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co

1. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Eight different people: Rohit, Sanjay, Mohit, Ajay, Bhuvan, Harsh, Virat and Rishi (not necessarily in the same
order) have to appear for interview in an IT company in the month of August 2018. The company has given specific
dates to these people for appearing for the interview. Dates are 02, 11, 28, 05, 08, 31, 22 and 09 in the month of
August. Rishi has been called on the 09th of August. Rohit, Sanjay and Harsh have to appear for interview before
10th of August. Mohit has been called on a date before the 15th of August. Either Ajay or Virat has been called on
31st August. Sanjay has been called on a date which is not even. A week after 15th of August Bhuvan has been called
up for an interview. Ajay has to go for an interview exactly 20 days after Harsh.

Who has been called on 31st of August?

A. Sanjay B. Harsh
C. Virat D. Ajay
E. Rishi
2. Which person has been called first for interview?
A. Rohit B. Sanjay
C. Virat D. Ajay
E. Rishi
3. On what date has Ajay been called for interview?
A. 02 August B. 28 August
C. 31 August D. 08 August
E. 11 August
4. From 20 – 30 August how many people have been called for interview?
A. One B. Five
C. Four D. Three
E. Two
5. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions.

In a family, there are 8 members: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H. In the family, there are two couples. There are an equal
number of males and females in the family.
D is the senior most member of the family. A is the son of the sister of F. G and E are cousins and both have different
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gender. F has only one daughter who is not G. C and H are the father of E and A, respectively. G is not female in the
family. D is not the male. C is the brother in law of H. D has two children.

How is D related to C?
A. Father- in –Law B. Father
C. Mother-in-Law D. Mother
E. None of the above
6. What is the relation between G and B?
A. G is the sister of B B. G is the son of B
C. G is the mother of B D. G is the cousin of B
E. G is the aunt of B
7. Which of the following statements is false?
A. D is the grand-father of E and G B. A and E are cousins
C. B and F are sisters D. D is the mother-in-law of C and H
E. None of these
8. Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it:

7 games – High jump, Pole vault, Long jump, Triple jump, Shot put, Discus throw and Javelin Throw held in Delhi
on Sunday. Each game starts at different times 4AM, 7AM, 8AM, 10AM, 1PM, 3PM and 6PM but not in the same
order and ends at different time.

Long jump is the earliest to start. Its starting time is not after 7AM and its total time is two hours less than the total
time of discus throw. Since high jump is the least duration game, it starts before 7PM and the game ends at 9PM.
Triple jump starts at Sunday 10AM and takes 19 hours to finish the game. There is a four hour gap between the
starting time of Shot put, starting at 8AM and long jump. Shot put takes one hour more than the total time of long
jump to finish the game. High jump starts five hours after Pole vault starts but takes only three hours to finish the
game. Discus throw and Javelin throw takes 10 hours and 8 hours respectively to finish the game. Discus throw starts
at 3PM and there is a gap of 8 hours between starting time of Discus throw and Javelin throw. One game ends at
6PM. At which time, Javelin throw starts?
A. 4AM B. 1PM
C. 6PM D. 7AM
E. None of these
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9. How many hours does Pole vault took to compete the game?
A. 2 hours B. 3 hours
C. 4 hours D. 5 hours
E. 6 hours
10. How many games are played between Discus throw and Long jump?
A. One B. Two
C. Three D. Four
E. Five
11. Which of the following game was finished on Monday?
A. Pole vault B. Discus throw
C. Shot put D. Javelin throw
E. None of these
12. What was the total duration of Long jump?
A. 5 hours B. 7 hours
C. 8 hours D. 6 hours
E. 9 hours
13. Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the following questions:

Seven boxes M, N, O, P, Q, R, and S are kept one above the another but not necessarily in the same order. Each box
is of different weights 12 kg, 10 kg, 18 kg, 20 kg, 24 kg, and 5kg but not necessarily in the same order.

More than two boxes are kept above 12kg box. Only two boxes are kept between 20 kg and 12 kg box. Only one box
is kept between 12kg box and box R, which is immediately below O. Neither O nor S is 20kg box. S is kept
immediately above 5kg box. S is not 12 kg box. N is kept immediately above Q. Only one box is between N and 10
kg box which is below N. Only two boxes are kept between 10kg box and 8kg box. The 20 kg box is kept
immediately below box M. The 18kg box is neither placed at the top nor at the bottom of the stack.

What is the weight of the box which is placed in the middle of the stack?
A. 18kg B. 10kg
C. 20kg D. 12kg
E. None of these
14. Weight of box N and Q is equal to the weight of which box?
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A. S, P B. S, N
C. S, Q D. P, M
E. None of these
15. How many boxes are kept above box O?
A. 2 B. 3
C. 1 D. No box
E. None of these
16. Which box contains least weight?
A. M B. O
C. P D. Q
E. R
17. Direction: Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly.

In a Certain Code,

‘human speed makes good’ is written as ‘nr pz ns uv’.

‘good country develops skill speed’ is written as ‘uv nq ae pz kl’.
‘skill develops human good’ is written as ‘pz kl nq ns’.

What will be the possible code for ‘country’?

A. uv B. pz
C. Cannot be determined D. ae
E. Either ae or ns
18. If the code for ‘makes’ is interchanged with the code for ‘speed’ then what will be the possible code for ‘makes
country human good’?
A. uv ae ns kl B. uv ns pz kl
C. uv ae ns pz D. nr ae ns pz
E. Cannot be determined
19. What can be coded as ‘kl’?
A. skill B. Either skill or develop
C. develop D. makes
E. speed
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20. What will be the possible code for ‘country human makes product’?
A. cd ns ae nq B. ae pz ns cd
C. pz ns cd nr D. kl cd ns ae
E. cd ns ae nr
21. Direction: Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.
First 14 odd numbers are written from top to bottom. The letters of word ‘WATER’ are written in alphabetical order
against each multiple of 3 (one letter against one number). There are 4 letter between W and M. There are as many
letters between M and I as between P and M. I is above P. H is written against the highest multiple of 5. There are 4
letters between I and K. There are 2 letter between I and L. There are as many letters between S and B as between U
and S. B is above U. (No letter is repeated against any number).
Which is the third letter in word formed by letters against numbers 9, 17, 19 and 21?
A. E B. T
C. S D. U
E. M
22. How many meaningful word can be formed by letters against numbers 5, 9, 15 and 19?
A. 2 B. 3
C. None D. 1
E. 4
23. How many vowels are there between the letters against 5 and 17 in the series?
A. 2 B. 1
C. 5 D. 3
E. 4
24. How many consonants are there against the numbers at each multiple of 3 and 5 together?
A. 4 B. 3
C. 5 D. 2
E. None of these
25. Direction: Study the following arrangement and answer questions given:
B C C D A L L M M C C C E U M K N N C I C K M S S E O F U J J E If every letter beginning from position 7,
counted from left, is replaced by its successor in the English alphabet and any Z after this position is replaced by A,
how many L will be there in the resulting sequence?
A. 5 B. 6
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C. 4 D. 7
E. 3
26. If the all the letter left to right at the positions 10, 5, 13, 27, 6, 5, 4 and 19 are picked up and a meaningful word is
formed out of them what would be the second letter of the word? (All the letter are compulsory to use together)
A. E B. A
C. C D. Can’t be determine
E. None of these
27. Direction: The following questions are based on the five three-letter words given below.

617 829 876 384 732 If in the positions of the first and the third numbers are interchanged within the number, which
of the following will be the third highest number?
A. 617 B. 829
C. 876 D. 384
E. 732
28. If in each element, all the three digits are arranged in decending order within the number, which of the following will
be second lowest number?
A. 617 B. 876
C. 384 D. 829
E. None of these
29. Direction: Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

10 people are sitting in two rows facing each other. In Row 1 A, B, C, D and E are seated facing south and in row II
P, Q, R, S and T are seated facing north. They all study in either Government or private colleges having reservations
under different categories General, SC, ST, OBC and PWD. No two person having the reservation in the same
category are sitting in the same row. No SC candidate is sitting at extreme ends. There are as many people between A
and B as between A and OBC candidate. T who sits at extreme right is a PWD candidate is diagonally opposite to the
one who belongs to general and is in private college. Q is opposite to A who is to the immediate left of an SC
candidate. Those who are diagonally opposite are not in same college. C is an OBC candidate. D who is in
Government College is second to the right of PWD candidate. R is opposite to E who is not sitting at the extreme end
and R is in private college. Person from same category and college are not opposite each other. Exactly 1 person sits
between ST and General category candidate in row II. Exactly 1 person sits between ST and Q.Not more than 2
people from same college are adjacent to each other.
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Who is sitting between C and A?

A. E B. D
C. Either E or D D. Cannot be determined
E. None of these
30. Who among the following does not belong to Government College?
A. Q B. E
C. A D. Either Q or E
E. None of these
31. If P is in Govt. College than to which category will S belong to?
A. ST B. OBC
C. Either A or B D. None of these
E. Cannot be determined
32. which of the following is true?
A. Q belongs to ST category. B. R is in govt college
C. T is in pvt college D. C sits at one of the extreme end
E. None of these
33. Who is second to the right of ST candidate?
A. Q and C B. R and E
C. B and R D. B and Q
E. D and Q
34. Direction: Study the following data carefully and answer the questions accordingly.
In a family of seven persons, there are two married couples and three generations. W is the mother of U. U is the
nephew of V. S is the father-in-law of V. R is the mother of T. T is the niece of W. X who is the brother of R, is the
brother-in-law of V.

Who is the father of T?

A. S B. X
C. V D. U
E. None of these
35. How W is related to S?
A. Son B. Daughter-in-law
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C. Daughter D. Brother
E. None of these
36. How many males are in the family?
A. 1 B. 3
C. 4 D. 2
E. None of these
37. Direction: Read the following information carefully to answer the questions based on it.
Eight persons I, J, K, L, M, N, O and P are sitting around a square table in such a way that only two persons sit on
each side, not necessarily in the same order. All are facing away from the centre except one who is facing the centre.
P and I do not sit on the same side. K sits third to the left of I. Three persons sit between J and N. The one who is
sitting between I and N is facing towards the centre. M sits third to the left of O. J sits just to the right of K, who is
not facing towards the centre. P sits second to the right of O. L and J do not sit opposite to each other.

Who among the following sits facing the centre?

A. O B. L
C. P D. J
E. None of these
38. What is the position of N with respect to O?
A. Immediate right B. Third to the right
C. Immediate left D. Third to the left
E. None of these
39. Who among the following sits fourth to the left of P?
A. O B. M
C. L D. K
E. None of these
40. Which of the following statements is true?
A. P sits immediate left of I. B. K and J do not sit on the same side of the table.
C. O faces the centre. D. J sits third to the left of N.
E. None of these.
41. Direction: Answer the following questions based on the arrangement given below:

3%N^PR5$AM/A&P!9(QT*J]8UVI2O8J?
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Step 1:Consonants that are immediately preceded by symbol and immediately succeeded by symbol are replaced by
its previous letter as per the English alphabet.
Step 2:Symbols that are immediately preceded by a number and immediately succeeded by an alphabet are arranged
at the beginning of the series (just before 3) from right to left.
Step 3:If an alphabet is immediately preceded by a number and immediately succeeded by an alphabet then it is
arranged at the end of the series (just after ‘?’) in alphabetical order.
Step 4:All even numbers are divided by 2
Step 5:All the elements that have multiple occurrences in the series are replaced by *.

Note: Step 2 is applied after Step 1, Step 3 is applied after step 2, step 4 is applied after step 3 and Step 5 is applied
after step 4

How many symbols are there between '3' and 'J' in the series after step 2?
A. 7 B. 5
C. 4 D. 6
E. 2
42. How many '*' are there in the series after step 5?
A. 10 B. 11
C. 20 D. 15
E. 17
43. What is the position of ']' from the right end in step 4?
A. 12th B. 20th
C. 10th D. 19th
E. 15th
44. How many elements are there between '%' and '/' in step 3?
A. 6 B. 4
C. 5 D. 7
E. 9
45. Direction: A string of numbers is given as input. The further steps given are obtained by applying certain logic .
Numbers of step II have been obtained by using at least 1 digit of each number in step I. Each step is a resultant of
previous step only.
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INPUT:
What is the double of average of
numbers obtained in step I?
A. 74 B. 108
C. 90 D. 85
E. Other than options given
46. What is the number obtained in last step of given input?
A. 3 B. 5
C. 2.5 D. 1.5
E. 24
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47. What will we get after dividing sum of numbers obtained in step I and sum of numbers obtained in step III?
A. 18.5 B. 15.5
C. 11 D. 10.5
E. 17
48. What is the difference between the numbers obtained in II step?
A. 97 B. 34
C. 15 D. 16
E. 58
49. What is the triple of sum of numbers obtained in step III?
A. 81 B. 18
C. 75 D. 60
E. 15
50. Direction: Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

A man was going to city of zoo. He asked the route for the same to a girl who was facing South. The girl replied to
go East and then left from a red light while raising her right hand. The man moved in the direction of the girl’s hand
and followed all her instructions but found a hut there.
In which direction is the zoo?
A. South B. North
C. East D. West
E. None of these
51. In which direction is the man, finally?
A. South B. North
C. East D. West
E. None of these
52. Further, adding to the data given above, the man asked another girl for the location of the zoo.The girl says that from
this hut, he should go 3km in South-East and then 4km in North-East to reach a red light. From there, he needs to go
straight 3km towards North. What is the shortest distance he could cover to reach to the red light?
A. 10 km B. 6 km
C. 7 km D. 5 km
E. None of these
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53. Direction: Study the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

There are 12 peoples in a party - A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K, L. They have different ages. Also, the age is even for
the one who was born in a month which has odd number of days and vice versa. The birthday months are March,
June, July, August, September, October but not necessarily in same order and the coincidentally there are only two
dates on which peoples were born - 12th and 18th.

1) C’s birthday is on June 12. His birthday is before the birthday of the one having age 36 years.
2) Age of I is 11 years. 3 people have birthdays between I’s and B’s birthday. I’s birthday is not on 12th of any
month.
3) 3 people have birthdays between H and the one having age 68 years. H’s birthday is before the one having age 68
years.
4) 2 people have birthdays between L and the one having age 68 years. F and L have birthdays in the same month.
H’s birthday is not in July. L is the youngest member.
5) 2 people have birthdays between K and the one having age 8 years. K’s birthday is before the one having age 8
years. K’s birthday is not in September.
6) F is not the youngest member in the party. Nobody has age less than 8 years. 2 people have birthdays between F
and the one having age 23 years.
7) Sum of ages of C and K is 105 years. Sum of ages of A and L is 10 less than the age of C. G and one having age
40 years have birthdays in the same month. G’s age is less than 40 years. B's age is less than 40 years. E and J are not
40 years of age.
8) 4 people have birthdays between F and the one having age 40 years. The average age of G and J is 45 years. Sum
of the ages of G and L is 6 less than that of D’s age. G's age is not 36.
9) The average age of H, B and G is 24 years. The age difference in H’s and B’s age is 18 years. H is younger to B.
Age of one of the members is 64 years. H is not 64 years of age.
How many members are younger to F?
A. 2 B. 8
C. 5 D. 3
E. 7
54. Who is 14 years old?
A. K B. H
C. A D. F
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E. D
55. What is the age of G?
A. 24 years B. 20 years
C. 26 years D. 28 years
E. None of these
56. Who was born on 12th September?
A. D B. J
C. L D. A
E. G
57. Directions: In each question below, is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An
assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following
assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Statement Let there be a sign-board
also indicating the directions and instructions.

Assumptions
I. Sign-board can be prepared without using any language.
II. Sign-board is the only effective tool to indicate directions.
A. Only assumption I is implicit B. Only assumption II is implicit.
C. Either assumption I or II is implicit. D. Neither assumption I nor II is implicit
E. Both assumptions I and II are implicit.
58. Directions: In each question below, is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An
assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following
assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Statement In order to build more
space, extra FSI needs to be bought.
Assumptions
I. The person being told does not know the meaning of FSI.
II. More space will reduce the construction cost.
A. Only assumption I is implicit B. Only assumption II is implicit.
C. Either assumption I or II is implicit. D. Neither assumption I nor II is implicit
E. Both assumptions I and II are implicit.
59. Directions: In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An
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assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following
assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Statement: Govt. has announced a
relief package for all the drought hit farmers in the country and advised the state govts. to put in a mechanism for
disbursement.
Assumptions:
I. The State Govt. may be able to put in place the system for disbursement of Govt. relief to the affected farmers.
II. Govt. may be able to identify all the farmers affected by drought in the country.
A. if only Assumption I is implicit B. if only Assumption II is implicit
C. if either Assumption I or Assumption II is implicit D. if neither Assumption I nor Assumption II is implicit
E. if both Assumption I and II are implicit
60. Directions: In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An
assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following
assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Statement: Many residents of the
locality decided not to attend the cultural function organized by the local club to protest against the club’s limited
invitations.
Assumptions:
I. The local club may cancel the cultural function.
II. The local club may stop all its activities.
A. if only Assumption I is implicit B. if only Assumption II is implicit
C. if either Assumption I or Assumption II is implicit D. if neither Assumption I nor Assumption II is implicit
E. if both Assumption I and II are implicit
61. Direction: In question below are given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption
is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and
decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Statement: The college administration has instructed all the students to stop using cell phones with in the college
premises.

