MM : 720 REVISION TEST SERIES Time : 3.00 Hrs.

(for NEET-2022)
Test – 1
Topics covered :
Physics : Electric Charges and Fields Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
Chemistry : Haloalkanes and Haloarenes
Botany : Reproduction in Organisms, Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Zoology : Reproduction in Organisms, Human Reproduction

Instructions :
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer:

SECTION - A 2. There are two concentric conducting spherical
1. The effective capacitance between the points a shells of radi R and 2R. The outer shell is given a
and b in the network shown below is charge Q while inner shell is earthed. The charge
on inner shell is
2 F 2 F
(1) Q
a b
6 F 2 F Q
(2) 
2
20
(1) 2 F (2) F Q
3 (3)
2
(3) 6 F (4) 3 F
(4) Zero

(1)
Revision Test Series for NEET-2022 (XII Passed) Test-1_Code-A
3. There is uniformly charged conducting shell of 8. An electric dipole is placed in an electric field
radius 10 cm. The potential at a distance 4 cm generated by a point charge, then
from the centre of the shell will be [charge on the (1) The net electric force on the dipole must be
shell is 10 C] zero
(2) The net electric force on the dipole may be
(1) 18 × 105V (2) 9 × 105V
zero
(3) 8 × 105 V (4) 6 × 105 V (3) The torque on the dipole due to the field may
4. A closed solid conductor of irregular shape is be zero
given some fixed amount of charge. The correct (4) Both (1) and (3)
statement regarding the conductor in electrostatic 9. The field lines corresponding to an electric field is
condition is shown in the figure, then (E denotes electric field)
(1) Potential of conductor will change if its shape
is changed
(2) Electric field inside it is non-zero
A B C
(3) All points on its surface will have same
charge density
(4) All of these (1) EA = EB = EC (2) EA = EB > EC
5. An arrangement of five identical capacitors is (3) EA = EC > EB (4) EA = EC < EB
shown in given circuit, the potential difference 10. A positive charge q is enclosed by a Gaussian
between X and Y is spherical surface of radius a. If its radius is
increased to 4a then the net outward flux will
(1) Become four times
(2) Become two times
(3) Become sixteen times
(4) Remain same
(1) 18 V (2) 30 V 11. A wire of length l and charge q is bent in form of
(3) 12 V (4) Zero a semicircle. The charge is uniformly distributed
over the length. The electric field at the centre of
6. There are two charges + 3 C and – 4C placed semicircle is
at a certain distance apart. The ratio of coulombic q q
forces acting on them will be (1) (2)
0 l 2 20 l 2
(1) 9 : 16 (2) 2 : 3 q q
(3) (4)
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 3 : 4 4 0 l 2 2  0 l 2

7. An electric dipole of dipole moment 12. A charge +q having mass m is released from rest

 2iˆ  3 ˆj  C m is placed inside a uniform electric

in a uniform electric field E. Momentum acquired
by the charge after time t is

field 3i  2 j   10
5
N/C. The torque acting on the

dipole is

(1) 0.4k N m

(2) 0.3k N m qEt

(1) qEt (2)
m
(3) 0.2k N m
qE qEm
(3) (4)
(4) 0.5k N m m t
13. A block of mass m having charge –q is placed (1) Zero (2) (a2)R2
midway between two parallel walls. A uniform
(3) (3a2)R2 (4) (5a2)R2
electric field E is switched on as shown in
17. If a dielectric material of dielectric constant r is
figure. The time after which it will collide with the
completely filled between two-point charges as
right wall for the first time is [All collisions are
shown in the figure, then the net electrostatic
elastic and surfaces are smooth]
force on q1 is
E
q1 q2
–q

L 1 q1q2 1 q1q2
(1) (2)
40 r 2 40r r 2
mL
(1)
qE r q1q2
(3) r

(4) Zero
40 r2
2mL
(2)
qE 18. The angle between the electric dipole moment of
a dipole and the electric field produced due to it,
3mL on the equatorial line is
(3)
qE
(1) 0° (2) 90°
(4) It will not collide with the right wall
(3) 180° (4) 270°
14. A uniformly charged conducting sphere of 1.2 m –6
–2 19. An electric dipole of dipole moment 9 × 10 Cm
radius has surface charge density of 80.0 C m .
is aligned at 30° with the direction of uniform
The flux leaving the surface of the sphere is 5
electric field of magnitude 6 × 10 N/C. The
(1) 1.64 × 108 Nm2C–1 (2) 3.21 × 107 Nm2C–1 magnitude of torque acting on dipole is
(3) 2.6 × 107 Nm2C–1 (4) 5.2 × 108 Nm2C–1 (1) 6.2 N m (2) 5.4 N m
15. A positive point charge 20 C is located at the
(3) 5.4 3 N m (4) 2.7 N m
point r 0  (2iˆ  3 ˆj ) m, where iˆ and ĵ are the
20. An infinite wire is placed along y-axis having
unit vectors along the x-axis and y-axis
uniform linear charge density . The electric field
respectively. Electric field at a point having
 1 
position vector r  (8iˆ  5 jˆ) m will be intensity at point P is  K  
 4  0 

(1) 360 (3iˆ  4 ˆj ) N/C (2) 360 (6iˆ  8 ˆj ) N/C

(3) 180 (3iˆ  4 jˆ) N/C (4) 450 (6iˆ  8 ˆj ) N/C

16. A cylinder of radius R is placed in an electric field

E  x 2iˆ as shown in the figure. The net electric P
flux through the cylinder is (consider SI units for r
all)
y

2K  K
(1) (2)
r r

x K K
(0, 0) (a, 0) (2a, 0) (3) (4)
2r 4r
21. Five charged particles each +Q and one –Q are 24. A long cylindrical volume contains a uniformly
placed at the six corners of a regular hexagon of distributed charge of density . The electric field
sides length a. The electrostatic force acting on at a point inside the cylindrical volume at a
charge q0 placed at the centre is distance r from its axis is
r 2r
Q Q (1) (2)
3 0 0

r 3r
(3) (4)
–Q Q 20 0
q0
25. A point charge q is placed at rest at point C at
distance r from a short electrical dipole of dipole
Q Q moment p. The force acting on charge particle is
1 6Qq0 1 2Qq0 C
(1) . (2) . q
40 a2 40 a2
r
1 Qq0 1 4Qq0
(3) . (4) .
40 a 2 40 a2 60°
p
22. An electric dipole is kept at origin as shown in the
figure. The point P, Q, R are on a circular arc of 7qp
(1)
radius r. If the electric fields at P, Q and R 40 r 3
respectively are E1 , E2 , E3 respectively then 7qp
(2)
select the correct option (r >> d) 80 r 3
y
Q 5qp
(3)
40 r 3

d 5qp
(4)
x 80 r 3
P O R
r 26. Three dipoles each of dipole moment of
magnitude p are placed on a circle of radius R as
shown. The magnitude of electric field intensity at
(1) E1  E3 (2) E1  2E2 centre will be
p
(3) E3  2E2 (4) All of these

23. In a certain region of space, electric field is along

Z-axis throughout. The magnitude of electric field 120° 120°
is not constant but increases uniformly along
120°
5 p p
positive Z-direction at rate of 10 N/C per meter.
What is force experienced by a system having a
–6 4kp
total dipole moment equal to 10 Cm in negative (1)
R3
Z-axis direction.
2kp
(1) 10 N in negative Z-axis direction (2)
R3
(2) 0.10 N in negative Z-axis direction
kp
(3)
(3) 0.01 N in positive Z-axis direction R3
(4) 0.2 N in positive Y-axis direction (4) Zero
27. There are three conducting concentric spherical 30. Two metal spheres of radii 30 cm and 10 cm are
shells having charges Q, –Q, 2Q respectively as given a charge of 20 C and 60 C respectively.
shown in figure. The electric field intensity at They are then connected by a conducting wire.
 1  The final charge on the sphere of radius 10 cm is
point P is (where OP = 2.5R)  k  
 40  (1) 10 C (2) 30 C
(3) 20 C (4) 60 C
31. The diameter of a plate of a parallel plate
condenser (composed of a pair of circular plates)
is 8 cm. If its capacity is equal to that of a sphere
of diameter 160 cm, the separation between the
plates of the parallel plate condenser is
(1) 0.2 mm (2) 0.3 mm
(3) 0.4 mm (4) 0.5 mm
3 kQ 32. The energy stored in the capacitor C1 between
(1) Zero (2)
4 R² terminals a and b is (all capacitors are identical
4 kQ kQ with capacitance 2 F)
(3) (4)
25 R ² 4R ² 20 V
28. Two-point charges 4Q and Q are placed on
x-axis as shown in the figure. Distance between
two charges is 3 m. Net electrostatic field is zero C2 C3
at a distance
4Q Q C5 C4

