1604/3, Behind Chodankar Nursing Home, Near Coqueiro Circle, Alto-Porvorim – Goa

NEET MOCK TEST 2

No. of Questions: 180 MM:720
Duration: 3 Hour

Instructions :
1. Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
2. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
3. Dark only one circle for each entry.
4. You have to attempt all 45 questions from each subject.
5. Each question carries 4 marks .For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score
_____________________________________________________________________________________________

5. If energy E of a body moving along x-axis is given

Physics by 𝐸 =
𝐴−𝑥 2
where 'x’ represents position and ‘t’
𝐵𝑡
1. The practical application of resonance tube is time, then the dimensions of AB will be
experiment is to find (A) [M–1 L2 T1] (B) [M L T–2]
–1 3 –2
(A) Frequency of tuning fork (C) [M L T ] (D) [M L–3 T2]
(B) End correction
(C) Frequency of sound wave in water 6. Two charges +3Q and ‒Q are placed at some
(D) Speed of sound in air distance apart. If N0 is the number of electric field
lines originated from +3Q, then the number of
2. 1 g of ice at 0oC is mixed with 8 g of water at 8oC field lines which terminate on ‒Q is
the equilibrium temperature of the mixture will (A) 𝑁0 (B) 3𝑁0
be 𝑁0 𝑁
(C) (D) 0
3 2
(A) 1oC (B) 0oC
o
(C) 2 C (D) 8oC 7. Maximum kinetic energy of a photoelectron is E
when the wavelength of incident light falling on
3. In the circuit shown in the figure, the value of
surface of a metal is 𝜆. If maximum kinetic energy
current passing through the battery just after the
becomes four times when wavelength is reduced
key is closed
to one third, then work function of the metal is (c
is speed of light)
ℎ𝑐 3ℎ𝑐
(A) 𝜆 (B) 𝜆
ℎ𝑐 ℎ𝑐
(C) 2𝜆
(D) 3𝜆

8. If all the pulleys are massless and strings are ideal

then tension in the string connected with 2 kg
(A) 1 A (B) 2 A block nearly as shown in figure is
10
(C) Zero (D) 13 A

4. If in a given time interval the displacement of a

particle is zero, then the distance covered by the
particle
(A) Cannot be zero
(B) Must be zero
(C) May or may not be zero
(D) May be negative, positive or zero
(A) 12.8 N (B) 7.7 N
(C) 20 N (D) Zero

1
 1
9. The angular velocity of a body rotating about (A) kB T (B) 3 kBT
2
⃗ = (𝑖̂ − 2𝑗̂ + 2𝑘̂ ). Velocity of a point on
origin is 𝜔 3 5
(C) kB T (D) kB T
the body having position vector 𝑟 = (4𝑗̂ − 3𝑘̂) 2 2

will have magnitude equal to

17. Three moles of an ideal gas is taken through the
(A) √29 unit (B) √79 unit process ABC as shown in the figure. The total
(C) √120 unit (D) √87 unit work done by the gas is
10. (a) Glass is more elastic than rubber
(b) Rubber is more elastic than glass
(c) Steel is more elastic than rubber
(d) Rubber is more elastic than steel
For the above statements–
(A) (a) and (b) are correct
(B) (a) and (c) are correct
(C) (b) and (c) are correct (A) 2 RT ln2 (B) 4 RT ln2
(D) (b) and (d) are correct (C) – 12 RT ln2 (D) – 4 RT ln2

11. A 10 V ac is applied to a circuit consisting of a 18. Match quantities given in column-1 with their
resistance and an inductance in series. If the corresponding dimensional formula in column-II.
voltage across the resistor is 5 V, then the voltage Column-I Column-II
across the inductor is
A. Universal P. [LT–2]
(A) 5 V (B) 10 V
gravitational
(C) 5√2 V (D) 5√3 V
constant (G)
12. The power of an equiconcave lens is −5 D and the B. Acceleration due to Q. [M–1 L3 T–2]
40
radius of curvature of each surface is cm, then gravity (g)
3 C. Magnetic field (B) R. [ML2 T–2 A–2]
the refractive index of the material of lens is
3 5 4 5
(A) (B) (C) (D) D. Self inductance (L) S. [MT–2 A–1]
2 3 3 2

