QUESTION PAPER (mech and avio )

MODULE: 6 (NON-METALLIC AIRCRAFT MATERIALS)

Q. SL MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION LEVEL REFERENCE
NO.
BOOK AUTHOR PAGE
NAME NO.
plastics are classified according to their reaction to
heat are known as
1. a) thermocole and thermosetting
1 EASA 3.2
b) thermoplastic and thermosetter
c) thermoplastic and thermosetting
d) thermastic and thermosetting
Which materials will soften when heated and harden
when cooled EASA 3.2
2. a) Thermoplastic b) thermosetting c)both a and b
1
d)NOTA
Which materials can be heated until soft, and then
formed into the desired shape EASA 3.2
3. a) Thermoplastic b) thermosetting c)both d)NOTA
1

Which piece of plastic can be reheated and reshaped

any number of times without changing the chemical 3.2
4. composition of the materials?
1 EASA
a) thermosetting b) Thermoplastic c)both d)NOTA
Which plastics harden upon heating, and reheating
has no softening effect? 1 EASA 3.2
5. a)thermoplastic b)acrylic c) Thermosetting
d)NOTA
Which plastics cannot be reshaped once being fully
6. cured by the application of heat? 1 EASA 3.2
a) thermosetting b) Thermoplastic c)NONE d)both
transparent plastics are manufactured in two forms:
a) monolithic (solid) and laminated EASA 3.2
7. b) thermoplastic and thermosetting c)BOTH a and b
2
d)NOTA
Laminated transparent plastics are made from
transparent plastic face sheets bonded by an inner EASA 3.2
08. layer material, usually -----------
2
a) POLYBENZIMIDAZOLES b) POLYIMIDES
c) polyvinyl butyryl d)NOTA

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 Which plastic is pulled in both directions to rearrange
its molecular structure?
09. a) Stretched acrylic b) thermoplastic 1
EASA
c) thermosetting d)AOTA 3.2
Stretched acrylic panels have 3.2
a)a greater resistance to impact EASA
10. b)A+ less subject to shatter
3
c) B+ chemical resistance is greater
d)C+ crazing and scratches are less detrimental
Individual sheets of plastic are covered with a heavy
masking paper to which a pressure sensitive adhesive
11. has been added because ? EASA
a)to prevent from dust 2 3.2
b)keep it wet
c)prevent from edging
d) to prevent accidental scratching during storage
and handling
12. If an oven is not available, remove hardened masking
paper by softening the adhesive with ----------- EASA 3.2
a)polybenzimidazoles b)glycerin
1
c) aliphatic naphtha d)water
13. A "composite" material is defined as 1 EASA 3.3
a)alloy of metals
b)mixture of two things only
c) a mixture of different materials or things
d)both A and C are correct
14. the composition of composite materials is 1 EASA 3.3
a) a combination of reinforcement
b)A+ held in place by a resin
c)NOTA
d)AOTA
15. Advantages of using composite are 2 EASA 3.3
a) High strength to weight ratio
b)A+ Fiber-to-fiber transfer of stress allowed by
chemical bonding
c)B+ Modulus (stiffness to density ratio) 3.5 to 5 times
that of steel or aluminum
d)C+ Longer life than metals
16. Advantages of using composite are 2 EASA 3.3
a)Longer life than metals
b)Higher corrosion resistance

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 c)Tensile strength 4 to 6 times that of steel/aluminum
d)AOTA
17. Find the incorrect statement regarding composites 2 EASA 3.3
a)Longer life than metals
b)Higher corrosion resistance
c)Tensile strength 4 to 6 times that of steel/aluminum
d) not Easily repairable
18. Find the incorrect statement regarding disadvantages 1 EASA 3.3
of composites
a) Higher corrosion resistance
b) Cost
c) Very expensive processing equipment
d)Lack of standardized system of methodology