3m
a b
(1) 2 m from Q (2) 1.5 m from 4Q C1
(3) 1 m from Q (4) 0.75 m from 4Q (1) 2 mJ (2) 1 mJ
29. A uniform electric field E exists between two (3) 0.1 mJ (4) 0.2 mJ
parallel identical plates having opposite charges
33. Two capacitors of capacitance C and 2C and
on each plate. An electron enters the field
between the plates with speed v0 as shown in V
breakdown voltages of V and respectively are
2
figure. If length of each plate is , then angle with
connected in series. The breakdown voltage of
which electron deviates from its initial path (m is the series combination is
mass of electron) as it emerges out is
V
(1) (2) 2V
2
3V
(3) (4) V
2
N
34. Consider an electric field E  10i . The electric
C
flux through a square of cross-sectional area
 eE   eE 
4 i  m
–1 –1
(1) tan  2  (2) tan  2  2
is
 2mv 0   mv 0 

–1  eE  –1  eE  (1) 16 N m2C–1 (2) 24 N m2C–1

(3) sin  2  (4) sin  2 
 mv 0   2mv 0  (3) 32 N m2C–1 (4) 40 N m2C–1
35. A potential difference of 16 V exists across a
parallel plate isolated capacitor with air between
the plates. When a dielectric slab is introduced
between plates (such that the space between the
plates is completely filled up by dielectric) for the
same configuration, potential difference is 4 V.
The dielectric constant of the material is
(1) 8 (2) 4
(1) 200 V (2) Zero
(3) 2 (4) 10 (3) 100 V (4) – 200 V
SECTION – B 41. Two parallel plate capacitors having capacitances
6 F and 3 F are charged to potentials 25 V and
36. An  particle, initially at rest, moves through a 15 V respectively. If the plates of unlike polarity of
certain distance in a uniform electric field in time the two capacitors are connected together, then
t1. A proton, also initially at rest, takes time t2 to the loss of energy in rearrangement of capacitors
move through equal distance in the same uniform is
electric field. Neglecting the effect of gravity, the (1) 100 J (2) 450 J
ratio t1 : t2 is equal to (3) 1600 J (4) 7200 J
(1) 1: 2 (2) 2 :1 42. Three charges +Q, q and q are placed at the
vertices of a right-angled isosceles triangle as
(3) 1: 2 2 (4) 2 2 : 1 shown in figure. The net electrostatic potential
energy of the system of these three-point charges
37. A charge –2 nC is fixed at each of the points
is zero, if q is equal to
x = 1 cm, x = 2 cm, x = 4 cm, x = 8 cm, x = 16
q
cm, ……, x =  on the x-axis. The electric
potential at origin (x = 0), due to this system of
charges, is 2 cm

(1) –36 V (2) –1800 V

q +Q
(3) –3600 V (4) –5400 V
2 cm
38. Eight identical spherical liquid drops each are at Q
an electric potential 2 V. They coalesce to form (1)  (2) 2 2 Q
2
one big spherical liquid drop, whose potential is
Q
(3)  (4)  4 2 Q
1 3 2
(1) V (2) 16 V
4
43. The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) in space
1 is given by V = [x2y – y2z – z2x] volt. The electric
(3) 8 V (4) V field at the point [–1 m, –1 m, –1 m] is
2
(1) [iˆ  jˆ  kˆ] Vm1 (2) [iˆ  jˆ  3kˆ] Vm1
39. Three capacitors C1 = 3 F, C2 = 6 F and
C3 = 12 F are joined in series. This series (3) [iˆ  ˆj  3kˆ] Vm1 (4) [iˆ  jˆ  kˆ] Vm1
combination is connected to a 14 V battery. The 44. Two identical metal plates A and B are given
potential difference across the capacitor C2 is charges +20 C and –60 C respectively. Now
(1) 2 V (2) 4 V the plates A and B are brought close together to
form a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance
(3) 6 V (4) 8 V 20 F. The potential difference between the
40. A uniform electric field of 50 V m –1 exists in plates A and B is
XY-plane, parallel to Y-axis as shown in the (1) 2 V (2) 4 V
figure. The potential difference [VA – VB] is (3) 6 V (4) 8 V
45. In the circuit shown below, C1 = 3 F; C2 = 6 F; (1) 2ql j
C3 = 6 F; C4 = 12 F and C5 = 9 F. The charge
drawn from the battery is (2) 4ql j

C1 C2 (3) 2ql i
C5
(4) 2ql i
C3 C4
48. A particle of charge 2 C and mass 2 mg is
moving with a velocity of 5 m/s and is subjected
2V to a uniform electric field of magnitude 10 V/m for
3 s. The final speed cannot be
(1) 3 C
(1) 20 m/s (2) 25 m/s
(2) 12 C
(3) 30 m/s (4) 35 m/s
(3) 24 C 49. Electric field on the equatorial plane of a small
(4) 6 C electric dipole at a distance r is E , then electric
field on the axis of the dipole at a distance “4r”
46. Three conducting shells A, B and C are as shown will be
in figure. If +3Q charge is given on the inner
E
shell, –2Q on the middle shell and +Q on the (1)
64
outer shell, then charge on the inner surface of
the outermost shell is E
(2)
64
C
B E
(3)
32
A
E
(4)
32
50. Six charges are placed at the vertices of a
regular hexagon of side a as shown in the figure.
The electric field at the centre O is
(1) Q a
+Q +Q
(2) +4Q
(3) –2Q
(4) –Q +Q +Q
47. Three charges are placed in x-y plane as shown O
in figure, each is at distance l from the origin O.
The dipole moment of this configuration is +Q +Q
y (1) Zero
3kQ
(2)
4a2
2q 2q
x 3kQ
O (3)
4 3a 2
–4q 3 3 kQ
(4)
8 a2
 CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A 56. The electrophile involved in Reimer-Tiemann

51. The given reaction reaction is

C2H5 C2H5
H C Cl
NaI
I C H is an example of (1) CHCl2 (2) : CCl2
acetone
H3C CH3 
(3) CCl3 (4) CHO
which reaction?
Cl
(1) SN1 (2) SN2 NO2
(i) NaOH, 100°C
57. X.
(3) E2 (4) E1 +
(ii) H , H O
2
(major)

52. Which of the following compound gives pale NO2

yellow precipitate with AgNO3 most easily? Identify X.
Br OH
CH3
(1) CH3 CHCH2 Br (2)
(1) (2)
Br NO2
Br
(3) (4) OH
O O NO2
53. Elimination reaction by alcoholic KOH will be (3) (4)
fastest in
58. Which among the following will react fastest by
Cl
SN2 mechanism?
(1) (2)
(1) MeCH2CH2 – Br
Cl
Cl
(2) CH3CH2 – Br
(3) Me2CH – CH2 – Br
(3) (4)
Cl (4) Me3C – CH2 – Br
H3C O + –
54. RMgBr  CO2 
X
RCOOMgBr 
H2O
RCOOH , 59. C CH2 + C2H5OH
Na OC 2H 5
X
80°C
H3C major
X can be product

(1) THF (2) Acetone The IUPAC name of X and the mechanism
involved in the reaction respectively are
(3) D2O (4) H2O
(1) 1-Ethoxy-2-methylpropan-2-ol and SN1
OH
(2) 2-Methoxy-1-methylpropan-1-ol and SN2
Zn dust A CH3Cl/FeCl3 Cl2/h
55. B (1 mol) C
 (3) 1-Ethoxy-2-methylpropan-2-ol and SN2
Product C is (4) 2-Methoxy-1-methylpropan-2-ol and SN1
Cl 60. Number of optically active isomers of
CH2Cl
2, 3-dibromopentane are
(1) (2)
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 5
CH3
CH3 61. Grignard reagent produces alkane if reacts with
Cl (1) Phenol (2) Carboxylic acid
(3) (4)
Cl (3) Amine (4) All of these
62. For which of the following molecules (Dipole 67. Which of the following aromatic compounds
moment) is/are non-zero? undergoes nucleophilic substitution reaction most
easily?
Cl Cl NC CN Cl Cl
(A) (B)
(1) (2)
HO OH HS SH
CH3 NO2
(C) (D)
Cl Cl
(1) Only (A) (2) Both (A) & (B)
(3) Only (C) (4) Both (C) & (D) (3) (4)
OCH3
63. HBr reacts fastest with OCH3
(1) 2-methyl propan-2-ol 68. Correct order of nucleophilicity is
(2) Propan-2-ol
(1) H2O > OH > CH3COO
(3) Propanol
(2) OH > CH3COO > H2O
(4) 2-methyl propan-1-ol
64. Which of the following has the highest (3) CH3COO > OH > H2O
nucleophilicity? (4) OH > H2O > CH3COO
(1) F– (2) OH– 69. Which of the following hydrocarbon is most acidic
when reacts with RMgX?
(3) CH3 (4) NH2