13. The magnetic field at the centre of a circular (A) (A)→Q; (B)→P; (C)→R; (D)→S
current carrying coil of radius R is Bc. The (B) (A)→Q; (B)→P; (C)→S; (D)→R
magnetic field on its axis at a distance R from the (C) (A)→P; (B)→Q; (C)→S; (D)→R
centre is Ba. The value of Bc/Ba will be (D) (A)→P; (B)→S; (C)→Q; (D)→R
1
(A) √2 (B)
2√2 19. An electrostatic a force of 5 N acts on a charge of
1
(C) 2√2 (D) 1.5 X 10–3 C. The electric field at that point is
√2
𝑁 𝑁
(A) 1.3 x 103 𝐶 (B) 2.6 x 103 𝐶
14. The rate of emission of heat by a black body at (C) 9.3 x 103 𝐶
𝑁
(D) 3.3 x 103 𝐶
𝑁
temperature T is Q. Rate of emission of heat by
another body having emissivity half unit and same 20. A small ball of mass m moving horizontally with
surface area at temperature 3T, is speed 8 m/s collides with a wall moving towards it
(A) 81 Q (B) 9 Q with speed 2 m/s. If the coefficient of restitution
(C) 33.5 Q (D) 40.5 Q 1
(e) between them is , then the speed of the ball
2
15. The errors in the measurement which arise due to after collision will be
unpredictable fluctuations in an experimental (A) 7 m/s (B) 8 m/s
setup as well as in surrounding conditions are (C) 4 m/s (D) 5 m/s
called
(A) Instrumental errors 21. Which of the following statements is correct for
(B) Random errors semiconductors at room temperature?
(C) Least count errors (A) Conduction band is completely empty
(D) Systematic errors (B) Valence band is completely empty
(C) Valence band is partially empty and the
16. Total kinetic energy per molecule for a conduction band is partially filled
monoatomic gas sample kept at temperature T is (D) Valence band is completely filled and the
(kB is Boltzmann constant) conduction band is partially filled

2
 10 28
22. The observed mass of 6C12 nucleus is mc, mass of (C) m/s (D) m/s
3 9
one proton is mp and mass of one neutron is mn
and all the masses are in amu. If 1 amu = 931.4 28. A parallel plate capacitor is charged and then the
𝑀𝑒𝑉
𝑐2
, then the binding energy of 6C12 nucleus is source is disconnected. If the distance between
equal to the plates is increased by using insulating handles,
(A) (mp + mn – mc) x 931.4 MeV then
(B) (6mp + 12mn – mc) x 931.4 MeV (A) Capacitance of the capacitor increases
(C) (6mp + 6mn – mc) x 931.4 MeV (B) Potential difference decreases across the
(D) (mc + 6mp – 6mn) x 931.4 MeV plates
(C) The charge on the capacitor decreases
23. In a plane electromagnetic wave travelling in (D) The charge on the capacitor remains same
vacuum, the electric field has amplitude 12 V/m.
The amplitude of magnetic field in the EM wave is 29. A block of mass 2 kg, lying on a smooth horizontal
(A) 4 x 10–8 T (B) 36 x 10–8 T plane is acted by forces as shown in the figure.
–6
(C) 4 x 10 T (D) 3.6 x 10–6 T The normal force on the block by the ground is (g
= 10 m/s²)
24. The equivalent resistance between the terminals
A and B of the network as shown in the figure, is

(A) 28 N (B) 22 N
(C) 12 N (D) 22.5 N

30. The escape velocity of a body from the earth

𝑅 𝑅 2𝑅 surface is ve. If the same body is projected upward
(A) R (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 3
with velocity v (v > ve) the velocity of the body at
infinite distance from the earth will be
25. Assertion (A): Susceptibility (𝜒) vs temperature (T)
(A) v - ve (B) 2√𝑣 2 − 𝑣𝑒2
curve for a paramagnetic material is hyperbola.
Reason (R): Above curie temperature, (C) 2v - ve (D) √𝑣 2 − 𝑣𝑒2
paramagnetic material converts into diamagnetic
material. 31. The minimum velocity with which a body of mass
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are true and m should enter a vertical loop of radius R so that it
Reason is the correct explanation of can complete the loop, is
Assertion
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion
(C) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false (A) √5𝑔𝑅 (B) √3𝑔𝑅
(C) √4𝑔𝑅 (D) √2𝑔𝑅
26. When a light travelling in vacuum enters into a
medium, then 32. A variable current i = (3t2) ampere, where t is in
(A) Its speed increases and wavelength seconds, is flowing through a resistor of resistance
decreases 2 Ω. The total heat produced in the circuit in 5
(B) Its speed and wavelength decreases seconds is
(C) Its frequency remains constant but speed (A) 10.2 kJ (B) 11.25 kJ
increases (C) 20.25 kJ (D) 5.3 kJ
(D) Its speed and wavelength increases
33. An AC generator has 200 turns coil of loop area
27. The terminal velocity obtained by a drop of water 90
0.25 m2. The coil rotates at a speed of ( ) rpm
having radius 0.2 mm falling through the air of 𝜋
viscosity 2 x 10‒5 N s/m2 will be (neglect density of and placed in a uniform field of 0.5 T
air) perpendicular to the axis of rotation of the coil.
20 40 The maximum value of induced emf in the coil is
(A) m/s (B) m/s
9 9 (A) 25V (B) 7.5V (C) 75V (D) 37V