19. The three main forms of fiber reinforcements are 1 EASA 3.4
a) particles, whiskers, and resins.
b)polythene, whiskers, and fibers.
c)particles, whiskers, and fibers.
d) particles, crystalline, and fibers.
20. A particle is a 1 EASA 3.4
a) any piece of material
b)small piece of material
c) square piece of material
d)C + have all dimensions equal
21. A whisker is a piece of material that is 2 EASA 3.4
a)longer than it is wide.
b)A+ usually single crystals
c)B+ very strong
d)c+ used to reinforce ceramics and metals
22. Fibers are 1 EASA 3.4
a) a single filaments
b)A+ much longer than they are wide
c)B+ Fibers can be made of almost any material
d)C+ are not crystalline like whiskers
23. Laminated structure with a core center is called a 1 EASA 3.4
a) sandwich structure
b) honeycomb structure
c)core structure
d)NOTA

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24. cores for laminated structures include. 2 EASA 3.4
a) rigid foam, wood, metal
b) honeycomb made from paper, Nomex, carbon,
fiberglass or metal
c)both are correct
d)NOTA
25. Foam type cores are formulated from combinations of 3 EASA 3.4
a) epoxy resins and metatoluene isocyanate
b) methyl cyanate and benzene
c) alkyd resins and metatoluene di-isocyanate
d)NOTA

26. Natural rubber has better processing and physical 2 EASA 3.5
properties than synthetic or silicone rubber but
identify the property in which rubber is weaker than
synthetic one.
a)tensile strength b)tear strength
c) deteriorates more rapidly d)AOTA
27. Butyl is a 1 EASA 3.5
a) hydrocarbon rubber
b)A+ superior resistance to gas permeation
c)B+ resistant to deterioration
d)NOTA
28. Butyl will not resist 3 EASA 3.5
a)oxygen, vegetable oils,
b)A+ animal fats, alkalies,
c)coal tar solvents
d)C+petroleum product
29. Butyl is suitable for use in temperatures ranging from 1 EASA 3.5
a) −80 °F to 300 °F c) −65 °F to 305 °F
b) −70 °F to 300 °F d) −65 °F to 300 °F
30. Butyl is used with 1 EASA 3.5
a)phosphate ester hydraulic fluids (Skydrol),
b)silicone fluids,
c)gases, ketones, and acetones.
d)AOTA
31. Buna-S rubber resembles natural rubber in 1 EASA 3.5
a)processing
b)performance characteristics.
c)both a and b d)NOTA

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32. Buna-S rubber is used for 1 EASA 3.5
a)tires and tubes b)bungee chord
c)wind shield d)water resistance cover
33. Buna-S has poor resistance to 1 EASA 3.5
a)gasoline, oil,
b)concentrated acids, and solvents
c)skydrol
d)both A and B
34. Buna-N is suitable for use in temperatures ranging 1 EASA 3.5
from
a) −80 °F to 300 °F c) −65 °F to 305 °F
b) −75 °F to 300 °F d) −65 °F to 300 °F

35. Buna-N has resistance for breakaway properties when 1 EASA 3.5
used in contact with metal
a) fair tear b)sunlight, and ozone c) abrasion d)AOTA
36. Buna-N is used for 1 EASA 3.5
a)tubes and tires
b)skydrol
c)gaskets, and seals d)NOTA
37. Which rubber can take more punishment than natural 1 EASA 3.5
rubber and has better low temperature
characteristics.
a)BUNA – N b)BUNA-S c)NEOPRENE d)AOTA
38. Which is good material for use in nonaromatic 1 EASA 3.6
gasoline systems, but has poor resistance to aromatic
gasolines,
a)BUNA – N b) NEOPRENE c)SILICONE RUBBER d)AOTA
39. Which rubber is also known as polysulfide rubber 1 EASA 3.6
a)BUNA – N b)BUNA-S c)NEOPRENE d)THIOKOL
40. Thiokol, in general, is not seriously affected by 2 EASA 3.6
a) petroleum, hydrocarbons,
b)A+ esters, alcohols,
c)B+ gasoline, or water.
d)NOTA
41. Thiokol is used for 1 EASA 3.6
a)oil hose, b)tank linings for aromatic aviation
gasolines,
c) gaskets, and seals. d)AOTA