65. The compound which is optically active, is (1) (2)

Me
Me
(3) (4)
(1) C C C
Me 70. Find the major product of the following reaction
H
Me

(2)

Me
CH3 (1) (2)

(3) H OH
OH (3) (4)
H
CH3 71. CH3 – CH = CH2 + HOBr  P. The major product
P is
CH3
(1) CH3 – CH – CH2
Br H
Br OH
(4) H Br
(2) CH3 – CH – CH2
CH3
OH Br
66. Which among the following will give yellow (3) CH2 – CH2 – CH2
precipitate with aqueous AgNO3 solution at room
Br OH
temperature? Br
(1) Tert-butyl chloride (2) Tert-butyl iodide
(4) CH3 – C – CH3
(3) Chlorobenzene (4) Iodobenzene OH
72. Which of the following inorganic fluoride can be 76. Ethylene oxide when treated with phenyl
used to prepare alkyl fluoride from corresponding magnesium bromide followed by hydrolysis yields
chloroalkane? (1) Benzene (2) Ethylene
(1) HF (2) ClF3 (3) 2-ethylphenol (4) 2-phenylethanol
(3) BrF3 (4) Hg2F2 77. In the following sequence of reaction
73. Total number of optically active isomers of
tartaric acid is
(1) 4 (2) 3 The end product (D) is

(3) 2 (4) 1 (1) CH3CH2OH (2) CH3CHO

(3) CH3CH3 (4) CH3OCH3
74. Which of the following reaction will undergo an
elimination reaction and an alkene will be formed 78. Ambident nucleophile among the following is
as the product? (1) Nitrite ion (2) Chloride ion
(3) Carbonate ion (4) Hydroxide ion

(1) (2) 79. product is

(1) (2)
(3) (4)

75. Consider the following electrophilic aromatic

substitution. (3) (4)

80. Ph—CH2—MgBr on reaction with H2O produces

(1) Ph—CH2—OH (2) Ph—CH3
(3) PhH (4) Ph—OH

The Product P is
81.

Compound Q is

(1)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(2)

82. When 2-bromobutane is heated with alcoholic

KOH, the major product formed is
(1) 1-butene (2) 2-butene
(3) (3) 1,3-butadiene (4) 2-butanol
83. Electrophile in Friedel-Crafts alkylation of
benzene is
+
(1) SO3 (2) CH3 CO
(4)
+
(3) Cl (4) CH3
84. CH3COOAg + Br2 CH3Br + AgBr + CO2
Above reaction is known as
(3)
(1) Hunsdiecker reaction
(2) Darzen’s method
(3) Finkelstein reaction
(4)
(4) Wurtz reaction
85. The major product (A) of the following reaction is
88. Consider the following reactions.
CH3—CH=CH2 
HBr
Peroxide
 (A)

(1) CH3—CH2—CH2—Br

(2)

(3)

(4)
Which of the following represents the relationship
between P1, P2 and P3?
SECTION – B (1) P1 and P2 are identical and P3 is different
86. Out of following compounds which one will (2) P1 and P3 are identical and P2 is different
undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction (3) P2 and P3 are identical and P1 is different
fastest? (4) All P1, P2 and P3 are identical
89. Tert-butyl chloride reacts with sodium ethoxide to
give
(1) (2) (1) Alkane (2) Alkene
(3) Alkyl halide (4) Ether
90. Among the following strongest nucleophile in
vapour phase is

(3) (4) (1) F (2) Cl

(3) Br  (4) I
91. The major product (A) in the following reaction is

87. ; X is

(1) (2)
(1)

(3) (4)
(2)
92. Optically active compound among the following is 95. Raschig process is used for the commercial
preparation of

(1)

(1) (2)

(2)
(3) (4)

96. Minimum density among the following is of

(1) CH3 I (2) CH3Br
(3)
(3) CH3F (4) H2O
97. In Groove’s process, the reagent used is
(1) HCl in presence of anhy. ZnCl2
(4)
(2) SOCl2 in presence of pyridine
93. Total number of optically active compound(s)
(3) NaBr in presence of conc. H2SO4
formed in the given reaction is/are
(4) KI in 95% H3PO4
98. The reactivity order of halogens towards ethane
is
(1) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2 (2) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2 (4) Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2
(3) 3 (4) 0 99. Peroxide effect is not observed in
94. Chloroform reacts with aq. KOH to form which of (1) Propylene (2) Ethene
the following compound?
(3) Pent–1–ene (4) Isobutylene
(1) Phosgene
100. Polar aprotic solvent(s) among the following
(2) Ethanol is/are
(3) Acetaldehyde (1) DMSO (2) Methanol
(4) Potassium formate (3) Water (4) Both (1) and (2)

BOTANY

SECTION - A (1) In a majority of organisms both female and

male gametes are motile
101. The vital link between successive generations
(2) In bryophytes, pteridophytes and
that ensures continuity of species from one
gymnosperms, water is the medium through
generation to the next is which the gamete transfer takes place
(1) Gamete (2) Zygote (3) Transfer of pollen grains to the stigma is
relatively easy in papaya than pea
(3) Embryo (4) Egg
(4) Successful transfer of gametes is essential
102. Mark the true statement regarding gamete for the most critical event of sexual
transfer. reproduction
103. State true (T) or false (F) for the following 108. The coconut water
statements and select the correct option (1) Is free nuclear endosperm
a. The ploidy level of gamete, embryo and (2) Contains only one nucleus
endosperm in the angiosperms is n, 2n and
(3) Does not contain any nucleus
3n respectively
(4) Is cellular endosperm
b. Both Agave and Bryophyllum vegetatively
propagate by bulbils 109. Transfer of pollen grains from anther to the
c. Strobilanthus kunthiana is a monocarpic plant stigma of the flower of different plant of the same
that flowers once in 12 years species is called

d. The ‘eyes’ of Solanum tuberosum are floral (1) Geitonogamy (2) Xenogamy
buds (3) Autogamy (4) Cleistogamy
a b c d 110. Seeds that retain a part of endosperm as it is not
(1) T F T T completely used up during embryo development
are found in all, except
(2) T F T F
(1) Wheat and maize (2) Wheat and castor
(3) F T T T
(3) Maize and castor (4) Pea and groundnut
(4) T F F T
111. What would be the number of chromosomes in
104. Statement A: In some plants, where flowering
the cells of scutellum and aleurone layer
occurs more than once, the interflowering period
respectively of a maize seed, if it has eight
is called juvenile phase.
chromosomes in its antipodal cell?
Statement B: Recovery phase is not the juvenile
(1) 32 and 16 (2) 16 and 24
phase but is a part of the mature phase.
(3) 8 and 16 (4) 24 and 8
(1) Only statement A is correct
112. Parthenocarpy and apomixis are similar in lacking
(2) Only statement B is correct
(1) Fertilization (2) Embryo formation
(3) Both the statements are correct
(3) Fruit formation (4) Seed formation
(4) Both the statements are incorrect
113. Choose the statement which is correct about the
105. The anther wall layer(s) that perform(s) the
post pollination events after the compatible
function of protection is/are
pollination.
a. Epidermis b. Endothecium
(1) Pollen grains germinate to produce pollen
c. Middle layers d. Tapetum tube through one of its germ pores in anther
(1) Only a (2) Only a and c (2) If pollen grains are shed at three-celled
(3) All except c (4) All except d stage, pollen tube carries two male gametes
from the beginning
106. Vegetative cell of pollen grains differs from its
generative cell as the former (3) Self incompatibility is necessary for self cross
(1) Is bigger in size and has abundant food (4) Generative cell divides through meiosis to
reserve form male gametes during the growth of
(2) Has a small irregularly shaped nucleus pollen tube

(3) Is smaller in size and has dense cytoplasm 114. Choose the correct match

(4) Has spindle shaped nucleus (1) Coleoptile – Encloses radical and root
cap
107. As the anther matures and dehydrates, the
microspore tetrad dissociate and release (2) Coleorhiza – Encloses epicotyl

(1) Pollen sacs (2) Ovules (3) Aleurone layer – Proteinaceous in nature

(3) Pollen grains (4) Male gametes (4) Scutellum – Part of embryonal axis
115. Which of the following devices prevents 120. Endosperm is a product of A and develops
autogamy as well as geitonogamy?
from B of embryo sac.
(1) Homogamy
Select the option which correctly fills A and B.
(2) Dioecious condition
(1) A-Syngamy, B- Central cell
(3) Monoecious condition
(2) A-Triple fusion, B-Nucellus
(4) Cleistogamy
(3) A-Syngamy, B-Nucellus
116. Which of the given is largest cell of embryo sac?
(4) A-Triple fusion, B-central cell
(1) Synergid (2) Egg 121. Identify the incorrect statement
(3) Antipodal cells (4) Central cell (1) In aquatic plants such as water lily, the
117. Female sex organ of Chara flowers are pollinated by insects

(1) Is also called globule (2) Hydrophily takes place in Salvia and water
hyacinth
(2) Has jacket composed of five tube cells
(3) Sticky pollen grains and presence of
(3) Occupies lower position to male sex organs
nectaries are characteristics of the
(4) Is present at abaxial surface of short lateral entomophilous plants
branches (4) Larger animals like lemur and tree dwelling
118. Which of the following parts of a typical anther is rodents are reported as pollinators in some
correctly matched with its functional or structural species
aspect? 122. Which of the following is a form of asexual
reproduction that mimics the sexual
reproduction?
(1) Vegetative propagation
(2) Syngamy
(3) Triple fusion
(4) Apomixis
123. The monosporic embryo sac is
a. The most common embryo sac of
(1) D – Site of microsporogenesis angiosperms.