Assumptions:
I. The students may stop using cell phones in the college premises.
II. The students may continue to use cell phones in the college premises.
A. If only assumption I is implicit B. If only assumption II is implicit
C. If either assumption I or II is implicit D. If neither assumption I nor II is implicit
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E. If both assumptions I and II are implicit

62. Directions: Below in each question are given two statements I and II. These statements may be either independent
causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the
other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the
relationship between these two statements. (I) Government has awarded a high stake reward scheme for such persons
who may provide any information about the suspect.
(II) Four members of a family were brutally murdered by unidentified gunmen.
A. If statement I is the Cause and Statement II is its effect. B. If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
D. If both the statements I and II are effects of
C. If both the statements I and II are independent causes.
independent causes.
E. If both the statements I and II are effects of some
common cause.
63. Directions: Below in each question are given two statements (A) and (B). These statements may be either
independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the
affect of the other statement Read both the statements and then decide which of the following answer choice
correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements. (A) Many farmers have given tip jute cultivation as it
is no longer economically viable.
(B) The textile ministry has proposed a hike in the Minimum Support Price of jute.
A. if statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its B. if statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is its
effect. effect.
D. if both statements (A) and (B) are effects of
C. if both statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.
independent causes.
E. ii both statements (A) and (B) are effects of some
common causes.
64. Directions: Below in each question are given two statements (A) and (B). These statements may be either
independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the
effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly
depicts the relationship between these two statements. (A) The local traders association urged all its members to shut
their establishments for two days and participate in the protest march.
(B) The local has recently cancelled licenses of many traders in the locality as they did not pay their taxes on time.
A. if statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its B. if statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is its
effect. effect.
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C. if both the statements (A) and (B) are independent D. if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of
causes. independent cause.
E. if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some
common cause.
65. Directions: Below in each question are given two statements (A) and (B). These statements may be either
independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the
effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly
depicts the relationship between these two statements. (A) Govt. has increased the procurement price of khariff crops
by about ten per cent for the current year.
(B) Inadequate monsoon rainfall has created a drought like situation in many parts of the country.
A. if statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its B. if statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is its
effect. effect.
C. if both the statements (A) and (B) are independent D. if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of
causes. independent cause.
E. if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some
common cause.
66. Direction: In the question below, a statement is given followed by three arguments. Choose the most appropriate
option depending on which argument strengthens the given statement.
Statement: Should all those students who failed in one or two subjects in HSC be allowed to take admission in
degree courses and continue their study subject to their successfully passing in the supplementary examination?
Arguments:
I. Yes, this will help the students to complete their education without a break of one year.
II. Yes, this is a forward looking strategy to help the students and motivate them for higher studies.
III. No, such students do not choose to continue their studies without having passed in all the subjects in HSC.
A. Only argument I is strong B. Only argument II is strong
C. Only argument III is strong D. Only either argument II or III and I are strong
E. None of the above
67. Directions: Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions on the basis of the given
statement.
Statement: All the fans of Harry Potter say that they will skip straight to the last page of the final book to find out
what happens to Harry Potter.
(I) The fans of harry potter will lose interest in the book once they read the last page
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(II) The fans of Harry Potter are extremely eager to know what happens to Harry Potter in the last book
(III) The author of Harry Potter book ran out of ideas
(IV) The last page of the book contains the information as to what happens to Harry potter
(V) None of these Which of the above sentences is an assumption of the statement mentioned?
A. I B. II
C. III D. IV
E. V
68. Direction: These questions are based on the statement given above and the sentences labelled (A), (B), (C) and (D)
as given below.

(A) The customers would like to be addressed by name by the sales representatives.
(B) The XYZ Ltd. has launched a new product which has got tremendous response from the customers.
(C) A recent survey shows that customers feel more connected and show faith in a company when the company
representative address them by name.
(D) A regular customer of XYZ told the branch manager to address him by name as he likes it. Which of the above
statements numbered (A), (B), (C) and (D) was an assumption while implementing the new policy?
A. Only A B. Both A & D
C. Only D D. Only B
E. None of these
69. Which of the above statements numbered (A), (B), (C) and (D) if true will weaken the given argument?
A. Only B B. Both B & C
C. Only C D. Both B and D
E. Both A and D
70. In what has been touted as the biggest Prime Day yet, Amazon India's 36-hour blockbuster sales event is finally here.
Open exclusively for all its Prime members, this edition promises 200 new product launches from top brands,
unparalleled deals and top-notch video releases. While all categories are proposing massive discounts as well as great
payment offers, shoppers will have myriad options to choose from among large appliances like washing machines,
refrigerators, televisions as well as ACs and microwave ovens.

Which of the following is a perfect conjecture based on the given piece of information?
A. Other top deals include BPL's side by side refrigerator B. Not just on TVs, Amazon Prime Day is handing out
for a little over Rs 45,000 at no cost EMI and massive heavy discounts and deals in refrigerators as well.
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discounts on brands such as LG, Hitachi and Samsung.

C. Amazon Prime Day is giving shoppers a very unusual -
and tempting - deal in majority of the categories. Prime D. Moreover, Amazon promises to get it delivered as soon
members can get their hands on a great deal of products as July 19 - just three days from now.
that too at massive discounts.
E. None can be inferred.
71. Direction: A passage is given followed by question/questions. Select the best answer of the choices given.

The aeroplane rolled to a stop beside us, no extra power required and the propeller clanked softly to stop. I looked
closely. There were no bugs on the propeller. Not so much as a single fly killed on that eight-foot blade. Taking the
cue from the passage, which of the following would have happened, if a normal plane landed on an airfield?
A. There will be bugs on the propeller. B. At least one fly will be killed on that blade
C. The propeller would not clank softly when it came to a
D. All the above
stop
E. None of these
72. Direction: The question below, there is a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to
assume everything in the statement to be true. Then consider the 2 conclusion together and decide which of them
follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.
Statement: They set aside their historical differences and joined hands against a common enemy.
Conclusions:
I. Enemy’s enemy is a friend
II. History has seen many great enemies
A. only conclusion I follows B. only conclusion II follows
C. both conclusion I and II follows D. neither conclusion I nor II follows
E. either conclusion I or II follows
73. In the question below there is a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume
everything in the statement to be true. Then consider the 2 conclusions together and decide which of them follows
beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement. Statement: Exercising is good for health.
Conclusions:
I. All healthy people exercise.
II. Only exercising will keep you healthy.
A. Only conclusion I follows B. Only conclusion II follows
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C. Both conclusions I and II follow D. Neither conclusion I nor II follows

74. Statement: Lenovo launched a new laptop and students can buy it for a special offer price.
Conclusions:
I. Only students can buy a new laptop.
II. Lenovo wants to offer affordable laptops to students.
A. Only conclusion I follows B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Both conclusions I and II follow D. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
75. Which of the following is not an apt conclusion on the basis of the information provided?
I. In a system already fraught with racial bias, technology can exacerbate the challenges.
II. At the moment, there are no federal laws governing the use of the technology, so there is broad scope for
companies and subnational governments to do as they please unless specific laws like the one in San Francisco limit
the technology’s use.
III. The demographic on whom facial recognition is most effective is White men.
A. Only I B. Either I or II
C. Only III D. All of the above.
E. More than one of the above.
76. Direction: Each of the following questions consist of five figures marked 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 called the Problem Figures
followed by four other figures marked a, b, c and d called the Answer Figures, select a figure from amongst the
Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures.

Problem Figures

Answer Figures

A. B.
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C. D.

E. None of these
77. Problem Figures

Answer Figures

A. B.

C. D.

E. None of these
78. Problem Figures

Answer figures

A. B.
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C. D.

E. None of these
79. Problem Figures

Answer Figures

A. B.

C. D.

E. None of these
80. Problem Figures

Answer Figures

A. B.
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C. D.

E. None of these
81. Problem Figures

Answer Figures

A. B.

C. D.

E. None of these
82. Problem Figures

Answer Figures

A. B.
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C. D.

E. None of these
83. Problem Figures

Answer Figures

A. B.

C. D.

E. None of these
84. Problem Figures

Answer Figures

B.
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A.

C. D.

E. None of these
85. Problem Figures

Answer Figures

A. B.

C. D.

E. None of these
86. In each of the following Question, find the figure from the Answer figures A, B, C and D which would complete the

series given on the left side.

A. B.
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C. D.

E. None of these
87.

A. A B. B
C. C D. D
E. None of these
88.

A. A B. B
C. C D. D
E. None of these
89.

A. A B. B
C. C D. D
E. None of these
90. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right image of the given figure?

A. B.
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C. D.

E. None of these
91. Which of the following complete the missing portion?

A. B.

C. D.

E. none of these
92. Which of the following complete the missing portion?

B.
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A.

C. D.

E. None of these
93. Which will come to the next

A. B.

C. D.

E. None of these
94. water image?

A. B.
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C. D.

E. None of these
95. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of given figure.

Which of the above pattern can form true dice?

A. 1 only B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only D. 3 and 4 only
E. 1 & 3 only
96. What will be the mirror image of the following image if the mirror is placed on the right side?
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A. B.

C. D.

E. None of these
97. Consider the following pattern:

The embedded figure in the given pattern is:

A. B.

C. D.

E. None of these
98. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

A. B.
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C. D.

E. none of these
99. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
E. none of these
100. Select the figure that will come next in the following series.

A. B.

C. D.

E. none of these
101. Direction: In the following question two equations are given in variables X and Y. You have to solve these equations
and determine the relation between X and Y.

I. X2 – 6X + 5 = 0

II. 2Y2 – 3Y – 9 = 0
A. Y > X B. X > Y
C. X ≤ Y D. X ≥ Y
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E. X = Y or no relation can be established

102. I. X2 + X – 20 = 0

II. Y2 = 16
A. Y > X B. X > Y
C. X ≤ Y D. X ≥ Y
E. X = Y or no relation can be established
103. I. X2 + 11X + 28 = 0

II. Y2 + 16Y + 63 = 0
A. Y > X B. X > Y
C. X ≤ Y D. X ≥ Y
E. X = Y or no relation can be established
104. I. X2 + 8X + 16 = 0

II. Y2 – 14Y + 45 = 0
A. Y > X B. X > Y
C. X ≤ Y D. X ≥ Y
E. X = Y or no relation can be established
105. I. X4 = 81

II. Y2 – 7Y + 12 = 0
A. Y > X B. X > Y
C. X ≤ Y D. X ≥ Y
E. X = Y or no relation can be established
106. Direction: What should come in place of the question mark '?' in the following number series?

1, 6, 15, 28, 45, 66, ?

A. 74 B. 92
C. 88 D. 91
E. 87
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107. 43, 50, 55, 65, ?, 89, 106

A. 73 B. 72
C. 81 D. 83
E. 76
108. 77, 100, 31, 146, –15, ?, –61
A. 112 B. –112
C. 192 D. –192
E. –38
109. –1, 11, 39, 89, ?, 279, 431
A. 167 B. 127
C. 143 D. 151
E. 189
110. 10, 14, 32, 80, 180, 360, ?
A. 720 B. 654
C. 432 D. 572
E. 624
111. Direction: Study the following data carefully and answer the given question.

The pie chart given below shows the percentage distribution of the number of pastries baked by five different shops
(P, Q, R, S and T) on Sunday.

The table given below shows the percentage of pastries booked from five given shops on Sunday. All the booked
pastries are to be considered as pastries sold.
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Note:

Number of pastries unsold = Number of pastries baked – Number of pastries booked

The number of pastries booked by shop S and T together is what percentage more or less than that of the number of
pastries baked by shop Q on Sunday?
A. 19% more B. 28% less
C. 23% more D. 34% more
E. None of these
112. If the total number of pastries baked by all shops is distributed in a degree pie-chart, what would have been the
difference between the central angle for shop P and shop R on Sunday?
A. 24.6° B. 30.5°
C. 36.4° D. 32.4°
E. None of these
113. What is the ratio of the number of pastries unsold of shop P and R together to that of shop T?
A. 17 : 19 B. 29 : 30
C. 30 : 31 D. 20 : 23
E. None of these
114. If the ratio of the number of pastries sold by shop R on Sunday to Monday is 4 : 5 and the ratio of the unsold pastries
by shop R on Sunday to Monday is 3 : 10, what is the total number of pastries baked by shop R on Monday?
A. 325 B. 340
C. 285 D. 290
E. 355
115. The cost of baking each pastry for shop S was Rs. 80. If 4/9 of the number of sold pastries was sold at 25% profit,
1/3 was sold at 30% profit and remaining was sold at 50% and unsold pastries sold at 10% loss on next day, what
was the total profit earned by shop S?
A. Rs. 5064 B. Rs. 5226
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C. Rs. 4964 D. Rs. 5024

E. None of these
116. Out of the number of pastry that were unsold from shops P, Q and S, 25% were given to the beggars. Of the
remaining, % were eaten by the staff of the shops while the rest were sold the next day at 10% loss. If, each
pastry costed Rs. 300 to bake for all the shops, what was the total amount of loss incurred from these pastries?
A. Rs. 55720 B. Rs. 60400
C. Rs. 57960 D. Rs. 56950
E. None of these
117. Direction: Study the given table carefully and answer the following questions.

The table given below shows the total hats sold by seller A and B in five days.

If Seller A sold 200% more hats on Saturday than the average number of hats sold on Monday to Friday, then
number of hats sold by Seller A on Saturday is approximately what percent more than the number of hat sold by
Seller A and Seller B together on Monday?
A. 33.24% B. 28.32%
C. 25.24% D. 32.50%
E. 36.40%
118. If Seller B sold 120% more hats on Sunday than the number of hats sold by Seller B on Thursday, and Seller A sold
180% more hats on Sunday than the number of hats sold by Seller A on Tuesday, then find the difference between
number of hats sold by Seller B and Seller A on Sunday.
A. 78 B. 72
C. 66 D. 68
E. None of these
119. Average number of hats sold by Seller A from Monday to Friday was approximately what percent of average number
of hats sold by Seller B from Monday to Friday?
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A. 98% B. 103%
C. 106% D. 109%
E. 112%
120. What is the ratio of the number of hats sold by Seller A on Monday and Tuesday together to the number of hats sold
by Seller B on Wednesday, Thursday and Friday together?
A. 107 : 191 B. 107 : 181
C. 127 : 291 D. 117 : 191
E. None of these
121. What is the ratio of 25% of the number of hats sold by both sellers on Wednesday to 75% of the number of hats sold
by both sellers on Friday?
A. 5 : 31 B. 60 : 131
C. 50 : 131 D. 70 : 131
E. None of these
122. If the number of hats sold on Saturday by seller A and Seller B is 25% and 20% respectively more than previous day,
then what is the ratio of the number of hats sold on Saturday by seller A and B?
A. 105 : 98 B. 25 : 49
C. 205 : 98 D. 115 : 49
E. None of these
123. Direction: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

The pie chart given below shows the percentage distribution of the footballs sold by five different stores out of the
total number of footballs sold by the five stores.
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The table given below shows the percentage of Basketball and Tennis balls sold out of the total items sold by that
store and the percentage of Hockey Sticks sold out of the total items sold by that store.

Each store sells 4 types of item.

What is the ratio of the total number of items sold by store C and the total number of items sold by store B?
A. 8 : 9 B. 9 : 8
C. 4 : 3 D. 3 : 4
E. 5 : 4
124. If the total number of items sold by the five stores is 1225, what is the total number of footballs sold?
A. 250 B. 300
C. 350 D. 400
E. 450
125. If the total number of basketballs sold by the five stores is equal to the total number of hockey sticks sold by the five
stores and the total number of items sold by the five stores is 1225, what is the total number of tennis balls sold by
the five stores?
A. 125 B. 175
C. 225 D. 275
E. 325
126. On a particular day one more item i.e., cricket bat is also sold by all the five shops such that the total number of items
sold by the each of the five shops remains unchanged but the number of the items sold apart from cricket bat are
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reduced or remain same. In each the five shops, 50 cricket bats are sold. The number of hockey sticks sold by each
store remains the same and the sum of basketballs & tennis balls sold by each store cannot reduce by more than 40%
of previous day. What is the maximum number of footballs sold by all stores together? (Assume the data of previous
questions for number of items sold of each type and total number of items sold by all 5 shops before inclusion of
cricket bat.)
A. 289 B. 280
C. 271 D. 265
E. None of these
127. On a particular day one more item i.e., cricket bat is is also sold by all the five shops such that the total number of
items sold by the each of the five shops remains unchanged but the number of the items sold apart from cricket bat
are reduced or remain same. If in each the five shops, 20% of the total number of items sold are cricket bats and the
number of hockey sticks sold remains the same and the number of footballs sold reduces to 10 in each shop. What
will be the increase in the total number of basketballs and tennis balls sold by all five stores?

(Assume the data of previous questions for number of items sold of each type and total number of items sold by all 5
shops before inclusion of cricket bat.)
A. 25 B. 20
C. 15 D. 10
E. 5
128. Direction: A state government collected the data about the number of students who went abroad for studies in four
years i.e. 2014, 2015, 2016 and 2017 to four different countries i.e. USA, Britain, China and Japan which is as
follows:

In 2014, the number of students who went to Britain are 45% more than that of to USA and the number of students
who went to China are half the number of students who went to Britain. In the same year, the number of students
who went to Japan are 5 less than half the number of students who went to USA . In 2016, the number of students
who went to China are 16 more than that of to Britain. In the same year, the number of students who went to Britain
are 60% less than that of to USA and the number of students who went to Japan are 100 less than that of to USA . In
2015, the number of students who went to Japan are 40% less that of to China. In 2017, the number of students who
went to Britain are 12.5% less than that of to USA .

Total number of students who went to China in years 2014 and 2016 together are 173 and the total number of
students who went to Japan in the same years together are 130 . Number of students who went to China in year 2015
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are 105 . Total number of students who went to China in all these years together are 343 . Total number of students
who went to Japan in all these years together are 271 .

In 2017, the number of students who went to China are how much less than that of to Japan?
A. 13 B. 17
C. 19 D. 16
E. None of these
129. In 2017, if the total number of students who went to all these countries together are 533, then the number of students
who went to Britain in 2017 are how much percent more than that of the students who went to USA in 2016?
A. 4% B. 5%
C. 6% D. 3%
E. None of these
130. Total number of students who went to USA and Britain in years 2014 and 2015 together is 518. Also, in 2015, the
total number of students who went to all the given countries together is 392. The number of students who went to
USA in 2015 is how much less than that of to Britain?
A. 18 B. 45
C. 26 D. 20
E. None of these
131. Total number of students who went to China in 2015 and the number of students who went to Japan in 2016 together
is?
A. 225 B. 180
C. 165 D. 190
E. None of these
132. Total number of students who went to Britain in 2014 and number of students who went to China in 2016 together is?
A. 345 B. 260
C. 220 D. 325
E. None of these
133. Direction: Study the following information and answer the given questions.

Four companies P, Q, R and S have different number of male and female employees. In Company P, Ratio of female
and male employees is 5 : 4 respectively. Number of female employees in company R is 600 more than male
employees in Company P. In Company Q, number of male and female employees are equal. number of male
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employees in company S is 400 more than the double of female employees in company P. Number of female
employees in company S is 2250. Ratio of number of male and female employees in company S is 8 : 9. Total
number of male employees in all four companies is 5500. Number of male employees in company R is double the
female employees in company P.

What is the ratio of the number of female employees in company P to R?