3
34. Two objects of masses 6 kg and 12 kg are placed (C) 𝜆1 < 𝜆2 (D) None of the above
at a separation of 18 m. The distance of the centre
of mass of the system from 12 kg mass is 42. An organ pipe 'X' open at one end vibrating in its
(A) 6 m (B) 12 m first overtone, is in resonance with another organ
(C) 15 m (D) 10 m pipe ‘Y’ open at both end vibrating in its third
overtone. These pipes have lengths l1 and l2
35. If 𝜙, I and f represent work function of a metal, 𝑙
respectively, then 𝑙1 will be
2
intensity of incident radiation and frequency of 4 3
incident radiation respectively, then maximum (A) (B)
3 8
1 5
kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons is (C) (D)
2 6
independent of
(A) Both 𝜙 and l (B) Only l 43. A particle performs SHM on x-axis with amplitude
(C) Only f (D) Both l and f A and time period T. If at t = 0 particle starts from
positive extreme, then time taken by it to travel a
36. Different monochromatic lights are used in a YDSE 𝐴
distance 4 will be
setup. For which of the following light maximum
𝑇 𝑇 3
number of fringes can be seen? (A) 16
(B) cos −1 ( )
16 4
(A) Violet (B) Green 𝑇 3 𝑇 −1 (1)
(C) 2𝜋
cos−1 (4) (D) 2𝜋
cos 4
(C) Yellow (D) Red

37. A point charge of 6 C is placed at the centre of a 44. To increase the current sensitivity of a moving coil
cube. The electric flux passing through one of its galvanometer, one should decrease
face is (A) Number of turns in coil
1 1 (B) Magnetic field inside it
(A) 6𝜀 (B) 𝜀
0 0 (C) Area of its coil
6 1
(C) (D) (D) Torsional constant
𝜀0 2𝜀0

38. In case of electromagnetic induction, normally the 45. A 2 𝜇F capacitor is charged with the help of a 60 V
induced emf in a conducting loop is independent battery. After disconnecting the battery it is
of connected with another uncharged capacitor of 1
(A) Number of turns in the loop 𝜇F. The potential difference across the plates of 2
(B) Rate of change of magnetic field 𝜇F capacitor will be
(C) Radius of the loop (A) 30 V (B) 60 V
(D) Resistance of the loop (C) 40 V (D) 20 V

39. If the first member of the Lyman series of the

hydrogen has wavelength 𝜆0 , then wavelength of
the first member of the Balmer series is
23
(A) 5 𝜆0
36
(B) 5 𝜆0
Chemistry
9 27
(C) 𝜆
5 0
(D) 𝜆0
5 46. The possible four quantum numbers of the
unpaired electron present in a fluorine atom are:
40. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Solar cell is used to detect optical n l m S
signal. (A) 3 1 0 +1/2
Statement II: Photodiode as well as zener diode (B) 3 2 1 −1/2
work in forward bias. (C) 2 1 0 +1/2
In the light of above statements, choose the (D) 2 2 −1 −1/2
correct option
(A) Both statements are correct 47. The volume occupied by 4.4 g of CO2 at STP will
(B) Both statements are incorrect be:
(C) Only statement I is correct (A) 2.24 L (B) 22.4 L
(D) Only statement II is correct (C) 0.224 L (D) 1.12 L

41. In hydrogen spectrum, if the longest wavelength 48. The pair of elements which belong to the same
in Lyman series is 𝜆1 and the shortest wavelength group in the modern periodic table are:
in Balmer series is 𝜆2 , then (A) Cu and Zn (B) Ge and Pb
(A) 𝜆1 > 𝜆2 (B) 𝜆1 = 𝜆2 (C) K and Ca (D) As and Se