(2) B – Ephemeral layer b. Formed by one meiosis in megaspore mother

cell and only two sequential mitosis in
(3) C – Polyploid and secretory layer
functional megaspore.
(4) A – Nutritive layer (1) Only a is incorrect
119. Pollen allergy is/occurs (2) Only b is incorrect
(1) Due to pollen grains of many hydrophilous (3) Both a and b are correct
plants
(4) Both a and b are incorrect
(2) Not associated with any kind of respiratory 124. In Citrus plants, many embryos are found in
disorders every seed. Some embryos are clones of each
(3) Due to pollen grains of carrot grass, other which are not formed by
Amaranthus etc. (1) Nucellus (2) Integument
(4) Due to megaspores (3) Zygote (4) Antipodals
125. Some plants produce both cleistogamous and 131. The junction between ovule and funicle to the
chasmogamous flowers. Which of the following body of the ovule is called
plant is odd one w.r.t above mentioned flowers? (1) Micropyle (2) Chalaza
(1) Viola
(3) Integument (4) Hilum
(2) Oxalis
132. All of the following are true for diploid gamete
(3) Rice mother cell, except
(4) Commelina (1) It is a meiocyte
126. The tapetal cells of anther show increase in their (2) Produces haploid gametes
DNA content due to all, except
(3) Undergoes meiosis
(1) Endomitosis
(4) Found in most algae and fungi
(2) Restitution nucleus
133. Plant in which roots bear adventitious bud is
(3) Polyteny
(1) Potato
(4) Haploidy
(2) Opuntia
127. All of the following are monoecious plants,
(3) Adiantum
except
(4) Dahlia
(1) Cucurbit (2) Coconut
134. Consider the given figure and select correct set
(3) Maize (4) Date palm
of statements
128. Mark the statement which is not correct for pollen
grains.
(1) In majority of angiosperms, generative cell is
absent in pollen grains at the time of
dispersal
(2) Sporopollenin of pollen helps in its
fossilization
(3) Pollen tablets can be used as food
supplements
(4) Pollen grains can be stored at –196°C in a. Microscopic motile spores
pollen banks
b. Always formed in unfavourable conditions
129. How many of the following plants flower only
c. Exogenously produced asexual spores
once in their life?
d. Pyramid shaped zoospores of Chlamydomonas
Rice, Carrot, Mango, Apple, Jackfruit, China
(1) a and c (2) b and d
rose
(3) a and d (4) c and d
(1) 6 (2) 2
135. Choose the incorrect one for water hyacinth.
(3) 4 (4) 3
(1) Exotic weed introduced in Bengal for its
130. Syngamy refers to fusion of beautiful flowers and shape of leaves
(1) Male gamete with one polar nuclei (2) Highly invasive aquatic weed found in
(2) Two fused polar nuclei with male gamete running water
(3) Egg with male gamete (3) It drains oxygen from the water
(4) Two polar nuclei (4) It reproduces vegetatively by offsets
 SECTION-B 141. Which of the given plants prevents autogamy but
not geitonogamy?
136. Life span (1) Castor (2) Papaya
(1) Is a specific trait of each organism (3) Maize (4) Both (1) and (3)
(2) Is always correlated to the size of an 142. Pollen viability
organism
(1) Is period for which the pollen grains retain the
(3) Is about 60 minutes in E. coli ability to germinate on stigma in most
(4) Of crow is more than that of parrot gymnospermic plants
137. Select the correct match w.r.t. plants and their (2) Is highly variable and depends on prevailing
vegetative propagules. temperature and humidity
(1) Sucker – Chrysanthemum (3) For plants of leguminosae, rosaceae and
solanaceae family it is of 30 minutes
(2) Bulbil – Onion
(4) Is several months for plants like rice and
(3) Offset – Banana
wheat
(4) Leaf bud – Potato
143. The pore or passage present at the tip of ovule
138. Read the following statements carefully. where the integument is absent is called
a. The most vital event of sexual reproduction is (1) Funicle (2) Micropyle
syngamy (3) Hilum (4) Nucellus
b. In angiosperms, pollen transfer may occur 144. External fertilization is found in all, except
through water
(1) Majority of algae
c. In most angiosperms, pollen grains are the
(2) Amphibians
carriers of motile male gametes
(3) Flowering plants
d. Stigma serves as a landing platform for
pollen grains after pollination (4) Fishes

Correct statements are 145. Which of the given features is not associated
with nucellus?
(1) a and c (2) b and d only
(1) Has parenchymatous mass of tissues
(3) a, b and d (4) All a, b, c and d
(2) Stores the reserve food
139. Which of the given structures/modes of
reproduction does not produce genetically similar (3) Forms the body of the ovule
individuals? (4) Is the protective envelope of the ovule
(1) Fragmentation in Hydra 146. A typical angiospermic anther is
(2) Fusion of isogametes of Rhizopus (a) Bilobed (b) Dithecous
(3) Binary fission in diatoms (c) Tetragonal (d) Tetrasporangiate
(4) Foliar buds of Bryophyllum (1) Only (a), (b) and (d)
140. The common features between Chara and (2) All (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Marchantia are (3) Only (a) and (d)
(a) Mainly dioecious plant body (4) Only (b) and (d)
(b) Flagellated antherozoids 147. If a typical angiospermic anther has 25
(c) Jacketed sex organs microspore mother cells in its each sporangium
calculate the total number of microspore tetrads,
(d) Protandrus condition pollen grains and male gametes respectively
(e) Female sex organ is oogonium produced by this anther.
(1) Only (a), (b) and (c) (2) Only (b) and (c) (1) 25, 100, 200 (2) 100, 400, 800
(3) Only (a) and (e) (4) Only (b), (c) and (d) (3) 100, 100, 400 (4) 50, 200, 400
148. Read the following statements and choose the 149. How many meiotic divisions are required to
correct option. produce 80 seeds in a typical angospermic plant?
A. Generative cell in a mature pollen grain is (1) 80 (2) 100
spindle shaped which floats in the cytoplasm
(3) 40 (4) 20
of the vegetative cell.
150. Mark the odd one w.r.t. the post fertilisation
B. In 40% of the angiosperms, pollen grains are
shed at two-celled stage. events occurring in a flowering plant.

(1) Both the statements are correct (1) Embryo formation

(2) Only statement A is incorrect (2) Ovule develops into a seed

(3) Only statement B is incorrect (3) Gametogenesis
(4) Both the statements are incorrect (4) Ovary ripens into a fruit

ZOOLOGY

SECTION - A 154. Mucous plug is formed in cervix during

pregnancy under the influence of hormone
151. Which one of the following options includes
diploid cells? (1) Estrogen

(1) Spermatogonia, primary spermatocyte, (2) Progesterone

oogonia, ovum (3) LH
(2) Spermatogonia, primary spermatocyte, (4) Estrogen and progesterone
secondary oocyte, sperm 155. Enzyme that is responsible for dissolving the
hyaluronic acid cementing the granulosa cells is
(3) Spermatogonia, primary spermatocyte,
primary oocyte, oogonia (1) Hyaluronidase
(2) Corona penetrating enzyme
(4) Oogonia, spermatogonia, secondary
spermatocyte, ovum (3) Acrosin