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42. Silicone rubbers are a group of plastic rubber materials 1 EASA 3.6
made from
a) silicon, oxygen, hydrogen, and carbon.
b) silicon, oxygen, nitrogen, and carbon
c) silicon, oxygen, hydrogen, and benzene
d) silicon, oxygen, Alcohol, and carbon
43. Silicone is suitable for use in temperatures ranging 1 EASA 3.6
from
a) −80 °F to 300 °F c) −165 °F to 605 °F
b) −150 °F to 600 °F d) −65 °F to 300 °F

44. Which rubber reacts unfavorably to both aromatic and 1 EASA 3.6
nonaromatic gasolines.
a)BUNA – N b) NEOPRENE c)SILICONE RUBBER d)AOTA
45. Silastic, one of the best known silicones, is used to 1 EASA 3.6
a)fuel pipeline with aromatic gas
b) insulate electrical and electronic equipment.
c)for gasket and sealing
d)both B and C
46. Sealing compounds are available in 1 EASA 3.6
a) one part and two part
b) tape and paste
c)one part and three part
d)AOTA
47. Two part sealants are compounds identified as the 1 EASA 3.6
a)liquid and gel
b)mixture and agent
c)base sealing compound and the accelerator.
d)AOTA
48. Arrange the procedures of Mixing of two part sealant 3 EASA 3.6
in proper order
1) Determining the proper amount of base sealant
compound and accelerator.
2) thoroughly mix the two parts by stirring or folding
3) Carefully mix the material to prevent entrapment of
air in the mixture
4) test by smearing a small portion on a clean, flat metal
or glass surface
a)1,2,3,4 b)1,3,2,4 c)2,3,4,1 d)3,2 ,1,4

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49. The working life of mixed sealant is approximately 1 EASA 3.6
a)1⁄2 hour to 4 hours b) 1 hour to 4 hours
c) 1⁄2 hour to 5 hours d) 3⁄2 hour to 4 hours

50. What is the ideal condition for curing of most sealants. 1 EASA 3.7
a) 30 °F & 50 percent humidity
b) 70 °F & 40 percent humidity
c) 30 °F & 90 percent humidity
d) 77 °F & 50 percent humidity
51. Which is the primary load carrying element of the 1 EASA 3.8
composite material
a)whisker b)matrix c)resin d)fiber
52. The composite material is only strong and stiff in the 1 EASA 3.8
direction of the
a)matrix b)adhesives c)fibers d)AOTA
54. Identify the wrong statement about the Role of a 2 EASA 3.8
matrix in composite
a) supports the fibers and bonds them together in the
composite material.
b) transfers any applied loads to the fibers,
c)keeps the fibers in their position and chosen
orientation,
d)do not gives the composite environmental
resistance
55. Which of the following is an example of isotropic 1 EASA 3.8
material
a)unidirectional composite b)aluminium
c)titanium d)both b and c

56. An isotropic material has 1 EASA 3.8

a)non uniform properties in all direction
b)uniform properties in all directions
c)amorphous structure
d)NOTA
57. The measured properties of an isotropic material are 2 EASA 3.8
a) dependent of the axis of testing
b) independent of the axis of testing
c)might be dependent or independent
d)depends upon the technician.
58. Structural properties, such as stiffness, dimensional 2 EASA 3.8

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 stability, and strength of a composite laminate, depend
on the
a)types of fibers b)fiber orientation
c) stacking sequence of the plies d)curing of matrix

