state) different TS EAMCET-30.07.2022
from the surrounding environment is called– Homeostasis Shift-II
It is much easier for a small animal to run uphill than for a large animal, NEET-2016 Phase-I
because– Smaller animals have a higher metabolic rate
In Amphibians and reptiles, the body temperature changes corresponding to Karnataka CET-2019
external temperature. The organisms which show this kind of response is termed
as– Conformers

430
Two opposite forces operate in the growth and development of every population. AIPMT-1998 / AIIMS-2008
One of them related to the ability to reproduce at a given rate. The force opposite
to it is called– Environmental resistance
It will be happen if the number of organism increased at a place– AIPMT-1999
Inter species competition, Intra species competition

Populations and its attributes

The evolutionary force that reduces the genetic variation by removing low AP EAPCET-23.05.2023,
frequency alleles– Genetic Drift Shift-II
Study of Ecology of population is called– Demecology Haryana PMT-2008 /
JIPMER-2008
Abundance of a species in a population, within habitat is called– MGIMS Wardha-2010 /
Niche density AIIMS-2002,
AIPMT-1995
According to Alexander von Homboldt– NEET-2020 Phase-II
Species richness increases with increasing area, but only up to limit
The impact of immigration on population density is– Positive NEET-2020 Phase-II
Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained when– K=N NEET-2017
In a population, unrestricted reproductive capacity is called as– AIPMT-2002
Biotic potential
Natality refers to– Birth rate NEET-2018
The functional role played by the organism where it lives is known as– Niche NEET-2018
The formula for exponential population growth is– dN/dt = rN AIPMT-2006 / TS EAMCET-
02.05.2018 Shift-I,
BCECE-2013 / SRM JEEE-
2018
The growth curve of bacterial population in lab is plotted against time. The shape AIIMS-2008
of graph will be– Hyperbolic
In an area, a population with large size individuals having long life span, more AIIMS-2014
parental care and slow development was present. The type of population growth
curve will be– S-shaped
July 11 is observed as– World population day AIIMS-2003 / BVP-2002,
Rajasthan PMT-1997 / Punjab
MET-2006
“India is a country of youngsters” on this basis, if age pyramid is made. The type GUJCET-2018
of pyramid it will be– Triangular shape
The type of population where pre-reproductive animals occur in large numbers AP EAMCET-2005
is– Growing
The population of an insect species shows an explosive increase in numbers AIPMT-2007
during rainy season followed by its disappearance at the end of the season. It
shows– Its population growth curve is of J-type
Geometric representation of age structure is a characteristic of– Population AIPMT-2007
Biotic potential or potential natality means– JIPMER-2014
Natural increase of population under ideal/optimum conditions
Zero growth means– Natality balance mortality JIPMER-2014
The growth of a population without limit at its maximal rate and also that, rates AP EAMCET-2009
of immigration and emigration are equal, then it is called–
Biotic potential
431
A group of independent and interacting population of different species in a UPCPMT-2002
specific area is called– Community
Number of new individuals produced in a unit time, per unit population is called– AP EAMCET-11.07.2022
Natality Shift-II
Population density of terrestrial organisms is measured in terms of– Karnataka CET-2007
Individual per Meter2

Population Interactions
In this type of interactions the organisms are involved in co-evolution– AP EAPCET-10.05.2023,
Mutualism Shift-II
Plants offer rewards to animals in the form of pollen and nectar and the animals RE-NEET (UG)-06.06.2023
facilitate the pollination process. This is an example of– Mutualism (Manipur)
The interaction where one species is benefitted and the other is neither benefitted J&K CET-2012 / JIPMER-
nor harmed is called as– Commensalism 2019
Small fish get stuck near the bottom of a shark and derives its nutrition from it. UP CPMT-2012, 2008 /
This kind of association is called as– Commensalism VMMC-2012,
Rajasthan PMT-2008 / CG
PMT-2008
Association of animals belonging to different species, where both partners are Manipal-2006 / AIPMT-1993
benefitted, is called– Mutualism
The principle of competitive exclusion was stated by– GF Gause NEET-2016 Phase-II
Amensalism can be represented as– Species A (–); Species B (0) NEET-2021
The interactions both partners that are adversely affected in– Competition AIPMT (Re-Exam)-2015
A sedentary sea anemone gets attached to the shell lining of hermit crab. The NEET-2013,
association is– Commensalism J&K CET-2013
In a random mating population in equilibrium, which brings about a change in AIPMT-2003
gene frequency in a non-directional manner is–
Random drift
A mutually beneficial association necessary for survival of both partners is– AIPMT-1988
Mutualism/symbiosis
Competition for light, nutrients and space is most severe between– AIPMT-1988
Closely related organism growing in the same area/niche
Bacteria and fungi developing on dead decaying organisms are– Saprophytes AP EAMCET-24.09.2020
Shift-I
The interaction between "Cuckoo and Crow" is an example for– Karnataka CET-2018
Brood parasitism
A high density of elephant population in an area can result in– AIPMT-2007
Intra specific competition
Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos islands became extinct within a decade after TS EAMCET-02.05.2018
goats were introduced. It is an example of– Shift-II
Competitive exclusion
A mutual beneficial close physical relationship is shown by– UP CPMT-2014
Cladonia, Mycorrhiza
An interaction favourable to both population, but obligatory to either, is– UP CPMT-2011
Proto-cooperation
Connel's field experiment on the rocky coast of Scotland, where larger Barnacle Karnataka CET-2016
Balanus dominates the intertidal area and removes the smaller Barnacle
chthmalus. This happened due to– Competition