152. Match the following columns and choose the (4) Zona lysin
correct option. 156. Read the given statements and choose the
option which assign them as true(T) or false(F)
Column-I Column-II correctly.
The adipose tissue is found between the lobes
a. Leydig cell (i) Sperms are temporarily
and covers the surface of the mammary glands.
stored and matured here
Day of ovulation is 24th in a woman whose
b. Prepuce (ii) Yellow body menstrual cycle is of 48 days.
Layer of theca cells makes its earliest
c. Corpus (iii) Secretes androgens
appearance at secondary follicle.
d. Epididymis (iv) Skin covering the glans Mammary glands are apocrine, endocrine
penis glands, whose alveoli synthesize milk under
increased levels of progesterone during
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) pregnancy.
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) a b c d
153. Gamete transfer occurs during
(1) T T F F
(1) Pre-fertilization event
(2) T F T F
(2) Fertilization event
(3) F F F T
(3) Gametogenesis
(4) Embryogenesis (4) F T T F
157. Event not associated with follicular phase of 164. Meiosis I in female gametogenesis is completed
ovary is in
(1) Rise in level of gonadotrophin FSH (1) Primary oocyte in Graafian follicle
(2) Repair of endometrial lining in uterus (2) Secondary oocyte in Graafian follicle
(3) Positive feedback by estrogen in later part (3) Primary oocyte in tertiary follicle
of this phase to increase LH levels
(4) Secondary oocyte in secondary follicle
(4) Release of inhibin by granulosa cells
165. Activation of sperms in female genital tract to
158. Select a feature or function not applicable to facilitate fertilisation is known as
placenta or umbilical cord.
(1) Insemination (2) Acrosomal reaction
(1) Placenta acts as an ultra filter and foetal
(3) Capacitation (4) Spermiation
lung.
166. Milk ejecting hormone in a lactating mother is
(2) Permits movement of antibodies such as IgG
from foetal to maternal circulation (1) Prolactin (2) Oxytocin

(3) All the blood vessels in umbilical cord carry (3) Progesterone (4) Estrogen
100% foetal blood only. 167. In a nonpregnant female, regression of corpus
(4) Placenta acts as temporary endocrine gland. luteum occurs due to fall in level of
159. Hormones released exclusively in a pregnant (1) Progesterone (2) Estrogen
female include (3) hCG (4) LH
(1) Estrogen, Progesterone, hCS, hPL 168. Which of the following hormones is not secreted
(2) hCG, hCS / hPL, Relaxin by placenta?
(3) Thyroxine, Cortisol, Oxytocin, hCG (1) Chorionic somatomammotropin
(4) Inhibin, hCG, hPL, Prolactin (2) Chorionic thyrotropin
160. Choose the odd one w.r.t. male reproductive (3) Human chorionic gonadotropin
system (4) Cortisol
(1) Bartholin’s gland 169. Select the odd one w.r.t female external
(2) Prostate gland genitalia.
(3) Bulbourethral gland (1) Labia minora (2) Labia majora
(4) Cowper’s gland (3) Hymen (4) Cervix
161. Which of the following is an extra embryonic 170. Consider the following statements about male
membrane that acts as shock absorber and reproductive system with certain blanks A, B, C
prevents desiccation of human embryo? and D. Choose the option which correctly fill up
(1) Chorion (2) Amnion these blanks.

(3) Trophoblast (4) Allantois (i) The scrotum in man helps in maintaining the
temperature of testes A lower than
162. Changes in ovary leading to ovarian cycle in
primates results from hormones primarily normal internal body temperature for normal
secreted by spermatogenesis.
(1) Neurohypophysis (2) Placenta (ii) The normal length of human testis is about
(3) Posterior pituitary (4) Anterior pituitary B .

163. Non-cellular layer made up of glycoproteins (iii) Each testis has about C testicular
within Graafian follicle around ovum which
lobules.
prevents ectopic pregnancy is
(iv) Each testicular lobule contains D highly
(1) Corona radiata (2) Granulosa
(3) Zona pellucida (4) Theca externa coiled seminiferous tubules.
 A B C D 178. Choose the correct sequence w.r.t. embryonic
stages in humans.
(1) 2-2.5°C 2-3 cm 250 1-3
(1) Blastocyst → Gastrula → Morula
(2) 2-2.5°C 4-5 cm 250 1-3 (2) Gastrula → Blastocyst → Morula
(3) 3.5°C 4-5 cm 300 1-3 (3) Morula → Blastocyst → Gastrula

(4) 3.5°C 2-3 cm 250 1-3 (4) Gastrula → Morula → Blastocyst

179. Choose the incorrect match.
171. Select the correct pair of animals reproducing
through transverse binary fission. (1) Bulbourethral gland – Lubrication of penis
(1) Planaria and Hydra (2) Urethral meatus – External opening of penis
(2) Amoeba and Paramecium (3) Uterus – Known as womb
(3) Euglena and Yeast (4) Sertoli cells – Secrete androgens
(4) Paramecium and Planaria 180. Select the mismatch between the type of cells
172. A narrow region, called isthmus is a part of which given in Column-I and its corresponding
of the following structures? characters/ functions in Column-II.
(1) Mammary gland (2) Fallopian tube Column-I Column-II
(3) Vas deferens (4) Testis
(1) Interstitial cells – Source of testosterone
173. Choose the odd one w.r.t. number.
(1) Seminal vesicle (2) Prostate gland (2) Sertoli cells – Secrete androgen binding
protein
(3) Cowper's gland (4) Bartholin's gland
174. Select the odd one w.r.t. sexuality of organism. (3) Spermatids – Haploid
(1) Cockroach (2) Earthworm
(4) First polar – Formed at birth of baby
(3) Leech (4) Tapeworm
body
175. Maximum life span is a characteristic of __A__
and life expectancy is the characteristic of a 181. Select the correct sequence of reproductive
__B__. Select the option which fill the blanks events in humans.
correctly. (1) Fertilization → Insemination → Gestation →
(1) A-Species, B-Population Parturition
(2) A-Population, B-Species (2) Insemination → Gestation → Implantation →
(3) A-Genus, B-Class Parturition
(4) A-Class, B-Genus (3) Gametogenesis → Fertilization →
Implantation → Parturition
176. The organisms which are considered as
immortal is/are (4) Gametogenesis → Implantation →
(1) Amoeba only Insemination → gestation

(2) All unicellular organisms 182. In majority of sexually reproducing organisms,

the gametes produced are of morphologically
(3) Apis
two distinct types.
(4) Periplaneta
They don’t differ generally on the basis of
177. Genetic constitution of (22 + Y) is found in
(1) Motility
(1) Primary spermatocyte
(2) Size
(2) Spermatozoa
(3) Chromosome number
(3) Primary oocyte
(4) Amount of cytoplasm
(4) Ootid
183. Among the following, multiple fission is seen in 187. Chromosome number in a gamete of
all except Drosophila is 4. What is the chromosome
(1) Amoeba (2) Paramoecium number in meiocytes of Musca?
(3) Monocystis (4) Plasmodium (1) 8 (2) 12
184. Sexual reproduction in animals (3) 6 (4) 24
(1) Can be uniparental or biparental 188. 140 years is approximate life span of a
(2) Ensures rapid multiplication as it’s a faster
(1) Butterfly (2) Crocodile
process
(3) Fruit fly (4) Parrot
(3) Occurs only under favourable conditions
(4) Requires formation of gametes but never 189. During embryogenesis, a human zygote
gamete fusion undergoes
185. Select the correct match between column-I and (1) Mitosis and meiosis
column-II. All data given is in context of animals.
(2) Mitosis and cell differentiation
Column-I Column-II (3) Meiosis and cell differentiation
(1) Cell – Involves differential (4) Reductional division and cell differentiation
differentiation expression of genes that
190. Choose the incorrect match:
gives rise to different cell
types though all cells in an Column I Column II
animal contain the same
DNA (Organism) (Chromosome number in
meiocyte)
(2) Drones – Males in honey bee produce
sperms meiotically (1) Dog 78
(3) Zygote – Vital connecting link (2) Butterfly 380
between members of two
generations resulting from (3) Cat 36
both asexual and sexual
reproduction (4) Fruit fly 8

(4) Gemmule – Method of reproduction in 191. Which of the following is a monoecious

formation Spongilla where each organism?
archaeocyte of a gemmule
(1) Schistosoma (2) Pheretima
can give rise to a new
sponge upon return of (3) Ancylostoma (4) Bombyx
favourable conditions
192. Read the following statements and choose the
SECTION - B correct statement.
186. Select the statement/feature that is incorrect (1) Reproductive phase is of same duration
w.r.t external fertilisation. in all living organisms
(1) Gamete formation and fusion occurs in water (2) Sexual reproduction always involves the
(2) Organisms that undergo fertilisation in formation of male and female gametes by
external medium are generally anamniotes different individuals of opposite sex
among vertebrates
(3) All birds living in nature lay eggs
(3) Simultaneous release of gametes by
throughout the year
male and female increases chances of
zygote formation (4) Humans are reproductively active throughout
(4) Disadvantage involved is susceptibility of their reproductive phase, hence are called
gametes to predators and natural calamities continuous breeders
193. Sexual reproduction in comparison to asexual 197. Secretion of which of the following gland forms
reproduction is a maximum part of semen?
(1) Simple process (1) Prostate gland
(2) Fast process (2) Cowper’s glands
(3) Slow and simple process (3) Seminal vesicles
(4) Complex and slow process (4) Bulbourethral glands
194. In which of the following organisms cell division 198. All the statements are incorrect about a human
itself is a mode of reproduction? sperm except
(1) Amoeba (2) Asterias (1) Mitochondria are present in the neck region
(3) Aurelia (4) Ascaris (2) Nucleus is present in middle piece
195. The period from birth to natural death of an (3) Acrosome is present in head region of
organism represents its sperm outside plasma membrane
(1) Life expectancy (2) Life span (4) For normal fertility, at least 72 million
(3) Reproductive period (4) Mortality sperms from a single ejaculate must have
196. Correct sequence of anatomical structures of normal shape and size and must show
human male reproductive system is vigorous motility

(1) Seminiferous tubules → tubuli recti → rete- 199. The ducts which open into nipple of a mammary
testis → vas efferentia → epididymis → vas gland are
deferens (1) Mammary tubules (2) Lactiferous ducts
(2) Seminiferous tubules → rete-testis → (3) Mammary ducts (4) Alveolar duct
tubuli-recti → vas efferentia → epididymis → 200. The cell which first enters in meiosis during
vas deferens
spermatogenesis is
(3) Seminiferous tubules → epididymis →
(1) Spermatogonia
vas efferentia → rete-testis → tubuli recti
(2) Primary spermatocyte
(4) Tubuli recti → seminiferous tubules → rete-
testis → epididymis → vas deferens → vas (3) Secondary spermatocyte
efferentia (4) Spermatid


MM : 720 REVISION TEST SERIES Time : 3.00 Hrs.