4
49. Given below are two statements: 55. Match List-I with List-II.
Statement I: PbF4 is covalent in nature. List-I (Conversion) List-II
Statement II: SnF4 is ionic in nature. (Reagents/Conditi
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are on)
correct. A. HC ≡ CH → CH3 CHO I. i) alc. ΚΟΗ/Δ
ii) NaNH2
(B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
B. HC ≡ CH → CH3 CH3 II. Conc. H2SO4, Δ
incorrect.
C. Br − CH2 − CH2 − III. H₂O, Hg2+/H+ at
(C) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is Br → CH ≡ CH 333K
correct. D. CH3 CH2OH → IV. H2, Pt
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are CH2 = CH2
incorrect. Choose the correct answer from the options
given below;
50. The IUPAC name of the compound given below is:
(A) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(B) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(D) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

56. Consider the following reactions for the test of

sulphur and nitrogen.
(A) 4-Ethyl-2-methylaniline Na + C + N + S  NaSCN
(B) 1-Ethyl-3-methylaniline Fe3+ + SCN- + X
(C) 1-Methyl-3-ethylaniline Formula and colour of 'X' respectively are:
(D) 2-Methyl-4-ethylaniline (A) [Fe(SCN)]2- and blood red
(B) [Fe(SCN)]2+ and prussian blue
51. Choose the incorrect match. (C) [Fe(SCN)] 2+ and blood red
(A) Isothermal - Temperature is constant (D) [Fe(CN)5NOS]4- and violet
Process throughout the process

(B) Isochoric - Volume is constant 57. What will be the molarity of a 98% (w/w) solution
Process throughout the process of conc. H2SO4, whose density is 2 g cm-3?
(A) 20 M (B) 50 M
(C) Adiabatic - Exchange of heat (q) (C) 15 M (D) 2 M
Process between system and
surrounding 58. Given below are two statements: one is labelled
(D) Isobaric - Pressure is constant as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Process throughout the process Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The dipole moment of CO2 is zero.
Reason (R): The two equal bond dipoles in CO2
52. Which of the following has trigonal pyramidal point in opposite directions and cancel the effect
shape? of each other.
(A) H2O (B) XeCl4 In the light of the above statements, choose the
(C) SF4 (D) NH3 correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
53. For the reaction, 𝐴(𝑠) + 𝐴𝑂2 (𝑔) ⇌ 2𝐴𝑂(𝑔) the explanation of A.
partial pressure of 𝐴𝑂 and 𝐴𝑂2 are 4 atm and 8 (B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
atm, respectively at equilibrium. The KP for the correct explanation of A.
reaction will be: (C) A is true but R is false.
(A) 2 (B) 1 (D) A is false but R is true
(C) 4 (D) 3
59. In which of the following, change in entropy is
54. Which of the following is known as no bond negative?
resonance? A. Expansion of gas at a constant temperature
(A) Electromeric effect B. Sublimation of solid I₂ into vapours
(B) Inductive effect C. Condensation of water
(C) Hyperconjugation effect D. 2H(g) → H2(g)
(D) Negative resonance effect The correct option(s) is/are:
(A) Only A (B) A and B
(C) C and D (D) Only D

5
 Choose the correct answer from the options
60. In case of group 13 element, the stability of +1
given below;
oxidation state decreases in the order:
(A) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(A) Al > Tl > In (B) Al > In > Tl
(B) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(C) Tl > In > Al (D) In > Tl > Al
(C) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
61. The most stable carbocation among the following (D) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
is:
67. Given below are two statements: one is labelled
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Na and K exhibit a similar chemical
behavior.
Reason (R): Na and K have the same number and
same distribution of electrons in their outermost
orbitals.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A.
62. 1,3,5,7- Octatetraene has:
(C) A is true but R is false.
(A) 17𝜎 bonds and 2𝜋 bonds
(D) A is false but R is true.
(B) 7𝜎 bonds and 4𝜋 bonds
(C) 17𝜎 bonds and 4𝜋 bonds 68. van't Hoff factor (𝑖) for complete dissociation of
(D) 18𝜎 bonds and 3𝜋 bonds Al2(SO4)3 will be;
(A) 2 (B) 3
63. Given below are two statements:
(C) 4 (D) 5
Statement I: Paper chromatography is a type of
partition chromatography. 69. Given below are two statements:
Statement II: Thin layer chromatography is a type Statement I: For strong electrolytes, Λm increases
of adsorption chromatography. slowly with dilution.
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are Statement II: For weak electrolytes, conductivity
correct. increases with decrease in concentration.
(B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect. correct.
(C) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
correct. incorrect.
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are (C) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
incorrect. correct.
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are
64. What will be the magnitude of the change in incorrect.
internal energy, if a system does 400 J of work
and simultaneously absorbs 200 J of heat? 1
70. The slope of plot between In k vs 𝑇 for Arrhenius
(A) 200 J (B) 100 J
equation is;
(C) 150 J (D) 250 J 𝐸𝑎 𝐸
(A) − 2.303 𝑅
(B) − 𝑅𝑎
65. Two elements A and B have atomic mass 12 u and 𝑅 2.303 𝐸𝑎
(C) − 𝐸 (D) − 𝑅
1 u respectively. If A and B combine to give a 𝑎

compound having 20% B, then the empirical

formula of the compound will be: 71. Identify the major product (B) in the following
(A) A3B (B) AB3 reaction sequence;
(C) A2B3 (D) A3B2

66. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I (Ion) List-II (Bond Order)
A. 𝑁22− I. 3
B. 𝑁𝑂+ II. 2
C. 𝑁2− III. 1
D. 𝑂22− IV. 2.5

6
 (C) Ethanal
(D) Ethanoic acid

77. ∆𝑟 𝐺 of the following cell is:

𝑁𝑖(𝑠) + 2𝐴𝑔+ (𝑎𝑞) → 𝑁𝑖 2+ (𝑎𝑞) + 2𝐴𝑔(𝑠)
(A) ∆𝑟 𝐺 = −𝐹𝐸(𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙) (B) ∆𝑟 𝐺 = −2𝐹𝐸(𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙)
(C) ∆𝑟 𝐺 = −3𝐹𝐸(𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙) (D) ∆𝑟 𝐺 = −4𝐹𝐸(𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙)

78. The conversion of molecules X to Y follows second

order kinetics. If concentration of X is increased to
72. Given below are two statements:
three times, how will it affect the rate of
Statement I: In vinylic alcohols, −OH group is
formation of Y?
bonded to sp³ hybridised carbon.
(A) The rate will increase 9 times
Statement II: Lucas reagent is conc. HCl and
(B) The rate will increase 3 times
ZnCl2.
(C) The rate will remain same
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(D) The rate will decrease 3 times.
correct.
(B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
79. Given below are two statements: one is labelled
incorrect.
as Assertion A and other is labelled as Reason R:
(C) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
Assertion (A): Transition elements exhibit higher
correct.
enthalpies of atomisation.
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are
Reason (R): Transition elements have stronger
incorrect.
interatomic interaction due to large number of
unpaired electrons in their atoms.
73. Strongest acid among the following is;
(A) A is true but R is false.
(B) A is false but R is true.
(C) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(D) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the
correct explanation of A.

80. Optically active entity among the following is;

(A) cis−[Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
(B) trans−[PtCl₂ (en)2,]2+
(C) cis−[PtCl2(en)2]2+
(D) trans−[Pt (NH3)2 Cl2]

74. The six membered cyclic structure of glucose is 81. Most reactive halide towards SN1 reaction is
called pyranose structure, in analogy with;
(A)

(B)
(C) CH2 = CH − CH2 − Cl
(D) CH3 CH2 Cl

82. Acetylation of salicylic acid produces;

75. The most basic amine in gas phase is;

(A) (CH3)3N (B) (CH3)2NH
(C) CH3NH2 (D) NH3

76. The product obtained by reaction of But-2-ene

with acidic KMnO4 will be:
(A) Butanoic acid
(B) Butane

7
83. Match List-I with List-II. Choose the correct answer from the options
List-I List-II given below;
(Vitamins) (Deficiency diseases) (A) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
A. Vitamin B1 I. Cheilosis (B) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
B. Vitamin B2 II. Pernicious anaemia (C) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
C. Vitamin B6 III. Beri beri (D) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
D. Vitamin B12 IV. Convulsions
Choose the correct answer from the options 88. Co2(CO)8 has Co-Co bond bridge by;
given below; (A) one CO group
(A) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (B) two CO groups
(B) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (C) three CO groups
(C) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I (D) four CO groups
(D) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
89. Positive Tollen's test is given by;
84. Given below are two statements: (A) alcohols
Statement I: Osmosis process is used for the (B) aldehydes
desalination of sea water. (C) ketones
Statement II: Mixture of nitric acid and water (D) carboxylic acids
shows positive deviation from Raoult's law.
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are 90. The osmotic pressure of an aqueous solution
correct. containing 2% (w/w) non-volatile solute is 0.83
(B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is bar at 300 K. What is the molar mass of the
incorrect. solute? (Given: R = 0.083 L bar mol-1 K-1 )
(C) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II (A) 400 g mol-1
is correct. (B) 1200 g mol-1
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are (C) 600 g/mole
incorrect. (D) 900 g mol-1

85. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In commonly used mercury cell, the Botany
reducing agent is zinc.
Statement II: The lead storage battery is a
secondary battery. 91. Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) is the primary CO2
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are acceptor in:
correct. (A) C3 plants (B) C4 plants
(B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (C) C2 plants (D) C3 and C4 plants
incorrect.
(C) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is 92. Which of the following are the smallest living
correct. cells, lack definite cell wall, are pathogenic to both
(D) Both Statement I and Statement II are plants and animals and can survive without
incorrect. oxygen?
(A) Bacillus (B) Pseudomonas
86. For the rate constant k = 2.3 × 10-5L mol-1s-1, (C) Mycoplasma (D) Nostoc
identify the order of reaction.
(A) Zero 93. Which one from those given below is the time
(B) First period during which Mendel's hybridization
(C) Second experiments on pea plants were conducted?
(D) Third (A) 1856 - 1863 (B) 1840 - 1850
(C) 1857 - 1869 (D) 1870 - 1877
87. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II 94. Flowers that have a single ovule in the ovary and
(Halogen (Property) are packed into inflorescence are usually
A. Fluorine I. Highest electron affinity pollinated by:
(A) Water (B) Bee
B. Chlorine II. Minimum energy bond
(C) Wind (D) Bat
C. Bromine III. Highest electronegativity
D. Iodine IV. Red colour

8
95. Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained (D) 4 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
when
(A) The value of 'r' approaches zero 103. Plants that produce embryo and spores but
(B) K= N lack seed and vascular tissue belong to
(C) K > N (A) Bryophyta
(D) K < N (B) Pteridophyta
(C) Gymnosperm
96. Among the following characters, which one was (D) Angiosperm
not considered by Mendel in his experiments on
pea plants? 104. Viroids differ from viruses in having
(A) Stem - Tall of Dwarf (A) DNA molecules with protein coat
(B) Trichomes - Glandular or Non- (B) DNA molecules without protein coat
glandular (C) RNA molecules with protein coat
(C) Seed - Green or Yellow (D) RNA molecules without protein coat
(D) Pod - Inflated or Constricted
105. Histones proteins are rich in
97. Which of the following cell organelles is (A) Histidine and arginine
responsible for extracting energy from (B) Histidine and lysine
carbohydrates to form ATP ? (C) Histidine, arginine and lysine
(A) Lysosome (B) Ribosome (D) Arginine and lysine
(C) Chloroplast (D) Mitochondrion
106. Which of the following ecosystem has the
98. RNA polymerase requires for initiation maximum biomass?
(A) Sigma subunit (A) Forest ecosystem
(B) Beta-subunit (B) Grassland ecosystem
(C) Rho subunit (C) Pond ecosystem
(D) Spliceosome (D) Lake ecosystem

99. Which of the following organisms are found in 107. The final proof for DNA as the genetic
extreme saline conditions ? material came from the experiments of
(A) Archaebacteria (A) Griffith
(B) Eubacteria (B) Hershey and Chase
(C) Cyanobacteria (C) Avery, McLeod and McCarty
(D) Mycobacteria (D) Hargobind Khorana

100. Alexander Von Humboldt described for the 108. Match List-I with List-II.
first time: List-I List-II
(A) Ecological Biodiversity a. G0-phase I. Actual cell division
(B) Laws of limiting factor b. M-phase II. Quiescent stage
(C) Species area relationship c. G1-phase III. RNA and protein
(D) Population Growth equation synthesis
d. S-phase IV. Preparation for DNA
101. DNA fragments are: replication
(A) Positively charged e. G2-phase V. DNA synthesis
(B) Negatively charged Choose the correct answer from the options
(C) Neutral given below
(D) Either positively or negatively charged (A) a-(II), b-(IV), c-(III), d-(I),e-(V)
depending on their size (B) a-(II), b-(I), c-(IV), d-(V), e-(III)
(C) a-(I), b-(II), c-(III), d-(IV), e-(V)
102. If the genotypes of a husband and wife are IAIB (D) a-(IV), b-(V), c-(III), d-(II), e-(I)
and IAi
How many different genotypes and 109. Assertion (A): Animal cells undergo cytokinesis
phenotypes are possible among their by the formation of a furrow due to the
children? deepening/pinching of the wall.
(A) 3 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes Reason (R): Plant cells undergo cytokinesis by
(B) 3 genotypes; 4 phenotypes the formation of a new cell wall which begins
(C) 4 genotypes ; 3 Phenotypes

9
 with the formation of a simple precursor which connect the cytoplasm of neighbouring
called the cell plate. cells.
(A) Both A and R are true, but R is not the (A) Both Statements I and II are incorrect.
correct explanation of A. (B) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
(B) A is true, but R is false. incorrect.
(C) A is false, but R is true. (C) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II
(D) Both A and R are true and R is the is correct.
correct explanation of A. (D) Both Statements I and II are correct.

