400+ EXTRA MCQS

FOR COAL INDIA

Note ; { few mcqs can be repetitive

,kindly ignore them ,also kindly ignore
the question numbering ]

• Q: What is the reported current account deficit (CAD) percentage of GDP in Q2 FY25?
A. 1.0%
B. 1.2%
C. 1.3%
D. 1.5%
Answer: B
Explanation: The capsule notes that India’s current account deficit slightly decreased to
1.2% of GDP in Q2 FY25.

• Q: In Q2 FY25, the absolute CAD in billions of dollars was approximately:

A. $10.5 billion
B. $11.2 billion
C. $11.3 billion
D. $12.0 billion
Answer: B
Explanation: The absolute current account deficit stood at around $11.2 billion in Q2
FY25.

• Q: Which statutory framework empowers RBI to mandate the reporting of gold derivative
transactions?
A. RBI Act, 1935
B. Banking Regulation Act, 1949
C. Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999
D. Both B and C
Answer: D
 Explanation: The guidelines are issued under RBI’s powers under the Banking
Regulation Act, 1949 and the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999.

• Q: Which ministry emphasized the role of PSBs in providing collateral-free loans to boost
rural growth?
A. Ministry of Finance
B. Ministry of Rural Development
C. Ministry of Corporate Affairs
D. Ministry of Commerce
Answer: A
Explanation: Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman highlighted PSBs’ role in offering
collateral-free loans to support rural development.

• Q: Which bank plans to launch an instant MSME loan scheme linked to GST returns?
A. State Bank of India
B. Punjab & Sind Bank
C. Indian Bank
D. IDBI Bank
Answer: B
Explanation: Punjab & Sind Bank is rolling out an instant MSME loan scheme that uses
GST returns to digitally push credit.

• Q: The World Bank approved a development funding package of approximately how much
for Pakistan?
A. $10 billion
B. $15 billion
C. $20 billion
D. $25 billion
Answer: C
Explanation: The World Bank’s indicative lending package for Pakistan is valued at $20
billion over a 10‐year period.

• Q: The Finance Ministry meeting on public grievances included review of how many
grievances?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25
Answer: C
Explanation: In the meeting chaired by Financial Services Secretary M. Nagaraju, 20
randomly selected grievances were reviewed.

• Q: IDBI Bank plans to raise up to how much via long-term bonds for infrastructure and
affordable housing?
A. ₹5,000 crore
B. ₹7,500 crore
C. ₹10,000 crore
D. ₹12,000 crore
Answer: C
 Explanation: IDBI Bank has approved the issuance of long-term bonds to raise up to
₹10,000 crore.

• Q: In December 2024, the banking system experienced a liquidity deficit after easing
which ratio?
A. Statutory Liquidity Ratio
B. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
C. Repo Rate
D. Reverse Repo Rate
Answer: B
Explanation: Despite an infusion through CRR easing, the banking system slipped into a
liquidity deficit.

• Q: By how many basis points was the CRR reduced by RBI in December 2024?
A. 10 basis points
B. 25 basis points
C. 50 basis points in two tranches
D. 75 basis points
Answer: C
Explanation: The CRR was reduced in two equal tranches of 25 basis points each,
totalling 50 basis points.

• Q: Which rule did the MicroFinance Institutions Network extend by three months until
March 2025?
A. Maximum Two-Lenders per Borrower Rule
B. Maximum Three-Lenders per Borrower Rule
C. Minimum Loan Size Rule
D. Maximum Loan Tenure Rule
Answer: B
Explanation: The network extended the compliance deadline for the "maximum three-
lenders per borrower" rule.

• Q: From which date are deposit-taking housing finance companies required to hold liquid
assets equivalent to 14% of deposits?
A. January 1, 2025
B. February 1, 2025
C. March 1, 2025
D. April 1, 2025
Answer: A
Explanation: Effective January 1, 2025, new liquidity requirements require these
companies to hold liquid assets at 14% of deposits.

• Q: What is the emergency withdrawal period for NBFC deposits as per RBI’s new
regulations?
A. 1 month
B. 2 months
C. 3 months
D. 6 months
Answer: C
 Explanation: RBI mandates that NBFCs return the full deposit within three months
during an emergency withdrawal scenario.

• Q: Under what condition can a depositor withdraw 100% of their deposit without interest
from NBFCs?
A. If facing financial hardship
B. If suffering critical illness
C. If relocating abroad
D. If the bank is under audit
Answer: B
Explanation: Depositors with a critical illness, as defined by IRDAI, can withdraw
100% of their deposit without interest.

• Q: NaBFID was allowed to operate as an All-India Financial Institution effective from

which date?
A. January 1, 2025
B. February 1, 2025
C. March 1, 2025
D. April 1, 2025
Answer: A
Explanation: RBI’s circular permitted NaBFID to operate as an AIFI in financial
markets starting January 1, 2025.

• Q: Which digital platform did Federal Bank launch for corporate banking?
A. FedOne
B. BankOne
C. CorpX
D. FinLink
Answer: A
Explanation: Federal Bank introduced FedOne—a digital transaction banking platform
powered by Nucleus Software’s FinnAxia solution.

• Q: SBI introduced a TAB-based digital onboarding process for which customer segment?
A. Retail customers
B. SME clients
C. Non-Resident Indians (NRIs)
D. Senior citizens
Answer: C
Explanation: SBI launched a digital onboarding process using TAB for opening NRE
and NRO accounts for NRIs.

• Q: Indian Bank aims to maintain what net interest margin (NIM) in FY25?
A. 3.0%
B. 3.4%
C. 3.8%
D. 4.0%
Answer: B
Explanation: The target for Indian Bank’s net interest margin in FY25 is set at 3.4%,
with slight variation allowed.
• Q: India’s external debt in September 2024 increased by what percentage compared to
June 2024?
A. 2.5%
B. 3.2%
C. 4.3%
D. 5.0%
Answer: C
Explanation: External debt increased by 4.3% in September 2024 relative to the June
figure.

• Q: What record did UPI transactions achieve in December 2024 in terms of volume?
A. 15.48 billion
B. 16.58 billion
C. 16.73 billion
D. 17.00 billion
Answer: C
Explanation: UPI transactions hit a record of 16.73 billion in December 2024.

• Q: RBI issued guidelines for lenders participating in which government schemes?

A. Housing Subsidy Schemes
B. Debt Relief Schemes (DRS)
C. Credit Guarantee Schemes
D. MSME Development Schemes
Answer: B
Explanation: RBI’s guidelines focused on lenders’ participation in Government Debt
Relief Schemes (DRS).

• Q: What is the theme of this year’s National Voters Day as mentioned in the capsule?
A. “Vote for Change”
B. “Nothing Like Voting, I Vote for Sure”
C. “Every Vote Counts”
D. “Your Voice, Your Vote”
Answer: B
Explanation: The theme for National Voters Day is “Nothing Like Voting, I Vote for
Sure.”

• Q: Which bank’s MD & CEO is Rakesh Sharma?

A. IDBI Bank
B. Punjab & Sind Bank
C. Indian Bank
D. Federal Bank
Answer: A
Explanation: Rakesh Sharma is the MD & CEO of IDBI Bank.

• Q: Which of the following organizations is NOT mentioned in the capsule as part of a

partnership or regulatory update?
A. NPCI
B. SEBI
C. IFSCA
D. IMF
 Answer: D
Explanation: While NPCI, SEBI, and IFSCA are referenced, the IMF is not mentioned
in this capsule.

• Q: Which insurance company partnered with RGA to address women’s health conditions?
A. SBI Life Insurance
B. ICICI Prudential Life Insurance
C. HDFC Life Insurance
D. LIC
Answer: B
Explanation: ICICI Prudential Life Insurance partnered with Reinsurance Group of
America (RGA) for a product targeting women’s health.

• Q: SBI launched two new deposit schemes targeting senior citizens. What are they called?
A. Silver Saver and Golden Years
B. Har Ghar Lakhpati and Patrons
C. Secure Future and Senior Advantage
D. Golden Trust and Elder Plus
Answer: B
Explanation: The new deposit schemes introduced by SBI are “Har Ghar Lakhpati” and
“Patrons.”

• Q: Which bank had restrictions lifted by RBI allowing it to resume loan disbursal?
A. Asirvad Micro Finance
B. Navi Finserv
C. Arohan Financial Services
D. DMI Finance
Answer: C
Explanation: RBI lifted lending restrictions on Arohan Financial Services, enabling it to
resume loan disbursal.

• Q: Which e-auction portal was upgraded and unveiled by the Department of Financial
Services?
A. Baanknet
B. E-Auction Hub
C. Digital Auction Portal
D. BidNow
Answer: A
Explanation: The upgraded e-auction portal unveiled is called ‘Baanknet’.

• Q: SEBI launched free investor education tools on which two platforms?

A. Investor Portal and Mobile App
B. Saarthi App and Investor Website
C. Financial Literacy Portal and eLearning App
D. Trading Portal and Education Hub
Answer: B
Explanation: SEBI’s initiative includes free tools on its investor website and the Saarthi
App.
• Q: Which bank is planning to raise ₹10,000 crore through long-term bonds for
infrastructure projects?
A. IDBI Bank
B. State Bank of India
C. Punjab & Sind Bank
D. Indian Overseas Bank
Answer: A
Explanation: IDBI Bank has approved bond issuance to raise up to ₹10,000 crore for
infrastructure and affordable housing.

• Q: The RBI reduced the CRR in December 2024. Which dates were the tranches
implemented?
A. December 1 and December 15
B. December 14 and December 28
C. December 10 and December 24
D. December 20 and December 30
Answer: B
Explanation: The CRR reduction was implemented in two tranches on December 14 and
December 28, 2024.

• Q: What is the primary purpose of Data Protection Day as observed on January 28?
A. Promote digital literacy
B. Raise awareness about data privacy and protection
C. Encourage online shopping safety
D. Celebrate technological innovations
Answer: B
Explanation: Data Protection Day focuses on educating individuals about data privacy
and the need to safeguard personal information.

• Q: Which institution is credited with purchasing 8 tonnes of gold in November 2024?

A. World Gold Council
B. RBI
C. IMF
D. NPCI
Answer: B
Explanation: The RBI added 8 tonnes of gold to its reserves in November 2024.

• Q: After the November 2024 purchase, what was the total gold holding of the RBI?
A. 850 tonnes
B. 860 tonnes
C. 876 tonnes
D. 900 tonnes
Answer: C
Explanation: With the additional 8 tonnes, the RBI’s total gold holdings increased to
876 tonnes.

• Q: What is the main objective of RBI’s Master Direction on Reporting Customer Credit
Information?
A. Increase lending rates
B. Standardize credit data reporting and ensure its confidentiality
 C. Simplify loan approval processes
D. Encourage digital banking
Answer: B
Explanation: The Master Direction aims to standardize the reporting of credit
information and ensure sensitive data remains confidential.

• Q: Which public transit organization did NPCI partner with to implement RuPay on-the-go
in Chennai?
A. Chennai Metro Rail Limited
B. Chennai Suburban Transport
C. Metropolitan Transport Corporation (MTC)
D. Tamil Nadu State Transport
Answer: C
Explanation: NPCI partnered with Chennai’s Metropolitan Transport Corporation to
integrate RuPay for daily commuters.

• Q: How many proposals did the RBI receive in the third edition of its Global Hackathon,
HaRBInger 2024?
A. 300
B. 450
C. 534
D. 600
Answer: C
Explanation: The hackathon received 534 proposals in total, reflecting strong global
participation.

• Q: Which bank is associated with launching the Trade Receivables Discounting System
(TReDS) platform under the brand DTX?
A. SBI
B. Indian Bank
C. KredX
D. Punjab & Sind Bank
Answer: C
Explanation: KredX obtained RBI approval to launch its TReDS platform, branded as
DTX, for supply chain financing.

• Q: PhonePe introduced exclusive insurance coverage for travelers attending which event in
2025?
A. Diwali Festival
B. Maha Kumbh Mela
C. Republic Day Parade
D. Holi Festival
Answer: B
Explanation: PhonePe launched a special insurance product for visitors to the Maha
Kumbh Mela held in Prayagraj.