(for NEET-2022)
Test - 1
Answers
1. (4) 41. (3) 81. (4) 121. (2) 161. (2)
2. (2) 42. (2) 82. (2) 122. (4) 162. (4)
3. (2) 43. (3) 83. (4) 123. (2) 163. (3)
4. (1) 44. (1) 84. (1) 124. (3) 164. (3)
5. (1) 45. (2) 85. (1) 125. (3) 165. (3)
6. (3) 46. (4) 86. (3) 126. (4) 166. (2)
7. (4) 47. (2) 87. (2) 127. (4) 167. (4)
8. (3) 48. (1) 88. (4) 128. (1) 168. (4)
9. (3) 49. (3) 89. (2) 129. (2) 169. (4)
10. (4) 50. (1) 90. (1) 130. (3) 170. (2)
11. (2) 51. (2) 91. (1) 131. (4) 171. (4)
12. (1) 52. (3) 92. (1) 132. (4) 172. (2)
13. (4) 53. (3) 93. (4) 133. (4) 173. (2)
14. (1) 54. (1) 94. (4) 134. (3) 174. (1)
15. (1) 55. (2) 95. (2) 135. (2) 175. (1)
16. (3) 56. (2) 96. (3) 136. (1) 176. (2)
17. (2) 57. (1) 97. (1) 137. (1) 177. (2)
18. (3) 58. (2) 98. (2) 138. (3) 178. (3)
19. (4) 59. (3) 99. (2) 139. (2) 179. (4)
20. (1) 60. (1) 100. (1) 140. (2) 180. (4)
21. (2) 61. (4) 101. (2) 141. (4) 181. (3)
22. (4) 62. (4) 102. (4) 142. (2) 182. (3)
23. (2) 63. (1) 103. (2) 143. (2) 183. (2)
24. (3) 64. (3) 104. (2) 144. (3) 184. (1)
25. (2) 65. (4) 105. (4) 145. (4) 185. (1)
26. (4) 66. (2) 106. (1) 146. (2) 186. (1)
27. (1) 67. (2) 107. (3) 147. (1) 187. (2)
28. (3) 68. (2) 108. (1) 148. (3) 188. (4)
29. (2) 69. (1) 109. (2) 149. (2) 189. (2)
30. (3) 70. (2) 110. (4) 150. (3) 190. (3)
31. (4) 71. (2) 111. (2) 151. (3) 191. (2)
32. (3) 72. (4) 112. (1) 152. (1) 192. (4)
33. (3) 73. (3) 113. (2) 153. (1) 193. (4)
34. (4) 74. (2) 114. (3) 154. (2) 194. (1)
35. (2) 75. (4) 115. (2) 155. (1) 195. (2)
36. (2) 76. (4) 116. (4) 156. (2) 196. (1)
37. (3) 77. (2) 117. (2) 157. (2) 197. (3)
38. (3) 78. (1) 118. (4) 158. (2) 198. (4)
39. (2) 79. (4) 119. (3) 159. (2) 199. (2)
40. (2) 80. (2) 120. (4) 160. (1) 200. (2)
MM : 720 REVISION TEST SERIES Time : 3.00 Hrs.

(for NEET-2022)
Test - 1

Answers & Solutions

PHYSICS
SECTION - A 9  109  10 10 –6
V 
1. Answer (4) 0.1

66 V = 9 × 105 V
Cab 
12
4. Answer (1)
= 3 F
Q
2. Answer (2) V i.e. if C changes with shape thenV also
C
Potential of a earthed body will be zero. changes.
KQ1 KQ2
+ =0 5. Answer (1)
R1 R2
In series combination of capacitors, potential
Q R Q
Q1 = – 2 1 =  divides as
R2 2
1 1 1 1
V1 : V2 : V3 : V4 = : : :
C1 C 2 C 3 C 4

Potential drop across each capacitor is 6 V.

Vx – Vy = 3 × 6 = 18 V
3. Answer (2)
6. Answer (3)
kq
For r < R; V 
R F12  F21  0
kq
V= F12  F21
R
7. Answer (4) 13. Answer (4)
  P E Ball will not collide with right wall.

P   2i  3 j  Cm
14. Answer (1)
qen

E   3i  2 j   105 N/C 0

i j k qen  4R2  
  2 3 0  10 1
4R 2  
3 2 0 
0
 i (0  0)  j (0  0)  k (4  9)  105
  162  (1.2)2  9  109  80  106
   5k Nm
  160  1.44  9  109  80  106
8. Answer (3)
  160  1.44  9  80  103
Torque on the dipole may be zero.
9. Answer (3) = 165888 × 103

EA  EC  EB  1.64  108

10. Answer (4) 15. Answer (1)

qen r1  r  r0
Total 
0
 6i  8 j
11. Answer (2)
kqr
E
r3

9  109  20  106  6i  8 j 
E
R =  103

   360  3i  4 j  N/C
R 

16. Answer (3)
q   2  1
E
20 R
= (4a2 – a2)R2
q
 = 3R2a2
 20 
 17. Answer (2)
q q1q2
 F
20 2
40 r r 2
12. Answer (1) 18. Answer (3)
qE
a
m
v = u + at
qEt

m
P = mv Angle between electric dipole moment and
= qEt electric field strength is 180°.
19. Answer (4) r 2
 = PEsin  E  dA  0
= 9 × 10–6 × 6 × 105 × sin30° r 2
E 2r 
= 2.7 N m 0
20. Answer (1) r
E
 20
E
20 R 25. Answer (2)
2 p
E E 3cos2   1
40 R 40 r 3

2k  p 3
 E 1
r 40 r 3 4
21. Answer (2)
7p
E
80 r 3
F = qE
7 pq

80 r 3
26. Answer (4)
Fnet  2F

Qq0
F
40a2

2Qq0
Fnet 
40a2
22. Answer (4)
P, R are axial point and Q is equatorial point.

E1  E3 , E1  2E2 and E3  2E2 Enet  0

27. Answer (1)
23. Answer (2)
k (Q  Q )
pdE E
F along positive z axis (25R )2
dz
=0
F  106  105 along negative z axis
28. Answer (3)
= 0.10 N along negative z axis.
24. Answer (3)
k 4Q kQ

x2 (3  x )2
2(3 – x) = x
6 – 2x = x
3x = 6
x = 2 m from 4Q
qen  r 2
1 m from Q
29. Answer (2)
U
1
2
 
2  106 10  J
2

 
t  
 v0  = 10–6 × 100 J

v y  u  at U = 0.1 mJ
33. Answer (3)
eE

m v0

vy
tan  
vx

eE

mv 02
Qmax 1  CV
 eE 
  tan1  2  Qmax 2  CV
 mv 0 
then for CV charge
30. Answer (3)
qCR V 3V
V 
2 2
 R2 
then q2    Qtotal 34. Answer (4)
 R1  R2 
  E.A
= 
10  6
  80  10
 40  10i .4i
= 20 × 10–6
N 2
= 40 m
q2 = 20 C C
31. Answer (4) 35. Answer (2)
Cparallel plate = Csphere Here voltage is changing. That means battery is


0   0.04 
2
  4 0.80 disconnected. Therefore, charge remains constant
Q = CV
0
d
1
0   16  10–4 i.e C 
then d  V
40  0.8
KC0 16

40 C0 4
=  104
8
K=4
d = 0.5 mm
SECTION - B
32. Answer (3)
36. Answer (2)
The circuit is a balanced wheatstone bridge
a 1 2 1 qE 2 m
S at  t  t
C C 2 2 m q
b
t1 m1 q2 4 1 2
     