110. Which of the following stages in sewage 117. Double fertilization is exhibited by:
treatment removes suspended solids ? (A) Gymnosperms (B) Algae
(A) Tertiary treatment (C) Fungi (D) Angiosperms
(B) Secondary treatment
(C) Primary treatment 118. Statement I: In the transforming principle,
(D) Sludge treatment when Streptococcus pneumoniae (Pneumococcus)
bacteria are grown on a culture plate, some
111. Select the mismatch from the following pairs: produce smooth shiny colonies (S) while others
(A) Pinus - Dioecious produce rough colonies (R).
(B) Cycas - Dioecuous Statement II: S strain bacteria have a mucous
(C) Salvinia - Heterosporous (polysaccharide) coat, while R strain does not.
(D) Equisetum - Homosporous (A) Both statements I and II are correct and
II explains I
112. In Bougainvillea thorns are the modification (B) Both statements I and II are correct and
of : II does not explain I
(A) Stipules (B) Adventitious root (C) Statement I is true and statement II is
(C) Stem (D) Leaf false
(D) Both statements I and II are false
113. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II 119. Which one of the following is related to ex-
a. Middle lamella I. Storage situ conservation of threatened animals and
b. Mitochondria II. Cementing material plants?
c. Vacuoles III. Photosynthesis (A) Wildlife Safari parks
d. Grana IV. Respiration (B) Biodiversity hotspots
Choose the correct answer from the options (C) Amazon rainforest
(D) Himalayan region
given below
(A) a-III, b-I, c-II, d-IV
(B) a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I 120. Statement I: Mendelian disorders may be
dominant or recessive.
(C) a-lI, b-IV, c-I, d-III
(D) a-ll, b-I, c-III, d-IV Statement II: By pedigree analysis it can be
easily interpreted whether the trait is
114. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm dominant or recessive.
develops into : (A) Only statement I is correct
(A) Ovule (B) Endosperm (B) Only statement II is correct
(C) Both statements I and II are correct
(C) Embryo sac (D) Embryo
(D) Both statements I and II are incorrect
115. DNA replication in bacteria occurs :
(A) During phase 121. Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused
(B) Within nucleolus due to a problem in globin molecule synthesis.
(C) Prior to fission Select the correct statement.
(D) Just before transcription (A) Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin
chain synthesis.
116. Statement I: The middle lamella is a layer (B) Both are due to a quantitative defect in
mainly composed of calcium pectate which holds globin chain synthesis.
the different neighbouring cells together. (C) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin
molecules.
Statement II: The cell wall and middle
lamellae may be traversed by plasmodesmata (D) Sickle cell anemia is due to a quantitative
problem of globin molecules

10
 (C) Thick walls, no intercellular spaces and
122. A disease caused by an autosomal primary few chloroplasts
non- disjunction is : (D) Thin walls, many intercellular spaces and
(A) Down's Syndrome several chloroplasts
(B) klinefelter's Syndrome
(C) Turner's Syndrome 127. Mycorrhizae are an example of
(D) Sickle Cell Anemia (A) Parasitism (B) Amensalism
(C) Predation (D) Mutualism
123. The figure given below the represents?
128. Which of the following is correctly matched
with respect to the product produced by them?
(A) Acetobacter aceti : Antibiotics
(B) Methanobacterium : lactic acid
(C) Penicillium notatum : Acetic acid
(D) Sacchromyces cerevisiae : Ethanol

129. Read the following statements and find out

the incorrect statement.
(A) Underground stems of potato, ginger
and turmeric are modified to store food
in them
(B) In potato, Colocasia and ginger, the
underground stem act as organs of
(A) Multicarpellary syncarpous pistil of perennation to tide over conditions
Papaver unfavourable for growth
(B) Multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium (C) The region of stem where leaves are
of Michelia borne are called nodes while internodes
(C) Pentacarpellary syncarpous gynoecium are portions between two nodes
of the Michelia (D) In cucumber, axillary bud is modified
(D) Multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium and protect plants from browsers
of the Papaver
130. Which of the following is made up of dead
124. Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be cells
prevented by the application of : (A) Xylem parenchyma
(A) Cytokinins (B) Ethylene (B) Collenchyma
(C) Auxins (D) Gibberellic acid (C) Phloem Fibre
(D) Sieve tube
125. Match Column – I with Column – II.
Column – I Column – II 131. Consider the following statements:
a. 4C I. Acetyl CoA a. In prokaryotic cells, an outgrowth of the
b. 2C II. Pyruvate plasma membrane into the cell is called a
c. 5C III. Citric acid polysome.
d. 3C IV. α-ketoglutaric acid b. SER is the major site for glycoprotein
V. Malic acid synthesis.
c. RuBisCO is the most abundant protein in
a. b. c. d. the biosphere.
(A) II V III I d. Mitochondria, chloroplasts and
(B) III I IV II peroxisomes are not part of
(C) V I IV II endomembrane system.
(D) V III I II Of the above statements.
(A) c and d alone are correct
126. In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells (B) c and b alone are correct
have (C) b and a alone are correct
(A) Thick walls, many intercellular spaces (D) a and d alone are correct
and no chloroplasts
(B) Thick walls, no intercellular spaces and
large number of chloroplasts