A. 20 : 29 B. 10 : 11
C. 20 : 31 D. 19 : 21
E. None of these
134. What is the total number of male and female employees in company R?
A. 2760 B. 2540
C. 2620 D. 2480
E. 2840
135. 40% of the male employees in company Q and 55% of the female employees in company Q are married. What is the
total number of male and female employees who are not married?
A. 1323 B. 1522
C. 1428 D. 1620
E. 1222
136. What is the total number of female employees in all four companies?
A. 5450 B. 5550
C. 5620 D. 5330
E. None of these
137. Total number of male and female employees in company P is what percent of the number of male employees in
company S?
A. 80% B. 75%
C. 64% D. 70%
E. None of these
138. Direction: What approximate value will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following question? (You are
not expected to calculate the exact value) × ÷ 4.01 = ? ×
A. 17 B. 12
C. 27 D. 32
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E. 57
139. 24.96% of 39.99 + 20.12% of 49.92 = ? – 5.99% of 99.99
A. 26 B. 56
C. 66 D. 76
E. 86
140. × ÷ =?
A. 200 B. 250
C. 300 D. 225
E. 325
141. 40.3% of 601 – 250.17 = ? – 79.8% of 900.34
A. 800 B. 500
C. 650 D. 550
E. 700
142. Abhishek sold an article at a profit of 18%. Had he sold the same article at a profit of 22%, he would have earned Rs.
294 more, find the cost price of article.
A. Rs 6480 B. Rs 5620
C. Rs 8440 D. Rs 7350
E. None of these
143. There is a boat covers 80 km in river from one end to another end. If speed of current is one-third of speed of boat in
still water then it takes 5 hours to cross the river in downstream. If speed of boat (in still water) is increased by 25%
and the boat covers the same distance in downstream and takes time same as before, find the speed of current.
A. 1 km/hr B. 2 km/hr
C. 1.5 km/hr D. 3 km/hr
E. 4 km/hr
144. In a mixture, the ratio of wine and water is 7 : 2 respectively. If 18 litres of mixture is taken out and same quantity of
pure wine is added then the quantity of wine in the mixture becomes five times of the quantity of water. What was
the quantity of water in the initial mixture?
A. 20 litres B. 12 litres
C. 16 litres D. 18 litres
E. None of these
145. Distance between two points P and Q is 756 km. Train A starts from point P at 8:30 AM with the speed of 72 km/h
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and train B starts from point Q at 9 AM with the speed of 80 km/h. What will be the distance between both trains at
11:30 AM?
A. 360 km B. 420 km
C. 340 km D. 280 km
E. None of these
146. Vansh and Tarushi can do a piece of work in 24 days and 40 days respectively. They started the work, after 8 days
Shubham, who can complete the same work in 20 days joined them. In how much days can they complete the whole
work?
A. 12 days B. 15 days
C. 16 days D. 20 days
E. None of these
147. A tank can be filled separately by two pipes A and B in 60 minutes and 80 minutes respectively. A tap P at the
bottom can empty the full tank in 72 minutes. If pipe A and tap P are opened for 1 hour 3 minutes and after that pipe
B is also opened, then after what time from the opening of pipe B the cistern becomes full?
A. 48 minutes B. 40 minutes
C. 60 minutes D. 54 minutes
E. None of these
148. Raghav gave half of his savings of Rs. 1,76,800 to his wife and divided the remaining sum among his two sons
Ankush and Balveer of age 17 and 15 years of respectively. He divided it in such a way that each of his sons, when
they attain the age of 20 years, would receive the same amount at 10% compound interest per annum. What was the
share of Balveer?
A. Rs. 40,000 B. Rs. 40,100
C. Rs. 44,000 D. Rs. 45,000
E. None of these
149. Ratio of radius of two cylinders X and Y is 2 : 1 and their heights are in the ratio 2 : 3 respectively. Find the ratio of
volume of cylinder X to that of Y.

A. 5 : 2 B. 2 : 1
C. 3 : 2 D. 4 : 3
E. 8 : 3
150. A bag contains 12 white and 15 green coloured mask. Two masks are picked one after one without replacement.
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What is the probability that first ball will be white and second will be green?
A. B.

C. D.
E. None of these
151. Direction: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Certain words are printed in bold
to help you locate them while answering some of these.

Far beneath Mauritius’ inactive volcanoes lies an astonishing, important piece of the Earth’s history: a fragment of
ancient continental crust. This discovery, which my colleagues and I have outlined in a newly published study, is
extremely exciting. Discovering new pieces of continent will help geoscientists understand the details of how
continents break apart, and how the pieces can be better reconstructed to their pre-breakup configurations. This
could, for example, be used as an important exploration tool for mineral deposits.

Our work demonstrates that continental break-up is often a complex and messy process. When continents begin to
break apart, they can be stretched and fragmented, as new oceanic crust forms by continuous outpourings of magma
at mid-ocean ridges. This forces the newly-formed crust to separate in opposite directions, taking the passive pieces
of continent with them. Sometimes the sites of deep convection cells can suddenly shift, causing “ridge jumps”. This
is how fragments of continent can become isolated, or “stranded” in many places across the ocean floor.

The Indian Ocean is a good place to study this because it contains large fragments of continental crust-like
Madagascar, smaller ones like Seychelles, and still smaller ones like the one now thought to underlie Mauritius.

Mauritius is an Indian Ocean island of volcanic origin and lavas started forming there about nine million years ago.
Today it is dormant and most of the craters are covered with a rich variety of fauna and flora.

My colleagues and I suggest that during the active period, the lavas erupted on top of a small continental fragment
that was then buried several kilometres below the new volcanic island. As the Mauritian lavas rose toward the
surface, they passed through the stranded continental fragment, incorporating and dissolving some of it.

We were able to show that this continental fragment exists because we found tiny crystals of zircon – a mineral that
can be analysed to provide age information – in a rare volcanic rock called trachyte, which is exposed at five
different sites in Mauritius. We determined that the zircons were formed 2,500 to 3,000 million years ago. This is
vastly older than even the earliest Mauritian volcanic rocks, which started erupting nine million years ago.
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The ages of the ancient zircons are also much older than the rocks present on the floor of the Indian Ocean, which all
formed less than 200 million years ago. The nearest place where rocks as old as the ancient zircons can be found is in
Madagascar, which is more than 700 km to the West. The ancient zircons recovered in the new research are the only
accessible remnants of the old granitic rocks which are now hidden below. We cannot specify the exact size of the
buried fragment of the ancient continent, but we think it might be similar to the present areal extent of Mauritius,
about 2000kmsq.

Source: scroll.in/article/829856/why-the-discovery-of-a-small-piece-of-continent-in-the-indian-ocean-matters

Which of the following is/are correctly inferred from the given passage?

I. The author belongs to a team of geoscientists who are studying metallurgy.

II. It is possible for a new piece of continental crust to exist alongside an old one.

III. Formation of crusts is arbitrary in nature.

A. Only I B. Both I & II
C. Both II & III D. Only II
E. All are correct
152. Which of the following words as used in the passage can be replaced by the word “inert”?
A. Outpourings B. Underlie
C. Stranded D. Dormant
E. Remnants
153. Which of the following is true about "zircon" with reference to the passage?
A. Zircon is formed when old crusts fragments are buried B. Zircon is preserved in rare old volcanic rocks called
under fresh magma. trachyte.
C. Zircons are usually found in large clusters beneath D. Zircons are the only way to determine the age of
volcanic rocks. continental crust pieces.
E. None of these
154. What is tone of the sixth paragraph?
A. Cynical B. Laudatory
C. Informative D. Mocking
E. Descriptive
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155. What does the author refer to when he/she says, “passive pieces of continent”?
A. Fragmented pieces of old continental crusts B. Fragmented pieces of new continental crusts
C. Solidified magma. D. Rare volcanic rocks.
E. Hidden zircon minerals
156. Given below is a possible inference that can be drawn from the facts stated in the fifth paragraph. You have to
examine the inference in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.

"Magma is responsible only for the dissolution of buried continental crusts."

A. Definitely true B. Probably true
C. The data are inadequate D. Probably false
E. Definitely false
157. Direction: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Ergonomics is designing a job to fit the worker so the work is safer and more efficient. Implementing ergonomic
solutions can make employees more comfortable and increase productivity. Ergonomics can be defined simply as the
study of work. More specifically, ergonomics is the science of designing the job to fit the worker, rather than
physically forcing the worker’s body to fit the job. Adapting tasks, work stations, tools, and equipment to fit the
worker can help reduce physical stress on a worker’s body and eliminate many potentially serious, disabling work-
related musculoskeletal disorders (MSDs). Ergonomics draws on a number of scientific disciplines, including
physiology, biomechanics, psychology, anthropometry, industrial hygiene, and kinesiology.

The many advantages of ergonomics include employee comfort, higher efficiency, an increase in job accuracy, a
decrease in work-related injuries and less employee fatigue. The disadvantages include a higher upfront cost and the
difficulty of customizing office furniture and work-related accessories to meet individual specifications, according to
Reference.com. Ergonomics is the science of fitting employees to work-related furniture, office accessories and
machinery to produce optimum comfort and productivity. An employee's work environment often determines how
much work is accomplished and its degree of accuracy. Poor lighting, uncomfortable seating, appropriate temperature
and an inconvenient arrangement of workspace potentially lead to uncomfortable and unhappy workers. According
to About.com, comfortable workers are more energized, tend to make fewer mistakes and tire less easily.
Ergonomically friendly working conditions also result in fewer work-related injuries, said Reference.com, reporting
on a study by the U.S.

Human Factors Society Select Committee on the Future of Human Factors. Problems with carpal tunnel and other
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repetitive motion injuries, back injuries and vision problems are among the work-related health issues that result
from poor ergonomics. In the end, utilizing proper ergonomics in the workplace benefits the employer by increasing
productivity. However, an ergonomic workplace does not come without a cost. Initially, the employer has to be
willing to pay for the cost of ergonomic analysis and implementation. The furniture and machinery is often costlier
than the generic types. Because individuals have different needs, office furnishings in an ergonomic workplace are
not one-size-fits-all. Customization is often necessary and comes with a price tag as well. For instance, certain types
of chairs that are perfect for one person do not work well for another. In the long run, however, upfront expenses
generally are offset by the advantages gained from the utilization of ergonomics.

If work tasks and equipment do not include ergonomic principles in their design, workers may have exposure to
undue physical stress, strain, and overexertion, including vibration, awkward postures, forceful exertions, repetitive
motion, and heavy lifting. Recognizing ergonomic risk factors in the workplace is an essential first step in correcting
hazards and improving worker protection. Ergonomists, industrial engineers, occupational safety and health
professionals, and other trained individuals believe that reducing physical stress in the workplace could eliminate up
to half of the serious injuries each year. Employers can learn to anticipate what might go wrong and alter tools and
the work environment to make tasks safer for their workers.

Source - https://www.reference.com Which of the following statements is NOT true with respect to the passage?
B. The goal for the design of workplaces is to design for
A. The primary focus of ergonomics is on the design of as many people as possible and to have an understanding
work activity that suits the person that it takes account of of the Ergonomic principles of posture and movement
their capabilities and limitations. which play a central role in the provision of a safe, healthy
and comfortable work environment.
C. Good posture and movement can contribute to local
mechanical stress on the muscles, ligaments and joints, D. Providing a workplace free of ergonomic hazards can
resulting in complaints of the neck, back, shoulder, wrist lower injury rates as MSD incidences go down.
and other parts of the musculoskeletal system.
E. A thorough job analysis is important to successfully
prevent or reduce the various MSD hazards at a work site.
158. According to the passage what basic factor determines the amount of work done and the level of accuracy in the
work done by an employee?
A. Trust from higher levels of management B. Proper work environment
C. The ambition of the employee D. Incentives like salary increment and bonuses
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E. The employee’s need for recognition

159. Which of the following statements can be considered as a disadvantage of ergonomics as per the passage?
I. Ergonomics is a costly concept and smaller businesses are often unable to adapt it for their benefit.
II. Ergonomics does not follow the concept of ‘one size fits all’.
III. Comfortable employees often lead to lower production in the company.
A. Only I B. Only II
C. Only III D. All of the above
E. None of the above
160. How can ‘less employee fatigue’ result from applying the principles of ergonomics in the workplace?
A. Since ergonomics provides for comfortable office B. Since ergonomics principles creates an environment for
furniture, it leads to less fatigue in employees. higher productivity, it leads to less employee fatigue.
C. Ergonomics principles only creates benefits for the D. Ergonomics principle provides individual customized
owner and this leads to high levels of fatigue in the solutions to work place problems and this leads to less
employees. fatigue in employees.
E. Less employee fatigue is a disadvantage of ergonomics.
161. Direction: Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Climate mitigation in India is rightly ensconced in its economic development. The country needs about $4.5 trillion
in infrastructure funding by 2040. Of this, $125 billion will be required to meet India’s national renewable energy
targets of 2022, $667 billion for electric vehicles and almost $1 trillion for affordable green housing. But these aren’t
India’s only growth areas as far as green are concerned. Energy efficiency has huge potential: Housing alone
comprises 35% of the market and agricultural pump sets 18% (including consuming 85% of all available freshwater
resources). Waste management, climate-resilient cities, land use practices, afforestation and reforestation, green
buildings and air pollution are all areas that need to be financed. The Union ministry of agriculture estimates an
additional food grain need of 70 million tons for the next 10 years due to lower productivity from climate-induced
changes in weather.
Yet, the problem is not money. The Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development’s pension funds alone
held $28 trillion in assets in 2017—more than the world’s largest economy—with less than 1% invested in green
assets. Even wind and solar still suffer from challenging tariffs and off take creditworthiness. Generally speaking,
green finance covers the financing of investments that generate environmental benefits as part of the broader strategy
to achieve inclusive, resilient and cleaner economic growth.
Elements of green finance in India lie scattered and shallow. Most of the experience with renewables has been project
financing by domestic banks. Although India is among the top issuers of green bonds, total issuances in 2017 stood
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at $6 billion—a fraction of what’s needed. More needs to be done to increase this number, including requiring audit
trails and enforcement for the use of proceeds. Investment advisory services in green remain marginal businesses
with scant understanding of international risk instruments, let alone experience with fund-raising that looks beyond
renewables aggregators. Climate resilience of companies is neither rewarded nor penalized as there are no norms for
value recognition. Standards and criteria for green (financial) products do not exist. The list goes on. With
technology costs on the decline, India’s growth needs on the rise and climate concerns not going away, the task ahead
for green finance is to step up the pace.
To effectively finance India’s economic development in a sustainable way, three important tasks lie ahead. First, a
national green finance strategy is needed, one that recognizes the preparedness level of sectors and the public capital
instruments to be deployed. Such a strategy must include recognition of incentives for sectors that need government
assistance—separated between those that still need subsidies and those that need risk-managed regulatory fixes.
Second, related to or stemming from the first, an ecosystem is needed that supports the development of more
innovative instruments to find solutions for sectors outside those of the typical comfort zones of investors and banks.
For example, more innovative ways of financing electric vehicles, or credit-enhancement instruments for scaling off-
grid energy. Such an effort should include considerations for blended finance approaches, drawing on public
institutional investment vehicles, and integrating green finance into foreign direct investment. Third, a real
conversation is needed at the regulatory level to shape financial markets—such as introducing a taxonomy for green
finance, green standards for financial products, duties of asset managers, requirements of the stock exchange,
mandatory disclosure norms of companies, and so on.
Source: https://www.livemint.com/Opinion What are the tasks suggested in the passage to effectively finance India’s
economic development in a sustainable way?
I. A national green finance strategy is needed, one that recognizes the preparedness level of sectors and the public
capital instruments to be deployed.
II. An ecosystem is needed that supports the development of more innovative instruments to find solutions for sectors
outside those of the typical comfort zones of investors and banks.
III. A real conversation is needed at the regulatory level to shape financial markets.
A. Only I B. Only II
C. Only III D. Only I and II
E. All I, II and III
162. Which of the following statement regarding the capital requirement for infrastructure development in India is
correct?
A. India needs $4.5 trillion in infrastructure funding by B. India requires $125 billion to meet the renewable
2040. energy targets of 2022.
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C. India needs $ 667 billion for development for D. India needs almost $1 trillion for affordable green
infrastructure related to electric vehicles. housing.
E. All of the above.
163. What are the objectives of green finance according to the passage?
A. Green finance covers the facilitating of investments B. Green finance covers the fabricating of investments
that generate environmental benefits as part of the broader that generate environmental benefits as part of the broader
strategy to achieve exclusive, resilient and cleaner strategy to achieve exhaustive, resilient and cleaner
economic growth. economic growth.
C. Green finance covers the financing of investments that D. Green finance covers the financing of investments that
generate environmental benefits as part of the broader generate economic benefits as part of the broader strategy
strategy to achieve inclusive, resilient and cleaner to achieve inclusive, resilient and cleaner economic
economic growth. growth.
E. None of the above
164. With which of the following statement is the author likely to agree?
A. Elements of green financing in India are well
B. India does not need to issue green bonds
organized
D. Green finance in India needs to step up the face to meet
C. Climate resilience of companies should be penalized
India’s growth needs.
E. None of the above
165. Which of the following statement can be inferred from the passage?
A. The problem with the infrastructure development in B. Solar and Wind are the most bankable sectors when it
India is the lack of money. comes to renewable energy.
D. Investment advisory services remain on the periphery
C. Forestry and agriculture offer viable business model
and Indian companies have little understanding of
for renewable energy.
international risk instruments.
E. None of the above
166. Direction: In the given question, an idiom/phrase has been printed in bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative
that best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase. She was glad to be home again, back in the bosom of her
family.
A. Someone who was befriended, taken care of, or treated
well but proved to be traitorous, untrustworthy, deceitful, B. Where the righteous go after death
or ungrateful.
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C. To get warmed up after a cold day outside D. To be in a group of people who love you.
E. To be cheered up by someone
167. Direction: In the given question, an idiom/phrase has been printed in bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative
that best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase. Racist feelings almost certainly lie at the bottom of these
recent attacks.
A. To be the basic cause of something unpleasant B. A certainty that something will happen or be true
C. The last of one's ready or available ploys or tricks D. To hate somebody from the core of heart
E. Everyone must be self-sufficient.
168. Direction: In the given question, an idiom/phrase has been printed in bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative
that best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase. All her efforts to be polite went by the board and she started to
shout.
A. Involving every part or person of an organization B. To be honest and legal
C. To be calm D. To be rejected or ignored
E. To be shy
169. Direction: In the question below, there is a word given in bold which is followed by five options. In each of the
options, a pair of words is given which is either the pair of synonyms or antonyms or synonym & antonym of the
word given in bold. Choose that pair as your answer. Wit

A. Humour: Silliness B. Horror: Insanity

C. Sarcasm: Craziness D. Sagacity: Intelligence
E. Sense: Tragedy
170. Direction: The following question carries a word, which has been used in 3 different sentences given below it.
Identify the statement(s) in which the word has been used correctly. Remedy
1) The remedy to the problem of unemployment lies in the hands of the government.
2) Holding copyright provides the only legal remedy against unauthorized copying.
3) The new government energetically proceeded to remedy the state of affairs.
A. Only 1 B. Only 2
C. Only 3 D. Both 1 and 3
E. All 1, 2 and 3
171. Direction: In the following question, a word is given, which has been used in the three statements given below it.
Identify the statement(s) in which the word fits contextually to convey a logical meaning. Insipid
1) He is a man more noted for his insipid than his charm.
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2) Dean mumbled an insipid apology.