C C t2 m2 q1 1 2 1

37. Answer (3)

20 V V = V1 + V2 + V3 + V4 + ……
 q 1 1 1 1 1  1 42. Answer (2)
V         2
4 0 1 2 4 8 16  10 Unet = 0 
 1 1 1 1    U12 + U23 + U31 = 0
 (9  109 )( 2  109 ) 1   2  3  4    102
 2 2 2 2 
1  q2 
 Qq  Qq  0
  40 (2 cm)  2 
 1 
 [ 1800] 
1
V
1   q2
 2  2Qq
2
= –3600 V
 q = 2 2Q
38. Answer (3)
43. Answer (3)
V  n V  8
2/3 2/3
2V
 V 
Ex      [2 xy  z ]
2
=4×2V   x 
 E x ( 1, 1, 1)  1
=8V
39. Answer (2)  V 
Ey       [ x 2  2yz]
Let Cs is the effective capacitance.  y 
1

1

1

1 1 1 1
    Ey  1
( 1, 1, 1)
Cs C1 C2 C3 3 6 12
 V 
12 Ez       [ y  2zx ]
2
 Cs  F  z 
7
Charge on C2 = Charge on Cs  Ez( 1,1,1)  3

C2V2 = CsV
 
E  Ex iˆ  Ey jˆ  Ez kˆ  iˆ  ˆj  3kˆ V/m
12 
[6 F]V2   F  [14 V] 44. Answer (1)
 7 
The charge on each outer face of the two plates
 V2 = 4 V
is
40. Answer (2)
 ( 20 C)  ( 60 C) 
A    20 C
 2 
 VA – VB =
 E.dr
B The charge configuration on the plates A and B is
shown below.
= – E. rA – rB 
A B
– +40 C – –20 C
=  – Ejˆ  xiˆ + –
– + – –
=0 – + –
– –
+
41. Answer (3) –20 C + –40 C –

1  C1C2  Charge on capacitor, Q = 40 C

 (V1  V2 )
2
Loss in energy = 
2  C1  C2 
 Potential difference between the plates A and
163 B is
 (25  15)2  106 J
2  6  3  Q 40 C
V   2V
C 20 F
= 1600 J
45. Answer (2) qE

The Wheatstone bridge is in the balanced m
condition.
2  106  10
Ceff = 6 F 
2  106
Total charge stored, Q = Ceff V
= 10 m/s
Q = (6 F) × 2 V
V = U + at
= 12 C
Vmax  5  3  10
46. Answer (4)
= 35 m/s
Vmin  5  3  10
= 25 m/s
Vmin  V  Vmax
49. Answer (3)
P
E
40 r 3
47. Answer (2)
2P
E1 
40 (4r )3

P

40  32r 3

E

32
Pnet  2P cos45 j
50. Answer (1)
P  2q 2

4q 2
Pnet  j
2
Pnet  4q j
48. Answer (1)
F
a Enet  0
m

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A 53. Answer (3)

51. Answer (2) Cl
Given reaction is Finkelstein reaction which is Elimination reaction will be fastest in as
based on SN2 mechanism.
52. Answer (3) it leads to the formation of an aromatic compound
i.e., benzene. Moreover the -H atom is also
most acidic as it is allylic in conjugation.
on losing Br– will acquire aromatic
54. Answer (1)
character therefore most readily give yellow ppt
of AgBr with AgNO3. Grignard reagent used in THF solution.
55. Answer (2) 61. Answer (4)
OH RMgX reacts with acidic hydrogen to form alkane.
Zn dust CH3Cl/FeCl 3 62. Answer (4)

(A)
56. Answer (2)
Dichlorocarbene is the electrophile (:CCl2) have non-zero dipole moment

57. Answer (1)

The reaction is followed by addition-elimination
mechanism 63. Answer (1)
– +
Cl ONa 3° alcohols are more reactive with HBr.
NO2 NO2 64. Answer (3)
H+
(–)
OH

100°C

HO
2
Across period nucleophilicity decrease
NO2 NO2  CH3- > NH2– > OH– >F–
OH
NO2 65. Answer (4)
+ NaCl The compound which have plane of symmetry
are optically inactive
NO2
(95%)
e.g.
58. Answer (2)
Those haloalkane which have least steric
crowding are highly reactive SN2.
59. Answer (3)

H3C O
C CH2
H3C –
OC2H5
–
O
H–OC2H5
H3C – C – CH2 – OC2H5
SN2

CH3
OH
–
H3C – C – CH2 – OC2H5 + OC2H5
CH3
60. Answer (1)
Number of optical isomers = 2n 66. Answer (2)
where n = number of chiral centre
Tertiary alkyl iodide undergoes reaction with
AgNO3 to give yellow precipitate.
67. Answer (2)
 The presence of an electron withdrawing group at
ortho and para-positions increases the reactivity
of haloarenes towards nucleophilic substitution
  Number of optical isomers = 4 reaction.
68. Answer (2) 75. Answer (4)
Higher is the electron density greater will be
nuclecphilicty
 Correct order of Nucleophilicity is
 
OH > CH3CO O> H2O

69. Answer (1)

is the most stable anion.

70. Answer (2)

76. Answer (4)

(Hoffman alkene)
71. Answer (2)

77. Answer (2)

Br+ acts as an electrophile.

72. Answer (4)
Swarts reaction prepares alkyl fluorides by
heating suitable chloroalkanes with SbF3, AgF, 78. Answer (1)
Hg2F2 etc.
Nitrite ion has two different point of linkage
73. Answer (3)
Fischer projections of different stereoisomers of
tartaric acid: 79. Answer (4)

Compounds A and B are enantiomers and each

one is optically active. Compound C is optically
inactive as it contains plane of symmetry within
the molecule.
74. Answer (2)

80. Answer (2)

81. Answer (4) 87. Answer (2)

88. Answer (4)

In all reactions, only propene will be formed.
89. Answer (2)

82. Answer (2)

90. Answer (1)

91. Answer (1)
83. Answer (4)
It follow S Ni pathway
Friedal-craft alkylation
92. Answer (1)
93. Answer (4)

Mechanism

i. CH3 — Cl  AlCl3  CH3  AlCIΘ4

ii.
94. Answer (4)

84. Answer (1)

CCI
CH3COOAg  Br2 
4
 CH3  Br  CO2  AgBr

This reaction is called Hunsdiecker reaction.

85. Answer (1)
95. Answer (2)
Anti-Markovnikov’s rule

SECTION - B 96. Answer (3)

86. Answer (3) Density :- CH3I > CH3Br > H2O > CH3F
97. Answer (1)

98. Answer (2)

99. Answer (2)
This anion is stabilized by –NO2 group(s)
On symmetrical alkenes, peroxide effect is not
So, –NO2 groups at all o, p positions stabilizes
observed.
carbanion most, hence rate of reaction will be
fastest. 100. Answer (1)
 BOTANY

SECTION - A 111. Answer (2)

101. Answer (2) Antipodal cells (n) = 8
Zygote forms the vital link between successive Cells of aleurone layer (3n) = 3 × 8 = 24
generations that ensures continuity of species Scutellum (2n) = 2 × 8 = 16
from one generation to the next.
112. Answer (1)
102. Answer (4)
In parthenocarpy, fruit is formed without
In gymnosperms, pollination is anemophilous. fertilization.
Transfer of pollen grains to the stigma is relatively Apomictic embryos are formed without
easy in pea as it is monoecius. fertilization as well.
In majority of organisms, male gamete is motile So both the phenomenon lack fusion of gametes.
and female gamete is non-motile.
113. Answer (2)
103. Answer (2)
Pollen grains germinate on stigma. Growth of
The ‘eyes’ of Solanum tuberosum are nodes. In pollen tube is chemotrophic. Generative cell
Bryophyllum, adventitious buds arise from divides mitotically to produce two male gametes.
notches present at margins of leaves.
114. Answer (3)
104. Answer (2)
Coleoptile – Hollow foliar structure that covers
Interflowering period is used for building up plumule.
resources and therefore is a recovery phase. It is
Coleorhiza – Undifferentiated sheath like
part of mature phase. structure that protects radicle and
105. Answer (4) root cap.
Epidermis, endothecium and middle layers Scutellum – Single cotyledon.
perform the function of protection of pollen grains. 115. Answer (2)
106. Answer (1) Dioecious condition of plant prevents autogamy
Vegetative cell of pollen grain is bigger in size as well as geitonogamy.
and has abundant food reserve. 116. Answer (4)
107. Answer (3) Central cell is largest cell of embryo sac.
As anther matures and dehydrates, microspore 117. Answer (2)
tetrad dissociates to release pollen grains.
Female sex organ of Chara is called nucule. It
108. Answer (1) occupies upper position than globule and has
Coconut milk is the free nuclear endosperm of jacket composed of five tube cells.
coconut which contains thousands of nuclei. 118. Answer (4)
109. Answer (2) A represents tapetum which is nutritive layer and
Xenogamy (allogamy) or cross pollination nourishes developing pollen grains.
involves transfer of pollen grains from one plant 119. Answer (3)
to the another of the same species.
Pollen grains of carrot grass, Amaranthus and
110. Answer (4) many anemophilous plants can cause pollen
Pea and groundnut – Dicot seeds which are allergy.
exalbuminous. 120. Answer (4)
Wheat, maize, barley – Monocot and albuminous Endosperm is a product of triple fusion (1 male
seeds. gamete + 2 polar nuclei) and develops from
Castor – Dicot seed but endospermic. central cell of embryo sac.
121. Answer (2) 132. Answer (4)
Hydrophily occurs in Zostera, Vallisneria etc. Most of the algae and fungi has haploid gamete
122. Answer (4) mother cell which undergoes mitosis to produce
gametes.
Apomixis is a kind of asexual reproduction to
produce seeds without fertilization. 133. Answer (4)