• Q: What are the two price variants for PhonePe’s insurance coverage for Maha Kumbh
Mela visitors?
A. ₹49 and ₹89
B. ₹59 and ₹99
 C. ₹69 and ₹109
D. ₹79 and ₹129
Answer: B
Explanation: The insurance is offered at ₹59 for those traveling by train or bus and ₹99
for domestic flight travelers.

• Q: Equitas Small Finance Bank revised savings account interest rates. What is the new rate
for balances between ₹10 lakh to ₹25 lakh?
A. 5.00%
B. 6.50%
C. 7.00%
D. 7.25%
Answer: C
Explanation: For amounts between ₹10 lakh and ₹25 lakh, the new interest rate is set at
7.00%.

• Q: Which organization launched the Bharat Connect platform for B2B payments?
A. RBI
B. NPCI
C. SEBI
D. IFSCA
Answer: B
Explanation: NPCI is rolling out Bharat Connect, formerly known as Bharat BillPay, to
streamline B2B payments.

• Q: Enlighten Angel Fund received approval from which regulatory body to function as an
Alternate Investment Fund?
A. RBI
B. SEBI
C. IFSCA
D. IRDAI
Answer: B
Explanation: SEBI approved Enlighten Angel Fund to operate as an Alternate
Investment Fund.

• Q: By how many tonnes did RBI’s gold purchases for 2024 reach, making it the second-
largest buyer of the year?
A. 50 tonnes
B. 73 tonnes
C. 85 tonnes
D. 100 tonnes
Answer: B
Explanation: RBI’s year-to-date gold purchases for 2024 stood at 73 tonnes.

• Q: SEBI imposed a penalty on Stockholding Services for what amount?

A. ₹5 lakh
B. ₹7 lakh
C. ₹9 lakh
D. ₹11 lakh
Answer: C
 Explanation: SEBI imposed a ₹9 lakh penalty on Stockholding Services for regulatory
breaches.

• Q: RBI’s draft formats for financial statements of co-operative banks are mandated under
which act?
A. RBI Act, 1935
B. Banking Regulation Act, 1949
C. Companies Act, 2013
D. FEMA, 1999
Answer: B
Explanation: The requirement comes under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.

• Q: In the first VRR auction of 2025, banks bid for funds aggregating approximately:
A. ₹50,000 crore
B. ₹70,000 crore
C. ₹92,670 crore
D. ₹100,000 crore
Answer: C
Explanation: Banks bid for funds totaling around ₹92,670 crore in the first VRR auction
of 2025.

• Q: What was the weighted average rate (WAR) in the call money market during the first
VRR auction of 2025?
A. 6.57%
B. 6.65%
C. 6.75%
D. 6.88%
Answer: A
Explanation: The WAR in the call money market was 6.57% at the VRR auction.

• Q: IFSCA’s upcoming regulations target which type of agency in the IFSC?

A. Credit Rating Agencies
B. KYC Registration Agencies (KRAs)
C. Investment Advisory Agencies
D. Asset Reconstruction Agencies
Answer: B
Explanation: IFSCA will release new regulations for KYC Registration Agencies in the
International Financial Services Centre.

• Q: The applicant for IFSC KRA regulations must have a minimum net worth of:
A. $500,000
B. $1 million
C. $2 million
D. $5 million
Answer: B
Explanation: The minimum net worth requirement for an applicant under the new KRA
regulations is $1 million.

• Q: SEBI introduced the Mutual Funds Lite framework to promote which type of fund
schemes?
 A. Actively managed funds
B. Passive mutual fund schemes
C. Index funds
D. Sector-specific funds
Answer: B
Explanation: The Mutual Funds Lite framework is designed to ease compliance for
passively managed mutual fund schemes.

• Q: RBI removed lending restrictions on which two microfinance lenders effective

immediately?
A. Asirvad and Navi Finserv
B. Arohan and DMI Finance
C. Arohan and Asirvad
D. DMI Finance and Navi Finserv
Answer: B
Explanation: RBI lifted restrictions on Asirvad Micro Finance and DMI Finance, as
stated later in the capsule.

• Q: SEBI amended credit rating agency regulations by changing the press release timeline
from calendar days to:
A. 5 working days
B. 7 working days
C. 10 working days
D. 14 working days
Answer: B
Explanation: SEBI now requires CRAs to publish press releases on rating actions within
7 working days.

• Q: Which bank partnered with Tamilnad Mercantile Bank to offer a unified 3-in-1 account
solution?
A. Bajaj Broking
B. Federal Bank
C. Indian Bank
D. SBI Life Insurance
Answer: A
Explanation: Bajaj Broking collaborated with Tamilnad Mercantile Bank for a combined
banking, broking, and investment account.

• Q: Which government department established a 24x7 Control Room to monitor

unaccounted cash during the Delhi Assembly Elections 2025?
A. RBI
B. Ministry of Finance
C. Income Tax Department
D. SEBI
Answer: C
Explanation: The Income Tax Department set up the control room to curb black money
in the election process.

• Q: The meeting chaired by the Department of Financial Services Secretary focused on

discussing issues with which sector?
 A. Micro Finance Institutions (MFIs)
B. Commercial Banks
C. Insurance Companies
D. NBFCs
Answer: A
Explanation: The meeting was held to discuss challenges and exchange ideas with Micro
Finance Institutions.

• Q: NSO’s first advance estimates show a slowdown in real GDP growth from 8.2% in
FY24 to what in FY25?
A. 6.0%
B. 6.4%
C. 7.0%
D. 7.5%
Answer: B
Explanation: Real GDP growth is estimated to slow to 6.4% in FY25, according to
NSO’s first advance estimates.

• Q: The fiscal deficit for FY25 is expected to remain within target due to what kind of GDP
growth?
A. Higher-than-budgeted nominal growth
B. Lower-than-budgeted nominal growth
C. Constant nominal growth
D. Rapid nominal growth
Answer: B
Explanation: The fiscal deficit target is maintained because the nominal GDP growth is
lower-than-budgeted.

• Q: Exim Bank of India raised $1 billion through a bond with a record-low spread for which
rating category?
A. AAA-rated
B. AA-rated
C. A-rated
D. BBB-rated
Answer: D
Explanation: The bond achieved the lowest spread for a BBB-rated issuer in Asia at 100
basis points over US treasuries.

• Q: Which U.S. bank exited the Net-Zero Banking Alliance in the news item?
A. Bank of America
B. Citigroup
C. JPMorgan Chase
D. Goldman Sachs
Answer: C
Explanation: JPMorgan Chase, the largest U.S. bank by assets, exited the Net-Zero
Banking Alliance.

• Q: Effective January 1, 2025, lenders are required to update credit bureau records every
how many days?
A. 7 days
 B. 10 days
C. 15 days
D. 30 days
Answer: C
Explanation: RBI mandates that all lenders update credit bureau records every 15 days
starting January 1, 2025.

• Q: What is the intended objective of the new credit record update rule by RBI?
A. To decrease interest rates
B. To improve the accuracy of borrower credit profiles
C. To limit loan disbursements
D. To increase digital banking transactions
Answer: B
Explanation: Regular updates aim to improve the accuracy and timeliness of credit
profiles and credit score calculations.

• Q: Which bank launched a cybersecurity hackathon with the theme “Code Against
Malware”?
A. State Bank of India
B. Punjab National Bank
C. Bank of Baroda
D. Indian Overseas Bank
Answer: B
Explanation: Punjab National Bank (PNB) launched its first cybersecurity hackathon on
the stated theme.

• Q: In the microfinance sector, what was the percentage increase in delinquency rates year-
on-year as per September 2024 data?
A. Increased from 1% to 3%
B. Increased from 2% to 4.3%
C. Increased from 3% to 5%
D. Increased from 4% to 6%
Answer: B
Explanation: Delinquency rates increased from 2% in the previous year to 4.3% in
September 2024.

• Q: What is the approximate value of unclaimed amounts with life insurance companies at
the start of FY24?
A. ₹15,000 crore
B. ₹18,000 crore
C. ₹22,000 crore
D. ₹25,000 crore
Answer: C
Explanation: The unclaimed amount was nearly ₹22,237 crore at the start of FY24.

• Q: Which bank is selling Rs 11,500 crore worth of non-performing assets (NPAs) to asset
reconstruction companies?
A. SBI
B. Indian Overseas Bank
C. Punjab & Sind Bank
 D. Bank of Baroda
Answer: B
Explanation: Indian Overseas Bank is selling NPAs valued at Rs 11,500 crore to
improve asset quality.

• Q: SEBI Chairperson Madhabi Puri Buch predicted a capital market fundraising increase to
what total in FY2025?
A. ₹10 lakh crore
B. ₹12.5 lakh crore
C. ₹14.7 lakh crore
D. ₹16 lakh crore
Answer: C
Explanation: Fundraising is expected to rise by 21% to ₹14.7 lakh crore in FY2025.

• Q: RBI’s Variable Rate Repo Auctions received a strong response due to a liquidity deficit
of approximately how much?
A. ₹1 lakh crore
B. ₹1.5 lakh crore
C. ₹2 lakh crore
D. ₹2.5 lakh crore
Answer: C
Explanation: The liquidity deficit was reported to be around ₹2 lakh crore.

• Q: SEBI proposed increasing the disclosure threshold for foreign portfolio investors (FPIs)
to what amount?
A. Rs 25,000 crore
B. Rs 40,000 crore
C. Rs 50,000 crore
D. Rs 60,000 crore
Answer: C
Explanation: SEBI suggested raising the threshold to Rs 50,000 crore for FPIs.

• Q: Economists from Standard Chartered Bank expect the RBI to prioritize what over rate
cuts in the next monetary policy?
A. Liquidity management
B. Inflation control
C. Asset quality improvement
D. Export promotion
Answer: A
Explanation: Given tight liquidity conditions, liquidity management is expected to be
prioritized.

• Q: Which bank is set to offer AI-driven customer support and digital payment solutions for
Maha Kumbh 2025?
A. SBI
B. Bank of Baroda
C. Punjab & Sind Bank
D. Indian Bank
Answer: B
 Explanation: Bank of Baroda is establishing AI-driven support and digital solutions in
Prayagraj for Maha Kumbh 2025.

• Q: Suryoday Small Finance Bank collaborated with which company to offer fixed deposit
services?
A. Tata Digital
B. Reliance Digital
C. Amazon Pay
D. Flipkart
Answer: A
Explanation: The bank partnered with Tata Digital to extend its fixed deposit offerings
through the Tata Neu platform.

• Q: Which bank joined forces with Truworth Wellness to launch an enhanced wellness
program for employees?
A. SBI
B. Bank of Baroda
C. HDFC Bank
D. ICICI Bank
Answer: B
Explanation: Bank of Baroda partnered with Truworth Wellness to provide a wellness
program for its employees and their families.

• Q: The government is considering reducing stakes in how many public sector banks
including UCO Bank?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Answer: C
Explanation: The proposal includes reducing stakes in 5 public sector banks, including
UCO Bank.

• Q: Bank of Baroda secured funds via a 10-year infrastructure bond at what coupon rate?
A. 6.50%
B. 7.23%
C. 7.50%
D. 8.00%
Answer: B
Explanation: The infrastructure bond was issued at a coupon rate of 7.23%, as noted in
the capsule.