3) Conservationists say the losses could insipid the long-term survival of the creatures.
A. All 1, 2 and 3 B. Only 1
C. Only 2 D. Both 1 and 3
E. Only 3
172. Direction: In the given question, four words are given of which two are most nearly the same or opposite in
meaning. Find the two words and indicate your answer by marking the option which represents the correct
combination. A) Detest
B) Wary
C) Delirium
D) Cautious
A. A-C B. B-D
C. A-B D. C-D
E. B-C
173. Direction: Which of the following is the most opposite in meaning to the given word? Obloquy
A. Vilification B. Denigration
C. Slander D. Invective
E. Eulogize
174. Direction: In the given question, four words are printed in bold and are numbered A, B, C and D. The positions of
some highlighted words may be incorrect and need to be exchanged with another highlighted to make the sentence
correct. Find the words that need to be exchanged. This often-poignant missives (A) of Mandela's collection (B)
gives us a deeper insight into how he struggled (C) with being an absent and imprisoned (D) father and husband.
A. A – C and B – D B. A – B
C. A – B and C – D D. C – D
E. No exchange required.
175. Direction: Which of the following phrases (i), (ii), and (iii) given below each sentence should replace the phrase
printed in bold letters to make the sentence grammatically correct? Choose the best option among the five given
alternatives that reflect the correct use of phrase in the context of the grammatically correct sentence. If the sentence
is correct as it is, mark (E) i.e., "No correction required" as the answer. Rooting or jailbreaking is a process where the
user removes restrictions to overcome the limits set by manufacturers on there OS.

i. overcome the limitations set by manufacturers by there

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ii. overcome the limits set by manufacturers on their

iii. overcome the limitations set by manufacturers on their
A. Only i B. Only ii
C. Only iii D. Both ii and iii
E. No correction required
176. Direction: Which of the following phrases (i), (ii), and (iii) given below each sentence should replace the phrase
printed in bold letters to make the sentence grammatically correct? Choose the best option among the five given
alternatives that reflect the correct use of phrase in the context of the grammatically correct sentence. If the sentence
is correct as it is, mark (E) i.e., "No correction required" as the answer. We were getting in touch with the Internet
and people were voicing their opinions more, as much as they listening to what others were talking about.

i. listening to what was being said by others

ii. were listening to what was being said by others
iii. were listening to what others were talking about
A. Only i B. Only ii
C. Only iii D. Both ii and iii
E. No correction required
177. Direction: In the given question, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below the sentence, alternatives to the
emboldened part are given as (A), (B), (C) and (D), which may help improve the sentence. Choose the correct
alternative out of the given five options. In case the given sentence is correct, your answer will be option (E), i.e.,
"No correction required". The minister dismissed the Central Board of Direct Taxes’ claim that it has not issued any
information to Durga Puja committees this year.
A. it did not issued no notice to Durga Puja committees B. it did not issued any information to Durga Puja
this year committees this year
C. it had not issued no notice to Durga Puja committees D. it had not issued any notice to Durga Puja committees
this year this year
E. No correction required
178. Direction: In the following question, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below the sentence, alternatives to the
bold part are given at (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) which may help improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative.
The work he did was humiliating personally, because of the social stigma associated with scavenging in the Hindu
tradition.
A. The work he did was sociologically humiliating B. The work he did was mental humiliating
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C. The work he did was socially humiliating D. The work he did was hypothetically humiliating
E. The work he did was theoretically humiliating
179. Direction: In the given question, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below the sentence, alternatives to the
emboldened part are given as (A), (B), (C) and (D), which may help improve the sentence. Choose the correct
alternative out of the given five options. In case the given sentence is correct, your answer will be option (E), i.e.,
"No correction required". In many Indian glittering cities and towns, and even in some urbanised villages, men to
continue die cleaning sewers and septic tanks.
A. continuing to die cleaning B. continued to die cleaning
C. continues to die cleaning D. continue to die cleaning
E. No correction required
180. Direction: In the given question, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below the sentence, alternatives to the
emboldened part are given as (A), (B), (C) and (D), which may help improve the sentence. Choose the correct
alternative out of the given five options. In case the given sentence is correct, your answer will be option (E), i.e.,
"No correction required". In India, the performance of the selectors comes under as much criticism as that of the
players.
A. comes below as much inspection B. comes beneath as much investigation
C. comes under as much scrutiny D. comes beneath as much review
E. No correction required
181. Direction: In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed
below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately.

An Anganwadi worker needs to (###Q1###) to a population of 1,000 in rural and suburban areas under the
guidelines of Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS). An anganwadi worker plays a crucial role in
(###Q2###) the gap between people and healthcare centres to (###Q3###) education, nutrition and health needs of
children up to six years. The basic functionaries of the ICDS are anganwadi workers and helpers whose primary
responsibilities are to run the centres and implement the schemes with the coordination from various stakeholders
and monitoring agencies.

Anganwadi centres deliver a (###Q4###) of services such as supplementary nutrition, pre-schooling, non-formal
education, health check-ups, immunisation, referral services and nutritional education. Recently, a media report
(###Q5###) that 362,940 anganwadis centres did not have toilet facilities and 159,568 centres did not have drinking
water. The report claimed that Anganwadi workers felt (###Q6###) with extra work.
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The implementation of new policies and programme such as digitisation of Anganwadis would be challenging and
(###Q7###). The current change in the attendance system has added pressure on the workers; for example, workers
in Delhi and Madhya Pradesh need to mark their attendance every morning by sending live locations and photos via
social messaging application WhatsApp to their supervisors. While the Delhi government promised it would
(###Q8###) their mobile / internet bills, the same was not fulfilled.

Find out the appropriate word in each case.

A. mitigate B. cater
C. organize D. distinguish
E. conclude
182. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
A. transit B. defining
C. augmenting D. restrict
E. bridging
183. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
A. restructured B. diminish
C. accomplish D. supplementary
E. define
184. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
A. bundle B. continual
C. innate D. collections
E. catering
185. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
A. concludes B. devised
C. spread D. alleged
E. rectify
186. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
A. embarrassed B. overburdened
C. restricted D. slackened
E. confused
187. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
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A. stimulate B. reassured
C. identify D. contentious
E. vague
188. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
A. buy back B. concession
C. subsidized D. reimburse
E. discounted
189. Direction: Three statements are given below at A, B and C . There may be some errors in the given statements. Mark
the correct statement as the answer. If all the statements are incorrect, mark option E, i.e., "All are incorrect" as the
answer.

A) The team was divided in its opinion.

B) The crux for the problem lay in his denial of the accusations.

C) Adjustment comes naturally to one born in a large family.

A. Only A B. Only B
C. Only C D. Both A and B
E. All are incorrect
190. Direction: Three statements are given below at A, B and C . There may be some errors in the given statements. Mark
the correct statement as the answer. If all the statements are incorrect, mark option E, i.e., "All are incorrect" as the
answer.

A) He didn’t had a square meal throughout the day.

B) It was clear that he had had enough of such nonsense.

C) The teacher was constantly worried about her students’ welfare during the flu season.
A. Only A B. Only B
C. Only C D. Both B and C
E. All are incorrect
191. A) That indeed is quite an odd predicament to find oneself in.

B) Her predictions were almost always accurate.

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C) He have a proclivity to faint at the sight of blood.

A. Only A B. Only B
C. Both A and B D. Both B and C
E. All are incorrect
192. A) Growing pollution made life more difficult to the asthmatic patient.

B) Though not faint of heart, the sight of a wound would always make him a little queasy.

C) An university education often come in handy when looking to become an educator.

A. Only A B. Only B
C. Only C D. Both A and B
E. All are incorrect
193. Direction: In the following question, three sentences labelled (I), (II) and (III) have been given. Each sentence
carries a blank which can be filled by a word given in the options. Choose the word which can be used to fill all the
blanks, making the sentence contextually and grammatically correct.

I. Sameer’s blue mood following the memorial service dissipated with the passing days and he remained in ____
spirits.

II. Princess Cindrella, dressed in her most splendid robes of state, sat in the magnificent emerald throne, with her
jewelled sceptre in her hand and her sparkling coronet upon her ______ brow.

III. Mr. Higmontan, President of the New World's _______, which takes place at London every year, kindly gave me
the permission to touch the exhibits, with an eagerness as insatiable as that with which Pizarro seized the treasures of
Peru.
A. Good B. High
C. Fair D. Dark
E. Best
194. Direction: In the following question, three sentences labelled (I), (II) and (III) have been given, followed by two
words. Each sentence carries a blank which may or may not be filled by the given words. From the given options,
choose the combination which represents the appropriate pair of sentence and word.

I. China's president is accused of having ______ with a senior election commission official to rig the result of last
year’s election.
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II. The board willingly ________ with known bad elements only to ensure higher profit shares for themselves.
III. Their contrasting political beliefs soon _______ leading to tensions in their relationship.

(a) connived

(b) collided
A. I-(b), II-(b) & III-(b) B. I-(b), II- (a) &III-(a)
C. I-(a),II-(b) & III-(a) D. I-(a),II-(a) & III-(b)
E. None of the above
195. Direction: In the given question, a statement with a blank has been given, followed by three word out of which more
than one can complete the sentence grammatically and contextually. Find the word (s) which can fill the blank and
choose the option accordingly. Nancy, who had been quiet for some time, suddenly ________________.

I. smile

II. spoke

III. saw
A. Only I B. Only II
C. Only III D. Both I & II
E. Both I & III
196. Direction: The following question carries a statement with two blanks. From the given options, choose the word that
would fit in both the blanks to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful. An economic elite, whose
criticism was ________ at the wastage of ammunition, ________ the nation's affairs.
A. Pointed B. Labelled
C. Directed D. Posted
E. Administered
197. Direction: Five statements are given below, labelled A, B, C, D and E. Among these, four statements are in a logical
order and form a coherent paragraph. From the given options, choose the correct order of the sentences and the
statement that does not fit into the major theme of the passage.

A) On January 11, 2010, Process and Industrial Development, a company based in the British Virgin Islands, signed
a contract with the Federal Government of Nigeria, also known as the gas supply and processing agreement.
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B) Similarly, the government objected to the method of measuring estimated expenses and income stream, which P &
ID used to calculate its damages claim.

C) In return, P & ID would process the wet gas by removing natural gas liquids and return approximately 85% of it
to the government in the form of lean gas at no cost to the Nigerian government.

D) Based on this agreement, Nigeria was supposed to arrange for the supply of wet gas to P & ID’s gas processing
facility which the company intended to build in the country’s Cross Rivers State.

E) In this agreement, the Nigerian government agreed that, over a 20-year period, it would supply natural gas or wet
gas to P & ID’s production facility.
A. AECD; B B. ABDE; C
C. CADE; B D. DEBC; A
E. BECA; D
198. Direction: In the given question, a statement has been divided into five segments, each of which is denoted by (A),
(B), (C), (D) and (E). Rearrange all the segments to form a coherent statement.

A) the stories of most of the Hindi films revolve around affluent

B) Indians and endorse the social, religious, and cultural values

C) of the Hindu middle class and by doing so,

D) a new form of nation and nationalism that is not fully inclusive

E) such films also try to construct

A. DECAB B. DBCAE
C. CABED D. ABEDC
E. ABCED
199. Direction: In the given question, the 1st part of the sentence is given. The rest of the sentence/passage is split into
four parts and named A, B, C and D . These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentence and find
out which of the four combinations is correct.

Centuries ago, there was a king, one of the greatest the humankind had ever seen. His name was Alexander. People
called him Alexander the Great, because he took the reins of his little and broken Greek kingdom at a tender age of
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13 and by the time he turned 30, he had conquered nations after nations to create one of the largest empires in the
ancient world.

A) Macedonia, his kingdom, was so vast that its people didn’t know how their king looked like.

B) However, as great a king as he was, he had a problem.

C) To solve this problem, he printed money and with it, embossed his face on the coins – a practice that’s followed
even today, as we still see faces of prominent personalities embedded on currencies across the world.

D) There weren’t enough sculpture artists back then who could create his statues, nor were the lightning fast
mediums of transportation that we enjoy today that he could use to travel all across his empire.
A. ABDC B. DBAC
C. BADC D. ADBC
E. BACD
200. Beowulf is a poem that teaches us not to place too much faith in beginnings.

A) Two centuries of often rancorous scholarly debate have managed to pin the poem to the period between 700 and
1000 AD, which is rather like saying that Moby-Dick could have been written by anyone from Alexander Pope to
Zadie Smith.

B) Its own origin is hazy: the author is unknown, and so is its date of composition.

C) What is certain in Beowulf is how things end.

D) Likewise, Beowulf’s heroes tend to emerge from the mists of the past—their formation in myth, folklore, and
early chronicles is up for endless discussion.
A. ABDC B. DBAC
C. BADC D. ADBC
E. BACD
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Solutions
1. C
Sol. People: Rohit, Sanjay, Mohit, Ajay, Bhuvan, Harsh, Virat and Rishi.

Dates: 02, 11, 28, 05, 08, 31, 22 and 09.

1) Rishi has been called on 09th of August.

2) A week after 15th of August Bhuvan has been called up for interview.

3) Rohit, Sanjay and Harsh have to appear for interview before 10th of August.

4) Mohit has been called on a date before 15th of August.

(So, there is only one possible date for Mohit)

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5) Sanjay has been called on a date which is not even.

6) Either Ajay or Virat has been called on 31st August.

7) Ajay has to go for interview exactly 20 days after Harsh.

(So, there is only one possible arrangement)

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Hence, Virat has been called on 31st of August.

2. A
Sol. People: Rohit, Sanjay, Mohit, Ajay, Bhuvan, Harsh, Virat and Rishi.

Dates: 02, 11, 28, 05, 08, 31, 22 and 09.

1) Rishi has been called on 09th of August.

2) A week after 15th of August Bhuvan has been called up for interview.

3) Rohit, Sanjay and Harsh have to appear for interview before 10th of August.

4) Mohit has been called on a date before 15th of August.

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(So, there is only one possible date for Mohit)

5) Sanjay has been called on a date which is not even.

6) Either Ajay or Virat has been called on 31st August.

7) Ajay has to go for interview exactly 20 days after Harsh.

(So, there is only one possible arrangement)

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Hence, Rohit has been called first for interview.

3. B
Sol. People: Rohit, Sanjay, Mohit, Ajay, Bhuvan, Harsh, Virat and Rishi.

Dates: 02, 11, 28, 05, 08, 31, 22 and 09.

1) Rishi has been called on 09th of August.

2) A week after 15th of August Bhuvan has been called up for interview.

3) Rohit, Sanjay and Harsh have to appear for interview before 10th of August.

4) Mohit has been called on a date before 15th of August.

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(So, there is only one possible date for Mohit)

5) Sanjay has been called on a date which is not even.

6) Either Ajay or Virat has been called on 31st August.

7) Ajay has to go for interview exactly 20 days after Harsh.

(So, there is only one possible arrangement)

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Hence, Ajay has been called on 28th of August for interview.

4. E
Sol. People: Rohit, Sanjay, Mohit, Ajay, Bhuvan, Harsh, Virat and Rishi.

Dates: 02, 11, 28, 05, 08, 31, 22 and 09.

1) Rishi has been called on 09th of August.

2) A week after 15th of August Bhuvan has been called up for interview.

3) Rohit, Sanjay and Harsh have to appear for interview before 10th of August.

4) Mohit has been called on a date before 15th of August.

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(So, there is only one possible date for Mohit)

5) Sanjay has been called on a date which is not even.

6) Either Ajay or Virat has been called on 31st August.

7) Ajay has to go for interview exactly 20 days after Harsh.

(So, there is only one possible arrangement)

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Hence, only two people (i.e. Bhuvan and Ajay) have been called for interview in between 20 – 30 August.
5. C
Sol. As per above information the family tree is:

D mother-in-law of C, So answer is C
6. B
Sol. As per above information the family tree is:
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G is son of B, So answer is B
7. A
Sol. As per above information the family tree is:

D is the grand-father of E and G but true information is D is the grand-mother of E and G. So answer is A
8. D
Sol. Games - High jump, Pole vault, Long jump, Triple jump, Shot put, Discus throw and Javelin Throw
1. Triple jump starts at Sunday 10AM and takes 19 hours to finish the game. Discus throw starts at 3PM and there is
a gap of 8 hours between starting time of Discus throw and Javelin throw. Since high jump is the least duration game,
it starts before 7PM and the game ends at 9PM.
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2. There is a four hour gap between the starting times of Shot put, starting at 8AM and long jump. Long jump is
earliest to start. Its starting time is not after 7AM and its total time is two hours less than the total time of discus
throw.

3. High jump starts five hours after Pole vault starts but takes only three hours to finish the game. Since high jump is
the least duration game, it starts before 7PM and the game ends at 9PM.

4. Discus throw and Javelin throw takes 10 hours and 8 hours respectively to finish the game.
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5. Long jump is earliest to start. Its starting time is not after 7AM and its total time is two hours less than the total
time of discus throw. Shot put takes one hour more than the total time of long jump to finish the game. One game
ends at 6PM.

Hence, Javelin throw starts at 7AM.

9. D
Sol. Games - High jump, Pole vault, Long jump, Triple jump, Shot put, Discus throw and Javelin Throw
1. Triple jump starts at Sunday 10AM and takes 19 hours to finish the game. Discus throw starts at 3PM and there is
a gap of 8 hours between starting time of Discus throw and Javelin throw. Since high jump is the least duration game,
it starts before 7PM and the game ends at 9PM.

2. There is a four hour gap between the starting times of Shot put, starting at 8AM and long jump. Long jump is
earliest to start. Its starting time is not after 7AM and its total time is two hours less than the total time of discus
throw.

3. High jump starts five hours after Pole vault starts but takes only three hours to finish the game. Since high jump is
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the least duration game, it starts before 7PM and the game ends at 9PM.

4. Discus throw and Javelin throw takes 10 hours and 8 hours respectively to finish the game.

5. Long jump is earliest to start. Its starting time is not after 7AM and its total time is two hours less than the total
time of discus throw. Shot put takes one hour more than the total time of long jump to finish the game. One game
ends at 6PM.

Hence, Pole vault took 5 hours to complete the game.

10. D
Sol. Games - High jump, Pole vault, Long jump, Triple jump, Shot put, Discus throw and Javelin Throw
1. Triple jump starts at Sunday 10AM and takes 19 hours to finish the game. Discus throw starts at 3PM and there is
a gap of 8 hours between starting time of Discus throw and Javelin throw. Since high jump is the least duration game,
it starts before 7PM and the game ends at 9PM.
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2. There is a four hour gap between the starting times of Shot put, starting at 8AM and long jump. Long jump is
earliest to start. Its starting time is not after 7AM and its total time is two hours less than the total time of discus
throw.

3. High jump starts five hours after Pole vault starts but takes only three hours to finish the game. Since high jump is
the least duration game, it starts before 7PM and the game ends at 9PM.

4. Discus throw and Javelin throw takes 10 hours and 8 hours respectively to finish the game.
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5. Long jump is earliest to start. Its starting time is not after 7AM and its total time is two hours less than the total
time of discus throw. Shot put takes one hour more than the total time of long jump to finish the game. One game
ends at 6PM.