432
12.
ECOSYSTEM
■ The prickly pear cactus became unusually abundant
12.1 Ecosystem-Structure and
after its introduction in Australia, because it–
Function Has no coevolved herbivores
Vertical distribution of different species occupying ■ Formation of tropical forests needs mean annual
different levels in dense vegetation is called– temperature and mean annual precipitation as–
Stratification 18-25ºC and 150-400 cm
Self-regulated, Self-sustained, Segment of Man-made ecosystem is– Agro-ecosystem
environment is a – Ecosystem The basic components of the ecosystem are–
Ecosystem is not a functional component of– biotic and abiotic components (Productivity and
Stratification decomposition, Nutrient cycling, Energy flow)
Physical structure, that is characteristic of each type For an ecosystem to work, first primary need is–
of ecosystem, is formed due to the– Constant input of solar energy
Interaction of biotic and abiotic components Sun is the source of energy in ecosystems except–
■ _______ represents exotic species– Deep sea hydrothermal ecosystem
Eichhornia crassipes Physical structure, that is characteristic for each type
■ David Tilman's long term ecosystem experiments of ecosystem, is formed due to–
using outdoor plots explained that– Increased
Interaction of biotic & abiotic components
diversity contributed to higher productivity
All ecosystems have no boundary because–
■ Ecosystem is most productive in terms of net primary
production is– Tropical rainforests They cannot occur in isolation
■ Climax community in is a state of– Equilibrium An ecosystem which can be easily damaged but can
■ Different communities of plants, animals and recover after some time if damaging effect stops will
microbes together with their physico-chemical be having– Low stability & high resilience
environment– Ecosystem 12.2 Productivity
■ Organisms which acquire energy and nutrients by
Accelerate phosphorus cycle is–
digesting the organic molecules of living organisms
are– Consumers Weathering of rocks
■ The environmental factors regulate the rate of release In the equation, GPP – R = NPP R represents–
of nutrients into the atmosphere– Soil, Moisture, Respiration losses
pH, Temperature The primary producers of the deep-sea
■ A group of interconnected food chains is– Food web hydrothermal vent ecosystem are– Chemosynthetic
■ In a terrestrial ecosystem the large fraction of energy bacteria
flows through– Detritus food chain The net primary productivity of a terrestrial
■ The last organisms of the food chain, generally– ecosystem is eaten and digested by herbivores–10%
Top cornivores The rate of conversion of light energy into chemical
■ Primary producers are larger than primary consumers energy of organic molecules in an ecosystem is–
in an population of- Ecosystem Gross primary productivity
■ The important defence mechanism in plants against
The biomass made available by producer for
herbivory– Spines and Toxic chemical
consumption by herbivores and the decomposers is
■ Organisms living at the bottom of a sea, called–
called– Net primary productivity
Benthic
............. is the rate of production of organic matter
■ Interaction between biotic and abiotic components
by consumers– Secondary productivity
leads to formation of a– Ecosystem
■ ________ is an attribute of the organism Primary productivity depends upon–
(morphological, phsiological, behavioural) to survive Light and temperature, Water and nutrients,
and reproduce in its habitat– Adaptation Photosynthetic capacity of producers
433
 The annual net primary productivity of the whole The process of decomposition would be the fastest
biosphere is approximately– 170 billion tons is– Tropical rainforest
Exhibits least productivity is– Decomposers like fungi and bacteria are–
Open oceans, desert ecosystem Heterotrophs, Saprotrophs
The most productive ecosystem is– During the process of decomposition–
Tropical rainforest
O2 is consumed and CO2 is released
Productivity at the second trophic level is always–
Rate of decomposition depends upon–
Less than the productivity at the first trophic
level Soil moisture, Chemical composition of detritus,
■ Mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at Temperature
anytime is called– Standing crop ■ Rate of decomposition is slower– If detritus rich in
■ The parameter decreases as succession proceeds– lignin and chitin
Net community productivity ■ In hydrosere, marsh meadow stage replaces–
■ Freshly fallen dead organic matter is called– Detritus Reed swamp stage
■ The rate at which new tissues are formed in ■ Conversion of ammonia and nitrates to gaseous
consumers in the ecosystem– Net secondary nitrogen– Denitrification
productivity
Detritus is formed by–
■ Death of organism is the beginning of energy and
nutrient requirement is meet by degrading organic Decomposition of Raw matter
matter is known as - Detritus Food Chain Water-soluble inorganic nutrients go down into soil
■ Secondary consumer level is– Birds, fishes, wolf horizon and get precipitated an unavailable salts by
■ Seral stage exhibit maximum stability– the process of– Leaching
Climax community Mineralisation ensures the availability of nutrients
■ During the process of ecological succession, the
for– Autotrophs
changes that take place in communities are–
Orderly and sequential Organic detritus is degraded to inorganic substances
■ The gross primary production minus respiration during– Catabolism
losses by plants in an ecosystem is– Extremely slow rate of decomposition can be
Net primary production observed in– Humus
■ The primary consumers in a pond ecosystem is– Inorganic nutrients are released from humus by the
Zooplankton microbial action during– Mineralisation
■ The amount of living matter present in a component
If we completely remove decomposers from an
population of a particular trophic level is called–
Standing crop ecosystem, the ecosystem functioning will be
■ The rate at which total biomass or organic matter adversely affected because–
produced by primary producers in an area per unit Mineral movement will be blocked
time is– Gross primary productivity The bacteria which attack the dead animals are–
■ When we are in a hot room, we sweat profusely. It is At the end of the food chain
a ______ means of maintaining homeostasis–
and are decomposers
Physiological
■ J-shaped growth curve depicts– Exponential Humus is an example of– Organic collodis
growth when conditions are unlimited 12.4 Energy Flow
Productivity can be expressed in terms of energy as–
The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen,
Kcal/m2
phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any
NPP is the available biomass for the consumption
of– Herbiviores, Decomposers, Producers given time, is referred as– Standing state
In terms of dry weight of organic matter, is related to The ultimate energy source of all ecosystems is–
the annual net primary productivity of whole Solar radiation
biosphere– Availability of nutrients Percentage of photosynthetically active radiation
12.3 Decomposition (PAR) in the incident solar radiation is–
Most animals that live in deep oceanic waters are– Less than 50%
Detritivores Percentage of photosynthetically active radiation
Detritivores breakdown detritus into smaller (PAR) that is captured by plants in synthesis of
particles. This process is called– Fragmentation organic matter is– 2 - 10%

434
 The unidirectional flow of energy from Sun to Food chain refers to– The transfer of food energy
producers and then to consumers is keeping with from producers to consumers
the– First laws of thermodynamics Ascending trophic level in grazing (grass land) food
The food chain in which microbes split energy-rich chain pyramid represents– Gradual decrease
compounds of the producer community is– in biomass from producers to
Detritus food chain the tertiary consumer
In an aquatic ecosystem, the organism present at the
trophic level equivalent to cows in grasslands is– 12.5 Ecological Pyramids
Zooplanktons Both hydrarch and xerarch successions lead to–
The movement of energy from lower to higher Medium water conditions
trophic level is– Always unidirectional If 20 J of energy is trapped at producer level, then
If 10 joules of energy is available at the producer how much energy will be available to peacock as
level, then amount of energy present at the level of food in the chain– Plant→Mice→Snake→Peacock–
secondary consumers is– 0.1 J 0.02 J
The energy and biomass relationship between the ■ Pyramid of number in a grassland ecosystem is–
organisms at different trophic levels can better Upright
expressed by– Ecological pyramids ■ The pyramid of biomass in sea is generally– Inverted
The animals that may occupy more than one trophic ■ Rate of increase in biomass by heterotrophs or
levels in the same ecosystem at the same time– consumers per unit time and area is–
Sparrow Secondary productivity
Organisms which are associated with first as well as ■ Inverted ecological pyramid– Pyramid of biomass
third trophic level are– Insectivorous plants in sea
Pyramid of biomass for a grazing food chain ■ The pyramid of biomass in a pond ecosystem is–
represents– Gradual decrease in biomass from Inverted
producers to the tertiary consumers ■ In a pyramid of numbers representing an ecosystem
■ Productivity, Decomposition, Energy flow and of a large freshwater pond the number of primary
Nutrient cycling are– Functions of ecosystem consumers is– Less than the producers
■ ______ have high value of biotic potential and short ■ The age distribution is plotted for a population, the
generation time– Pioneer species resulting structure is called– Age pyramid
■ Bacterial and fungal enzyme degrade detritus into ■ Number of female on 1000 males - Sex ratio
simpler inorganic substances– Process of catabolism ■ Age pyramid reflects a stable population growth–
■ Capacity to overcome forces, which tend to disturb Bell shaped
the balance– Resilience ■ Polygonal pyramid indicates moderate percentage of
■ Total incident light is used in the production process young individuals - Bell - shaped
by plants is– 1 to 5% Primary carnivores belong to– T3
■ Energy flow in ecosystem is– Unidirectional
In a single tree ecosystem, if P, Q, R and S
Organism occupy a specific place in food chain are
represents the smaller birds, tree, insects and larger
called– Tropic level
birds respectively, then which will be second most
Vertical distribution of a different species,
occupying a different level are called– abundant in number– P
Stratification In an aquatic ecosystem, a mollusc typically belongs
In terrestrial, food chain major amount of energy to– T2
flow occurs through– DFC (Detritus Food Chain) Secondary carnivores feed on the members of– T2
than GFC (Grazing Food Chain) Omnivores feed upon the members belonging to–
In an ecosystem, the function of the producers is to– T1 and T2 both
Trap solar energy and convert it into Pyramid of numbers deals with number of–
chemical energy
Individuals in a trophic level
In aquatic food chain, major amount of energy flows
Pyramid of number is– Either upright or inverted
through– GFC
When peacock eats snake which eats insects depends The food energy passes from one trophic level to
on green plants, the peacock is– another trophic level mostly from–
The apex of the food pyramid Lower to higher trophic levels