• Q: Which regulatory authority expanded its sandbox framework to foster innovation in the
insurance sector?
A. RBI
B. SEBI
C. IRDAI
D. IFSCA
Answer: C
Explanation: IRDAI expanded its regulatory sandbox framework
 121. According to the WIPO Report 2022, what rank does India hold among global
patent filing offices?
A. Fourth
B. Fifth
C. Sixth
D. Seventh
Answer: C
Explanation: India ranks sixth among the top 10 patent filing offices.
122. Q: What is the corpus of the Self-Reliant India Fund launched for MSMEs?
A. ₹10,000 crore
B. ₹25,000 crore
C. ₹50,000 crore
D. ₹75,000 crore
Answer: C
Explanation: The Self-Reliant India Fund has a corpus of ₹50,000 crore.
123. Q: What programme is implemented to develop clusters in the MSME sector?
A. Cluster Development Initiative
B. Micro and Small Enterprises–Cluster Development Programme
C. SME Hub Scheme
D. Cluster Growth Mission
Answer: B
Explanation: The programme is called the Micro and Small Enterprises–Cluster
Development Programme.
124. Q: What is the contribution of the services sector to the total GVA in FY25
(first advance estimates)?
A. 50.6%
B. 53.0%
C. 55.3%
D. 57.0%
Answer: C
Explanation: The services sector contributes 55.3% to the total GVA.
125. Q: By what percentage did information and computer-related services increase
their share of overall GVA from FY13 to FY23?
A. From 4.0% to 8.0%
B. From 5.0% to 9.0%
C. From 6.3% to 10.9%
D. From 7.0% to 11.0%
Answer: C
Explanation: Their share increased from 6.3% to 10.9% over the decade.

─────────────────────────────
Agriculture & Food Management

131. Q: What approximate percentage of India’s GDP does the agriculture and
allied activities sector contribute (FY24 PE)?
A. 12%
B. 14%
C. 16%
 D. 18%
Answer: C
Explanation: Agriculture and allied activities contribute approximately 16% of
GDP.
132. Q: What is the expected Kharif foodgrain production for 2024?
A. 1500 LMT
B. 1600 LMT
C. 1647.05 LMT
D. 1700 LMT
Answer: C
Explanation: Expected production is 1647.05 Lakh Metric Tonnes (LMT).
133. Q: By what percentage was the MSP increased for Arhar and Bajra in 2024–
25?
A. 40% and 50%
B. 50% and 60%
C. 59% and 77%
D. 70% and 80%
Answer: C
Explanation: MSP for Arhar and Bajra increased by 59% and 77% respectively.
134. Q: Which agricultural sub-sector has shown the highest CAGR among
agriculture drivers?
A. Horticulture
B. Livestock
C. Fisheries
D. Cereals
Answer: C
Explanation: The fisheries sector has grown at a CAGR of 8.7%.
135. Q: Approximately how many farmers have benefited under PM-KISAN as of
31st October?
A. 5 crore
B. 8 crore
C. 11 crore
D. 15 crore
Answer: C
Explanation: Over 11 crore farmers have benefited under PM-KISAN.
136. Q: Under PM Kisan Mandhan, approximately how many farmers are enrolled?
A. 10 lakh
B. 15 lakh
C. 20 lakh
D. 23.61 lakh
Answer: D
Explanation: Around 23.61 lakh farmers are enrolled under PM Kisan Mandhan.

─────────────────────────────
Climate, Environment & Social Sector

137. Q: As of 30 November 2024, what is the non-fossil fuel capacity installed in

India?
A. 1,50,000 MW
B. 1,80,000 MW
 C. 2,13,701 MW
D. 2,50,000 MW
Answer: C
Explanation: Non-fossil fuel capacity installed is 2,13,701 MW.
138. Q: What percentage of the total capacity does this non-fossil fuel capacity
represent?
A. 40%
B. 46.8%
C. 50%
D. 55%
Answer: B
Explanation: It represents 46.8% of the total installed capacity.
139. Q: According to the Forest Survey of India 2024, how much additional carbon
sink has been created between 2005 and 2024?
A. 1.5 billion tonnes CO₂-e
B. 2.29 billion tonnes CO₂-e
C. 3.0 billion tonnes CO₂-e
D. 3.5 billion tonnes CO₂-e
Answer: B
Explanation: An additional 2.29 billion tonnes CO₂ equivalent has been created.
140. Q: What global movement led by India aims to enhance sustainability efforts?
A. Green India Movement
B. LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment)
C. Sustainable Future Initiative
D. Eco India Mission
Answer: B
Explanation: The Lifestyle for Environment (LiFE) movement aims to boost
sustainability.
141. Q: By 2030, how much global consumer savings are estimated from LiFE
measures?
A. USD 200 billion
B. USD 300 billion
C. USD 440 billion
D. USD 500 billion
Answer: C
Explanation: LiFE measures could save consumers around USD 440 billion
globally.
142. Q: The combined social services expenditure growth (Centre & States)
increased at what CAGR from FY21 to FY25?
A. 10%
B. 12%
C. 15%
D. 18%
Answer: C
Explanation: Social services expenditure increased at a CAGR of 15%.
143. Q: What does a declining Gini coefficient indicate in the context of the report?
A. Increasing inequality
B. Decreasing inequality
C. No change in inequality
D. Fluctuating inequality
 Answer: B
Explanation: A declining Gini coefficient indicates reduced inequality in
consumption expenditure.
144. Q: Under AB PM-JAY, how much savings have been recorded?
A. ₹50,000 crore
B. ₹75,000 crore
C. ₹1.00 lakh crore
D. Over ₹1.25 lakh crore
Answer: D
Explanation: Over ₹1.25 lakh crore in savings have been recorded under AB
PM-JAY.

─────────────────────────────
Employment & Skill Development

145. Q: What is the unemployment rate in 2023–24 (July–June) as per the survey?
A. 3.2%
B. 4.5%
C. 5.5%
D. 6.0%
Answer: A
Explanation: The unemployment rate declined to 3.2% in 2023–24.
146. Q: What percentage of India’s population is in the age group 10–24 years?
A. 20%
B. 26%
C. 30%
D. 35%
Answer: B
Explanation: Around 26% of the population is aged between 10 and 24 years.
147. Q: Which initiative is mentioned as a transformative catalyst for employment
generation?
A. Skill India Mission
B. PM-Internship Scheme
C. Startup India
D. Digital India
Answer: B
Explanation: The PM-Internship Scheme is emerging as a transformative
catalyst.
148. Q: The net payroll additions under EPFO have more than doubled in how
many years?
A. 3 years
B. 4 years
C. 5 years
D. 6 years
Answer: D
Explanation: They have more than doubled in the past six years.

─────────────────────────────
Labour, AI & Future of Work
 149. Q: What is the promise of AI as mentioned in the Labour in the AI Era
section?
A. To replace all jobs
B. To automate a bulk of economically valuable work
C. To slow down productivity
D. To increase manual labor
Answer: B
Explanation: AI promises to automate a significant portion of valuable work.
150. Q: In which fields is AI expected to surpass human performance?
A. Only manufacturing
B. Healthcare, research, criminal justice, education, business, and financial
services
C. Only IT services
D. Only creative arts
Answer: B
Explanation: AI is anticipated to excel in critical decision-making across these
fields.
151. Q: What is meant by “Augmented Intelligence” in the context of the report?
A. Machines working without human help
B. A system where human and machine capabilities are integrated
C. AI replacing human judgment entirely
D. A method to reduce AI applications
Answer: B
Explanation: Augmented Intelligence refers to a synergy between human and
machine capabilities.
152. Q: Who are considered key partners to address adverse societal effects of AI-
driven transformation?
A. Government only
B. Private sector only
C. Academia only
D. Government, private sector, and academia
Answer: D
Explanation: A collaborative effort among all three is necessary.

─────────────────────────────
Republic Day Parade 2025 & Cultural Events

153. Q: Where is the Republic Day Parade 2025 held?

A. Red Fort, Delhi
B. Kartavya Path, Delhi
C. India Gate, Delhi
D. Rashtrapati Bhavan, Delhi
Answer: B
Explanation: The parade is held at Kartavya Path, Delhi.
154. Q: Which contingent won the Judges’ Choice for Best Marching Contingent
among Services?
A. Signals Contingent
B. Jammu & Kashmir Rifles Contingent
C. CRPF Contingent
D. Delhi Police Contingent
 Answer: B
Explanation: The Jammu & Kashmir Rifles Contingent impressed the jury.
155. Q: According to the MyGov Poll, which contingent won the Popular Choice
among Services?
A. Signals Contingent
B. Jammu & Kashmir Rifles Contingent
C. CRPF Contingent
D. Delhi Police Contingent
Answer: A
Explanation: The Signals Contingent was the popular choice in the online poll.
156. Q: Which state’s tableau won the Judges’ Choice for Best Tableaux among
States/UTs?
A. Gujarat
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Tripura
D. Andhra Pradesh
Answer: B
Explanation: Uttar Pradesh’s “Mahakumbh 2025 – Swarnim Bharat: Virasat aur
Vikas” won the judges’ choice.
157. Q: What cultural product was showcased in Andhra Pradesh’s tableau?
A. Silk Sarees
B. Etikoppaka Bommalu (wooden toys)
C. Bidriware
D. Kalamkari paintings
Answer: B
Explanation: Andhra Pradesh’s tableau featured Etikoppaka Bommalu, known
for its eco-friendly wooden toys.
158. Q: Which ministry’s tableau won the Judges’ Choice for Best Tableaux among
Central Ministries/Departments?
A. Ministry of Culture
B. Ministry of Tribal Affairs
C. Ministry of Women & Child Development
D. Ministry of Information
Answer: B
Explanation: The Ministry of Tribal Affairs’ tableau “Janjatiya Gaurav Varsh”
was selected by the judges.
159. Q: Which performance received a special prize for its energetic depiction of
India’s cultural vibrancy?
A. Classical Dance Troupe
B. ‘Jayati Jai Mamah Bharatam’ Dance Group
C. Folk Music Ensemble
D. Theatre Group
Answer: B
Explanation: The ‘Jayati Jai Mamah Bharatam’ Dance Group was recognized
with a special prize.
160. Q: On what date was the first ‘Mann Ki Baat’ of 2025 conducted by PM
Modi?
A. January 15
B. January 18
C. January 20
 D. January 22
Answer: C
Explanation: PM Modi conducted the first ‘Mann Ki Baat’ on January 20, 2025.
161. Q: The first ‘Mann Ki Baat’ of 2025 marked the 75th anniversary of which
significant event?
A. Independence Day
B. Republic Day
C. The Constitution’s coming into force
D. Gandhi Jayanti
Answer: C
Explanation: It marked the 75th anniversary of the Indian Constitution.
162. Q: National Voters’ Day is celebrated on which date?
A. January 20
B. January 22
C. January 25
D. January 26
Answer: C
Explanation: National Voters’ Day is celebrated on January 25 to honor the
establishment of the Election Commission in 1950.

177. What is celebrated as Parakram Diwas?

A. The founding of the Indian National Congress
B. The birth anniversary of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose
C. The birth anniversary of Parakram Singh
D. A day to honor military valor
Answer: D
Explanation: Parakram Diwas is celebrated to honor military valor and is marked
on January 23.

─────────────────────────────
Cabinet Approvals & Agricultural Reforms

179. Q: How many major agricultural schemes were approved by the Union
Cabinet on September 2, 2024?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
Answer: C
Explanation: Seven major agricultural schemes were approved to enhance
farmers’ welfare.
180. Q: What is the total outlay for the approved agricultural schemes?
A. ₹10,000 crore
B. ₹13,966 crore
C. ₹20,000 crore
D. ₹25,000 crore
 Answer: B
Explanation: The total outlay is ₹13,966 crore.
181. Q: Which scheme focuses on establishing Agri Stack, incorporating farmers’
registry and land maps?
A. Digital Agriculture Mission
B. Crop Science for Food & Nutritional Security
C. Strengthening Agricultural Education
D. Sustainable Horticulture Development
Answer: A
Explanation: The Digital Agriculture Mission involves setting up Agri Stack.
182. Q: What is the approved budget for the Crop Science for Food & Nutritional
Security scheme?
A. ₹2,817 crore
B. ₹3,979 crore
C. ₹2,291 crore
D. ₹1,702 crore
Answer: B
Explanation: The Crop Science scheme has an outlay of ₹3,979 crore.
183. Q: Which scheme focuses on strengthening agricultural education and
research?
A. Digital Agriculture Mission
B. Crop Science for Food & Nutritional Security
C. Strengthening Agricultural Education & Research
D. Natural Resource Management
Answer: C
Explanation: This scheme has an outlay of ₹2,291 crore.
184. Q: What is the approved outlay for Sustainable Livestock Health &
Production?
A. ₹1,000 crore
B. ₹1,702 crore
C. ₹2,000 crore
D. ₹2,500 crore
Answer: B
Explanation: The outlay for this scheme is ₹1,702 crore.
185. Q: Under the One-Time Special Package on DAP, what is the subsidy rate per
MT for DAP?
A. ₹2,500 per MT
B. ₹3,000 per MT
C. ₹3,500 per MT
D. ₹4,000 per MT
Answer: C
Explanation: The subsidy rate is maintained at ₹3,500 per MT.
186. Q: How long is the extension for the One-Time Special Package on DAP
approved from January 1, 2025?
A. Until June 2025
B. Until December 31, 2025
C. For 3 years
D. Indefinitely
Answer: B
Explanation: The extension is approved until December 31, 2025.
 187. Q: Which MoU was approved to facilitate trade in Non-Basmati White Rice
with Indonesia?
A. MoU with Thailand
B. MoU with Vietnam
C. MoU with Indonesia
D. MoU with Malaysia
Answer: C
Explanation: A MoU for NBWR trade with Indonesia was approved.
188. Q: What is the duration of the MoU for Non-Basmati White Rice trade with
Indonesia?
A. 2 years
B. 4 years (auto-renewable for another 4 years)
C. 5 years
D. 10 years
Answer: B
Explanation: The agreement lasts 4 years and is auto-renewable for another 4
years.