59. Find out the number of plies on configuration of 1 EASA 3.9

[+45°, –45°, 0° ]s
a)4 b)5 c)6 d)8
60. Find out the number of plies on configuration of 2 EASA 3.9
[+90 , +45°, –45°, 0° ]2s
a)10 b)15 c)18 d)16
61. types of ply orientation simulate the properties of an 1 EASA 3.9
isotropic material is known as
a)non-isotropic b)semi-isotropic
c) quasi-isotropic d)AOTA
62. A ------------is used to describe direction of fibers on a 1 EASA 3.9
diagram, spec sheet, or manufacturer's sheets.
a)wall clock b) warp clock c)wrist clock d)AOTA
63. Bundles of filaments are identified as 1 EASA 3.10
a) tows, yarns, or spindles.
b) fabric, yarns, or rovings.
c) tows, yarns, or rovings.
d) tows, corns, or rovings.

64. Fiberglass is often used for 2 EASA 3.12

a) secondary structure on aircraft
b)A+ such as fairings, radomes, and wing tips.
c)B+ also used for helicopter rotor blades
d)NOTA
65. Types of Fiberglass are 1 EASA 3.12
a)E-type b)S-type c)Q-type d)both E and S type
66. Identify wrong statement regarding Electrical glass, or 1 EASA 3.12
E-glass
a) used for helicopter rotor blades
b) conduct electricity
c) high resistance to current flow
d) made from borosilicate glass
67. S-glass is produced from 1 EASA 3.12
a)pottash -alumina-silicate
b) magnesia-alumina-carbon

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 c) manganese-alumina-silicate
d) magnesia-alumina-silicate
68. S-glass and S2-glass identify structural fiberglass that 1 EASA 3.12
have a ----------- strength than E-glass
a)lower b) higher c)medium d)same
69. Fiberglass has a 1 EASA 3.12
a) white color b)yellow color c)blue color d)red color
70. Kevlar is also known as 1 EASA 3.12
a)epoxy fiber b)aramid fibers c)bromine fiber
d)AOTA
71. Aramid fibers are 1 EASA 3.12
a)light weight, b)strong c) tough d)AOTA
72. Two types of Aramid fiber are used in the aviation 1 EASA 3.12
industry.
a) Kevlar® 59 & Kevlar® 29 b) Kevlar® 49 & Kevlar® 39
c) Kevlar® 49 & Kevlar® 29 d) Kevlar® 99 & Kevlar® 19
73. Which fluids are gel like at rest but become fluid when 1 EASA 3.16
agitated
a)Bingham b) Thixotropic agents c)Newtonian
d)AOTA
74. Thermosetting resins use a chemical reaction to cure. 1 EASA 3.16
There are three curing stages, which are A, B, and C.
Which of the following occurs at stage B
a) The components of the resin (base material and
hardener) have been mixed but the chemical reaction
has not started.
b) The components of the resin have been mixed and
the chemical reaction has started
c) The resin is fully cured
d)NOTA
75. Find the incorrect statement regarding film adhesives 2 EASA 3.16
a) thin films supported on a release paper
b)stored under refrigerated conditions (–18 °C, or 0 °F)
c) available with a wide range of flexibilizing and
toughening agents.
d) Rubber-toughened epoxy film adhesives are not
widely used in the aircraft industry
76. Paste adhesives are often used to --------------------bond 1 EASA 3.16
repair patches to
a)primary b) secondary c)tertiary d)AOTA