435
 ............. food chain is directly dependent upon solar Succession in a 6 metre deep pond exhibits a
radiations– Grazing, Detritus sequence of– Submerged Plants →
In a pyramid of numbers representing an ecosystem Floating Plants → Reeds →
of a large freshwater pond, the number of primary Herbs → Shrubs → Trees
consumers are– Less than the producers The name given to the medium water conditions in
Construction of ecological pyramids is not used for– succession of plants is– Mesic
Fresh weight Take hold in small amount of soil is– Bryophytes
12.6 Ecological Succession In a primary succession, initially–
The stable community during an ecological No soil was there
succession that would be near equilibrium with the Present day communities in world are the result of
environment is called– Climax community succession that has occurred since– Millions of
Primary succession occurs on– years since life has started on earth
Newly formed river delta Primary succession is observed in–
As the succession proceeds number and types of Newly cooled lava
............... change– In an ecological succession, saprophytes belong to–
Vegetation, animals & decomposers Either T2 or T3
The rate of secondary succession is faster than Number of seral communities are more in primary
primary succession because– succession in comparison to–
Soil or sediment is already present secondary succession
Pioneer community in xerarch is– Lichens Any disturbance during succession–
The correct sequence of stages of succession on a Encourage the growth of some species,
bare rock is– Make some species extinct
Lichens→Moses→Grasses→Shrubs→Trees In a pond, autotrophic component include–
In xerach succession, lichens make the conditions Phytoplanktons, algae and marginal plants
favourable for the growth of– Mosses Meant by the term 'hydrarch' is–
The successional series in hydrarch succession Succession in a wet area
progresses from– Hydric to mesic conditions If hydric conditions are P, xeric condition are Q and
An ecosystem which can be easily damaged but can mesic condition are R, then xerarch succession can
recover after some time if damaging effect stops, be represented as– Q→R
will be having– Low stability and high resilience Succession in water ultimately results in–
All type of successions leads to– Mesic conditions
Mesic climax community Climax community in xerarch succession comprises
The gradual and fairy predictable change in the of– Shrubs and trees
species composition of a given area is called–
12.7 Nutrient Cycling
Ecological succession
The pairs of sedimentary biogeochemical cycles–
■ Ecological succession usually focuses on–
Change Vegetation Phosphorus cycle, Sulphur cycle
■ The serial changes in previously sterile or total barren The function of reservoir pool is to meet with the
area is called– Primary succession deficit of nutrient that occurs due to–
■ It occurs on a deforested site are - Imbalance in rate of efflux and influx of
Secondary succession nutrients
■ Lichen is pioneer in succession of– Xerosere About 71% of total global carbon is found in–
■ Primary succession is development of communities Oceans
on– Previously unoccupied sites Percentage of total global carbon is atmospheric
The change leads finally to a community that is near carbon– 1%
equilibrium with the environment is known as– Major source of sulphur is– Rocks
Climax community The processes that does not contribute to the CO2
The entire sequence of communities that pool in the atmosphere–
successively change in given area are called– Sere Photosynthesis by producers