─────────────────────────────
Space & Defence Approvals

189. Q: Which major space infrastructure project was approved by the Cabinet for
Sriharikota?
A. Second Launch Pad
B. Third Launch Pad (TLP)
C. Space Station Expansion
D. Lunar Base Facility
Answer: B
Explanation: The Cabinet approved the establishment of a Third Launch Pad at
Sriharikota.
190. Q: What is the estimated total cost for establishing the Third Launch Pad?
A. ₹2,500 crore
B. ₹3,500 crore
C. ₹3,984.86 crore
D. ₹4,500 crore
Answer: C
Explanation: The total cost is estimated at ₹3,984.86 crore.
191. Q: What is one of the objectives of establishing the Third Launch Pad?
A. To serve as a commercial spaceport
B. To support Next Generation Launch Vehicles (NGLV)
C. To develop interplanetary travel exclusively
D. To launch satellites only
Answer: B
Explanation: It is intended to support NGLV and enhance India’s space
exploration capabilities.

─────────────────────────────
Miscellaneous & Final Takeaways
192. Q: Which websites and app are repeatedly referenced as sources in the current
affairs review?
A. bankersadda.com, sscadda.com, careerpower.in, and Adda247 App
B. timesofindia.com, hindustantimes.com, and NDTV
C. economictimes.com, moneycontrol.com, and livemint
D. indiabudget.gov.in and isro.gov.in
Answer: A
Explanation: The review repeatedly cites bankersadda.com, sscadda.com,
careerpower.in, and the Adda247 App.
193. Q: What is the primary focus of the “Rupee Comes From” section in the
budget review?
A. Sources of government revenue
B. Government expenditure details
C. Private sector investments
D. Export growth
Answer: A
Explanation: It outlines the various sources of government revenue.
194. Q: In the “Rupee Goes To” section, which category receives the largest share?
A. Defence
B. Interest Payments
C. Central Sector Schemes (excluding Defence & Major Subsidies)
D. Pensions
Answer: B
Explanation: Interest Payments receive the largest share in expenditure.
195. Q: What mechanism has been created to facilitate private sector participation
in infrastructure?
A. Public-Private Partnership
B. National Monetisation Pipeline
C. Infrastructure Development Board
D. Special Economic Zones
Answer: B
Explanation: The National Monetisation Pipeline is designed for this purpose.
196. Q: Which new measure in international taxation aims to reduce litigation and
provide certainty?
A. Safe Harbour Rules expansion
B. Increased tax rates
C. Double taxation treaties
D. Tax holiday incentives
Answer: A
Explanation: The expansion of safe harbour rules is intended to reduce litigation.
197. Q: Under the revised TDS/TCS provisions, higher TDS deduction applies only
in which cases?
A. PAN cases
B. Non-PAN cases
C. All cases
D. Foreign remittance cases
Answer: B
Explanation: The higher TDS deduction applies only in non-PAN cases.
198. Q: What is one objective of the “Jan Vishwas Bill 2.0” mentioned in the
reforms section?
 A. To increase the number of criminal provisions
B. To decriminalize over 100 provisions in various laws
C. To introduce new tax measures
D. To amend the constitution
Answer: B
Explanation: The Jan Vishwas Bill 2.0 aims to decriminalize more than 100
provisions.
199. Q: Which scheme in the education section aims to provide digital connectivity
to rural secondary schools and PHCs?
A. Digital Bharat Mission
B. Bharatnet Project
C. e-School Connectivity Initiative
D. Rural Connect Scheme
Answer: B
Explanation: The Bharatnet project is focused on providing broadband
connectivity to rural schools and PHCs.
200. Q: What overall theme ties together the government’s various initiatives and
reforms as highlighted in the January 2025 review?
A. Privatization of public sectors
B. Comprehensive development through inclusive, sustainable, and innovation-
driven growth
C. Reduction of government expenditure
D. Increasing import dependence
Answer: B
Explanation: The overarching theme is to drive comprehensive development that
is inclusive, sustainable, and innovation-led, as seen across agriculture, infrastructure,
innovation, and reforms.

Which committee will review the new Income Tax Bill after its introduction in Parliament?
A. The Public Accounts Committee
B. The Standing Committee on Finance
C. The Committee on Public Undertakings
D. The Estimates Committee
Answer: B
Explanation: The Standing Committee on Finance will review the bill and suggest
modifications before final approval.

Q: What is the intended benefit of the new Income Tax Bill for investors?
A. Increased interest rates
B. Greater tax certainty
C. Higher tax incentives
D. Reduced corporate taxes
Answer: B
Explanation: The bill’s clarity and reduced ambiguities are expected to offer greater tax
certainty, thereby encouraging investment.
Q: Which body is responsible for monitoring and recommending actions for sanitation
workers in India?
A. National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK)
B. Ministry of Urban Development
C. National Rural Employment Guarantee Authority
D. Indian Railways Welfare Board
Answer: A
Explanation: The NCSK focuses on the welfare and rights of sanitation workers and
recommends measures for their upliftment.

Q: For how many years has the tenure of the National Commission for Safai Karamcharis
been extended?
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 5 years
Answer: C
Explanation: The Cabinet has extended the NCSK’s tenure for three additional years beyond
March 31, 2025.

Q: What is the approximate financial outlay for the extension of NCSK’s tenure?
A. ₹25 crore
B. ₹50.91 crore
C. ₹75 crore
D. ₹100 crore
Answer: B
Explanation: The extension comes with a financial implication of approximately ₹50.91 crore
for three years.

Q: Which programme’s tenure has been extended and restructured under the Skill India
Programme until 2026?
A. Digital India
B. Make in India
C. Skill India Programme (SIP)
D. Startup India
Answer: C
Explanation: The Skill India Programme has been extended and restructured with an outlay
of ₹8,800 crore until 2026 to build a future-ready workforce.

Q: What is the primary focus of PM Kaushal Vikas Yojana 4.0 under the Skill India
Programme?
A. Long-term university education
B. Short-term, NSQF-aligned training and upskilling
C. Direct job placement in government jobs
D. Infrastructure development
Answer: B
Explanation: PMKVY 4.0 focuses on providing short-term, industry-aligned training that
meets emerging technological demands.
Q: Which initiative under the Skill India Programme provides a stipend of ₹1,500 per month?
A. PMKVY 4.0
B. PM-NAPS
C. Jan Shikshan Sansthan
D. Stand-Up India
Answer: B
Explanation: The PM National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme (PM-NAPS) offers a 25%
stipend amounting to ₹1,500 per month to apprentices.

Q: Which state launched ‘Mana Mitra’, a WhatsApp Governance initiative, to make civil
services accessible?
A. Kerala
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Gujarat
D. Rajasthan
Answer: B
Explanation: The Andhra Pradesh government launched ‘Mana Mitra’ in Amaravati to
deliver government services via WhatsApp.

Q: Which state observes its Foundation Day on February 20 to mark its transition to
statehood in 1987?
A. Mizoram
B. Arunachal Pradesh
C. Jharkhand
D. Odisha
Answer: B
Explanation: Arunachal Pradesh Foundation Day is celebrated on February 20,
commemorating its transition to statehood.

Q: Assam is set to host the world’s largest Jhumur dance performance on February 24, 2025.
What is the target number of dancers?
A. 5,000
B. 6,500
C. 7,500
D. 8,000
Answer: C
Explanation: Assam aims to break the Guinness World Record with over 7,500 dancers as
part of the Advantage Assam 2.0 Investment Summit.

Q: Which state appointed a panel led by retired Supreme Court judge Ranjana Desai to draft
a Uniform Civil Code?
A. Punjab
B. Gujarat
C. Haryana
D. Maharashtra
Answer: B
Explanation: Gujarat appointed a panel led by Ranjana Desai to draft a report on
implementing a Uniform Civil Code in the state.
Which state topped the 2024 Local Governance Performance Index for local body
management and transparency?
A. Kerala
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Karnataka
D. Tamil Nadu
Answer: C
Explanation: Karnataka topped the index due to its excellence in local governance, finances,
and accountability.

Q: Which state approved the Kerala Health System Improvement Programme with World
Bank support?
A. Tamil Nadu
B. Maharashtra
C. Kerala
D. Andhra Pradesh
Answer: C
Explanation: Kerala approved the KHSIP to strengthen its healthcare infrastructure with
financial aid from the World Bank.

Q: What initiative did Kerala launch on February 22, 2025, for the systematic disposal of
expired medicines?
A. e-Pharma Disposal
B. nPROUD
C. SafeMed
D. PharmaClean
Answer: B
Explanation: The nPROUD initiative in Kerala focuses on scientifically collecting and
disposing of expired and unused medicines.

Q: Which innovative eye screening initiative was launched in Kerala using artificial
intelligence?
A. Vision 2025
B. EyeSmart
C. Nayanamritham 2.0
D. ClearVision
Answer: C
Explanation: Nayanamritham 2.0 is an AI-driven eye screening initiative for early detection
of chronic eye diseases.

Q: Who resigned as the Chief Minister of Manipur on February 9, 2025, amid escalating
ethnic violence?
A. N. Biren Singh
B. Okram Ibobi Singh
C. N. Biren Devi
D. Oinam Lukhoi
Answer: A
Explanation: Chief Minister N. Biren Singh resigned amid rising ethnic tensions and political
pressure in Manipur.

Q: What constitutional provision was invoked to impose President’s Rule in Manipur

following the CM’s resignation?
A. Article 352
B. Article 356
C. Article 360
D. Article 370
Answer: B
Explanation: President’s Rule was imposed under Article 356, which allows central
intervention when constitutional machinery fails.

Q: Which district in Madhya Pradesh will host India’s first white tiger breeding centre?
A. Indore
B. Bhopal
C. Rewa
D. Gwalior
Answer: C
Explanation: Rewa district in Madhya Pradesh is set to host the white tiger breeding centre to
boost wildlife tourism and conservation.

Q: What policy did Madhya Pradesh introduce to attract multinational corporations to Tier-2
cities?
A. Investment Facilitation Policy
B. Global Capability Centers (GCC) Policy 2025
C. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) Scheme
D. Industrial Corridor Policy
Answer: B
Explanation: Madhya Pradesh introduced its first GCC Policy 2025 to transform cities like
Indore and Bhopal into global operational hubs.

Q: What is the focus of the NAKSHA pilot program launched in Madhya Pradesh?
A. Enhancing rural healthcare
B. Modernizing urban land surveys
C. Promoting digital literacy
D. Upgrading railway infrastructure
Answer: B
Explanation: The NAKSHA pilot program focuses on modernizing urban land surveys to
improve land record accuracy and reduce disputes.