123. Answer (2) Roots of Dahlia plant bear adventitious buds.

Out of 4 megaspores only 1 remains functional in 134. Answer (3)

most of the angiosperms (monosporic Zoospores are pyramid shaped microscopic
development). motile spores in Chlamydomonas.
135. Answer (2)
Eichhornia is highly invasive aquatic weed found
growing in standing water.
SECTION - B
136. Answer (1)
Life span is a specific trait of each organism.
124. Answer (3)
137. Answer (1)
All the embryos formed other than zygote are
apomictic embryos. Offset is seen in Eichhornia. Bulbil helps in
vegetative reproduction in Agave.
Apomictic embryos are not formed by fusion of
gametes. Therefore they are clones of each 138. Answer (3)
other. Angiosperms have non-motile male gametes.
125. Answer (3) 139. Answer (2)
Rice does not have cleistogamous flowers. Fusion of gametes occurs in sexual reproduction
126. Answer (4) and produces variations in offspring.

Tapetal cells of anther show increase in their 140. Answer (2)

DNA content due to endomitosis, restitution Both Chara and Marchantia produce flagellated
nucleus and polyteny. antherozoids and jacketed sex organs.
127. Answer (4) 141. Answer (4)
Date palm is a dioecious plant. Maize and castor are monoecius plants.
128. Answer (1) 142. Answer (2)
In majority of angiosperms, generative cell is Pollen viability is period for which pollen grains
present in pollen grains and pollen is shed at 2- retain the ability to germinate on stigma in
celled stage. angiospermic plants.
129. Answer (2) 143. Answer (2)
Rice and carrot are monocarpic plants. Micropyle is the pore or passage present at the
130. Answer (3) tip of ovule where integument is absent.

Syngamy refers to fusion of egg with male 144. Answer (3)

gamete. Flowering plants show internal fertilization.
131. Answer (4) 145. Answer (4)
Hilum is the junction between ovule and stalk of Integuments are the protective envelopes of the
ovule. ovule.
146. Answer (2) 149. Answer (2)
A typical angiospermic anther is bilobed, Number of meiotic divisions to produce seeds
dithecous, tetragonal and tetrasporangiate.
n
n
147. Answer (1) 4
1 microspore mother cell forms 1 microspore 80
tetrad which produces, 4 pollen grains which  80 
4
finally forms 8 male gametes.
= 100
148. Answer (3)
150. Answer (3)
In 60% of the angiosperms, pollen grains are
shed at two celled stage. Gametogenesis is a pre-fertilisation event.

ZOOLOGY

SECTION - A 159. Answer (2)

151. Answer (3) Oxytocin facilitates parturition while estrogen,
Spermatogonia and oogonia are diploid cells. inhibin, progesterone, prolactin, thyroxine and
cortisol perform varied functions during or before
152. Answer (1)
pregnancy.
Leydig cells synthesise and secrete testicular
160. Answer (1)
hormones called androgens.
Bartholin's gland is the part of female
153. Answer (1)
reproductive system.
In fertilization event, fusion of gametes occur.
161. Answer (2)
154. Answer (2)
Amnion is derived from extraembryonic
In secretory phase, corpus luteum is formed
mesoderm and ectoderm.
which secretes high concentration of
progesterone and low concentration of estrogen. 162. Answer (4)
Progesterone forms thick mucous in cervix so Ovarian cycle is regulated by hormones of
that it protects pathogens from entering the adenohypophysis i.e., FSH and LH.
uterus. 163. Answer (3)
155. Answer (1) Corona radiata and granulosa are cellular
Corona penetrating enzyme dissolves corona layers. Theca externa is made up of fibrous
radiata. connective tissue. Zona pellucida is made up of
156. Answer (2) glycoproteins.

Day of ovulation is 34 (48–14) and mammary 164. Answer (3)

glands are exocrine glands. Meiosis-I is completed within tertiary follicle to
157. Answer (2) form a tiny 1st polar body and a large haploid
secondary oocyte.
Proliferative phase in uterus runs parallel to
follicular phase. Estrogen in proliferative phase 165. Answer (3)
is responsible for repair of endometrium shed Insemination is transfer or deposition of sperms
during menstrual phase. into the female genital tract. Acrosomal reaction
158. Answer (2) involves release of hydrolytic enzymes from
sperm's head. Spermiation is a process when
IgG moves from maternal to foetal circulation not
vice versa. sperms are released from seminiferous tubules.
166. Answer (2) 178. Answer (3)
Oxytocin released from posterior pituitary is The correct sequence w.r.t. embryonic stages in
responsible for release of stored milk in humans:-
mammary glands. Morula  Blastocyst Gastrula
167. Answer (4) 179. Answer (4)
LH maintains corpus luteum which secretes Sertoli cells provide nutrition to the germ cells.
progesterone and estrogen. hCG mimics the Leydig cells synthesise and secrete testicular
role of LH in a pregnant female. hormones called androgens.

168. Answer (4) 180. Answer (4)

Cortisol is a glucocorticoid synthesized from First polar body is formed after completion of 1st
meiotic division.
zona fasciculata layer of adrenal cortex and not
from placenta. 181. Answer (3)

169. Answer (4) Transfer of sperms into the female genital tract is
called insemination.
The oviducts, uterus and vagina constitute the
182. Answer (3)
female accessory ducts.
In humans, both sperms and ovum consist of 23
170. Answer (2)
pair of chromosomes.
In human adults, each testis is oval in shape,
183. Answer (2)
with a length of about 4 to 5 cm and a width of
Transverse binary fission takes place in
about 2 to 3 cm.
Paramoecium.
171. Answer (4)
184. Answer (1)
Transverse binary fission takes place in
Sexual reproduction involves formation of the
Paramoecium, diatoms, Planaria. male and female gametes either by the same
172. Answer (2) individual or by different individuals of the
opposite sex.
Each oviduct is differentiated into three parts
namely infundibulum, ampulla and isthmus. 185. Answer (1)

173. Answer (2) Zygote is the vital link that ensures continuity of
species between organisms of one generation
Prostate gland is an unpaired male accessory and the next.
gland.
SECTION - B
174. Answer (1)
186. Answer (1)
Cockroach is a dioecious organism while Syngamy occurs in the external medium
earthworm, leech and tapeworm are (water), i.e., outside the body of the organism
monoecious. in case of external fertilisation.
175. Answer (1) 187. Answer (2)
Maximum life span is the characteristic of The chromosome number in meiocyte of Musca
species and life expectancy is the characteristic (House fly) is 12.
of a population. 188. Answer (4)
176. Answer (2) The approximate life span of butterfly is 1-2
All individuals are mortal except single-celled weeks.
organisms. 189. Answer (2)
177. Answer (2) During embryogenesis, zygote undergoes cell
division (mitosis) and cell differentiation.
Spermatozoa is a haploid cell.
190. Answer (3) 196. Answer (1)
The chromosome number in meiocyte of cat is The seminiferous tubules of the testis open into
38. the vasa efferentia through rete testis.
191. Answer (2) 197. Answer (3)
Earthworm is a monoecious organism. Seminal vesicles secrete viscous fluid which
constitute the main part of the ejaculate.
192. Answer (4)
198. Answer (4)
Birds living in nature lay eggs only seasonally.
The middle piece of sperm possesses numerous
193. Answer (4)
mitochondria, which produce energy for the
Asexual reproduction is a rapid mode of movement of tail.
reproduction.
199. Answer (2)
194. Answer (1)
Several mammary ducts join to form a wider
In Protists and Monerans, the organism or the mammary ampulla which is connected to
parent cell divides by mitosis into two to give lactiferous duct through which milk is sucked out.
rise to new individuals.
200. Answer (2)
195. Answer (2) Primary spermatocytes are the first cell to
Life span can be defined as the period from birth undergo 1st meiotic division to form secondary
to the natural death of an organism. spermatocytes.

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