Hence, four games are played between Discus throw and Long jump.
11. B
Sol. Games - High jump, Pole vault, Long jump, Triple jump, Shot put, Discus throw and Javelin Throw
1. Triple jump starts at Sunday 10AM and takes 19 hours to finish the game. Discus throw starts at 3PM and there is
a gap of 8 hours between starting time of Discus throw and Javelin throw. Since high jump is the least duration game,
it starts before 7PM and the game ends at 9PM.

2. There is a four hour gap between the starting times of Shot put, starting at 8AM and long jump. Long jump is
earliest to start. Its starting time is not after 7AM and its total time is two hours less than the total time of discus
throw.

3. High jump starts five hours after Pole vault starts but takes only three hours to finish the game. Since high jump is
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the least duration game, it starts before 7PM and the game ends at 9PM.

4. Discus throw and Javelin throw takes 10 hours and 8 hours respectively to finish the game.

5. Long jump is earliest to start. Its starting time is not after 7AM and its total time is two hours less than the total
time of discus throw. Shot put takes one hour more than the total time of long jump to finish the game. One game
ends at 6PM.

Hence, Discus throw was finished on Monday.

12. C
Sol. Games - High jump, Pole vault, Long jump, Triple jump, Shot put, Discus throw and Javelin Throw
1. Triple jump starts at Sunday 10AM and takes 19 hours to finish the game. Discus throw starts at 3PM and there is
a gap of 8 hours between starting time of Discus throw and Javelin throw. Since high jump is the least duration game,
it starts before 7PM and the game ends at 9PM.
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2. There is a four hour gap between the starting times of Shot put, starting at 8AM and long jump. Long jump is
earliest to start. Its starting time is not after 7AM and its total time is two hours less than the total time of discus
throw.

3. High jump starts five hours after Pole vault starts but takes only three hours to finish the game. Since high jump is
the least duration game, it starts before 7PM and the game ends at 9PM.

4. Discus throw and Javelin throw takes 10 hours and 8 hours respectively to finish the game.
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5. Long jump is earliest to start. Its starting time is not after 7AM and its total time is two hours less than the total
time of discus throw. Shot put takes one hour more than the total time of long jump to finish the game. One game
ends at 6PM.

Hence, Long jump took 8 hours to complete.

13. D
Sol. Seven boxes: M, N, O, P, Q, R and S.

Weight: 12, 10, 18, 20, 24 and 5.

1) More than two boxes are placed above 12kg box.

2) Only two boxes are placed between 12kg and 20 kg box, which is immediately below box M.

3) Only one box is between 12kg and box R.

4) Box O is immediately above box R.

5) Neither O nor S is 20kg box.

Case 1:

Case 2:
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6) Box S is immediately above the box whose weight is 5kg.

7) Weight of box S is neither 20kg nor 12kg.

8) Box N is immediately above Box Q. Only one box is between box N and the box whose weight is 10 kg which is
below box N.

9) Only two boxes are kept between 10kg box and 8kg box.

Case 1:

Case 2:

10) The box whose weight is 18 kg is neither placed at the top nor at the bottom.

(Hence, case 2 will be eliminated, we can further proceed with case 1)

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(Finally, the weight of box O is 24 kg and weight of box P is 20 kg)

Clearly, the weight of the box which is placed in the middle of the stack is 12kg.
14. A
Sol. Seven boxes: M, N, O, P, Q, R and S.

Weight: 12, 10, 18, 20, 24 and 5.

1) More than two boxes are placed above 12kg box.

2) Only two boxes are placed between 12kg and 20 kg box, which is immediately below box M.

3) Only one box is between 12kg and box R.

4) Box O is immediately above box R.

5) Neither O nor S is 20kg box.

Case 1:

Case 2:
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6) Box S is immediately above the box whose weight is 5kg.

7) Weight of box S is neither 20kg nor 12kg.

8) Box N is immediately above Box Q. Only one box is between box N and the box whose weight is 10 kg which is
below box N.

9) Only two boxes are kept between 10kg box and 8kg box.

Case 1:

Case 2:

10) The box whose weight is 18 kg is neither placed at the top nor at the bottom.

(Hence, case 2 will be eliminated, we can further proceed with case 1)

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(Finally, the weight of box O is 24 kg and weight of box P is 20 kg)

Clearly, Weight of box N and Q is equal to the weight of box S and Box P among the given options.
15. D
Sol. Seven boxes: M, N, O, P, Q, R and S.

Weight: 12, 10, 18, 20, 24 and 5.

1) More than two boxes are placed above 12kg box.

2) Only two boxes are placed between 12kg and 20 kg box, which is immediately below box M.

3) Only one box is between 12kg and box R.

4) Box O is immediately above box R.

5) Neither O nor S is 20kg box.

Case 1:

Case 2:
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6) Box S is immediately above the box whose weight is 5kg.

7) Weight of box S is neither 20kg nor 12kg.

8) Box N is immediately above Box Q. Only one box is between box N and the box whose weight is 10 kg which is
below box N.

9) Only two boxes are kept between 10kg box and 8kg box.

Case 1:

Case 2:

10) The box whose weight is 18 kg is neither placed at the top nor at the bottom.

(Hence, case 2 will be eliminated, we can further proceed with case 1)

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(Finally, the weight of box O is 24 kg and weight of box P is 20 kg)

Clearly, no box is kept above box O.

16. A
Sol. Seven boxes: M, N, O, P, Q, R and S.

Weight: 12, 10, 18, 20, 24 and 5.

1) More than two boxes are placed above 12kg box.

2) Only two boxes are placed between 12kg and 20 kg box, which is immediately below box M.

3) Only one box is between 12kg and box R.

4) Box O is immediately above box R.

5) Neither O nor S is 20kg box.

Case 1:

Case 2:
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6) Box S is immediately above the box whose weight is 5kg.

7) Weight of box S is neither 20kg nor 12kg.

8) Box N is immediately above Box Q. Only one box is between box N and the box whose weight is 10 kg which is
below box N.

9) Only two boxes are kept between 10kg box and 8kg box.

Case 1:

Case 2:

10) The box whose weight is 18 kg is neither placed at the top nor at the bottom.

(Hence, case 2 will be eliminated, we can further proceed with case 1)

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(Finally, the weight of box O is 24 kg and weight of box P is 20 kg)

Clearly, box M contains least weight.

17. D
Sol. ‘human speed makes good’ is written as ‘nr pz ns uv’.

‘good country develops skill speed’ is written as ‘uv nq ae pz kl’.

‘skill develops human good’ is written as ‘pz kl nq ns’.

good = pz

human = ns

speed = uv

makes = nr

country = ae

skill/develop= kl/nq

Therefore, option D is the right answer.

18. C
Sol. ‘human speed makes good’ is written as ‘nr pz ns uv’.

‘good country develops skill speed’ is written as ‘uv nq ae pz kl’.

‘skill develops human good’ is written as ‘pz kl nq ns’.

good = pz
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human = ns

speed = uv

makes = nr

country = ae

skill/develop= kl/nq

Therefore, option C is the right answer.

19. B
Sol. ‘human speed makes good’ is written as ‘nr pz ns uv’.

‘good country develops skill speed’ is written as ‘uv nq ae pz kl’.

‘skill develops human good’ is written as ‘pz kl nq ns’.

good = pz

human = ns

speed = uv

makes = nr

country = ae

skill/develop= kl/nq

Therefore, option B is the right answer.

20. E
Sol. ‘human speed makes good’ is written as ‘nr pz ns uv’.

‘good country develops skill speed’ is written as ‘uv nq ae pz kl’.

‘skill develops human good’ is written as ‘pz kl nq ns’.

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good = pz

human = ns

speed = uv

makes = nr

country = ae

skill/develop= kl/nq

Therefore, option E is the right answer.

21. B
Sol. Word formed by E, M, U and T is MUTE.
Explanation:

22. A
Sol. Meaningful words formed by letters against numbers 5, 9,15 and 19 are RULE and LURE.
Explanation:
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23. A
Sol. Explanation:

24. C
Sol. Letters against the numbers at each multiple of 3 and 5 together are
3-A, 5-L, 9-E, 15-R, 21-T, 25-H and 27-W.
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Explanation:

25. E
Sol. Given Series: BCCDALLMMCCCEUMKNNCICKMSSEOFUJJE
If every letter beginning from position 7, counted from left, is replaced by its successor in the English alphabet
Modified Series: BCCDALMNNDDDFVNLOODJDLNTTFPGVKKF
Hence there are three L.
26. C
Sol. Given Series: BCCDALLMMCCCEUMKNNCICKMSSEOFUJJE
the letters left to right at the positions
10 = C, 5 = A, 13 = E ,27 = O, 6 = L, 5 = A, 4 = D, and 19 = C
ACCOLADE
Means, An award or privilege granted as a special honor or as an acknowledgment of merit.
27. C
Sol. 716, 928, 678, 483, 237
928 > 716 > 678 > 483 > 237
28. A
Sol. 761, 982, 876, 843, 732
982 > 876 > 843 > 761 > 732
29. A
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Sol. 1) There are as many people between A and B as between A and OBC candidate.
T who sits at extreme right is a PWD candidate is diagonally opposite to the one who belongs to general and is in
private college.

2) Q is opposite to A who is to the immediate left of an SC candidate.

3) Those who are diagonally opposite are not in same college, thus T must be in govt as B is in private.
D who is in Government College is second to the right of PWD candidate.
R who is in pvt college is opposite to E who is not sitting at the extreme end. Now in row I extreme left position is
left so C must be there, category ST is left so A must be ST

Person from same category and college are not opposite each other. Exactly 1 person sits between ST and General
category candidate.
Those who are diagonally opposite are not in same college.
E and OBC candidate in row II are diagonally opposite thus OBC candidate belongs to pvt.
Not more than 2 people from same college are adjacent to each other, thus. A must be in pvt college and Q is
opposite to A so Q must be in govt college.

30. C
Sol. 1) There are as many people between A and B as between A and OBC candidate.
T who sits at extreme right is a PWD candidate is diagonally opposite to the one who belongs to general and is in
private college.

2) Q is opposite to A who is to the immediate left of an SC candidate.

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3) Those who are diagonally opposite are not in same college, thus T must be in govt as B is in private.
D who is in Government College is second to the right of PWD candidate.
R who is in pvt college is opposite to E who is not sitting at the extreme end. Now in row I extreme left position is
left so C must be there, category ST is left so A must be ST

Person from same category and college are not opposite each other. Exactly 1 person sits between ST and General
category candidate.
Those who are diagonally opposite are not in same college.
E and OBC candidate in row II are diagonally opposite thus OBC candidate belongs to pvt.
Not more than 2 people from same college are adjacent to each other, thus. A must be in pvt college and Q is
opposite to A so Q must be in govt college.

31. B
Sol. 1) There are as many people between A and B as between A and OBC candidate.
T who sits at extreme right is a PWD candidate is diagonally opposite to the one who belongs to general and is in
private college.

2) Q is opposite to A who is to the immediate left of an SC candidate.

3) Those who are diagonally opposite are not in same college, thus T must be in govt as B is in private.
D who is in Government College is second to the right of PWD candidate.
R who is in pvt college is opposite to E who is not sitting at the extreme end. Now in row I extreme left position is
left so C must be there, category ST is left so A must be ST

Person from same category and college are not opposite each other. Exactly 1 person sits between ST and General
category candidate.
Those who are diagonally opposite are not in same college.
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E and OBC candidate in row II are diagonally opposite thus OBC candidate belongs to pvt.
Not more than 2 people from same college are adjacent to each other, thus. A must be in pvt college and Q is
opposite to A so Q must be in govt college.

32. D
Sol. 1) There are as many people between A and B as between A and OBC candidate.
T who sits at extreme right is a PWD candidate is diagonally opposite to the one who belongs to general and is in
private college.

2) Q is opposite to A who is to the immediate left of an SC candidate.

3) Those who are diagonally opposite are not in same college, thus T must be in govt as B is in private.
D who is in Government College is second to the right of PWD candidate.
R who is in pvt college is opposite to E who is not sitting at the extreme end. Now in row I extreme left position is
left so C must be there, category ST is left so A must be ST

Person from same category and college are not opposite each other. Exactly 1 person sits between ST and General
category candidate.
Those who are diagonally opposite are not in same college.
E and OBC candidate in row II are diagonally opposite thus OBC candidate belongs to pvt.
Not more than 2 people from same college are adjacent to each other, thus. A must be in pvt college and Q is
opposite to A so Q must be in govt college.

33. D
Sol. 1) There are as many people between A and B as between A and OBC candidate.
T who sits at extreme right is a PWD candidate is diagonally opposite to the one who belongs to general and is in
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private college.

2) Q is opposite to A who is to the immediate left of an SC candidate.

3) Those who are diagonally opposite are not in same college, thus T must be in govt as B is in private.
D who is in Government College is second to the right of PWD candidate.
R who is in pvt college is opposite to E who is not sitting at the extreme end. Now in row I extreme left position is
left so C must be there, category ST is left so A must be ST

Person from same category and college are not opposite each other. Exactly 1 person sits between ST and General
category candidate.
Those who are diagonally opposite are not in same college.
E and OBC candidate in row II are diagonally opposite thus OBC candidate belongs to pvt.
Not more than 2 people from same college are adjacent to each other, thus. A must be in pvt college and Q is
opposite to A so Q must be in govt college.

34. C
Sol.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

35. B
Sol.
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Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

36. C
Sol.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

37. C
Sol. Persons: I, J, K, L, M, N, O and P

Steps:

1) The one who is sitting between I and N is facing towards the centre.

2) Three persons sit between J and N.

3) K sits third to the left of I.

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4) J sits just to the right of K, who is not facing towards the centre. It means case 3 and case 4 are ruled out.

5) M sits third to the left of O.

6) P sits second to the right of O.

7) P and I do not sit on the same side. It means case 1a and case 2b are ruled out.

8) L and J do not sit opposite to each other. It means case 1b is ruled out.

Clearly, P sits facing the centre.

38. B
Sol. Persons: I, J, K, L, M, N, O and P

Steps:

1) The one who is sitting between I and N is facing towards the centre.

2) Three persons sit between J and N.

3) K sits third to the left of I.

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4) J sits just to the right of K, who is not facing towards the centre. It means case 3 and case 4 are ruled out.

5) M sits third to the left of O.

6) P sits second to the right of O.

7) P and I do not sit on the same side. It means case 1a and case 2b are ruled out.

8) L and J do not sit opposite to each other. It means case 1b is ruled out.

Clearly, N is third to the right of O.

39. D
Sol. Persons: I, J, K, L, M, N, O and P

Steps:
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1) The one who is sitting between I and N is facing towards the centre.

2) Three persons sit between J and N.

3) K sits third to the left of I.

4) J sits just to the right of K, who is not facing towards the centre. It means case 3 and case 4 are ruled out.

5) M sits third to the left of O.

6) P sits second to the right of O.

7) P and I do not sit on the same side. It means case 1a and case 2b are ruled out.

8) L and J do not sit opposite to each other. It means case 1b is ruled out.

Clearly, K sits fourth to the left of P.

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40. E
Sol. Persons: I, J, K, L, M, N, O and P

Steps:

1) The one who is sitting between I and N is facing towards the centre.

2) Three persons sit between J and N.

3) K sits third to the left of I.

4) J sits just to the right of K, who is not facing towards the centre. It means case 3 and case 4 are ruled out.

5) M sits third to the left of O.

6) P sits second to the right of O.

7) P and I do not sit on the same side. It means case 1a and case 2b are ruled out.

8) L and J do not sit opposite to each other. It means case 1b is ruled out.
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Clearly, no conclusion is true.

41. D
Sol. Step 1:

Consonants that are immediately preceded by symbol and immediately succeeded by symbol are replaced by its
previous letter as per the English alphabet.

3%N^PR5$AM/A&P!9(QT*J]8UVI2O8J?

After step 1:

3%M^PR5$AM/A&O!9(QT*I]8UVI2O8J?

Step 2:

Symbols that are immediately preceded by a number and immediately succeeded by an alphabet are arranged at the
beginning of the series (just before 3) from right to left.

3%M^PR5$AM/A&O!9(QT*I]8UVI2O8J?

After step 1:

($%3M^PR5AM/A&O!9QT*I]8UVI2O8J?

Symbols between '3' and 'J':

($%3M^PR5AM/A&O!9QT*I]8UVI2O8J?

From the above series it is clear that there are 6 symbols between '3' and 'J' in the series after step 2.
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42. B
Sol. Step 1:

Consonants that are immediately preceded by symbol and immediately succeeded by symbol are replaced by its
previous letter as per the English alphabet.

3%N^PR5$AM/A&P!9(QT*J]8UVI2O8J?

After step 1:

3%M^PR5$AM/A&O!9(QT*I]8UVI2O8J?

Step 2:

Symbols that are immediately preceded by a number and immediately succeeded by an alphabet are arranged at the
beginning of the series (just before 3) from right to left.

3%M^PR5$AM/A&O!9(QT*I]8UVI2O8J?

After step 1:

($%3M^PR5AM/A&O!9QT*I]8UVI2O8J?

Step 3:

If an alphabet is immediately preceded by a number and immediately succeeded by an alphabet then it is arranged at
the end of the series (just after ‘?’) in alphabetical order.

($%3M^PR5AM/A&O!9QT*I]8UVI2O8J?

After step 3:

($%3M^PR5M/A&O!9T*I]8VI2O8J?AQU

Step 4:

All even numbers are divided by 2.

($%3M^PR5M/A&O!9T*I]8VI2O8J?AQU
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After step 4:

($%3M^PR5M/A&O!9T*I]4VI1O4J?AQU

Step 5:

All the elements that have multiple occurrences in the series are replaced by *.

($%3M^PR5M/A&O!9T*I]4VI1O4J?AQU

After step 5:

($%3*^PR5*/*&*!9T**]*V*1**J?*QU

After counting the number of * in the series after step 5 it is clear that there are 11 '*' in the series.
43. A
Sol. Step 1:

Consonants that are immediately preceded by symbol and immediately succeeded by symbol are replaced by its
previous letter as per the English alphabet.

3%N^PR5$AM/A&P!9(QT*J]8UVI2O8J?

After step 1:

3%M^PR5$AM/A&O!9(QT*I]8UVI2O8J?

Step 2:

Symbols that are immediately preceded by a number and immediately succeeded by an alphabet are arranged at the
beginning of the series (just before 3) from right to left.

3%M^PR5$AM/A&O!9(QT*I]8UVI2O8J?

After step 1:

($%3M^PR5AM/A&O!9QT*I]8UVI2O8J?

Step 3:
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If an alphabet is immediately preceded by a number and immediately succeeded by an alphabet then it is arranged at
the end of the series (just after ‘?’) in alphabetical order.

($%3M^PR5AM/A&O!9QT*I]8UVI2O8J?

After step 3:

($%3M^PR5M/A&O!9T*I]8VI2O8J?AQU

Step 4:

All even numbers are divided by 2.