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77. Most foaming adhesives are 1 EASA 3.17
a) 0.025-inch to 0.10-inch thick sheets of B staged
epoxy
b) 0.025-inch to 0.10-inch thick sheets of C staged
epoxy
c) 0.025-inch to 0.10-inch thick sheets of A staged
epoxy
d)NOTA
78. Find The incorrect statement regarding advantages of 1 EASA 3.16
paste adhesives,
a) can be stored at room temperature
b) have a long shelf life
c) bond line thickness is hard to control,
d)NOTA
79. Paste adhesives for structural bonding are made 1 EASA 3.16
mostly from
a)epoxy b) buna s c)glue d) NOTA
80. Foam adhesives cure at 1 EASA 3.17
a) 260 °F or 350 °F. b) 250 °F or 300 °F.
c) 280 °F or 350 °F. d) 250 °F or 350 °F.
81. Which adhesive has limited storage life 1 EASA 3.17
a)foam b)paste c)film d)both a and c
82. Sandwich construction has high bending stiffness at 1 EASA 3.16
a)minimal weight b) maximum weight
c)average weight d)AOTA
83. The most common core material used for aircraft 1 EASA 3.18
honeycomb structures is
a) aramid paper b) Nomex® c) Korex® d)AOTA
84. ----------- is used for higher strength applications in 1 EASA 3.18
honeycomb structure.
a) Fiberglass b)aramid c)boron d)AOTA
85. Honeycomb structure made of Kraft paper has — 3 EASA 3.18
a)relatively low strength
b)A+ good insulating properties
c)B+ available in large quantities
d)C+ has a low cost.
86. MTICS for Thermoplastics in Honeycomb structure 2 EASA 3.19
a) good insulating properties,
b) good energy absorption and/or redirection,
c) rough cell walls

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 d) moisture and chemical resistance
87. MTCS for Aluminum in Honeycomb structure 1 EASA 3.19
a) best strength-to-weight ratio and energy
absorption
b) don’t have good heat transfer properties
c) no electromagnetic shielding properties,
d) is not machinable
88. MTICS for Steel in Honeycomb structure 1 EASA 3.19
a) good heat transfer properties,
b) no electromagnetic shielding properties,
c) heat resistant.
d)NOTA
89. MTCS for Aramid paper in Honeycomb structure 1 EASA 3.19
a)flame resistant and fire retardant,
b)bad insulating properties,
c)high dielectric properties,
d)bad formability
90. Carbon in Honeycomb structure 2 EASA 3.19
a)good dimensional stability and retention
b)A+ high-temperature property retention,
c)B+ high stiffness,
d)C+ very low coefficient of thermal expansion,
91. Ceramics in Honeycomb structure 1 EASA 3.19
a)heat resistant to very high temperatures,
b)A+ good insulating properties,
c)B+ very expensive.
d)NOTA
92. Honeycomb core cells for aerospace applications are 1 EASA 3.19
usually
a) hexagonal b)triangular c) circular d)laminar
93. MTCS for Bellshaped core 2 EASA 3.19
a)also known as flexicore,
b) has curved cell walls, that make it flexible in all
directions.
c) is used in panels with complex curves
d)AOTA
94. Which of the following is a foam type core material 1 EASA 3.20
a) Polystyrene b) Phenolic c)
Polymethacrylimide d)AOTA
95. MTICS for Phenolic used in foam type core material. 2 EASA 3.20
a) very good fire-resistant properties

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 b) can have very high density
c) relatively low mechanical properties
d)NOTA
(COMPOSITE REPAIR ) FOR MECHANICAL ONLY 1 EASA 3.72

96. To properly inspect an aircraft constructed or

comprised of wood components, the aircraft must be
a) dry
b) should be placed in a dry, well-ventilated hanger
c) removable fairings opened and removed
d)AOTA
97. The ideal range of moisture content in percentage is 1 EASA 3.72
a) 8–20 percent, b) 8–13 percent,
c) 8–15 percent, d) 8–12 percent,
98. A musty or moldy odor apparent on wood as you 1 EASA 3.73
remove the access panels during the initial inspection
is a good indication of
a)moisture b) fungal growth c) possible decay. d)AOTA
99. Some common factors in premature glue deterioration 2 EASA 3.73
include:
a)Chemical reactions of the glue caused by aging or
moisture, extreme temperatures, or a combination
of these factors
b)Mechanical forces caused mainly by wood shrinkage
c) Development of fungal growths.
d)AOTA
100 When checking a glue line, MTICS 2 EASA 3.74
a) all protective coatings of paint should be removed
by careful scraping
b) Inspect the glue line using a magnifying glass
c) do not probe the glue line with a thin feeler gauge.
d)AOTA
101 Glued joints are generally designed to take 1 EASA 3.74
a) shear loads b)tensile load c)both a and b d)NOTA
102 If a joint is expected to take tension loads, it is secured 1 EASA 3.74
by a
a) stud b) bolts or screws c)rivets d)NOTA
103 Dark discolorations of the wood or gray stains running 1 EASA 3.74
along the grain are indicative of
a)burn b)fungal growth c)water penetration d)AOTA