436
■ Sedimentary biogeochemical cycle is– Pollination of crop, Maintenance of biodiversity,
Phosphorous and sulphur Spiritual, cultural & aesthetic values include–
■ Out of the total cost of various ecosystem services the The ecosystem services
soil formation accounts for about– 50% Out of the total proposed cost of various ecosystem
■ Nutrients are never lost from the ecosystem because– services, cost of climate regulations and habitat for
They are recycled again and again wildlife are about ............ each– 6%
■ Atmospheric phase plays no role in biogeochemical ■ Rise in the temperature and air humidity observed
cycling of– Phosphorus from poles to equator region during -
■ The process of mineralisation by microorganisms Latitudinal transition
helps in the release of– Inorganic nutrients from ■ _____ is the most important ecologically relevant
humus environment factor– Temperature
■ The function of reservoir pool is to meet with the Who put the price tag on natural life support
deficit of nutrient that occurs due to– Imbalance in services– Robert Constanza
rate of efflux and influx of nutrients The amount of average price tag on nature's life
■ The phosphorous cycle differs from those of carbon support services determined by Robert constanza
and nitrogen as well as those of oxygen and hydrogen
and his colleagues– US $ 33 trillion a year
cycle in that it lacks– Gaseous phase
■ A sedimentary cycle is– Phosphorous 12.9 Miscellaneous
■ The major reservoir of phosphorous cycle is– Decomposers like fungi and bacteria are–
Pollution Heterotrophs, Saprotrophs
■ The characteristics of the soil that determine the The process of mineralization by microorganisms
percolation and water holding capacity of the soil– helps in the release of–
Soil composition, grain size and aggregation Inorganic nutrients from humus
Additional sources for releasing carbon dioxide in Productivity is the rate of production of biomass
the atmosphere are– Burning of wood, expressed in terms of– g–2 yr–1 , (kcal m–2) yr–1
Volcanic activity, Combustion of fossil fuels It is not a producer– Agaricus
Gaseous biochemical cycle in ecosystem is not a– Primary productivity of a terrestrial ecosystem is
Phosphorus cycle eaten and digested by herbivores– 10%
Biogeochemical cycling means– Among the following biogeochemical cycles which
Cycling of nutrients in an ecosystem one does not have losses due to respiration–
Carbon cycling can occur through– Phosphorus, Nitrogen, Sulphur
Ocean, Dead organisms, Atmosphere The sequence of communities of primary succession
The natural reservoir of phosphorus is– Rock in water is– Phytoplankton, free-
12.8 Ecosystem Services floating hydrophytes, rooted hydrophytes,
sedges, grasses and trees
Characteristic feature of cropland ecosystem is–
The reservoir for the gaseous type of biogeochemical
Least genetic diversity
cycle exists in– Atmosphere
The reservoir for the gaseous type of
biogeochemical cycle exists in– If the carbon atoms fixed by producers already have
Atmosphere passed through three species, the trophic level of the
If the carbon atoms fixed by producers already have last species would be–
passed through three species, the trophic level of the Tetiary consumer
last species would be– An ecosystem service provided by a natural
Tertiary consumer ecosystem is–
The types that ecosystem is expected in an area Cycling of nutrients, Prevention of soil erosion
where evaporation exceeds precipitation, and mean Accelerate phosphorus cycle will–
annual rainfall is below 100 mm– Desert Weathering of rocks
The zone at the edge of a lake or ocean which is The amount of nutrients, such as carbon nitrogen,
alternatively exposed to air and immersed in water phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any
is called– Littoral zone given time is referred as– Standing state
Edaphic factor refers to– Ecological pyramids is generally inverted–
Soil Pyramid of biomass in a sea
437
 EXAM POINT
Ecosystem and its structure
The temperature of water in epilimnion of a thermally stratified lake in summer AP EAPCET-11.05.2023,
in temperate is– 21ºC - 25ºC Shift-II
In a lake ecosystem, Dytiscus comes under– Nekton AP EAPCET-11.05.2023,
Shift-II
Limiting nutrient for both natural and agricultural ecosystems is– Nitrogen AP EAPCET-11.05.2023,
Shift-II
Unit of land containing different ecosystems surrounded by natural boundaries is AP EAPCET-11.05.2023,
called– Landscape Shift-I
In 'rivet popper hypothesis', Paul Ehrlich compared the rivets in an airplane to– RE-NEET (UG)-06.06.2023
Species within a genus (Manipur)
The purpose of crop rotation is– To increase the fertility of soil Uttarakhand PMT-2008 /
BHU PMT-2004,
UP CPMT-2003
Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels in a biotic AIPMT-2015
community is known as– Stratification
Number of wild life is continuously decreasing. The main reason of this– AIPMT-2002
Destruction of habitat
Eutrophication is caused due to– Accumulation of minerals JIPMER-2019
Keystone species is a– A species which makes up only a AIIMS-2008
small proportional of the total biomass of a community, yet has a
huge impact on the community's organization and survival
The Great Barrier Reef along the east coast of Australia can be categorised as– AIIMS-2004
Ecosystem
Amazon Rain Forest is known as– Lungs of our Planet AP EAMCET-24.09.2020
Shift-I
Ecosystem is the symbol of structure and function of nature. It proposed by– AP EAMCET-24.09.2020
Tansley Shift-I,
UPCPMT-2002
The species, though insignificant in number, determine the existence of many Karnataka CET-2010
other species in a given ecosystem. Such species is known as–
Keystone species
Benthic organisms are found in– Bottom of sea JIPMER-2014
Overlapping region between two ecosystems is called– Ecotone JIPMER-2014,
Rajasthan PMT-2009
Supports a dense population of plankton and littoral vegetation– Eutrophic JIPMER-2014
Stability of ecosystem depends upon– JIPMER-2014
Interchange between producers and consumers
The organisms that belong to the benthos of lake ecosystem– AP EAMCET-2013
Chironomid larvae and red annelids
Terracing is done in– Hilly areas UPCPMT-2002
Aquatic photodiffraction is– Euphotic, disphotic and aphotic UPCPMT-2002
The reason for highest biomass in aquatic ecosystem is– AIPMT-2000
Benthic and brown algae
The animals may occupy more than one trophic levels in the same ecosystem at AIPMT (Mains)-2011
the same time is– Sparrow

438
The primary consumer in maize field ecosystem is– Grasshopper NEET (Karnataka)-2013
Biotic and abiotic components form– Community AIPMT-1999
World Summit on Sustainable Development (2002) was held in– AIPMT-2008
South Africa

Productivity
In a population, when the growth rate reached to its maximum it is called– JCECE-2015 / AIPMT-2002
Biotic potential
The expected to have the highest value (gm/m2/yr) in a ecosystem is– CMC Ludhiana-2009 / AFMC-
Gross Production (GP) 2008 / AIPMT-2004
The amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022 /,
period by plants during photosynthesis is called– Primary production TS EAMCET-09.05.2019
Shift-I
In an ecosystem the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis is NEET-2020 Phase-I,
termed as– Gross primary productivity AIPMT-2015
The mass of living material at a trophic level at a particular time is called– AIPMT-2015
Standing crop
In a growing population of a country– Pre-reproductive individuals are NEET-2018
more than the reproductive individuals
Secondary productivity is Rate of formation of new organic matter by– AP EAMCET-07.09.2021
Consumer Shift-I,
NEET-2013
The ecosystem has the maximum biomass is– Forest ecosystem NEET-2017
The rate of formation of new organic matter by rabbit in a grassland, is called– AIPMT (Mains)-2012
Secondary productivity
The energy which is present in the biomass of plant is known as– GUJCET-2017
Net primary productivity
The biomass available for consumption by the herbivores and the decomposers is AIPMT (Screening)-2010,
called – Net primary productivity 2007
The ecosystem has the highest annual net primary productivity is– Karnataka CET-2019
Tropical rain forest

Decomposition and Flow of Energy

Increase in toxic concentration from one trophic level to another trophic level is Haryana PMT-2005 /
called– Biomagnification JIPMER-2005,
BHU PMT-2003
Fungi in a forest ecosystem is– Decomposer DUMET-2005 / UP CPMT-
2003
Energy enters in a food chain through– Producers AP EAMCET-24.09.2020
Shift-II / Punjab
MET-2009,
CMC Vellore-2009 / Rajasthan
PMT-2009,
UP CPMT-2003, 2001 /
DUMET-2005,2001
A lake with nutrients is called– Eutrophic JIPMER-2008 / BHU PMT
(Screening)-2007
Energy transferred from one trophic level to another is– 10% VMMC-2012 / UP CPMT-
2012, 2008,
Manipal-2010,2001 / CG PMT-
2008,
Rajasthan PMT-2008 / BHU
PMT (Main)-2007