($%3M^PR5M/A&O!9T*I]8VI2O8J?AQU

After step 4:

($%3M^PR5M/A&O!9T*I]4VI1O4J?AQU

From the series we get after step 4, it is clear that ']' is the 12th element from the right end of the series.
44. D
Sol. Step 1:

Consonants that are immediately preceded by symbol and immediately succeeded by symbol are replaced by its
previous letter as per the English alphabet.

3%N^PR5$AM/A&P!9(QT*J]8UVI2O8J?

After step 1:

3%M^PR5$AM/A&O!9(QT*I]8UVI2O8J?

Step 2:

Symbols that are immediately preceded by a number and immediately succeeded by an alphabet are arranged at the
beginning of the series (just before 3) from right to left.

3%M^PR5$AM/A&O!9(QT*I]8UVI2O8J?
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After step 1:

($%3M^PR5AM/A&O!9QT*I]8UVI2O8J?

Step 3:

If an alphabet is immediately preceded by a number and immediately succeeded by an alphabet then it is arranged at
the end of the series (just after ‘?’) in alphabetical order.

($%3M^PR5AM/A&O!9QT*I]8UVI2O8J?

After step 3:

($%3M^PR5M/A&O!9T*I]8VI2O8J?AQU

Elements between '%' and '/'

($%3M^PR5M/A&O!9T*I]8VI2O8J?AQU

There are 7 elements between '%' and '/' in step 3 as shown above.
45. A
Sol. The logic for obtaining the step I in the above given question is as follows:

Here 4+8 = 12 1+2 =3 and 7+9 = 16 1+6 = 7

Therefore output is: thus same logic is applied in all of the given input for the first step.
The logic for obtaining the step II in the above given question is as follows:

Here 3×5×5 = 75 and 7×4×2 = 56

Therefore output is:

The logic for obtaining the step III in the above given question is as follows:

Here 75 – 56 = 19
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Therefore output is:

The logic for obtaining the step III in the above given question is as follows:

Here 1 × 9= 9 9 / 2 = 4.5

Therefore output is:

So for the given input the arrangement will be as follows:

Therefore double of the average of numbers obtained in step I will be:

1) 47+31+33 = 111/3 = 37
37×2 =74
46. C
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Sol. The logic for obtaining the step I in the above given question is as follows:

Here 4+8 = 12 1+2 =3 and 7+9 = 16 1+6 = 7

Therefore output is: thus same logic is applied in all of the given input for the first step.
The logic for obtaining the step II in the above given question is as follows:

Here 3×5×5 = 75 and 7×4×2 = 56

Therefore output is:

The logic for obtaining the step III in the above given question is as follows:

Here 75 – 56 = 19

Therefore output is:

The logic for obtaining the step III in the above given question is as follows:

Here 1 × 9= 9 9 / 2 = 4.5

Therefore output is:

So for the given input the arrangement will be as follows:
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The number obtained in last step of given input is 2.5

47. A
Sol. 1) 47+31+33 = 111
2) 1+5= 6
therefore 111/6= 18.5
The logic for obtaining the step I in the above given question is as follows:

Here 4+8 = 12 1+2 =3 and 7+9 = 16 1+6 = 7

Therefore output is: thus same logic is applied in all of the given input for the first step.
The logic for obtaining the step II in the above given question is as follows:
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Here 3×5×5 = 75 and 7×4×2 = 56

Therefore output is:

The logic for obtaining the step III in the above given question is as follows:

Here 75 – 56 = 19

Therefore output is:

The logic for obtaining the step III in the above given question is as follows:

Here 1 × 9= 9 9 / 2 = 4.5

Therefore output is:

So for the given input the arrangement will be as follows:
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The number obtained in last step of given input is 2.5

48. C
Sol. The difference between the largest and the smallest number is 36- 21 = 15
The logic for obtaining the step I in the above given question is as follows:

Here 4+8 = 12 1+2 =3 and 7+9 = 16 1+6 = 7

Therefore output is: thus same logic is applied in all of the given input for the first step.
The logic for obtaining the step II in the above given question is as follows:

Here 3×5×5 = 75 and 7×4×2 = 56

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Therefore output is:

The logic for obtaining the step III in the above given question is as follows:

Here 75 – 56 = 19

Therefore output is:

The logic for obtaining the step III in the above given question is as follows:

Here 1 × 9= 9 9 / 2 = 4.5

Therefore output is:

So for the given input the arrangement will be as follows:
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The number obtained in last step of given input is 2.5

49. B
Sol. The numbers in step III are 1 and 5
Sum is 1+5=6 therefore 6×3=18
The logic for obtaining the step I in the above given question is as follows:

Here 4+8 = 12 1+2 =3 and 7+9 = 16 1+6 = 7

Therefore output is: thus same logic is applied in all of the given input for the first step.
The logic for obtaining the step II in the above given question is as follows:

Here 3×5×5 = 75 and 7×4×2 = 56

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Therefore output is:

The logic for obtaining the step III in the above given question is as follows:

Here 75 – 56 = 19

Therefore output is:

The logic for obtaining the step III in the above given question is as follows:

Here 1 × 9= 9 9 / 2 = 4.5

Therefore output is:

So for the given input the arrangement will be as follows:
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The number obtained in last step of given input is 2.5

50. B
Sol. The Zoo is in the North direction.
Sol : As the girl was facing south, the direction East will fall on her left hand. But she raised her Right hand
to West and the man followed the instruction of her hand as shown in figure below:

51. A
Sol. The man reached the South direction.
Sol : As the girl was facing south, the direction East will fall on her left hand. But she raised her Right hand
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to West and the man followed the instruction of her hand as shown in figure below:

52. D
Sol. The shortest distance he could cover is AC to reach to red light from shortcut.

= [phthagoras theorem]
= +
= 9 + 16 = 25
= 25
AC= 5 Km.
53. E
Sol. We have to make table, After, 1st and and 2nd line there are two possibilities of placing I and B but from 3rd and 4th
statements only one is possible.
From statement 4, it is clear that only one condition is possible since F and L have same month.
From 5th, K’s age has to be 68 years as the person whose age is 8 years cannot have born on October because K is
not present in September. So, the age of L is 8 years.

From 6th and 7th –

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K+C=105, C=105-68, C= 37
A+L= C-10, A+8=37-10, A= 19
From 7th - E and J are not 40 years of age, so D is 40 years of age.

G+J =90, as there average is 45

Since, G is even so J is also even as there average is even.
Since, G is leass than 40 years and 64 is left, so J is 64 years
G = 26 years
From 9th statement- B-H=18, Suppose B is 36 then age of H comes out to be odd.
So, either F or G is 36 years old.
G+L=D-6, G+14=D
If D’s age is 40, then G’s age will be 26.
G+J= 90, So, J=64
H+B+26=72,
H+B=46----1
B-H=18----2
Solving these two equations- B=32, H=14

54. B
Sol. We have to make table, After, 1st and and 2nd line there are two possibilities of placing I and B but from 3rd and 4th
statements only one is possible.
From statement 4, it is clear that only one condition is possible since F and L have same month.
From 5th, K’s age has to be 68 years as the person whose age is 8 years cannot have born on October because K is
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not present in September. So, the age of L is 8 years.

From 6th and 7th –

K+C=105, C=105-68, C= 37
A+L= C-10, A+8=37-10, A= 19
From 8th - G has to be born in October with the one who’s age is 40 years born on 18th October.

From 9th statement- B-H=18, Suppose B is 36 then age of H comes out to be odd.
So, either F or G is 36 years old.
G+L=D-6, G+14=D
If D’s age is 40, then G’s age will be 26.
G+J= 90, So, J=64
H+B+26=72,
H+B=46----1
B-H=18----2
Solving these two equations- B=32, H=14

55. C
Sol. We have to make table, After, 1st and and 2nd line there are two possibilities of placing I and B but from 3rd and 4th
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statements only one is possible.

From statement 4, it is clear that only one condition is possible since F and L have same month.
From 5th, K’s age has to be 68 years as the person whose age is 8 years cannot have born on October because K is
not present in September. So, the age of L is 8 years.

From 6th and 7th –

K+C=105, C=105-68, C= 37
A+L= C-10, A+8=37-10, A= 19
From 8th - G has to be born in October with the one who’s age is 40 years born on 18th October.

From 9th statement- B-H=18, Suppose B is 36 then age of H comes out to be odd.
So, either F or G is 36 years old.
G+L=D-6, G+14=D
If D’s age is 40, then G’s age will be 26.
G+J= 90, So, J=64
H+B+26=72,
H+B=46----1
B-H=18----2
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Solving these two equations- B=32, H=14

56. D
Sol. We have to make table, After, 1st and and 2nd line there are two possibilities of placing I and B but from 3rd and 4th
statements only one is possible.
From statement 4, it is clear that only one condition is possible since F and L have same month.
From 5th, K’s age has to be 68 years as the person whose age is 8 years cannot have born on October because K is
not present in September. So, the age of L is 8 years.

From 6th and 7th –

K+C=105, C=105-68, C= 37
A+L= C-10, A+8=37-10, A= 19
From 8th - G has to be born in October with the one who’s age is 40 years born on 18th October.

From 9th statement- B-H=18, Suppose B is 36 then age of H comes out to be odd.
So, either F or G is 36 years old.
G+L=D-6, G+14=D
If D’s age is 40, then G’s age will be 26.
G+J= 90, So, J=64
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H+B+26=72,
H+B=46----1
B-H=18----2
Solving these two equations- B=32, H=14

57. A
Sol. The use of sign board for each person. So it can be in any type or language.
58. D
Sol. Both assumptions are not implicit.
59. A
Sol. Only assumption "A" is implicit in the statement. The government advised the
state governments to ensure disbursement of relief package assuming that state
governments are capable for evolving a mechanism for disbursement of relief.
Please note that he uses of term "all" in the assumption B makes it invalid.
60. D
Sol. None of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. It is mentioned in the
statement that many residents of locality, not all residents, decided not to attend
the function. This does not constitute the strong reason for cancellation of
function. Assumption B is a long drawn conclusion since this decision to be taken
when all residents will not attend club activities for a long period of time.
61. C
Sol. Both assumptionsdepict two separate possibilities.
So, I or II is implicit.
62. B
Sol. Government has awarded a high stake reward scheme for such persons who may
provide any information about the suspects who have brutally murdered four
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members.

Hence statement II is the cause while statement I is its effect.

63. A
Sol. Statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effect.
64. B
Sol. It is clear that statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is its effect. The local traders association urged all its
members to shut their establishments for two days and participate in the protest march after the local government
cancelled licenses of many traders in the locality as they did not pay their taxes on time.
65. D
Sol. It is clear that both statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent cause.
66. E
Sol. Option E is correct.
67. D
Sol. The last page of the book contains the information as to what happens to Harry potter
68. A
Sol. (D) is irrelevant as the likings of one customer cannot be generalised for all.
Since the company implemented the policy to call its customers by name, there was this assumption that customers
will like it. (B)can not be the assumption because it is mentioned that the company already got the response from the
customer. Also (C) can not be the assumption because the statement is talking about the survey which shows that
customers feel more connected and show faith in a company when the company representative address them by
name. Hence (A) is an assumption.
69. A
Sol. (c) supports the argument that its sales has grown due to new policy so it was a success while (B) says that the
growth is due to the new product and not because of the policy of calling the customers by name. Hence (B) weakens
the argument.
70. C
Sol. The correct answer is option 3, i.e. Amazon Prime Day is giving shoppers a very unusual - and tempting - deal
in majority of the categories. Prime members can get their hands on a great deal of products that too at
massive discounts.
In the question it is stated that which of the following is a perfect conjecture, for understanding the question, we must
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first understand the meaning of the word ‘conjecture’. A ‘conjecture’ is an opinion or conclusion formed on the
basis of incomplete information or in simple words we must look for a suitable option that can be inferred from the
given information.
We first make sure to read the statement carefully and then see what immediate inferences can be drawn based on our
first reading. The next step is to look at the statements given in the options, analyze them and see if they seem
relevant with respect to the information/data provided to us.
From the statement, we can infer that Amazon is offering exclusive deals to its members in its 36-hour blockbuster
sales event. From the option choices mentioned, we can infer that all except option 3 are vague and can be rejected.
Option 1 is about exact deal of ‘BPL's side by side refrigerator’ which is not backed up by any evidence from the
given statement. Option (2) only talks about ‘refrigerators’ and as a result is very specific to just one product. Option
(4) can also be rejected as no information regarding the delivery on 19 June is evident from the information provided.
The option closest in meaning to this is option 3. All the other options seem irrelevant with respect to the data
provided in the statement.
Hence, the correct answer is option 3.
71. D
Sol. We can infer that the air in the open will be infested with flies, bugs and other insects. Naturally, on the impact, these
creatures will die on the propeller or blade. We can also infer that the machine will make a noise when it comes to a
stop. Hence D is the answer.
72. A
Sol. The above statement express the saying ‘Enemy’s enemy is a friend’. Hence, option A is the correct
option.
73. D
Sol. It says exercise keeps you healthy but that doesn’t mean all healthy people go for exercise. They can stay healthy by
eating healthy. Because of the same reason II is wrong so I and II does not follow
74. B
Sol. It’s a laptop for all. The statement says students will get an offer that does not mean other can’t buy it. So I does not
follow. Since students are given an offer we can conclude that Lenovo wants students to buy their laptops. So II
follow.
75. E
Sol. The correct answer is option E, i.e. More than one of the above, i.e. more than one of the above is not a suitable
conclusion.

A conclusion is a judgement or decision reached by reasoning.

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The given question asks which of the following is not an apt conclusion on the basis of the information provided thus
we must look for any such information that cannot be derived from the passage stated.

The given passage talks about the idea of facial recognition technology showing faulty results. And further talks
about how tech companies are resisting the ban on usage of this technology like the one imposed by San Francisco.

Option A talks about the system being already filled with racial bias and technology on top of that is like icing on the
cake. From the given context we do not get even a slightest hint of racial discrimination as a result it presents
baseless conclusion and thus it can be marked as a suitable answer choice as it is not an apt conclusion.

Option B can be selected as the answer choice as it is not a conclusion, it is just a statement which is directly copied
from the given passage and pasted as the option choice. As a result it is rejected.

Option C can be assumed to be a suitable conclusion as the technology misclassified women as men 19% of the time
and the error rate got worse, to 31%, for darker skin. From this information we can assume that the technology is
most effective on men and that too white men. But the severity of such a claim cannot be explored appropriately as a
result, it is safe to mark ‘More than one of the above’ as compared to ‘All of the above’ as this option choice ‘can
and cannot’ be selected as the answer choice.

Thus, the most correct answer choice is option E.

76. B
Sol. The elements are moving in the below sequence alternately and also in each step, the remaining two elements get
replaced by a new one.

According to the above pattern, the next figure will be –

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Option B is correct response.

77. A
Sol. The elements are moving in the below sequence and the element that reached the white circle position gets replaced
by a new element.

So, the next figure will be-

Option A is correct response.

78. D
Sol. Both the elements are moving in the below pattern -

The next figure is –

Hence, option D is correct.

79. C
Sol. The elements are moving in the below order and also the element that reaches at white circle position get replaced by
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a new symbol.

Hence, the next figure is –

Option C is correct.
80. B
Sol. The elements are moving in the below order and also the element that reaches at white circle position get replaced by
a new symbol.

The next figure –

Option B is correct response.

81. A
Sol. The elements are moving in the below sequence and also the element that reaches at white circle position get
replaced by a new symbol.
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The next figure will be –

Option A is correct response.

82. C
Sol. The elements are moving in the below sequence alternately and also the element that reaches at white circle position
get replaced by a new symbol.

The next figure according to the above pattern is –

Option C is correct.
83. D
Sol. The symbols are moving in the below order alternately-
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The next figure is –

The correct answer is option D.

84. B
Sol. The elements are moving in the below sequence –

The next figure will be –

Option B is correct.
85. A
Sol. The elements are moving in the below order and also the element that reaches at white circle position gets replaced
by a new one.
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Therefore, the next figure will be -

Option A is correct.
86. D
Sol. Outer vessel rotating clockwise while inner is anticlockwise.

87. A
Sol. Here deceasing order of triangles in the circle.
88. B
Sol. Repeat figures alternately.

1st 3rd are same and 2nd and 4th are same so next figure would be like 1st one.
89. A
Sol.
90. A
Sol.

Option A is correct.
91. D
Sol.
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92. B
Sol.

93. C
Sol. There are vowels in alphabetical order and following the next row and next block.

so

will be the correct sequence.

94. C
Sol.
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95. B
Sol. when the given open dice folded to form a dice. Then F appears opposite “B”, E appears opposite to C and A = D.
96. C
Sol. We can observe from the given figure:

The two dots will be close in the mirror image and the rest of the other images will remain the same according to
their shape and location on dice.

So, the correct answer is option C.

97. D
Sol.

→ →

98. C
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Sol. Only option C figure forms a symmetric complete figure, whereas all the other does form improper and distinct
complete figures.
99. C
Sol.

Hence, figure 3rd is correct representation.

So, option C is correct.

100. A
Sol.

The symbols in the figure have been shifted to the next step un clockwise direction.

Hence, option A is the correct

101. E
Sol. X2 – 6X + 5 = 0

⇒ X2 – 5X – X + 5 = 0

⇒ X(X – 5) – 1(X – 5) = 0

⇒ (X – 1)(X – 5) = 0

⇒X=1&5
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2Y2 – 3Y – 9 = 0

⇒ 2Y2 – 6Y + 3Y – 9 = 0

⇒ 2Y(Y – 3) + 3(Y – 3) = 0

⇒ (Y – 3)(2Y + 3) = 0

⇒ Y = –3/2 & 3

Hence, no relation can be established between X and Y.

102. E
Sol. X2 + X – 20 = 0

⇒ X2 + 5X – 4X – 20 = 0

⇒ X(X + 5) – 4(X + 5) = 0

⇒ (X – 4)(X + 5) = 0

⇒ X = –5 & 4

Y2 = 16 = 42

⇒ Y = –4 & 4

Hence, no relation can be established between X and Y.