Q: Which state celebrates its Foundation Day on February 20 as the 23rd state of India?
A. Mizoram
B. Arunachal Pradesh
C. Manipur
D. Meghalaya
Answer: A
Explanation: Mizoram Foundation Day is celebrated on February 20, marking its statehood
and transformation from an autonomous council.
Q: Which company has partnered with Casale to develop a green ammonia plant in Odisha?
A. Tata Steel
B. Avaada Group
C. Reliance Industries
D. Adani Group
Answer: B
Explanation: Avaada Group has partnered with Casale to develop a green ammonia plant in
Gopalpur, Odisha, aiming for carbon-free production.

Q: Who presented the 2025-26 state budget in Odisha with an expenditure of ₹2.90 lakh
crore?
A. Chief Minister Naveen Patnaik
B. Chief Minister Mohan Charan Majhi
C. Finance Minister of Odisha
D. Governor of Odisha
Answer: B
Explanation: The Odisha Chief Minister Mohan Charan Majhi presented the state budget
focusing on agriculture, irrigation, and rural development.

Q: Which app was launched in Rajasthan to streamline the MNREGA process?

A. MNREGA Connect
B. MY NREGA App
C. Rural Jobs App
D. Gram Seva
Answer: B
Explanation: The ‘MY NREGA App’ was launched in Barmer District to simplify job
applications under MNREGA.

Q: What notable renaming did the Rajasthan government implement in Ajmer?

A. Renaming a historic fort
B. Renaming Foy Sagar Lake to Varun Sagar
C. Renaming a government college
D. Renaming a railway station
Answer: B
Explanation: Foy Sagar Lake was renamed Varun Sagar as part of efforts to replace colonial-
era names with indigenous ones.

Q: Which state presented its first-ever Green Budget for 2025-26?

A. Kerala
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Rajasthan
D. Gujarat
Answer: C
Explanation: Rajasthan presented its inaugural Green Budget focusing on electricity, roads,
water, and sustainable development.

Q: Which art exhibition was held in Hyderabad, exploring themes of identity and
displacement?
A. Topographies of Tents, Terracotta, and Time
B. Art of Hyderabad
C. Global Canvas
D. Identity Unveiled
Answer: A
Explanation: The Srishti Art Gallery and Goethe-Zentrum Hyderabad collaborated on
“Topographies of Tents, Terracotta, and Time.”

Q: What innovative digital platform did the RBI launch to provide access to over 11,000
economic data series?
A. RBI Data Hub
B. DBIE Mobile
C. RBIDATA
D. Economic Insights App
Answer: C
Explanation: RBIDATA is the RBI’s mobile app that offers structured access to extensive
economic data.

Q: Which fintech company partnered with Yes Bank to launch an AI-powered super app for
personal finance management?
A. FinTechX
B. Jumpp
C. PayEase
D. MoneyMate
Answer: B
Explanation: Jumpp, launched by Finvasia in partnership with Yes Bank, is an AI-powered
app aimed at simplifying personal finance management.

Q: The Indian Embassy in the DRC issued an urgent advisory for Indians in which city?
A. Kinshasa
B. Lubumbashi
C. Bukavu
D. Goma
Answer: C
Explanation: Indians in Bukavu were advised to evacuate due to escalating violence from
rebel forces in the DRC.

Q: Which U.S. President signed an executive order imposing tariffs on imports from Mexico,
Canada, and China?
A. Barack Obama
B. Joe Biden
C. Donald Trump
D. George W. Bush
Answer: C
Explanation: Donald Trump signed the order aimed at addressing illegal immigration and
fentanyl trafficking, among other issues.

Which pilot program, launched by Union Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan in Madhya
Pradesh, aims to modernize urban land surveys?
A. Digital Land Initiative
B. NAKSHA pilot program
C. Urban Mapping Project
D. Land Records Modernization Scheme
Answer: B
Explanation: The NAKSHA pilot program, launched in Raisen district, aims to enhance land
record accuracy and reduce urban land disputes.

What does the e-NAM platform primarily facilitate?

A. Agricultural loans
B. Price discovery and market access for agricultural produce
C. Digital education for farmers
D. Soil health analysis
Answer: B
Explanation: e-NAM connects farmers directly with buyers, ensuring transparent pricing and
improved market access for agricultural produce.

Which package supports farmers through mechanisms like the Price Support Scheme and
Price Deficit Payment Scheme?
A. PM-KISAN
B. PM-AASHA
C. Crop Insurance Scheme
D. Farmer Welfare Programme
Answer: B
Explanation: PM-AASHA integrates measures such as the Price Support Scheme, Price
Stabilization Fund, and Price Deficit Payment Scheme to ensure fair incomes for farmers.

What risk does the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) primarily cover?
A. Market fluctuations
B. Natural disasters, pests, and diseases affecting crops
C. Rising input costs
D. Labor shortages
Answer: B
Explanation: PMFBY provides crop insurance to protect farmers from losses caused by
natural disasters, pests, and diseases affecting crops.

Which state in Odisha actively implements the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) scheme?
A. Odisha
B. Gujarat
C. Maharashtra
D. Karnataka
Answer: A
Explanation: Odisha actively implements BBBP initiatives to address gender imbalance,
empower girls, and improve the child sex ratio.

Which package supports farmers through mechanisms like the Price Support Scheme, Price
Stabilization Fund, and Price Deficit Payment Scheme?
A. PM-KISAN
B. PM-AASHA
C. Crop Insurance Scheme
D. Farmer Welfare Programme
Answer: B
Explanation: PM-AASHA is designed to stabilize farmers’ incomes by integrating various
mechanisms that ensure fair prices and mitigate losses.

What risk does the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) primarily cover?
A. Market volatility
B. Natural disasters, pests, and diseases affecting crops
C. Rising input costs
D. Labor shortages
Answer: B
Explanation: PMFBY provides crop insurance that protects farmers from losses due to
natural disasters, pests, and diseases affecting crops.

Which international bank was established in 1944, is headquartered in Washington, D.C., and
has its President as Ajay Banga?
A. International Monetary Fund
B. World Bank
C. Japan Bank for International Cooperation
D. National Housing Bank
Answer: B
Explanation: The World Bank was established in 1944, is headquartered in Washington, D.C.
(USA), and its President is Ajay Banga.

Which bank, headquartered in Jaipur, Rajasthan and established in 1996, is known by the
tagline “Chalo Aage Badhe”?
A. AU Small Finance Bank
B. Indian Bank
C. State Bank of India
D. Yes Bank Limited
Answer: A
Explanation: AU Small Finance Bank is based in Jaipur, was established in 1996, and its
tagline is “Chalo Aage Badhe.”

Which bank, headquartered in Pune, Maharashtra and established in 1906, uses the slogan
“Say I’M banking and mean it!”?
A. Cosmos Co-operative Bank Limited
B. DBS Bank India Limited
C. Punjab National Bank
D. Federal Bank
Answer: A
Explanation: Cosmos Co-operative Bank Limited is headquartered in Pune, established in
1906, and uses the slogan “Say I’M banking and mean it!”
Which bank is headquartered in Mumbai, Maharashtra, was established in 1964, and uses the
tagline “Bank Aisa Dost Jaisa”?
A. Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI)
B. Indian Bank
C. State Bank of India
D. Yes Bank Limited
Answer: A
Explanation: IDBI was established in 1964 in Mumbai and is known for its tagline “Bank
Aisa Dost Jaisa.”

Which bank, headquartered in Mumbai and established in 2018, is led by MD & CEO V.
Vaidyanathan and uses the tagline “Always You First”?
A. Indian Bank
B. IDFC FIRST Bank Limited
C. Federal Bank
D. DBS Bank India Limited
Answer: B
Explanation: IDFC FIRST Bank Limited is based in Mumbai, established in 2018, and its
MD & CEO is V. Vaidyanathan with the tagline “Always You First.”

Which bank is headquartered in Chennai, Tamil Nadu, established in 1907, and uses the
slogan “Your own bank”?
A. Indian Bank
B. Tamilnad Mercantile Bank Limited
C. Punjab National Bank
D. AU Small Finance Bank
Answer: A
Explanation: Indian Bank, headquartered in Chennai and established in 1907, uses the slogan
“Your own bank.”

Which international bank is headquartered in Tokyo, Japan, was founded in 1999, and is led
by CEO Tadashi Maeda?
A. Japan Bank for International Cooperation (JBIC)
B. World Bank
C. Federal Bank
D. National Housing Bank
Answer: A
Explanation: JBIC is headquartered in Tokyo, was founded in 1999, and its President & CEO
is Tadashi Maeda.

Which bank, established in 1988 and headquartered in New Delhi, is the apex institution for
housing finance in India?
A. National Housing Bank (NHB)
B. State Bank of India
C. Punjab National Bank
D. Yes Bank Limited
Answer: A
Explanation: The National Housing Bank (NHB) was founded in 1988, is based in New
Delhi, and functions as the apex regulator for housing finance.
Which bank, headquartered in New Delhi and established in 1894, is known by the tagline
“The Name You Can Bank Upon”?
A. State Bank of India
B. Punjab National Bank
C. Indian Bank
D. Yes Bank Limited
Answer: B
Explanation: Punjab National Bank, established in 1894 and headquartered in New Delhi,
uses the tagline “The Name You Can Bank Upon.”

Which bank, headquartered in Mumbai and established on July 1, 1955, is the largest public
sector bank in India with the tagline “Pure Banking, Nothing Else”?
A. State Bank of India
B. Indian Bank
C. Punjab National Bank
D. Yes Bank Limited
Answer: A
Explanation: State Bank of India (SBI) was established on July 1, 1955, in Mumbai and is
known as the largest public sector bank with the tagline “Pure Banking, Nothing Else.”

Which bank, headquartered in Thoothukudi, Tamil Nadu and established in 1921, is known
for the slogan “Bank Aisa Dost Jaisa”?
A. Tamilnad Mercantile Bank (TMB) Limited
B. Indian Bank
C. Punjab National Bank
D. Yes Bank Limited
Answer: A
Explanation: Tamilnad Mercantile Bank Limited is based in Thoothukudi, was established in
1921, and uses the slogan “Bank Aisa Dost Jaisa.”

Which bank, headquartered in Mumbai and established in 2004, is currently led by MD &
CEO Prashant Kumar?
A. Yes Bank Limited
B. Federal Bank
C. IDBI Bank
D. DBS Bank India Limited
Answer: A
Explanation: Yes Bank Limited, based in Mumbai and established in 2004, is led by MD &
CEO Prashant Kumar.

Which abbreviation represents “Return on Equity”?

A. RoA
B. CRAR
C. RoE
D. NSE
Answer: C
Explanation: RoE stands for Return on Equity, a key profitability ratio in banking.

What does CRAR stand for in banking terms?

A. Credit Ratio
B. Capital to Risk-Weighted Assets Ratio
C. Cash Reserve Allocation Ratio
D. Current Ratio
Answer: B
Explanation: CRAR is the Capital to Risk-Weighted Assets Ratio, an important measure of a
bank’s financial stability.

What does NSDL stand for?

A. National Stock Delivery Line
B. National Securities Depository Limited
C. National Savings Deposit Ledger
D. National Service and Development Loan
Answer: B
Explanation: NSDL stands for National Securities Depository Limited, a major depository in
India.

What is the full form of CDSL in the context of banking?

A. Central Depository Services Limited
B. Corporate Depository and Settlement Limited
C. Centralized Data Service Limited
D. Commercial Depository Systems Limited
Answer: A
Explanation: CDSL stands for Central Depository Services Limited, which is responsible for
holding securities in electronic form.

Which abbreviation represents “Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account”?

A. BSBDA
B. CMA
C. CCA
D. NSDL
Answer: A
Explanation: BSBDA stands for Basic Savings Bank Deposit Account, an account type in
India for small savings.

What does CCA stand for in banking?

A. Cash Credit Account
B. Credit Collection Account
C. Current Checking Account
D. Cashier’s Clearing Account
Answer: A
Explanation: CCA stands for Cash Credit Account, a type of short-term loan account used by
businesses.

What does CMA represent in banking?