439
Decomposers are– Heterotrophs VMMC-2012 / BHU PMT
(Mains)-2008,
UP CPMT-2008 / JCECE-
2005,
BHU PMT-2001 / Manipal-
2000
If decomposers are removed what will happen to the ecosystem– Haryana PMT-2005 /
Mineral cycle is stopped JIPMER-2005
The rate of decomposition is faster in the ecosystem due to factors EXCEPT– NEET-2020 Phase-II,
Detritus richer in lignin and chitin NEET-2022
The primary producers of the deep-sea hydrothermal vent ecosystem are– NEET-2016 Phase-II
Chemosynthetic bacteria
Bamboo plant is growing in a far forest then what will be the trophic level of it– AIPMT-2002
First trophic level (T1)
Detritivores breakdown detritus into smaller particles. This process is called– NEET-2022
Fragmentation
The processes during decomposition is correctly described– Fragmentation – NEET-2013
Carried out by organisms such as earthworm
Most animals that live in deep oceanic water are– Detritivores AIIMS-2016
The bacteria which attack dead animals are– AIIMS-2008
The end of food chain and are decomposers
Full form of GFC is– Grazing food chain AIIMS-27.05.2018 Shift-I
The stage in the process of decomposition Bacteria and Fungi become active in GUJCET-2018
Catabolism
Biomagnifications refers to– Increase in concentration of AIIMS-27.05.2018 Shift-I
the toxicant at successive trophic levels
Detritivore is called as a– An animal feeding on decaying organic matter Karnataka CET-2005
The average trophic efficiency of transfer of energy from one trophic level to the AP EAMCET-2008
higher trophic level is called– Lindeman's trophic efficiency rule
During the process of decomposition in which stage complex organic matter GUJCET-2015
convert into inorganic ions and salts by fungi– Mineralization
'Sun basket' is– The sufficient amount of sunlight stored in a cell JIPMER-2014
A detrivorous animal of economic importance is– Earthworm Karnataka CET-2008
the primary producer in ecosystem– UP CPMT-2014
Flora found on land and water ecosystem
Most diverse organisms of an ecosystem are– Decomposers AP EAMCET-25.04.2018
Shift-II / UP CPMT-2011,
2006
The highly degraded organic matter rich in nitrogen and potassium in particular, Karnataka CET-2006
resulting from the activity of earthworms, is called–
Vermicompost
Increase in the concentration of a pollutant at successive trophic levels in an TS EAMCET-09.05.2019
aquatic food chain is called– Bio-magnification Shift-I
Trophic level of food chain having greatest amount of energy is– Autotrophs UP CPMT-2006
These belong to the category of primary consumers– Insects and cattle Karnataka CET-2004
The characteristic features of cropland ecosystem is– Least genetic diversity NEET-2016 Phase-I
The types of organisms occupy more than one trophic level in a pond ecosystem Punjab MET-2010,
is– Fish AIPMT-2009
In terrestrial ecosystem such as forest, maximum energy is found in the trophic JIPMER-2004
level is– T1
440
At which latitude, heat gain through insolation approximately equals heat loss, JIPMER-2007
through terrestrial radiation– 40º North and South
When man eats fish which feeds on zooplankton which have eaten small plants, NEET (Karnataka)-2013
the producer in the chain is– Small plants

Pyramids of Ecology
Certain characteristic Demographic features of developing countries are– AIPMT-2004
High fertility, low or rapidly falling mortality rate,
rapid population growth and a very young age distribution
Mr. X is eating curd/yogurt, for this food intake in a food chain he should be AIIMS-2003
considered as occupying– Third trophic level
In a pyramid of numbers representing an ecosystem of a large fresh water pond AP EAMCET-1998
the number of primary consumers is–
More than the secondary consumers
The pyramid of energy is always upright for any ecosystem. This situation Karnataka CET-2005
indicates the fact that–
Herbivores have a better energy conversion efficiency than carnivores
Net primary productivity (NPP) in an ecosystem is– GPP–R = NPP Karnataka CET-2018
The tropic relationship is expressed in terms of numbers : biomass or energy AP EAMCET-03.09.2021
arranged one on the top of its lower tropic level, resulting in a pyramidal shape. Shift-I
In case of a parasitic food chain, the pyramid number is– Inverted
The pyramids that is always upright and can never be inverted is– UP CPMT-2011
Pyramid of energy
The rate of formation of new organic matter by deer in a forest ecosystem is Karnataka CET-2016
called– Secondary productivity
Pyramid of energy is always– Upright UPCPMT-2002
The upright pyramid of number is absent in– Forest AIPMT (Screening)-2012
The age pyramid with broad base indicates– NEET (Karnataka)-2013
High percentage of young individuals

Ecological Succession
Lichen is the pioneer vegetation on the succession that is– Lithosere VMMC-2012 / Rajasthan
PMT-2008,
UP CPMT-2012, 2008 / CG
PMT-2008,
BHU PMT (Screeining)-2006
The evergreen vegetation and drough adapted animal is– Chaparral BHU PMT (Mains)-2009
The second stage of hydrosere is occupied by plants like– Vallisneria AIPMT (Mains)-2012
All successions irrespective of the habitat proceed to the type of climax NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022
community is– Mesic
The species that come to appear in bare area are called– Pioneer species NEET (Re-Exam)-04.09.2022
The pioneer species in a hydrarch succession are– Phytoplanktons NEET (Re-Exam)-
04.09.2022
Secondary Succession takes place on/in– Degraded forest AIPMT-2015
The region of Biosphere Reserve which is legally protected and where no human NEET-2017
activity is allowed is known as– Core zone
Niche overlap indicates– AIPMT-2006
Sharing of one or more resources between the two species
According to IUCN Red List, the status of Red Panda (Ailurus fulgens) is– AIPMT-2005
Endangered species
Two opposite forces operate in the growth and development of every population. AIPMT-2003
One of them relates to the ability to reproduce at a given rate. The force opposing
it is called– Environmental resistance
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Intermediate community between pioneer and climax communities is called– JIPMER-2011
Seral community
The vegetation of Rajasthan is– Xerophytic VMMC-2004
Plants which behave as mesophytes in rainy season and as xerophytes in Punjab MET-2005
summers are called– Trophophytes
Ephemerals are xerophytes that are– Drought escaping Punjab MET-2005
A place was rocky and barren but now there is a green forest; the sequence of Rajasthan PMT-2005
origin is– Lichen, moss, herbs, shrubs
In hydroseric succession, the stage tht comes just before sedge meadow stage is– GUJCET-2017
Reed swamp stage
The organisms which invade a bare area to initiate an ecological succession are Karnataka CET-2020
known as– Pioneer species
Appear as the pioneer organisms on bare rocks is– Lichens NEET-2016 Phase-I