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104 MTCS for compression failures 2 EASA 3.76
a) This is a serious defect that can be difficult to detect.
b) a flashlight beam test is done
c)The surface will appear to have minute ridges or lines
running across the grain.
d)AOTA
105 The purpose of repairing all wood structural 1 EASA 3.76
components is to obtain a
a)structure as strong as the original
b) original strength, function, and aerodynamic shape
c) both a and b correct
d) both a and b incorrect
106 Which is the preferred choice and the standard by 1 EASA 3.77
which the other wood is measured
a) Douglas fir b)spruce
c) Western hemlock d) Yellow poplar
107 The one item common to all the species is that the 1 EASA 3.77
slope of the grain cannot be steeper than
a) 1:15. b) 1:17 c) 10:15 d) 1:14
108 All woods used for structural repair of aircraft are 1 EASA 3.77
classified as
a)hard wood b) softwood c)black wood d)AOTA
109 Prepreg and dry fabrics can be cut with 1 EASA 3.28
a) scissors b) pizza cutters c) and knives d)AOTA
110 A caul plate is made from 1 EASA 3.28
a) aluminum b)steel c)titanium d)plastic
111 A caul plate is used to 1 EASA 3.28
a) support the part during the cure cycle
b)to cure the resin
c)to provide heat
d)AOTA
112 MTCS for bleeder ply 1 EASA 3.29
a) creates a path for the air and volatiles to escape
from the repair.
b)Excess resin is collected in the bleeder
c)to support the system
d)both a and b are correct
113 Bleeder material could be made of a 1 EASA 3.29
a) layer of fiberglass, b)nonwoven polyester,
c) a perforated Teflon® coated material d)AOTA

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114 Peel plies are often used to 2 EASA 3.29
a) for efficient heat transfer
b) no use
c) create a clean surface for bonding purposes.
d)NOTA
115 The breather material is used to 1 EASA 3.29
a) provide a path for air to get out of the vacuum bag.
b)used to finish the product
c)helps the air to get inside the vacuum bag
d)NOTA
116 Autoclave low operating conditions 2 EASA 3.31
a)from 120 °C (350 °F) and 275 kPa (40 psi)
b) from 120 °C (250 °F) and 375 kPa (80 psi)
c) from 120 °C (250 °F) and 275 kPa (40 psi)
d) from 120 °C (450 °F) and 275 kPa (60 psi)
117 Autoclave upper operating conditions 2 EASA 3.31
a)860 °C (1 400 °F) and 69 000 kPa (10 000 psi).
b) 760 °C (1 400 °F) and 70 000 kPa (10 000 psi).
c) 960 °C (1 800 °F) and 69 000 kPa (10 000 psi).
d) 760 °C (1 400 °F) and 69 000 kPa (10 000 psi).
118 Autoclaves that are operated at lower temperatures 1 EASA 3.31
and pressures can be pressurized by
a)oxygen b)air c)hydrogen d)nitrogen
119 Autoclaves that are operated at high temperatures and 1 EASA 3.31
pressures can be pressurized by
a) 50/50 mixture of air and nitrogen
b) 100 percent nitrogen
c)both a and b
d)NOTA

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