A. Cash Management Account
B. Credit Monitoring Agency
C. Current Money Allocation
D. Capital Market Analysis
Answer: A
Explanation: CMA stands for Cash Management Account, used for managing liquid funds.
Which abbreviation stands for National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and Development?
A. NaBFID
B. NSDL
C. CRAR
D. BSBDA
Answer: A
Explanation: NaBFID stands for National Bank for Financing Infrastructure and
Development, a specialized bank in India.

Which abbreviation represents Trade Receivables Discounting System?

A. TReDS
B. CDSL
C. NSDL
D. CRAR
Answer: A
Explanation: TReDS stands for Trade Receivables Discounting System, an electronic
platform for facilitating trade receivables finance.

Which organization is known as the apex regulator for housing finance in India?
A. RBI
B. National Housing Bank (NHB)
C. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
D. Ministry of Finance
Answer: B
Explanation: The National Housing Bank (NHB) is the apex regulator for housing finance in
India.

Which bank is often referred to as “Your Perfect Banking Partner”?

A. Federal Bank
B. DBS Bank India Limited
C. Indian Bank
D. Yes Bank Limited
Answer: B
Explanation: DBS Bank India Limited uses the tagline “Your Perfect Banking Partner” and is
known for its customer-centric approach.

Which bank is associated with the tagline “Always You First”?

A. IDFC FIRST Bank Limited
B. Punjab National Bank
C. State Bank of India
D. AU Small Finance Bank
Answer: A
Explanation: IDFC FIRST Bank Limited is known by the tagline “Always You First.”

Which bank’s tagline is “Pure Banking, Nothing Else”?

A. Punjab National Bank
B. State Bank of India
C. Indian Bank
D. Yes Bank Limited
Answer: B
Explanation: State Bank of India uses the tagline “Pure Banking, Nothing Else” to emphasize
its core banking services.

Which bank is referred to as “Your own bank”?

A. Indian Bank
B. DBS Bank India Limited
C. AU Small Finance Bank
D. Federal Bank
Answer: A
Explanation: Indian Bank is known by the slogan “Your own bank” due to its focus on
customer-centric services.

Which bank is known for its cooperative structure and was established in 1906 in Pune?
A. Cosmos Co-operative Bank Limited
B. AU Small Finance Bank
C. Indian Bank
D. Yes Bank Limited
Answer: A
Explanation: Cosmos Co-operative Bank Limited was established in 1906 in Pune and is one
of the oldest cooperative banks.

Which organization, headquartered in Mumbai, is a major industry body representing Indian

banks?
A. Indian Banks Association (IBA)
B. National Stock Exchange (NSE)
C. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
D. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
Answer: A
Explanation: The Indian Banks Association (IBA) is headquartered in Mumbai and represents
the interests of Indian banks.

Which ministry is responsible for overseeing the Banking, Financial Services, and Insurance
(BFSI) sector in India?
A. Ministry of Finance
B. Department of Financial Services (DFS)
C. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
D. Ministry of Home Affairs
Answer: B
Explanation: The Department of Financial Services (DFS), under the Ministry of Finance, is
the nodal agency for the BFSI sector in India.

Which organization headquartered in New Delhi is known for its role in combating money
laundering in India?
A. National Securities Depository Limited (NSDL)
B. Financial Intelligence Unit – India (FIU-IND)
C. Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)
D. Competition Commission of India (CCI)
Answer: B
Explanation: The Financial Intelligence Unit – India (FIU-IND) is responsible for tracking
and preventing money laundering activities in India.
Which organization is the nodal agency for the functioning of the National Payments
Corporation of India (NPCI)?
A. RBI
B. Ministry of Finance
C. NPCI itself operates as an umbrella organization for retail payments
D. Indian Banks Association (IBA)
Answer: C
Explanation: The NPCI is an umbrella organization for operating retail payment systems in
India and is not directly controlled by another ministry.

Which organization is responsible for rating banks and other financial instruments in India?
A. CRISIL Ratings Limited
B. National Housing Bank
C. RBI
D. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
Answer: A
Explanation: CRISIL Ratings Limited is one of the major rating agencies that assess banks
and financial instruments in India.

Which organization regulates the securities markets in India?

A. RBI
B. SEBI
C. Ministry of Finance
D. IBA
Answer: B
Explanation: The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) regulates the securities and
commodity markets in India.

Which organization is known for its global ranking of universities and research institutions
and is headquartered in London?
A. World Economic Forum (WEF)
B. Times Higher Education (THE)
C. UNCTAD
D. UNESCO
Answer: B
Explanation: Times Higher Education (THE) is a UK-based organization known for ranking
global universities and research institutions.

Which organization is dedicated to promoting global sustainability and responsible business

practices and is headquartered in Montreal?
A. UN Global Compact
B. World Customs Organization (WCO)
C. Airports Council International (ACI)
D. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
Answer: C
Explanation: Airports Council International (ACI) is headquartered in Montreal and works
with airports worldwide to promote sustainable practices.

Which organization, founded in 1919 and headquartered in Geneva, is a major

intergovernmental body representing labor interests worldwide?
A. International Labour Organization (ILO)
B. UNESCO
C. UNICEF
D. WHO
Answer: A
Explanation: The International Labour Organization (ILO) was established in 1919, is based
in Geneva, and focuses on promoting workers’ rights globally.

Which organization, headquartered in New York, is a prominent international humanitarian

agency focused on children’s welfare?
A. UNICEF
B. UNESCO
C. WHO
D. UNHCR
Answer: A
Explanation: UNICEF, headquartered in New York, is dedicated to promoting children’s
rights and welfare around the world.

Which organization, established in 1945 and headquartered in New York, is the premier
international organization for peace and security?
A. UNESCO
B. United Nations (UN)
C. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
D. World Bank
Answer: B
Explanation: The United Nations (UN) was established in 1945 and plays a central role in
promoting global peace and security.

Which ministry in India is responsible for formulating and implementing policies related to
banking and finance?
A. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
B. Ministry of Finance
C. Ministry of Home Affairs
D. Ministry of External Affairs
Answer: B
Explanation: The Ministry of Finance is responsible for policy formulation and regulation in
the banking and finance sector in India.

Which ministry in India oversees public distribution, food, and consumer affairs?
A. Ministry of Agriculture
B. Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution
C. Ministry of Commerce
D. Ministry of Rural Development
Answer: B
Explanation: The Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution is tasked with
the oversight of public distribution systems and consumer affairs.

Which ministry in India is responsible for overseeing road transport and highways?
A. Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH)
B. Ministry of Urban Development
C. Ministry of Railways
D. Ministry of Heavy Industries
Answer: A
Explanation: The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) governs policies
related to road infrastructure and transportation.

Which ministry is responsible for the formulation of policies related to youth affairs and
sports in India?
A. Ministry of Education
B. Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports (MYAS)
C. Ministry of Labour
D. Ministry of Home Affairs
Answer: B
Explanation: The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports (MYAS) is responsible for policies
that promote sports and youth development.

Which ministry is charged with the responsibility for the national space program in India?
A. Ministry of Earth Sciences
B. Ministry of New & Renewable Energy
C. Department of Space, under the Ministry of Science & Technology
D. Ministry of Defence
Answer: C
Explanation: The Department of Space, which operates under the Ministry of Science &
Technology, is responsible for India’s space program.

Which organization in India, headquartered in Bengaluru and established in 1969, is one of

the world’s largest space agencies?
A. ISRO (Indian Space Research Organisation)
B. DRDO
C. NASAL
D. IAF
Answer: A
Explanation: ISRO, based in Bengaluru and established in 1969, is among the largest space
agencies globally.

Which organization in India, headquartered in New Delhi, is responsible for conducting free
and fair elections in the country?
A. Election Commission of India (ECI)
B. National Human Rights Commission
C. Ministry of Home Affairs
D. Indian Banks Association
Answer: A
Explanation: The Election Commission of India (ECI) oversees the conduct of free and fair
elections in India.

Which organization in India, headquartered in New Delhi and established in 1950, is

responsible for monitoring cybercrimes?
A. National Cyber Security Coordinator
B. National Cybercrime Reporting Portal (NCRP)
C. Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)
D. Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU-IND)
Answer: B
Explanation: The National Cybercrime Reporting Portal (NCRP) is the platform designated
for reporting cybercrimes in India.

Which organization, headquartered in New Delhi, is responsible for the development and
regulation of civil aviation in India?
A. Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA)
B. Airports Authority of India (AAI)
C. Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS)
D. Ministry of Civil Aviation
Answer: A
Explanation: The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is responsible for regulating
and overseeing civil aviation in India.

Which organization, headquartered in Mumbai and established in 1934, is one of India’s

oldest shipbuilding companies?
A. Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL)
B. Goa Shipyard Limited
C. Hindustan Shipyard Limited
D. Cochin Shipyard
Answer: A
Explanation: Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL), established in 1934 in Mumbai, is
one of India’s oldest and most reputable shipbuilding companies.

Which organization, headquartered in New Delhi and established in 2003, is responsible for
enforcing competition law in India?
A. Competition Commission of India (CCI)
B. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
C. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
D. National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)
Answer: A
Explanation: The Competition Commission of India (CCI) was established in 2003 to
promote fair competition in the market.

Which organization, headquartered in New Delhi, is responsible for the Unique Identification
Authority of India (UIDAI)?
A. Ministry of Home Affairs
B. UIDAI itself is the statutory authority
C. Ministry of Finance
D. Central Board of Direct Taxes
Answer: B
Explanation: UIDAI is the statutory body responsible for issuing Aadhaar numbers in India
and is headquartered in New Delhi.

Which organization, headquartered in Mumbai, is a major asset management company

established in 2008?
A. WhiteOak Capital Mutual Fund
B. Groww Asset Management Limited
C. Tata AIG General Insurance Company
D. Paytm
Answer: B
Explanation: Groww Asset Management Limited, headquartered in Mumbai and established
in 2008, is a prominent asset management company.

Which organization, headquartered in New Delhi and established in 2016, deals with
insolvency and bankruptcy matters in India?
A. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI)
B. Competition Commission of India (CCI)
C. National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)
D. Ministry of Finance
Answer: A
Explanation: The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) was established in 2016
to oversee the insolvency process in the country.

Which organization, headquartered in New Delhi, is responsible for providing rating services
for banks and other financial instruments?
A. CRISIL Ratings Limited
B. National Housing Bank
C. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
D. Indian Banks Association (IBA)
Answer: A
Explanation: CRISIL Ratings Limited, based in Mumbai (but widely used in banking exams),
is a leading agency that rates banks and financial instruments.

Which organization, headquartered in New Delhi, is responsible for monitoring foreign trade
and is led by a Director General?
A. Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT)
B. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
C. Indian Banks Association (IBA)
D. National Stock Exchange (NSE)
Answer: A
Explanation: The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT), headquartered in New
Delhi, formulates policies for foreign trade in India.

Which organization, headquartered in New Delhi, is tasked with handling digital payments
and retail transactions in India?
A. NPCI (National Payments Corporation of India)
B. RBI
C. Ministry of Finance
D. Indian Banks Association (IBA)
Answer: A
Explanation: NPCI is the umbrella organization that manages digital payment systems and
retail transactions across India.

Which ministry in India is responsible for formulating policies related to information

technology and electronics?
A. Ministry of Commerce
B. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
C. Ministry of Home Affairs
D. Ministry of Science & Technology
Answer: B
Explanation: The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) oversees
policies regarding IT, digitalization, and electronics in India.

Which ministry in India is responsible for the implementation of national energy policies,
including renewable energy?
A. Ministry of Power
B. Ministry of New & Renewable Energy (MNRE)
C. Ministry of Finance
D. Ministry of Heavy Industries
Answer: B
Explanation: MNRE is tasked with formulating and implementing policies for renewable
energy, including solar, wind, and other clean energy sources.

Which organization is the apex body responsible for research and development in space in
India?
A. DRDO
B. ISRO
C. NASA
D. NITI Aayog
Answer: B
Explanation: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), headquartered in Bengaluru,
is the apex space agency in India.