Cycling of Nutrient in Ecosystem

The role of bacteria in carbon cycle is– Decomposition of organic compounds AIIMS-2000
The simplest of all nutrient cycles operating in an ecosystem is____cycle– MHT CET-2017
Phosphorous
Accelerate phosphorus cycle is– Weathering of rocks NEET-2022
The natural cycling of carbon between organism and their environment is Uttarakhand PMT-2006
directly accomplished through– Photosynthesis and respiration
Reservoirs for Phosphorous and Nitrogen cycle respectively are– GUJCET-2008
Bedrocks and atmosphere
Eutrophication is seen in– Lake DUMET-2002
Biogeochemical cycle of which element has atmospheric phase– Carbon DUMET-2002
Fishes in eutrophic lake is died due to– Lack of oxygen AIIMS-27.05.2018 Shift-II
Animals take phosphorus from– Plants AIIMS-2010
A sedimentary biogeochemical cycle having gaseous phase is– Sulphur MP PMT-2013
Biogeochemical Cycle having a small gaseous component is found in– AP EAMCET-24.09.2020
Sulphur Shift-I
In the phosphorus cycle, weathering makes phosphate available first to– Punjab MET-2004
Producers
The main role of bacteria in the carbon cycle involves– Punjab MET-2010
Digestion or breakdown of organic compounds
About 70% of total global carbon is found in– Oceans AIPMT-2008
A nitrogen fixing microbe associated with Azolla in rice-field is– Anabaena AIPMT (Screening)-2012
The microbes forms symbiotic association with plants and helps them in their AIPMT (Screening)-2012
nutrition– Glomus
Nitrogen fixing bacteria converts– N2 → NH3 AIPMT-1999

Services of Ecosystem
An ecosystem which can be easily damaged but can recover after some time if AIPMT-2004
damaging effect stops will be having– Low stability and high resilience
According to Robert Constanza, 50% the total cost for ecosystem services goes Karnataka CET-2015,
to– Soil formation Kerala PMT-2014
Total number of matured trees that are required to support supply of oxygen to TS EAMCET-09.08.2021
42,000 people in a year– 21000 Shift-II