103. D
Sol. I. X2 + 11X + 28 = 0

⇒ X2 + 7X + 4X + 28 = 0

⇒ X(X + 7) + 4(X + 7) = 0

⇒ (X + 7)(X + 4) = 0

⇒ X = –7 & –4
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II. Y2 + 16Y + 63 = 0

⇒ Y2 + 9Y + 7Y + 63 = 0

⇒ Y(Y + 9) + 7(Y + 9) = 0

⇒ (Y + 9)(Y + 7) = 0

⇒ Y = –9 & –7

Hence, X ≥ Y.
104. A
Sol. I. X2 + 8X + 16 = 0

X2 + 4X + 4X + 16 = 0

X(X + 4) + 4(X + 4) = 0

(X + 4) (X + 4) = 0

X = –4, –4

II. Y2 – 14X + 45 = 0

Y2 – 9Y – 5Y + 45 = 0

Y(Y – 9) – 5(Y – 9) = 0

(Y – 9) (Y – 5) = 0

Y = 9, 5

Hence, Y > X
105. C
Sol. I. X4 = 81
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X = –3, +3

II. Y2 – 7Y + 12 = 0

Y2 – 3Y – 4Y + 12 = 0

Y(Y – 3) – 4(Y – 3) = 0

(Y – 3) (Y – 4) = 0

Y = 3, 4

Hence, X ≤ Y
106. D
Sol. The pattern of the series is:

2 × (1)2 – 1 = 1

2 × (2)2 – 2 = 6

2 × (3)2 – 3 = 15

2 × (4)2 – 4 = 28

2 × (5)2 – 5 = 45

2 × (6)2 – 6 = 66

2 × (7)2 – 7 = 91

107. E
Sol. The pattern of the series is:

43 + (4 + 3) = 50
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50 + (5 + 0) = 55

55 + (5 + 5) = 65

65 + (6 + 5) = 76

76 + (7 + 6) = 89

89 + (8 + 9) = 106
108. C
Sol. The Pattern of the series is:

77 + 23 × 1 = 100

100 – 23 × 3 = 31

31 + 23 × 5 = 146

146 – 23 × 7 = –15

–15 + 23 × 9 = 192

192 – 23 × 11 = –61

Hence, the answer is option C.

109. A
Sol. The pattern of the series is:

23 – 32 = –1

33 – 42 = 11

43 – 52 = 39

53 – 62 = 89

63 – 72 = 167
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73 – 82 = 279

83 – 92 = 431

Hence, the answer is option A.

110. B
Sol. The pattern of the series is:

10 + 1 × 22 = 14

14 + 2 × 32 = 32

32 + 3 × 42 = 80

80 + 4 × 52 = 180

180 + 5 × 62 = 360

360 + 6 × 72 = 654
111. C
Sol.

Number of pastries sold by shop S and T together = 234 + 135 = 369

Number of pastries baked by shop Q = 300

Required percentage = = 23% more

Hence, option C is correct.

112. D
Sol.
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Central angle for shop P = = 90°

Central angle for shop R = = 57.6°

Required difference = 90° − 57.6° = 32.4°

Hence, option D is correct.

113. B
Sol.

Required ratio = (75 + 12) : 90

= 87 : 90 = 29 : 30

Hence, option B is correct.

114. A
Sol.

Number of pastries sold by shop R on Monday = × 5 = 285

Number of unsold pastries of shop R on Monday = × 10 = 40

Total number of pastries baked by shop R on Monday = 285 + 40 = 325

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Hence, option A is correct.

115. D
Sol.

Sold pastry by shop S = 234

Total cost price of the pastry = 360 × 80 = Rs. 28800

Total selling price of pastry = 234 × × 80 × 1.25 + 234 × × 80 × 1.30 + 234 × × 80 × 1.50 + 126 × 80 × 0.90

= 10400 + 8112 + 6240 + 9072 = Rs. 33824

Total profit earned by shop S = 33824 – 28800 = Rs. 5024

Hence, option D is correct.

116. C
Sol.

Total number of pastries unsold from shop P, Q and S together = 75 + 75 + 126 = 276

Pastries given to beggars = 276 × 0.25 = 69

Pastries eaten by staff = (276 – 69) × = 115

Remaining pastries = 276 – 69 – 115 = 92

Cost price of one pastry = Rs. 300

Selling price of one pastry = 300 × 0.90 = Rs. 270

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Selling price of 92 pastry = 92 × 270 = Rs. 24840

Cost price of unsold pastries = 300 × 276 = Rs. 82800

Amount of loss = 82800 – 24840 = Rs. 57960

Hence, option C is correct.

117. A
Sol. Average number of hats sold by Seller A on Monday to Friday =

Number of hats sold on Saturday = 300% of 322 = 966

The number of hats sold by Seller A and Seller B together on Monday = 325 + 400 = 725

Required percentage =

118. D
Sol. The number of hats sold by B on Sunday = 220% of 300 = 660

The number of hats sold by A on Sunday = 280% of 260 = 728

Required difference = 728 − 660 = 68

119. B
Sol. Average number of hats sold by Seller A on Monday to Friday =

Average number of hats sold by Seller B on Monday to Friday =

Required % = × 100 = 103% (approx.)

120. D
Sol. The number of hats sold by Seller A on Monday and Tuesday together = 325 + 260 = 585

The number of hats sold by Seller B on Wednesday, Thursday and Friday together = 410 + 300 + 245 = 955

Required ratio = 585 : 955 = 117 : 191

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121. C
Sol. Required ratio = 25% of (340 + 410) : 75% of (410 + 245) = 750 : (3 × 655) = 50 : 131
122. E
Sol. Required ratio = = 1025 : 588
123. A
Sol.

22.5% of total items sold by store C = 15% of total footballs sold

⇒ Total number of items sold by store C = 66.66% of total number of footballs sold

% of total items sold by store B = 20% of total number of footballs sold

⇒ Total number of items sold by store B = 75% of total number of footballs sold
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Ratio of total number of items sold by store C and store B = 66.66 : 75 = 8 : 9

124. B
Sol. Number of items sold by A = Total number of footballs sold by all stores

Number of items sold by B = 75% or of total number of footballs sold by all stores

Number of items sold by C = 66.66% or of total number of footballs sold by all stores

Number of items sold by D = of total number of footballs sold by all stores

Number of items sold by E = of total number of footballs sold by all stores

Let the total number of footballs sold by all stores be x.

Then, x + + = 1225

⇒ = 1225

⇒ x = 300
125. C
Sol. Number of items sold by A = 300

Number of items sold by B = × 300 = 225

Number of items sold by C = × 300 = 200

Number of items sold by D = × 300 = 250

Number of items sold by E = × 300 = 250

Total number of Basketball and Tennis balls sold

= 50% of 300 + 60% of 225 + 35% of 200 + 40% of 250 + 48% of 250

= 150 + 135 + 70 + 100 + 120 = 575

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Total number of Hockey Sticks sold = 25% of 300 + 13 % of 225 + 42.5% of 200 + 24% of 250 + 40% of 250

= 75 + 30 + 85 + 60 + 100 = 350

Thus, total number of Basketball sold = 350

Total number of tennis balls sold = 575 – 350 = 225

126. B
Sol.

Number of hockey sticks sold = 350 (from previous solution)

Minimum number of basketballs and tennis Balls Sold the next day

= 90 + 81 + 42 + 60 + 72 = 345

Number of cricket bat sold = 5 × 50 = 250

Maximum number of footballs sold the next day = 1225 – (350 + 345 + 250) = 280
127. E
Sol. Number of cricket bats sold by all 5 shops = 300 × 0.2 + 225 × 0.2 + 200 × 0.2 + 250 × 0.2 + 250 × 0.2 = 60 + 45 +
40 + 50 + 50 = 245
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Number of footballs sold by 5 shops = 10 ×5 = 50

Number of hockey sticks sold = 350 (from previous solution)

number of basketballs and tennis balls sold

Increase in the sum of number of basketballs and tennis balls sold

= 1225 – (245 + 50 + 350) =580

basketballs and tennis balls sold compared to the previous day = 580 – (150 + 135 + 70 + 100 + 120) = 5
128. A
Sol. Let the number of students who went to USA in 2014 are x.

Then, the number of students who went to Britain in 2014 = 145% of x = 1.45x

Number of students who went to China in 2014 = = 0.725x

Number of students who went to Japan in 2014 = – 5

Let the number of students who went to USA in 2016 are y

Then, the number of students who went to Britain in 2016 = 40% of y = 0.4y

Number of students who went to Japan in 2016 = y – 100

Number of students who went to China in 2016 = 0.4y + 16

According to the question,

0.725x + 0.4y + 16 = 173

⇒ 29x + 16y = 6280

Also, – 5 + y – 100 = 130

⇒ x + 2y = 470
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Solving both these equations, we have, x = 120 and y = 175

Therefore,

The number of students who went to USA in 2014 = 120

Number of students who went to Britain in 2014 = 1.45 × 120 = 174

Number of students who went to China in 2014 = 174/2 = 87

Number of students who went to Japan in 2014 = 120/2 – 5 = 55

Number of students who went to USA in 2016 = 175

Number of students who went to Britain in 2016 = 0.4 × 175 = 70

Number of students who went to Japan in 2016 = 175 – 100 = 75

Number of students who went to China in 2016 = 70 + 16 = 86

Given that, the number of students who went to China in 2015 = 105

Number of students who went to Japan in 2015 = 105 – 40% of 105 = 105 – 42 = 63

Number of students who went to China in 2017 = 343 – (87 + 105 + 86) = 65

Number of students who went to Japan in 2017 = 271 – (55 + 63 + 75) = 78

Required number = 78 – 65 = 13
129. A
Sol. Let the number of students who went to USA in 2017 are x.

Then, number of students who went to Britain in 2017 = x – 12.5% of x = 0.875x

According to question,

x + 0.875x + 65 + 78 = 533

⇒ 1.875x = 390
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⇒ x = 390/1.875 = 208

Therefore, the number of students who went to USA in 2017 = 208

Number of students who went to Britain in 2017 = 0.875 × 208 = 182

Required percentage = × 100 = 4%

130. E
Sol. Let the number of students who went to USA in 2015 are x and that of to Britain are y.

According to question,

x + y + 120 + 174 = 518

⇒ x + y = 224

Also, x + y + 105 + 63 = 392

⇒ x + y = 224

Therefore, both these equations are same and hence the answer cannot be known by the given data.
131. B
Sol. Let the number of students who went to USA in 2014 are x.

Then, the number of students who went to Britain in 2014 = 145% of x = 1.45x

Number of students who went to China in 2014 = 1.45x/2 = 0.725x

Number of students who went to Japan in 2014 = x/2 – 5

Let the number of students who went to USA in 2016 are y

Then, the number of students who went to Britain in 2016 = 40% of y = 0.4y

Number of students who went to Japan in 2016 = y – 100

Number of students who went to China in 2016 = 0.4y + 16

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According to the question,

0.725x + 0.4y + 16 = 173

⇒ 29x + 16y = 6280

Also, x/2 – 5 + y – 100 = 130

⇒ x + 2y = 470

Solving both these equations, we have, x = 120 and y = 175

Required number = 105 + 75 = 180

132. B
Sol. Let the number of students who went to USA in 2014 are x.

Then, the number of students who went to Britain in 2014 = 145% of x = 1.45x

Number of students who went to China in 2014 = = 0.725x

Number of students who went to Japan in 2014 = – 5

Let the number of students who went to USA in 2016 are y

Then, the number of students who went to Britain in 2016 = 40% of y = 0.4y

Number of students who went to Japan in 2016 = y – 100

Number of students who went to China in 2016 = 0.4y + 16

According to the question,

0.725x + 0.4y + 16 = 173

⇒ 29x + 16y = 6280

Also, x/2 – 5 + y – 100 = 130

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⇒ x + 2y = 470

Solving both these equations, we have, x = 120 and y = 175

Required number = 174 + 86 = 260

133. C
Sol. Let the number of female employees in company P = 5x
Number of male employees in company P = 4x
Number of female employees in company R = 4x + 600
Number of male employees in company S = 10x + 400
Number of female employees in company S = 2250

Number of male employees in company S = = 2000

According to the data provided in the question, we get
2000 = 10x + 400
⇒ 10x = 1600
⇒ x = 160
Number of female employees in company P = 5 × 160 = 800
Number of male employees in company P = 4 × 160 = 640
Number of female employees in company R = 640 + 600 = 1240
Number of male employees in company R = 800 × 2 = 1600
Number of male employees in company Q = 5500 – 2000 – 640 – 1600 = 1260
Number of female employees in company Q = 1260

Required ratio = 800 : 1240 = 20 : 31

Hence, option C is correct.
134. E
Sol. Let the number of female employees in company P = 5x
Number of male employees in company P = 4x
Number of female employees in company R = 4x + 600
Number of male employees in company S = 10x + 400
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Number of female employees in company S = 2250

Number of male employees in company S = = 2000

According to the data provided in the question, we get
2000 = 10x + 400
⇒ 10x = 1600
⇒ x = 160
Number of female employees in company P = 5 × 160 = 800
Number of male employees in company P = 4 × 160 = 640
Number of female employees in company R = 640 + 600 = 1240
Number of male employees in company R = 800 × 2 = 1600
Number of male employees in company Q = 5500 – 2000 – 640 – 1600 = 1260
Number of female employees in company Q = 1260

Total number of female and male employees in company R = 1240 + 1600 = 2840
Hence, option E is correct.
135. A
Sol. Let the number of female employees in company P = 5x
Number of male employees in company P = 4x
Number of female employees in company R = 4x + 600
Number of male employees in company S = 10x + 400
Number of female employees in company S = 2250

Number of male employees in company S = = 2000

According to the data provided in the question, we get
2000 = 10x + 400
⇒ 10x = 1600
⇒ x = 160
Number of female employees in company P = 5 × 160 = 800
Number of male employees in company P = 4 × 160 = 640
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Number of female employees in company R = 640 + 600 = 1240

Number of male employees in company R = 800 × 2 = 1600
Number of male employees in company Q = 5500 – 2000 – 640 – 1600 = 1260
Number of female employees in company Q = 1260

Number of male employees who are not married in company Q = 1260 × 0.60 = 756
Number of female employees who are not married in company Q = 1260 × 0.45 = 567
Total number of male and female employees who are not married in company Q = 756 + 567 =
1323
Hence, option A is correct.
136. B
Sol. Let the number of female employees in company P = 5x
Number of male employees in company P = 4x
Number of female employees in company R = 4x + 600
Number of male employees in company S = 10x + 400
Number of female employees in company S = 2250

Number of male employees in company S = = 2000

According to the data provided in the question, we get
2000 = 10x + 400
⇒ 10x = 1600
⇒ x = 160
Number of female employees in company P = 5 × 160 = 800
Number of male employees in company P = 4 × 160 = 640
Number of female employees in company R = 640 + 600 = 1240
Number of male employees in company R = 800 × 2 = 1600
Number of male employees in company Q = 5500 – 2000 – 640 – 1600 = 1260
Number of female employees in company Q = 1260

Required number of female employees = 2250 + 1240 + 800 + 1260 = 5550

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Hence, option B is correct.

137. E
Sol. Let the number of female employees in company P = 5x
Number of male employees in company P = 4x
Number of female employees in company R = 4x + 600
Number of male employees in company S = 10x + 400
Number of female employees in company S = 2250

Number of male employees in company S = = 2000

According to the data provided in the question, we get
2000 = 10x + 400
⇒ 10x = 1600
⇒ x = 160
Number of female employees in company P = 5 × 160 = 800
Number of male employees in company P = 4 × 160 = 640
Number of female employees in company R = 640 + 600 = 1240
Number of male employees in company R = 800 × 2 = 1600
Number of male employees in company Q = 5500 – 2000 – 640 – 1600 = 1260
Number of female employees in company Q = 1260

Total male and female employees in company P = 800 + 640 = 1440

Male employees in company S = 2000

Required percentage = = 72%

Hence, option E is correct.
138. B
Sol. × ÷ 4.01 = ? ×

⇒ × ÷4=?×

⇒ 24 × 32 × = ? × 16
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⇒ 192 = ? × 16

⇒?=

⇒ ? = 12
Hence, option B is correct
139. A
Sol. 24.96% of 39.99 + 20.12% of 49.92 = ? – 5.99% of 99.99
By approximation, we get

25% of 40 + 20% of 50 = ? – 6% of 100

⇒ × 40 + × 50 = ? – × 100

⇒ 10 + 10 = ? – 6

⇒ ? = 26
140. D
Sol. × ÷ =?
By approximation, we get:

?= × ×

⇒ ? = 73 × 58 ×

⇒ ? = 223 ≈ 225
141. E
Sol. 40.3% of 601 – 250.17 = ? – 79.8% of 900.34

⇒ × 600 – 250 = ? – × 900

⇒ 240 – 250 = ? – 720

⇒ ? = 720 + 240 – 250

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⇒ ? = 960 – 250

⇒ ? = 710 ≈ 700
142. D
Sol. Let the cost price of the article be Rs. ‘x’.
ATQ,
1.22x – 1.18x = 294
⇒ 0.04x = 294
⇒ x = 7350

143. A
Sol. Let the speed of boat in still water be 3x km/h.

Speed of current = x km/h

According to question,

=5

⇒ 4x = 16 ⇒ x = 4

Speed of boat in still water = 3 × 4 = 12 km/h

Speed of current = 4 km/h

The speed of boat after increase of 25% = 12 × 1.25 = 15 km/hr

Let the new speed of current be y km/hr.

Now, =5

⇒ 15 + y = 16

⇒y=1
144. C
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Sol. Let the quantity of the wine = 7x litres

The quantity of the water = 2x litres
According to the question,

⇒ 7x – 14 + 18 = 5(2x – 4)
⇒ 7x + 4 = 10x – 20
⇒ 3x = 24
⇒x=8
Quantity of the water in the initial mixture = 2 × 8 = 16 litres
Hence, option C is correct.
145. C
Sol. Distance travelled by train A in 30 minutes = 36 km
So the remaining distance = 756 – 36 = 720 km
Relative speed = 72 + 80 = 152 km/h

Time = 11:30 PM – 9 AM = hours

Distance covered by both trains = 152 × = 380 km

Distance between both trains at 11:30 PM = 720 – 380 = 340 km
Hence, option C is correct.
146. A
Sol. Let the total amount of the work = 120 units
Amount of the work done by Vansh in one day = 120/24 = 5 units
Amount of the work done by Tarushi in one day = 120/40 = 3 units
Amount of the work done by Shubham in one day = 120/20 = 6 units
Amount work done by Vansh and Tarushi together in 8 days = 8 × 8 = 64 units
Remaining amount of the work = 120 – 64 = 56 units
Time taken by all three to complete the remaining work = 56/14 = 4 days
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Required total number of days = 4 + 8 = 12 days

Hence, option A is correct.
147. D
Sol.
Let the capacity of the tank = 720 litres
Part of the tank filled by pipe A in one minute = 720/60 = 12 litres
Part of the tank filled by pipe B in one minute = 720/80 = 9 litres
Part of the tank emptied by pipe P in one minute = 720/72 = 10 litres
Part of the tank filled by pipe A and tap P in 1 hour 3 minutes = (12 – 10) × 63 = 126 litres
Remaining part of the tank = 720 – 126 = 594 litres
Remaining part of the tank filled by pipe A, B and tap P = 594/11 = 54 minutes
Hence, option D is correct.
148. A
Sol. Share of Raghav's Wife = Rs. 88400

Remaining amount = 176800 – 88400 = Rs. 88400

Let the share of Balveer and Ankush be Rs. x and Rs. (88400 – x) respectively.