Which organization, headquartered in New Delhi and established in 1950, conducts elections
in India?
A. Election Commission of India (ECI)
B. Ministry of Home Affairs
C. Indian Banks Association (IBA)
D. UIDAI
Answer: A
Explanation: The Election Commission of India (ECI) is responsible for conducting free and
fair elections across India.

Which organization, headquartered in New Delhi, is responsible for enforcing energy

efficiency measures under the Energy Conservation Act?
A. Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE)
B. Ministry of Power
C. MNRE
D. TERI
Answer: A
Explanation: The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE), established in 2002, promotes energy
conservation and efficiency measures in India.

Which organization, headquartered in New Delhi and established in 1945, is a global

platform for promoting peace and security?
A. United Nations (UN)
B. UNESCO
C. WHO
D. IMF
Answer: A
Explanation: The United Nations (UN) was established in 1945 and serves as a global forum
for peace, security, and development.

Which organization, headquartered in Geneva and established in 1950, plays a critical role in
global meteorological activities?
A. World Meteorological Organization (WMO)
B. UNESCO
C. UNICEF
D. ILO
Answer: A
Explanation: The World Meteorological Organization (WMO), headquartered in Geneva,
coordinates global meteorological services.

Which organization, headquartered in New Delhi, is responsible for coordinating space

research and the development of satellite technology in India?
A. ISRO
B. DRDO
C. Department of Space
D. Ministry of Science & Technology
Answer: C
Explanation: The Department of Space, under the Ministry of Science & Technology,
coordinates India’s space research and satellite development.

Which organization, headquartered in Mumbai and established in 1971, is known for its
annual global economic forum?
A. World Economic Forum (WEF)
B. Times Higher Education (THE)
C. Forbes
D. CRISIL
Answer: A
Explanation: Although the WEF is headquartered in Cologny, Geneva, it holds major global
economic forums; however, this question is a mix-up. (To focus on banking exams, we refer
to Forbes as a source for business news.)
Revised Answer: D (Forbes)
Revised Explanation: Forbes, headquartered in New Jersey, USA, is a globally recognized
business publication that is often cited in banking and economic news, even though the WEF
is a separate entity.

Which organization is known for its role in international trade analysis and is headquartered
in Geneva?
A. UNCTAD
B. IMF
C. World Bank
D. WTO
Answer: A
Explanation: The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD),
headquartered in Geneva, plays a crucial role in analyzing global trade patterns.
Which ministry in India is responsible for rural development and agricultural welfare?
A. Ministry of Rural Development
B. Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare
C. Ministry of Home Affairs
D. Ministry of Commerce
Answer: B
Explanation: The Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare formulates policies to support
farmers and promote agricultural development in India.

Which ministry in India is responsible for the development of road transport and highways?
A. Ministry of Urban Development
B. Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH)
C. Ministry of Rural Development
D. Ministry of Finance
Answer: B
Explanation: The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) governs the
development and maintenance of road infrastructure in India.

Which organization is responsible for rating financial instruments and has its headquarters in
Mumbai?
A. CRISIL Ratings Limited
B. NSE
C. SEBI
D. RBI
Answer: A
Explanation: CRISIL Ratings Limited, headquartered in Mumbai, is a leading credit rating
agency that assesses financial instruments and banks.

Which organization represents the collective interests of Indian banks and is headquartered in
Mumbai?
A. Indian Banks Association (IBA)
B. RBI
C. SEBI
D. Ministry of Finance
Answer: A
Explanation: The Indian Banks Association (IBA) is a premier industry body representing the
interests of banks in India.

Which organization is known for its role in facilitating digital payments and is responsible for
systems like UPI?
A. RBI
B. NPCI (National Payments Corporation of India)
C. SEBI
D. Indian Banks Association (IBA)
Answer: B
Explanation: NPCI is the umbrella organization that operates retail payment systems such as
UPI, facilitating digital transactions across India.

Which organization, headquartered in New Delhi and established in 2003, enforces

competition law in India?
A. Competition Commission of India (CCI)
B. SEBI
C. RBI
D. Ministry of Commerce
Answer: A
Explanation: The Competition Commission of India (CCI) was established in 2003 to ensure
fair competition in the Indian market.

Which organization is responsible for the regulation of civil aviation in India?

A. Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA)
B. Airports Authority of India (AAI)
C. Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS)
D. Ministry of Civil Aviation
Answer: A
Explanation: The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) regulates civil aviation
operations in India and is headquartered in New Delhi.

Which organization, headquartered in New Delhi and established in 2004, works to prevent
money laundering and financial crimes?
A. Financial Intelligence Unit – India (FIU-IND)
B. CBI
C. RBI
D. SEBI
Answer: A
Explanation: The FIU-IND, established in 2004 and based in New Delhi, monitors and
investigates financial transactions to prevent money laundering.

Which international financial institution was established in 1944, is headquartered in

Washington D.C., and is led by President Ajay Banga?
A. International Monetary Fund
B. World Bank
C. Asian Development Bank
D. Commonwealth Bank of Australia
Answer: B
Explanation: The World Bank was established in 1944, is headquartered in Washington D.C.,
and is headed by President Ajay Banga. It is one of the major international institutions
relevant for global finance.

Which bank, headquartered in Mumbai and established on April 1, 1935, serves as India’s
central bank?
A. State Bank of India
B. Reserve Bank of India
C. Axis Bank
D. HDFC Bank
Answer: B
Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was established on April 1, 1935, and is
headquartered in Mumbai. It is the central bank of India, responsible for monetary policy and
regulation of the banking system.
Which bank uses the tagline “Chalo Aage Badhe” and is headquartered in Jaipur, Rajasthan?
A. AU Small Finance Bank
B. Axis Bank
C. Yes Bank Limited
D. Jammu and Kashmir Bank
Answer: A
Explanation: AU Small Finance Bank, established in 1996 and headquartered in Jaipur,
Rajasthan, uses the tagline “Chalo Aage Badhe” to inspire progress among its customers.

Which bank, known by the slogan “Say I’M banking and mean it!”, was established in 1906
and is headquartered in Pune, Maharashtra?
A. Cosmos Co-operative Bank Limited
B. Indian Bank
C. Axis Bank Limited
D. Federal Bank Limited
Answer: A
Explanation: Cosmos Co-operative Bank Limited, established in 1906 in Pune, Maharashtra,
is known for its distinctive slogan “Say I’M banking and mean it!”

Which bank, established in 1964 and headquartered in Mumbai, uses the tagline “Bank Aisa
Dost Jaisa”?
A. State Bank of India
B. IDBI Bank
C. HDFC Bank
D. Yes Bank Limited
Answer: B
Explanation: The Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI Bank) was established in 1964
in Mumbai and uses the tagline “Bank Aisa Dost Jaisa,” reflecting its commitment to serving
its customers as a trusted friend.

Which bank is referred to as “Your Perfect Banking Partner” and is headquartered in

Mumbai, established in 1994?
A. HDFC Bank
B. ICICI Bank
C. Axis Bank Limited
D. Yes Bank Limited
Answer: A
Explanation: HDFC Bank, established in 1994 and headquartered in Mumbai, is known for
its customer-centric approach and is often referred to as “Your Perfect Banking Partner.”

Which bank, established in 1853 and headquartered in Mumbai, is one of the oldest banks in
India and operates under the global HSBC brand in India?
A. State Bank of India
B. ICICI Bank
C. HSBC India
D. Yes Bank Limited
Answer: C
Explanation: HSBC India is part of the global HSBC group; its operations in India date back
to the 19th century, and it is headquartered in Mumbai.
Which bank, led by CEO Sandeep Bakhshi and incorporated in 1994, is one of the largest
private sector banks in India?
A. HDFC Bank
B. ICICI Bank
C. Axis Bank
D. Yes Bank Limited
Answer: B
Explanation: ICICI Bank, incorporated in 1994 and headquartered in Mumbai, is a leading
private sector bank in India, headed by CEO Sandeep Bakhshi.

Which bank, established in 2018 and headquartered in Mumbai, uses the tagline “Always
You First”?
A. IDFC FIRST Bank Limited
B. IndusInd Bank Limited
C. Yes Bank Limited
D. Axis Bank Limited
Answer: A
Explanation: IDFC FIRST Bank Limited, established in 2018 and based in Mumbai, uses the
tagline “Always You First,” emphasizing its customer-first philosophy.

Which bank, established in 1994 and headquartered in Mumbai, is known by the tagline
“LIFE KO BANAO RICH”?
A. Yes Bank Limited
B. IndusInd Bank Limited
C. RBL Bank Limited
D. Axis Bank Limited
Answer: A
Explanation: YES BANK Limited, established in 2004 but recognized for its bold marketing
campaigns, is known for slogans that emphasize a rich life, capturing modern banking ideals.

Which bank, headquartered in Srinagar and established in 1938, caters specifically to the
Jammu and Kashmir region?
A. Jammu and Kashmir Bank
B. State Bank of India
C. HDFC Bank
D. Axis Bank Limited
Answer: A
Explanation: Jammu and Kashmir Bank, established in 1938 and headquartered in Srinagar,
is focused on serving customers in the Jammu and Kashmir region.

Which bank, headquartered in Vadodara and established in 1908, is known by the tagline
“The Name You Can Bank Upon”?
A. State Bank of India
B. Bank of Baroda
C. Punjab National Bank
D. Axis Bank Limited
Answer: B
Explanation: Bank of Baroda, established in 1908 and headquartered in Vadodara, is
renowned for its tagline “The Name You Can Bank Upon.”
Which bank, established in 1955 and headquartered in Mumbai, is the largest public sector
bank in India with the tagline “Pure Banking, Nothing Else”?
A. State Bank of India
B. Punjab National Bank
C. Indian Bank
D. Canara Bank
Answer: A
Explanation: State Bank of India (SBI), established on July 1, 1955 in Mumbai, is the largest
public sector bank in India and uses the tagline “Pure Banking, Nothing Else.”

Which bank, headquartered in Thoothukudi and established in 1921, is known for the slogan
“Bank Aisa Dost Jaisa”?
A. Tamilnad Mercantile Bank Limited
B. Indian Bank
C. Axis Bank Limited
D. Yes Bank Limited
Answer: A
Explanation: Tamilnad Mercantile Bank Limited, established in 1921 and based in
Thoothukudi, Tamil Nadu, uses the slogan “Bank Aisa Dost Jaisa.”

Which bank, established in 2004 and headquartered in Mumbai, is led by MD & CEO
Prashant Kumar?
A. Yes Bank Limited
B. Axis Bank Limited
C. ICICI Bank
D. HDFC Bank
Answer: A
Explanation: Yes Bank Limited, headquartered in Mumbai and established in 2004, is led by
MD & CEO Prashant Kumar.

Which abbreviation stands for Unique Customer Identification Code?

A. UCIC
B. CIC
C. UCI
D. UCC
Answer: A
Explanation: UCIC stands for Unique Customer Identification Code, which is used by banks
for customer verification.

What is the full form of CICs in the banking context?

A. Customer Identification Codes
B. Corporate Investment Centers
C. Cash Issuance Certificates
D. Centralized Information Channels
Answer: A
Explanation: CICs are Customer Identification Codes, which help banks uniquely identify
their customers.

What does the abbreviation OVDs stand for?

A. Official Valid Documents
B. Online Verification Documents
C. Original Value Declarations
D. Organized Voucher Details
Answer: A
Explanation: OVDs stands for Official Valid Documents, essential for KYC and compliance
in banking.

What does the abbreviation JLGs represent in banking and finance?

A. Joint Liability Groups
B. Judicial Lending Guarantees
C. Junior Loan Guarantees
D. Joint Loan Grants
Answer: A
Explanation: JLGs are Joint Liability Groups, commonly used in microfinance to provide
collective guarantees for loans.

Which abbreviation stands for Payment Aggregator – Cross Border?

A. PA-CB
B. PCBC
C. PACC
D. CBPA
Answer: A
Explanation: PA-CB stands for Payment Aggregator – Cross Border, referring to platforms
that facilitate cross-border digital payments.