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13.
BIODIVERSITY AND
CONSERVATION
13.1 Biodiversity The total number that species present on earth as
estimated by Robert May– 7 million
The countries that has the highest biodiversity–
India is one of the megadiversity countries of the
Brazil
world– 12
Invasive alien species is not an– Cynodon
Where among the will you find pitcher plant– The approximate number of plant and animal
species recorded in India are–
Rainforest of North-East India
The one-horned rhinoceros is specific to which of 54,000 plant species and 102,718 animal species
the sanctuary– Kaziranga According to May's global estimates how many
Amongst the animal groups given below, which one species of plants and animals, respectively, are yet
has the highest percentage of endangered species– to be discovered and described from India–
Amphibians 1,00,000 and 3,00,000
Endangered plant species of India is– In general, species diversity ................ as one moves
Rauwolfia serpentina, Cycas beddonei from high to low altitudes– Increases
The extinction of passenger pigeon was due to– Species diversity decreases as we move away from
Over exploitation by humans the ........ towards ........ equator, poles
Among the ecosystem mentioned below, where can Tropics (23.50N to 23.505) have ........... species as
one find maximum biodiversity– Coral reefs compared to temperate or polar regions– More
The forests that is known as the 'lungs of the planet For frugivorous birds and mammals in the tropical
earth'– Amazon rainforest forests of different continents, the slope of species
The active chemical drug reserpine is obtained area relationship is found to be– 1.15
from– ........... confirmed that communities with more
Rauwolfia species tend to be more stable than those with less
The group that exhibit more species diversity– species– David Tilman
Fungi
Rivet popper hypothesis was given by–
The regions that exhibit less seasonal variations–
Paul Ehrlich
Tropics
The historic convention on Biological Diversity Organisation responsible for maintaining Red list
held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 is known as– is–
The Earth Summit IUCN
The term biodiversity is popularised by– Red Data book deals with–
Edward Wilson Endangered and extinct organisms
variations affect the production of the drug reserpine How many species are documented to be extinct in
in the medicinal plant Rauwolfia vomitoria growing last 500 years by IUCN Red List, 2004– 784
in different Himalayan ranges. The kind that Bali, Javan and Caspian are– Subspecies of tiger
diversity does it indicate– Genetic diversity Dodo, an extinct flightless bird, belonged to–
Western ghats have a greater number of amphibian Mauritius
species than the Eastern ghats. The kind that
diversity does it represent– Species diversity IUCN Red List (2004) documents the extinction of
............. vertebrates in the last 500 years– 338
India has a greater ecosystem diversity than a
Scandinavian country like Norway. The kind that Organisms got extinct from Africa– Quagga
diversity does it represent– Ecological diversity The impact of loss of biodiversity include............
Lowered resistance to environmental perturbations–
The correct hierarchical levels of biodiversity from
Decline in plant production
higher to lower is– Ecosystem or community
The term "the evil quartet" is related with four
diversity→species diversity→genetic diversity major causes of– Biodiversity losses
The presence of different types of genes in different
species, Existence of genetically different strains/ An exotic species that is introduced to a new area,
variety of same species refers to– spreads rapidly and eliminates native species is
Genetic diversity called– Invasive species
A more conservative and scientifically sound Introduction of Nile Perch in lake Victoria of East
estimate about the total number of species present Africa resulted in– Elimination of many
on earth, was made by– Robert may species of cichlid fish
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 The fish that is being illegally introduced for The member of 'The Evil Quartet' is–
aquaculture purposes and is posing a threat to the Co-extinction,
indigenous catfishes of Indian rivers– Over-exploitation, Alien species invasion
Clarias gariepinus IUCN means– International union for
Introduction of alien species into new area possess a conservation of nature and natural resources
threat to extinction of indigenous species due to Half of the vertebrate species belong to– Fishes
Absence of their natural predators The slope of graph between species richness and
There are four major causes of accelerated rates of area is– Rectangular hyperbola
species extinction, which are collectively called as Hypothesis support the existence of greater
'the evil quarter'. One of the not included in 'the evil biological diversity in tropics than temperates,
quartet'– Pollution except– Presence of seasonal variation in tropics
When a species becomes extinct, the plant and The most important reason for the decrease in
animal species associated with it in an obligatory biodiversity is–
way also become extinct. This phenomenon is
Habitat-destruction and fragmentation
referred to as– Co-extinction
In Rivert Popper Hypothesis' of Paul Ehrlich, loss of
■ World Summit on sustainable development held in
key species driving an ecosystem is indicated by–
2002 in– Johennesburg
■ Among vertebrates, maximum species diversity Removing the rivets from wings
belong to a taxon, known as– Fishes According to 'Rivet Popper Hypothesis', the airplane
■ Species diversity ______ as one moves from higher will becomes dangerously weak if–
to lower altitude– Increases Popping of rivets continue
■ Frugivorous birds and mammals in the tropical India constitutes ..........% of the world's land area
forests of different continents, the slope is found to and contributes ...........% of the global species
be– 1.15 diversity– 2.4, 8.1
■ All the species are neither threatened nor indigenous The result of loss of biodiversity is not–
specie of India - Increase in resistance against drought
Lantana, Eichhornia and African Catfish If A-Species richness and B-Endemism, then
The right sequence for Ecological diversity is– biodiversity hotspots have–
Biomes → Ecosystem → Habitat → Niches High degree of A and high degree of B
Rauwolfia vomitoria is an example of– A weeds has invaded many forest lands of India is–
Genetic diversity Parthenium, Lantana
Rain forest, Mangroves, and coral reefs has great– ■ Narrowly utilitarian, Broadly utilitarian and ethical
Ecological diversity reasons behind ______ have been grouped into
"Species richness increased with increased explored categories- Conserving biodiversity
area but only a limit". This statement was given by– ■ _____ is the exploration of molecular, genetic and
Alexander Von Humboldt species-level diversity for gaining the products of
Genetic diversity refers to– The differences in economic importance– Bioprospecting
alleles within species ■ Amazon rainforests contribute ____ of the total
According to IUCN (2004), total number of plant oxygen in the earth's atmosphere– 20%
species describe on earth are around– 1.5 million ■ Waking up to a bulbul's song in the morning is
"Increased diversity contribute increased related to– Broadly utilitarian
productivity" this statement is given by– Tilman ■ Introduction of Clarius gariepinus in aquaculture in
The pattern of biodiversity is affected by– India is a serious threat to extinction of–
Latitudinal gradients, Species-area relationships Native cat fish
Species of ants are present on earth– 15,700 ■ Endemic plants are those– Restricted to certain area
Red data book provides data on– ■ The most biodiversity rich zone in India is–
Endangered plants and animals Western Ghats
■ ______ is included under ecosystem services–
If the present rate of extinction of species continues,
Climate control, protection of soil
almost half of the species on earth will be lost in
■ Genetically different strains of mango are reported
next– 100 years
from India– 1,000
Ecosystem diversity is– ■ ______ exhibit less seasonal variations– Tropics
Variation in species diversity in ecosystem ■ Decline in plant production, Lowered resistance to
Presently many species are facing threat of environmental perturbations such as drought and
extinction. This is true for– increased variability in certain ecological processes-
Every 4th mammalian species Loss of biodiversity
The reason is responsbile for extinction of host fish ■ Tropical environments, unlike temperature ones, are
and parasites– Co-extinctions less seasonal, relatively more constant and
According to most biologists, most of the species predictable. Such constant environment promote–
waiting to be discovered are in– Tropical climate Niche specialization and speciation
444
■ Protect whole ecosystem conversion - In situ ■ Western Ghats of India are considered as hot spot
■ In a field experiment, when all the starfish were because– They are mega diversity zone
removed from an enclosed intertidal area, more than ■ Loss of biodiversity in a region may lead to–
10 species of invertebrates become extinct within a Decline in plant production
year, because– Inter specific competition ■ Last refuges for a large number of rare and threatened
■ ____ is an example of recently extinct species from plants in Meghalaya– Sacred groves
Australia– Thylacine ■ Just as a person moving from Delhi to Shimla, escape
The species confined to a particular region and not the heat for the duration of hot summer, thousands of
found elsewhere is termed as– Endemic migratory birds from Siberia and other extremely
cold northern regions move to–
Biodiversity of a geographical region represents– Keolado National Park
The diversity in the organisms living in the Hot-spot of biodiversity in India is–
region Western Ghats
Alexander von Humboldt described for the first How many ecological hotspots are present in India–
time– Species area relationships Three
The distribution of species diversity on earth may be 'Ex situ' conservation is the term applied to–
best described as– It is highest in tropics Breeding of endangered species
Red list contains data or information on– in zoological parks
Threatened species Plant based product is not a– Leather
Invasive species is not an– Ocimum sanctum More than 25% of drugs are derived from plants,
In-situ conservation refers to– Protect and what kind of benefit does this describe–
conserve the whole ecosystem Direct Economic value
13.2 Biodiversity Conservation Hot spots of bioiversity are areas with–
Maximum biodiversity
Biodiversity loss is not responsible for–
Wild life conservation means the protection and
Ex-situ conservation preservation of– All livings in natural habitat
............. is not a method of in situ conservation of Western Ghats have come under the category of
biodiversity– Botanical garden Hotspot because of– High endemism
Ex-situ conservation of threatened animal and plants Example of ex-situ conservation is–Zoological park
is related to– Wildlife safari parks In a National Park, protection is provided to–
The National Aquatic Animal of India is– Flora and Fauna
Ganga River dolphin Tropical forests are denser due to–
More than 25% of drugs are derived from plants. High temperature and high rain
The kind that benefit does this describe– Example of in situ conservation is–
Direct economic value Biosphere reserve
Ex situ conservation is used for the conservation of– 'Hot spot' is not found in India–
Threatened animals and plants South central China
Conservation in the natural habitat is– in situ The earth's land area is covered when all the
Presently, total number of biodiversity hotspots in biodiversity hotspots put together, percent of–
the world is– 36 Less than 2%
The biodiversity hotspots of India is not included Appropriate method for conservation of wild life is–
in– Conservation in natural habitat
North Indian Plains National parks have been established till now in
The pair that geographical area shows maximum India– 90
diversity in our country– Eastern Himalayas In India, there are– 14 = Biosphere reserves,
and Western Ghats 90 = National parks, 448 = Wild life santuaries
In a National park, protection is provided to– Biodiversity is of importance as it offers–
Entire ecosystem Stability of ecosystems
Wildlife conservation is done in– 13.3 Miscellaneous
ex situ conservation, in situ conservation Countries has the highest biodiversity is–
Zoos, seed banks, wildlife safari parks, botanical South America
gardens include– Ex situ strategies You find pitcher plant among will–
Cryopreservation of gametes of threatened species Rain forest of North-East India
in viable and fertile condition can be referred to as– Major characteristic feature of biodiversity hot spots
Advanced ex situ conservation of biodiversity is not a– Mostly located in the polar regions
The regions that sacred groves are found in The common to the plants Nepenthes, Psilotum,
Meghalaya– Jaintia and Khasi Hills Rauwolfia and Aconitum is–
Botanical gardens represent– ex situ conservation All are prone to over exploitation
■ Cryopreservation is the preservation of germplasm at The one-horned rhinoceros is specific to the
very low temperature or around– – 196ºC sanctuary– Kaziranga
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 EXAM POINT
The Term Biodiversity
The presence of diversity at the junction of territories of two different habitats is VMMC-2012 / UP CPMT-
known as– Edge effect 2008
Regional diversity is also called– Beta diversity AP EAMCET-03.09.2021
Shift-II
……… has maximum genetically different strains in India– Rice NEET (Karnataka)-2013 /
AIPMT (Screening)-2011
Acacia, Prosopis and Capparis belongs to– Thorn forest AIPMT-1998
Species separated by geographical barriers are called– Allopatric AIPMT-1998
………. pair is of insectivorous plants– Allobandra and Utricularia AIPMT-1999
Species diversity is maximum in– Tropical rain forest AIPMT-1999
Occurence of endemic species in South America and Australia due to– AIPMT-2001
Continental separation
Extranuclear inheritance occurs in– Paramecium AIPMT-2001
Large Woody Vines are more commonly found in– Tropical rainforests AIPMT (Screening)-2011