ATQ-

(88400 – x) × = x×

⇒ 8840000 – 100x = 121x

⇒ 221x = 8840000
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⇒ x = Rs. 40000
Required share of Balveer = Rs. 40000
Hence, option A is correct
149. E
Sol. Volume of cylinder X = 2h = V1
Volume of cylinder Y = 2H = V2

150. E
Sol. Balls are picked one after one,

So, the probability =

=
Hence, option E is correct.
151. C
Sol. The author says "my colleagues and I" have published a study. As states earlier, this study is about "a fragment of
ancient continental crust". The first paragraph states that this would be "an important exploration tool for mineral
deposits". But the passage never specifies which field the author and her colleagues belong to. So, sentence I is
wrong.

The second paragraph explains the formation of new crust. From there we can conclude that due to "ridge jumps",
the old pieces of crust can exist isolated surrounded by new pieces of crusts. The paragraph also states that this
process is "complex and messy". This means that we cannot predict which piece will end up where. In other words,
the process is arbitrary. So, sentences II & III are true.

Hence, the correct answer is C.

152. D
Sol. Inert means deficient in active properties especially.

Outpourings means something that streams out rapidly.

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Underlie means (especially of a layer of rock or soil) lie or be situated under (something).

Stranded means left without the means to move from somewhere.

Dormant means (of a volcano) temporarily inactive.

Remnants means a part or quantity that is left after the greater part has been used, removed, or destroyed.

Hence, the correct answer is D.

153. B
Sol. Only sentence B is correct. The reasons are as follows:

A: The passage describes zircon as "a mineral that can be analysed to provide age information". No information is
provided about their formation. So, option A is wrong.

B: Zircons are found "in a rare volcanic rock called trachyte". So, Option B is correct.

C: The passage states that they "…found tiny crystals of zircon…". No information is provided about whether this is
their natural state or this is just a special case. So, option C is wrong.

D: The passage describes zircon as "a mineral that can be analysed to provide age information". It is not specified if
that is the only way to do so. So, option D is wrong.

Hence, the correct answer is B.

154. C
Sol. The paragraph provides us with a lot of figures, facts or data. This makes the tone as "informative". Hence, the
correct answer is C.

The meaning of other tones are:

Cynical: something that is concerned only with one's own interests and typically disregarding accepted standards in
order to achieve them
Laudatory: speech or writing that is expressing praise and commendation.
Mocking: make fun of someone or something in a cruel way
Descriptive: Aim to describe any situation or object
155. A
Sol. "This forces the newly-formed crust to separate in opposite directions, taking the passive pieces of continent with
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them."

Here, the "pieces of continent" refer to the crust and since they existed before the "newly-formed crust", they are the
fragmented pieces of old continental crusts. Hence, the correct answer is A.
156. E
Sol. The paragraph gives two functions of lava, and by extension the magma. First, the burying of a small continental
fragment. Second, incorporating and dissolving some of it. So, magma is responsible for the dissolution of buried
continental crusts, but that is not the only action that it performs. So, the given inference is definitely false. Hence,
the correct answer is E.
157. C
Sol. The given passage is about ergonomics which applies information about human behaviour, abilities and limitations
and other characteristics to the design of tools, machines, tasks, jobs and environments for productive, safe,
comfortable and effective human use. Options A, B, D, and E are all true in this respect as they support the views of
the passage. But option C is not true as ‘good posture’ cannot lead to body problems. It is bad posture while working
that leads to a variety of diseases as mentioned in the passage. Thus, option C is the correct answer.
158. B
Sol. The passage clearly states that – ‘An employee's work environment often determines how much work is
accomplished and its degree of accuracy. Hence we can infer that ‘work environment’ is one of the basic factors that
contribute towards the amount and efficiency of production. Thus, option B is the correct answer.
159. A
Sol. Statement I is one of the major disadvantages of ergonomics. The passage states that the initial implementation cost
of ergonomics principle is high but the return in the long run is great. Statement II is not a disadvantage as this allows
customization to each individual in a work place. This leads to better management and higher worker efficiency. This
proves that statement III is false. Thus, option A is the correct answer.
160. D
Sol. The given passage is about ergonomics which applies information about human behaviour, abilities and limitations
and other characteristics to the design of tools, machines, tasks, jobs and environments for productive, safe,
comfortable and effective human use. The passage goes onto state how ergonomics principle offers individual
solutions for individual employees. This creates a safe and healthy working environment for the employees
ultimately leading to lowering of their stress and fatigue levels. Thus, option D is the correct reason.
161. E
Sol. The fourth paragraph of the passage states all the three statements. Refer to the lines: First, a national green finance
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strategy is needed, one that recognizes the preparedness level of sectors and the public capital instruments to be
deployed.
Second, related to or stemming from the first, an ecosystem is needed that supports the development of more
innovative instruments to find solutions for sectors outside those of the typical comfort zones of investors and banks.
Third, a real conversation is needed at the regulatory level to shape financial markets—such as introducing a
taxonomy for green finance, green standards for financial products, duties of asset managers, requirements of the
stock exchange, mandatory disclosure norms of companies, and so on.
Thus, all of the statements I, II and III are the tasks suggested in the passage to effectively finance India’s economic
development in a sustainable way.
162. E
Sol. It can be inferred from the first paragraph of the passage that, ‘the country needs about $4.5 trillion in infrastructure
funding by 2040. Of this, $125 billion will be required to meet India’s national renewable energy targets of 2022,
$667 billion for electric vehicles and almost $1 trillion for affordable green housing’. Thus, all the statements
regarding the capital requirement for infrastructure development in India is correct.
163. C
Sol. The second paragraph of the passage talks about the different objectives it aims to achieve.
Refer to the lines: ‘generally speaking, green finance covers the financing of investments that generate environmental
benefits as part of the broader strategy to achieve inclusive, resilient and cleaner economic growth’. Thus, option C is
correct. Option A is incorrect as it talks about facilitating of investments and exclusive growth which is wrong.
Option B is incorrect as it talks about fabricating of investments which is absurd. Option D is incorrect as it talks
about economic benefits and not environmental benefits.
164. D
Sol. The third paragraph of the passage states that green finance in India should step up the face to meet the India’s
growth needs. On referring to the lines, ‘with technology costs on the decline, India’s growth needs on the rise and
climate concerns not going away, the task ahead for green finance is to step up the pace’. Thus, author would agree
with ‘green finance in India needs to step up the face to meet India’s growth needs’.
Option A is incorrect as the third paragraph of the passage states that elements of green finance in India are scattered.
Option B is incorrect as the third paragraph of the passage states that the amount raised by the green bonds is only a
fraction of what is needed. Hence, it cannot be said that India does not need to issue green bonds. Option C is
incorrect as the third paragraph of the passage states that there is no provision in India to reward of penalizes
companies for climate resilience. The passage does not comment on penalizing companies.
165. D
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Sol. The third paragraph of the passage talks about the investment advisory business and other problems related to Indian
companies. It can be inferred from the following lines, ‘investment advisory services in green remain marginal
businesses with scant understanding of international risk instruments, let alone experience with fund-raising that
looks beyond renewables aggregators’. Thus, option D is correct.
Option A is incorrect as the second paragraph explicitly states that money is not the problem which is holding back
infrastructure development in India. Option B is incorrect as the passage does not state that Solar and Wind are the
most notable sectors when it comes to renewable energy. Option c is incorrect as the second paragraph of the passage
states that forestry and agriculture do not offer viable business model for renewable energy.
166. D
Sol.
The idiom “in the bosom of” is used to mean ‘among a group of people with whom one feels safe, comfortable, and
loved, especially one's family’. Hence, option D is the correct answer.
167. A
Sol.
The idiom “lie at the bottom” is used to mean ‘to be the basic cause of a problem or situation’. The above sentence
mentions that the root cause of the recent attacks is the racist feelings. Thus, option A is the correct answer.
168. D
Sol.
The idiom “went by the board” is used to mean (of something planned or previously upheld) be abandoned, rejected,
or ignored. Thus, option D is the correct answer.
169. D
Sol. The meanings of the given words are as follows:

Wit - the capacity for inventive thought and quick understanding or keen intelligence.

Humour – the quality of being amusing or comic, especially as expressed in literature or speech.

Silliness – lack of common sense or judgement

Horror – an intense feeling of fear, shock, or disgust.

Insanity – the state of being seriously mentally ill

Sarcasm – the use of irony to mock or convey contempt.

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Craziness - mad, wild, or erratic behaviour or nature.

Sagacity – having or showing keen mental discernment and good judgement.

Intelligence – the ability to acquire and apply knowledge and skills.

Sense – a faculty by which the body perceives an external stimulus; one of the faculties of sight, smell, hearing, taste,
and touch.

Tragedy - an event causing great suffering, destruction, and distress, such as a serious accident, crime, or natural
catastrophe.

Therefore, it can be observed that option D i.e. ‘sagacity, intelligence’ forms a synonym-synonym pair of ‘wit’.
170. E
Sol. “Remedy” means:

(i) A means of counteracting or eliminating something undesirable

(ii) Set right (an undesirable situation)

Hence, “remedy” fits in all the three sentences. Thus, option E is the correct response.
171. C
Sol. “Insipid” is an adjective which means:
(i) Lacking vigour or interest
(ii) Lacking flavour; weak or tasteless

Thus, the word makes sense only in sentence (2) The sentence means that the apology was dull. In sentence (1), the
word has been used as a noun, which makes the sentence incorrect. In sentence (3), the word has been used as a verb,
which is again incorrect.
Hence, option C is the correct response.
172. B
Sol. ‘Detest’ means dislike intensely.
‘Wary’ means feeling or showing caution about possible dangers or problems.
‘Delirium’ means an acutely disturbed state of mind characterized by restlessness, illusions, and incoherence,
occurring in intoxication, fever, and other disorders.
‘Cautious’ means careful to avoid potential problems or dangers.
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Thus, ‘wary’ and ‘cautious’ are synonymous as it means not having or showing complete trust in someone or
something that could be dangerous or cause trouble.
173. E
Sol. Obloquy means strong public condemnation.
Vilification means strong public condemnation.
Denigration means the action of unfairly criticizing someone or something.
Slander means defame.
Invective means insulting, abusive, or highly critical language.
Eulogize means praise highly in speech or writing.

Hence, eulogize is the correct answer.

174. B
Sol. ‘Missives’ mean a letter, especially a long or official one. Thus, there can be a collection of ‘missives’ and not a
‘missive of collections’. Thus, A should interchange with B making option B correct.
175. C
Sol. Since the OS belong to the users, it should be their OS, 'There' is a demonstrative pronoun which is not required
here. 'Limit' is about how much you are allowed to do something. 'Limitation' is more about how much you are able
to do something. There is nothing to overcome in the case of 'limits'. 'Limit' is what we shouldn’t do, we can however
easily disregard this. But 'limitations' means that we cannot easily overlook the restrictions and often required
hardwiring of the system.
Option iii is correct in both cases. Hence, the correct answer s C.
176. D
Sol. The verbs "were getting" and "were voicing" are in past continuous tense. So, the tense for 'listen' should also be past
continuous (were listening). "Others were taking" and "was being said by others" mean same, just in different voices.
The first is in active voice while the second one is in passive voice. So, both option ii & iii are correct. hence, the
correct answer is D.
177. D
Sol. Information is not issues, it is provided. But when the Central Board of Direct Taxes is involved, it is more likely that
a notice was issued. So, the given sentence along with options B & E are wrong. It is grammatically wrong to use 'no'
again after using 'not'. Instead 'any' should be used. So, options A & c are also wrong. Hence, the correct answer is D.
178. C
Sol. In the given sentence, the order of verb and adverb is incorrect and should be 'personally humiliating'. Since, the
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sentence mentions a realistic aspect of the society, 'hypothetically', 'theoretically' and 'sociologically' is contextually
incorrect. This makes option A, D and E incorrect. The use of adjective 'mental' in option B is incorrect and needs to
be replaced by the adverb 'mentally'. Hence, the correct answer is C.
179. D
Sol. The correct structure is 'continue to die cleaning'.
Option A: 'continuing' (present participle form) is erroneous as the sentence expresses on ongoing activity. We need
simple present tense verb 'continue' to make the sentence correct.
Option B: 'continued' (past participle form) is erroneous as the sentence expresses on ongoing activity. We need
present tense verb 'continue' to make the sentence correct.
Option C: 'continues' (singular verb) is erroneous as the subject 'men' is plural. We need plural verb 'continue' to
make the sentence correct.
So, the correct answer is option D.
180. C
Sol. Criticism means the expression of disapproval of someone or something on the basis of perceived faults or mistakes.
Inspection means careful examination or scrutiny.
Investigation means the action of investigating something or someone; formal or systematic examination or research.
Scrutiny means critical observation or examination.
Review means a formal assessment of something with the intention of instituting change if necessary.
The sentence says that performance of both the players and the selectors are examined. 'Scrutiny', 'inspection' &
'perusal' serve this purpose.
'Beneath' and 'below' are used when we are comparing the physical position of two nouns. But in the given sentence,
'under' is used to show that the selectors and players are subjected to scrutiny. Hence, the correct answer is C.
181. B
Sol. Mitigate means to make something less harmful, serious, etc.

Cater means to provide, and sometimes serve, food

Distinguish means to recognize the difference between two people or things

Conclude means to decide or believe something as a result of what you have heard or seen

Going through the meaning of the given options and taking hint from the sentence which is discussing about the role
of Anganwadi workers, it can be seen that ‘Cater’ is the most appropriate filler choice.
182. E
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Sol. Taking hint from the ‘gap between people and healthcare centres’ it can be assumed that Anganwadi workers act as a
bridge between the two. So, on the basis of this information and going through the given options, it can be seen that
‘bridging’ is the most appropriate filler choice.
183. C
Sol. Given sentence is talking about the role of Anganwadi workers in bridging the gap between public and healthcare
centres by fulfilling the education, nutrition other needs of children. So, on the basis of this information it can be
clearly seen that ‘accomplish’ is the most appropriate filler choice.
184. A
Sol. This sentence is telling us about the wide array of services delivered by Anganwadi workers. So on the basis of this
information and going through the given options it can be seen that ‘bundle’ is the most appropriate filler choice.
185. D
Sol. Concludes means to decide or believe something as a result of what you have heard or seen

Devised means to invent something new or a new way of doing something

Alleged means stated as a fact but without any proof

Rectify means to put right something that is wrong

Going through the meaning of the given options it can be seen that both ‘concludes’ and ‘alleged’ can be used to
make a contextually meaningful sentence, but ‘concludes’ will make the given sentence grammatically incorrect. So,
‘alleged’ is the correct filler choice.
186. B
Sol. Taking hint from the usage of ‘extra work’ and going through the given options, it can be clearly seen that
‘overburdened’ is the most appropriate filler choice.
187. E
Sol. Taking hint from the usage of ‘challenging’ in the sentence, it can be seen that the process of digitization of
Anganwadis is not easy. So, the appropriate filler should be one that should represent the same idea. From the given
options, ‘vague’ can be used to fill the given sentence.
188. D
Sol. Concession means a thing that is granted, especially in response to demands.

Subsidized means supported financially.

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Reimburse means repay

Discounted means to take an amount of money off the usual cost of something

Going through the meaning of the given options, it can be seen that both ‘subsidized’ and ‘reimburse’ can
contextually fit the given blank, but, ‘subsidized’ will induce a grammatical error. So, the correct filler choice is
option (D).
189. C
Sol. Statement A: When divided, the collective noun ‘team’ will take on a plural verb, ‘were’, to
show individual disagreement. Similarly, it will take on a plural pronoun, ‘their’, to replace ‘its.’
The team stops functioning as a single entity.
Statement B: The error lies in the use of ‘for’ instead of ‘of’.
Statement C is grammatically correct.
190. D
Sol. Statement A: ‘Did’ should always be followed by the base form of the verb. The correct usage
should be ‘didn’t have’.
Statement B and C are grammatically correct.
191. C
Sol. Statement C: The third-person pronoun ‘he’ is always followed by the singular, ‘has’.
Statements A and B are correct.
192. B
Sol. Statement A: The preposition ‘to’ should be replaced by ‘for’.
Statement C: The article ‘a’ should precede words having a consonant sound, such as
‘(yoo)university’.
Statement B is grammatically correct.
193. C
Sol. The word ‘fair’ is needed to be used in all three sentences to make them contextually and
grammatically correct.
In the first sentence, the word fair means ‘high, pure or good’.
In the second sentence, the word fair means ‘white colour or lighter shades’.
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In the third sentence, the word fair means ‘an exhibition or place where trade and display
advertising take place’.
Therefore, the correct option is C
194. D
Sol. The verb ‘connive’ has the following meanings:
i. “conspire to do something illegal, immoral or harmful (appropriately fills sentence I)

ii. “secretly allow something to occur or make something happen” (usually an immoral or illegal activity)”
(appropriately fills sentence II)
The word ‘collide’ means “(the act of) coming into conflict or opposition” (appropriately fills sentence III)

Therefore, option D is the correct answer to this question.

195. B
Sol. The word "suddenly" shows that something unexpected happened. We know that Nancy was quiet. So, it would be
startling to see her do something that is opposite of being quiet i.e. speak. ‘Smile’ is in its base form can be negated
easily. Hence, the correct answer is B.
196. C
Sol. The sentence implies that the economic elite who controlled the operations of the nation’s affairs criticised most
probably the government for the wastage of ammunition. Now of the given options ‘Directed’ which means ‘to
control the operations of; manage or govern’ suitably appropriates to the second blank. And another meaning of
‘Directed’ is to aim (something) in a particular direction or at a particular person’, which makes sense in the first
blank. As option C fits in both the blanks.

Hence, option C is the correct answer.

197. A
Sol. Statement E states that the Nigerian government agreed to supply natural gas or wet gas to P&ID. Statement C states
what P&ID agreed to do in return. So, EC is a part of the sequence. Only options A & E have EC in their sequence.
So, the remaining options can be negated.

The sequence will either start with A or B. Sentence B states an objection by the government and starts with
"similarly". This means another sentence in the sequence must mention a similar event. But none of the statements
mention any such objection. So, B is the odd one in the sequence. A will be at the beginning of the sequence, which
makes the final sequence AECD. Hence, the correct answer is A.
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198. E
Sol. From all the given parts, it is evident that the sentence begins with part A which states the context of most Hindi
films. Parts B and C which talks about endorsement should subsequently follow part A. Part C points out that in the
act of endorsing the values of middle class, the Hindi films are enacting a certain idea, so part E must come next
followed by part D. So, the correct order of the parts is ABCED, making option E the correct answer. Thus, after
rearrangement the correct sentence is -

‘The stories of most of the Hindi films revolve around affluent Indians and endorse the social, religious, and cultural
values of the Hindu middle class and by doing so, such films are also trying to construct a new form of nation and
nationalism that is not fully inclusive.’
199. C
Sol. The correct answer is C.
200. C
Sol. The correct answer is C.