The abbreviation FEMA stands for:

A. Foreign Exchange Management Act
B. Federal Emergency Management Agency
C. Financial Efficiency and Management Act
D. Foreign Economic Monetary Act
Answer: A
Explanation: In the banking context in India, FEMA refers to the Foreign Exchange
Management Act, which governs foreign exchange transactions.

What does IBRD stand for?

A. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
B. Indian Bank Regulatory Department
C. International Bureau of Research and Development
D. Integrated Bank for Regional Development
Answer: A
Explanation: IBRD stands for the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development,
part of the World Bank Group.

Which abbreviation stands for the Capital to Risk-Weighted Assets Ratio?

A. CRAR
B. RoE
C. RoA
D. CAGR
Answer: A
Explanation: CRAR is the Capital to Risk-Weighted Assets Ratio, an important measure of a
bank’s financial strength.

Which abbreviation represents Gross Non-Performing Assets?

A. GNPA
B. NPA
C. GNP
D. GNS
Answer: A
Explanation: GNPA stands for Gross Non-Performing Assets, indicating the percentage of
loans that are not generating income for the bank.

What does NaBFID stand for?

A. National Bank for Financing Infrastructure Development
B. National Banking for Financial Investment and Development
C. New Bank for Infrastructure and Development
D. National Bureau for Fiscal and Investment Development
Answer: A
Explanation: NaBFID is the National Bank for Financing Infrastructure Development, a
specialized bank in India.

Which abbreviation stands for the Trade Receivables Discounting System?

A. TReDS
B. TRDS
C. TRS
D. TRDSy
Answer: A
Explanation: TReDS stands for Trade Receivables Discounting System, an electronic
platform that facilitates the financing of trade receivables.

Which abbreviation stands for Return on Assets?

A. RoE
B. RoA
C. RoC
D. ROI
Answer: B
Explanation: RoA stands for Return on Assets, a key indicator of a bank’s profitability and
efficiency.

Which abbreviation stands for the Officially Valid Documents required for KYC?
A. OVDs
B. OVDS
C. OVDOC
D. OVDC
Answer: A
Explanation: OVDs are Officially Valid Documents that are required for Know Your
Customer (KYC) compliance in banking.

Which abbreviation is used to represent Joint Liability Groups?

A. JLGs
B. JLCs
C. JLGroups
D. JLGC
Answer: A
Explanation: JLGs stand for Joint Liability Groups, which are groups of borrowers that
collectively guarantee loans in microfinance.

Which bank is known by the tagline “Your Own Bank” and is one of the oldest banks in
India?
A. Indian Bank
B. State Bank of India
C. Punjab National Bank
D. Axis Bank
Answer: A
Explanation: Indian Bank, headquartered in Chennai and established in 1907, is often
referred to as “Your Own Bank” due to its personalized services.

Which bank’s headquarters is located in Vadodara and is recognized for its long history since
1908?
A. Bank of Baroda
B. State Bank of India
C. Canara Bank
D. Indian Bank
Answer: A
Explanation: Bank of Baroda, established in 1908 in Vadodara, is one of India’s oldest banks
and is known for its extensive network.

Which bank, headquartered in Srinagar, focuses on the Jammu & Kashmir region and was
established in 1938?
A. Jammu and Kashmir Bank
B. SBI
C. HDFC Bank
D. Axis Bank
Answer: A
Explanation: Jammu and Kashmir Bank, established in 1938 and headquartered in Srinagar,
caters specifically to the region’s banking needs.

Which organization represents Indian banks at a national level and is headquartered in

Mumbai?
A. RBI
B. Indian Banks Association (IBA)
C. SEBI
D. Ministry of Finance
Answer: B
Explanation: The Indian Banks Association (IBA) is headquartered in Mumbai and represents
the collective interests of Indian banks.

Which organization is the nodal agency for operating retail payment systems in India,
including UPI?
A. RBI
B. NPCI
C. SEBI
D. IBA
Answer: B
Explanation: The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) manages various retail
payment systems such as UPI and is crucial to digital banking.

Which ministry is responsible for formulating policies related to the banking, financial
services, and insurance sectors in India?
A. Ministry of Home Affairs
B. Ministry of Finance
C. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
D. Ministry of External Affairs
Answer: B
Explanation: The Ministry of Finance is responsible for policy formulation in the BFSI sector
in India.

Which ministry in India oversees the development of public distribution, food, and consumer
affairs?
A. Ministry of Agriculture
B. Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution
C. Ministry of Rural Development
D. Ministry of Commerce
Answer: B
Explanation: The Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution is in charge of
public distribution systems and consumer issues.

Which ministry in India is responsible for the development and maintenance of road transport
and highways?
A. Ministry of Urban Development
B. Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH)
C. Ministry of Railways
D. Ministry of Infrastructure
Answer: B
Explanation: The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) is responsible for
developing and maintaining road transport infrastructure.

Which ministry in India is responsible for promoting youth and sports?

A. Ministry of Education
B. Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports (MYAS)
C. Ministry of Labour
D. Ministry of Home Affairs
Answer: B
Explanation: The Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports (MYAS) formulates policies and
programs to promote sports and youth development.

Which ministry in India is primarily responsible for the nation’s space research and satellite
development?
A. Ministry of Defence
B. Department of Space (under Ministry of Science & Technology)
C. Ministry of Home Affairs
D. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
Answer: B
Explanation: The Department of Space, operating under the Ministry of Science &
Technology, is responsible for India’s space research and satellite programs.

Which organization is a leading credit rating agency in India and is headquartered in

Mumbai?
A. CRISIL Ratings Limited
B. NSE
C. SEBI
D. IBA
Answer: A
Explanation: CRISIL Ratings Limited, headquartered in Mumbai, is a well-known agency
that rates banks and financial instruments, helping assess credit risk.

Which organization was established in 2003 to enforce competition law in India?

A. Competition Commission of India (CCI)
B. SEBI
C. RBI
D. National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)
Answer: A
Explanation: The Competition Commission of India (CCI) was established in 2003 to
regulate competition and prevent anti-competitive practices.

Which organization, headquartered in New Delhi, issues Aadhaar numbers in India?

A. UIDAI
B. NSDL
C. RBI
D. IBA
Answer: A
Explanation: The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) is the statutory body
responsible for issuing Aadhaar numbers to residents of India.

Which asset management company, established in 2008 and headquartered in Mumbai, is a

prominent player in India’s mutual fund industry?
A. HDFC Bank
B. Groww Asset Management Limited
C. ICICI Bank
D. Yes Bank Limited
Answer: B
Explanation: Groww Asset Management Limited, established in 2008 and headquartered in
Mumbai, is well known in India’s mutual fund and asset management space.

Which organization, established in 2016 and headquartered in New Delhi, deals with
insolvency and bankruptcy matters in India?
A. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI)
B. Competition Commission of India (CCI)
C. National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)
D. Ministry of Finance
Answer: A
Explanation: The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) was established in 2016
to oversee the insolvency resolution process and safeguard the financial system.

Which organization regulates the securities market in India and is headquartered in Mumbai?
A. RBI
B. SEBI
C. IBA
D. Ministry of Finance
Answer: B
Explanation: The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is responsible for
regulating the securities markets in India and is headquartered in Mumbai.

Which organization, headquartered in New Delhi, manages digital payment systems such as
UPI in India?
A. RBI
B. NPCI
C. IBA
D. SEBI
Answer: B
Explanation: The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) is the umbrella
organization responsible for digital payment systems including UPI.

Which organization, headquartered in New Delhi and established in 2009, is responsible for
enforcing the Competition Act in India?
A. Competition Commission of India (CCI)
B. SEBI
C. RBI
D. National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)
Answer: A
Explanation: The CCI, established in 2009, enforces the Competition Act and ensures fair
market competition in India.

Which organization, headquartered in New Delhi, is the nodal agency for civil aviation
regulation in India?
A. Airports Authority of India (AAI)
B. Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA)
C. Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS)
D. Ministry of Civil Aviation
Answer: B
Explanation: The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA), headquartered in New
Delhi, is responsible for regulating civil aviation in India.

Which organization, headquartered in New Delhi and established in 2004, focuses on

combating money laundering in India?
A. FIU-IND (Financial Intelligence Unit – India)
B. CBI
C. RBI
D. SEBI
Answer: A
Explanation: FIU-IND, established in 2004 and based in New Delhi, monitors financial
transactions to prevent money laundering and related crimes.

Which ministry is responsible for promoting electronics, IT, and digital infrastructure in
India?
A. Ministry of Home Affairs
B. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
C. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
D. Ministry of Science & Technology
Answer: B
Explanation: MeitY formulates policies related to electronics, information technology, and
digital infrastructure in India.

Which ministry is responsible for renewable energy policies in India?

A. Ministry of Power
B. Ministry of New & Renewable Energy (MNRE)
C. Ministry of Heavy Industries
D. Ministry of Finance
Answer: B
Explanation: The Ministry of New & Renewable Energy (MNRE) is in charge of formulating
and implementing renewable energy policies in India.

Which organization, headquartered in Bengaluru and established in 1969, is one of the

world’s largest space agencies?
A. ISRO
B. DRDO
C. NASA
D. IAF
Answer: A
Explanation: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), established in 1969 and
headquartered in Bengaluru, is among the largest space agencies globally.

Which organization, headquartered in New Delhi and established in 1950, is responsible for
conducting free and fair elections in India?
A. Election Commission of India (ECI)
B. Ministry of Home Affairs
C. Indian Banks Association (IBA)
D. UIDAI
Answer: A
Explanation: The Election Commission of India (ECI) conducts elections across the country,
ensuring free and fair electoral processes.

Which organization, headquartered in New Delhi and established in 2003, is responsible for
enforcing competition law in India?
A. CCI
B. RBI
C. SEBI
D. NITI Aayog
Answer: A
Explanation: The Competition Commission of India (CCI) enforces the Competition Act and
regulates anti-competitive practices.

Which organization, headquartered in New Delhi and established in 1952, manages the
Employees’ Provident Fund in India?
A. EPFO
B. UIDAI
C. RBI
D. SEBI
Answer: A
Explanation: The Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO), established in 1952,
manages the provident fund for millions of Indian workers.

Which organization, headquartered in New Delhi and established in 1995, serves as the nodal
agency for promoting industrial development and internal trade?
A. DPIIT
B. NITI Aayog
C. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
D. ICRA
Answer: A
Explanation: The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) is
responsible for industrial policy and trade promotion in India.

Which organization, headquartered in New Delhi, oversees the Goods and Services Tax
(GST) Council in India?
A. Ministry of Finance
B. RBI
C. GST Council (itself is a constitutional body)
D. SEBI
Answer: C
Explanation: The GST Council is a constitutional body that formulates policies for Goods
and Services Tax in India.

Which organization, headquartered in New Delhi and established in 1992, is tasked with
safeguarding the rights of religious minorities in India?
A. National Commission for Minorities (NCM)
B. National Human Rights Commission
C. Election Commission of India
D. IEPFA
Answer: A
Explanation: The National Commission for Minorities (NCM) was established in 1992 to
protect the rights and interests of minority communities in India.

Which organization, headquartered in New Delhi, manages the Investor Education and
Protection Fund (IEPF) in India?
A. IEPFA
B. SEBI
C. RBI
D. Ministry of Finance
Answer: A
Explanation: The Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority (IEPFA) manages the
IEPF, providing safeguards for investors as mandated by the Companies Act.

Which organization, headquartered in Mumbai and established in 1996, serves as a major

depository for securities in India?
A. NSDL
B. CDSL
C. IBA
D. SEBI
Answer: A
Explanation: The National Securities Depository Limited (NSDL), headquartered in Mumbai
and established in 1996, plays a key role in the dematerialization of securities in India.

Which organization, headquartered in New Delhi and established in 2001, is known for rating
banks and financial instruments in India?
A. CRISIL Ratings Limited
B. ICRA
C. CARE Ratings
D. Fitch Ratings
Answer: A
Explanation: CRISIL Ratings Limited is a leading credit rating agency in India,
headquartered in Mumbai but widely referenced in banking exams for its ratings on banks
and financial products.

All the best ; PINKY MA’AM