Patterns of Biodiversity
According to David Tilman's long term ecosystem experiments, the total biomass Karnataka CET-20.05.2023
in plots with more species shows–
Less variation from year - to - year
………….. regions of the globe exhibits highest species diversity– NEET-2020 Phase-I
Amazon forests
According to Robert May, the global species diversity is about– 7 million NEET-2020 Phase-I
Total number of hotspots of biodiversity in the world have been identified till NEET-2016 Phase-II
date by Norman Myers is– 34
The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus and calcium NEET-2021
present in the soil at any given time, is referred as– Standing state
Decline in the population of Indian native fishes due to introduction of Clarias NEET (Odisha)-2019
gariepinus in river Yamuna can be categorised as– Alien species invasion
Exploration of molecular, genetic and species level diversity for novel products NEET (Odisha)-2019
of economic importance is known as– Bioprospecting
Maximum number of species among global biodiversity is represents– Fungi NEET-2013
The pairs of an animal and a plant represents endangered organisms in India– AIPMT-2006
Bentinckia nicobarica and Red Panda
Beta diversity is the diversity– Between communities WB JEE-2015 / AIIMS-2007
In India, we find mangoes with different flavours, colours, fibre content, sugar AIIMS-2006
content and even shelf-life. The large variation is on account of–
Genetic diversity
The highest diversity in India is– Mango AIIMS-2010 / AIPMT-2009
The geographical areas show maximum biodiversity in our country– AIIMS-2005
Eastern Himalaya and Western Ghats
The species diversity decreases from lower to higher altitudes on a mountain. AIIMS-2014
This is due to– Decrease in temperature, Greater seasonal variability

446
India is one of the twelve megadiversity countries with____of genetic resources of AIIMS-2013
the world– 8.1%
Hotspots of biodiversity in India refers to– AIIMS-26.05.2018 Shift-II /
Western Ghats and Sri Lanka, Indo Burma and Himalaya AIPMT (Screening)-2012

The diversity which is richness of different species in a range of habitats within a GUJCET-2018
geological area in known as– γ (gamma) diversity
Biodiversity of a geographical region represents– AIPMT (Mains)-2011
The diversity in the organisms living in the region
Benthic organisms are affected most by– NEET (Karnataka)-2013
Sediment characteristics of aquatic ecosystems
Temperature variation in Pacific ocean in present time is called– AIPMT-1998
El Nino effect
Shannon’s index (H) represents– Relative abundance of each species AP EAMCET-2010

Biodiversity Losses
Biodiversity losses is caused by– Climate change RE-NEET (UG)-06.06.2023
(Manipur),
AIPMT (Screening)-2010
Number of wild life is continuously decreasing. The main reason of this– AIPMT-2002
Destruction of habitat
Habitat loss and fragmentation, over exploitation, alien species invasion and co- NEET-2022 / Kerala PMT-
extinction are causes for– Biodiversity loss 2008
The species, which is going to become extinct due to lack of proper care would JIPMER-2005
be called– Endangered
If the high altitude birds become rare or extinct, the plants which may disappear AIIMS-2004
along with them are– Rhododendrons
If the Bengal Tiger becomes extinct– Its gene pool will be lost forever AIIMS-2004 / Haryana PMT-
2004
Most of the endangered species are the victims of– Habitat destruction Karnataka CET-2009
One of endangered species of Indian medicinal plants is that of– Podophyllum AIPMT-2007
In Red Data Book of IUCN, the endangered species are represented on– Red UP CPMT-2014
The most important cause of animals and plants being driven to extinction– NEET-2016, 2019 Phase-I
Habitat loss and fragmentation
According to IUCN red list, the status of red Panda (Ailurus fulgens) is– JIPMER-2007
Endangered species
Recently extinct animal from India is– Acinonyx AIPMT-1999

Conservation of Biodiversity
The first National Park in India is– Jim Corbett National Park TS EAMCET 10.05.2023
Shift-I
Red List contains data or information on– Threatened species NEET-2016 Phase-II
The National Parks that is home to the famous musk deer or hangul– NEET-2016 Phase-II
Dachigam National Park, Jammu and Kashmir
The World Summit on sustainable development held in 2002 in Johannesburg, NEET (Re-Exam)-
South Africa pledged for– 04.09.2022
A significant reduction in the current rate of biodiversity loss

447
The most effective way to conserve the plant diversity of an area– Manipal-2007,
By creating biosphere reserve AIPMT-2004
The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 was called–For conser- NEET-2019
vation of biodiversity and sustainable utilization of its benefits
The UN Conference of Parties on climate change in the year 2011 was held in– AIPMT-2015
South Africa
The UN conference of Parties on climate change in the year 2012 was held at– AIPMT (Re-Exam)-2015
Doha
The organization That publishes the Red List of species is IUCN AIPMT-2014
A species facing extremely high risk of extinction in the immediate future is AIPMT-2014
called– Critically Endangered
Biodiversity Act of India was passed by the Parliament in the year– 2002 AFMC-2009 / JIPMER-2007,
CG PMT-2006 / AIPMT-2005
Keystone species deserve protection because these– AIIMS-2006
Play an important role in supporting other species
For better survival of human Indian population, which is the most important AIIMS-2011
step– Afforestation
MAB stands for– Man and biosphere programme WBJEE-2015 / AIPMT-1997 /
Rajasthan PMT-1995
The breeding place of Flamingo (Hansawar) in India is most likely– AIPMT-1996
Rann of Kutch in Gujrat
The historic convention related to conservation of biological diversity is also Karnataka CET-2019
known as– Earth Summit
Core zone, buffer zone and manipulation zone are found in– JIPMER-2012
Biosphere reserves
Bio-indicators are used for– Oxygen demand, Air pollution, Mineral present JIPMER-2008

In situ Conservation and Ex-situ Conservation

In-situ conservation refers to– Protect and conserve the whole ecosystem NEET-2022

Just as a person moving from Delhi to Shimla to escape the heat for the duration AIPMT-2014
of hot summer, thousands of migratory birds from Siberia and other extremely
cold northern regions move to– Keoladeo National Park
An example of ex-situ conservation is– Seed Bank AIPMT-2014
Ex-situ conservation of threatened animals and plants is related to– NEET-2017
Wildlife Safari parks
Periyar sanctuary is located in– Kerala J&K CET-2009 / JIPMER-
2005
Indian rhinoceros are protected in– Kaziranga National Park Karnataka CET-2010 /
AIPMT (Mains)-
2010,
JIPMER-2008 / Karnataka
CET-2004
Biosphere reserves differ from National Parks and Wildlife sanctuaries because AIIMS-2006
in the former– People are an integral part of the system
One of the ex situ conservation methods for endangered species is– JCECE-2017, 2009 / CMC
Cryopreservation Ludhiana-2009,
AFMC-2008 / AIIMS-2005
Newly formed Biosphere Reserve of India (2013) is– Panna Biosphere Reserve JIPMER-2014
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