11
132. Arrange the following events of meiosis in the (A) Both A and B are true
correct sequence. (B) Only A is true
i. Crossing over (C) Only B is true
ii. Synapsis (D) Both a and B are false
iii. Terminalisation of chiasmata
iv. Disappearance of nucleolus 138. Meandrina (brain coral) belongs to phylum :-
(A) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv) (A) Porifera (B) Coelenterata
(B) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (C) Ctenophore (D) Platyhelminthes
(C) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
139. Which structure is present only in male
(D) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
Cockroach?
133. Attractants and rewards are required for: (A) Phallic gland
(A) Wind pollution (B) Antennae
(B) Insect pollution (C) Alary muscles
(C) Water pollution (D) Anal cerci
(D) Cleistogamy
140. Statement I : In atherosclerosis only
134. Diadelphous condition occurs in deposition of fat and fibrous tissues occurs,
(A) Solanaceae which make the wall of arteries hard
(B) Fabaceae Statement II : In heart failure congestion of
(C) Asteraceae the liver is only main region
(D) Liliaceae (A) Statement-I & Statement-II both are
correct.
135. Read the following statements and find the (B) Statement-I is correct & Statement – II is
suitable option. incorrect
a. Generally petals are green, leaf like and (C) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is
protect the flower in the bud stage. correct
b. Sepals are brightly coloured to attract insects (D) Both Statement – I & Statement-II are
for pollination. incorrect
c. If stamens in a flower remain free this is called
polyandrous. 141. In Emphysema,
d. Each ovary bears one or more ovules attached (A) Wheezing occurs during exhalation as the
to a flattened, cushion like placenta. airways become constricted
e. There may be a variation in the length of (B) Defense mechanism of the body cannot
filaments of stamen within a flower, as in fully cope with the excessive dust that
Salvia and mustard. enters lungs
(A) a, b and d are true but c and e are false (C) Respiratory surface is decreased as
(B) c, d and e are true but a and b are false alveolar walls are damaged
(C) c and d are true but a, b and e are false (D) More mucus is produced as airways get
(D) d and e are true but a, b and c are false inflamed

142. In integrated system, which system provides

an organized network of point to point
Zoology connection for quick co-ordination?
(A) Endocrine system
136. Silencing of a specific mRNA due to a (B) Nervous system
complementary dsRNA molecule is done by (C) Muscular system
inhibiting which process? (D) Both (A) & (B)
(A) Replication
(B) Transcription 143. Which statement is incorrect.
(C) Reverse transcription (A) Adrenal cortex hormones stimulates Na+
(D) Translation reabsorption
(B) Thyroid hormone helps in regulation of
137. Statement – A : At present about 30 menstrual cycle.
recombinant therapeutics have been approved (C) Estradiol and oestrogen bind with
for human use the world over intranuclear receptors
Statement – B: 27 documented varieties of (D) Cortisol maintain immune system by
Basmati rice are grown in India. stimulation of Antibody formation.

12
144. All of the following are gastrointestinal (B) Reptiles
hormones except – (C) Marine fishes
(A) Gastrin (B) Secretin (D) Both A and B
(C) Cholecystokinin (D) Erythropoitin
153. Which is not true about PCR (Polymerase
145. Muscles with characteristic striations and chain reaction) ?
involuntary are (A) PCR can amplify very small amount of
(A) muscles in the wall of alimentary canal DNA
(B) muscles of the heart (B) It can be used to detect HIV in suspects
(C) muscles assisting locomotion (C) Only RNA can be used as primer
(D) muscles of the eyelids (D) Use of thermostable DNA polymerase

146. Choose the correct sequence of vertebrae. 154. Assertion-(A) :- Metastasis is the most feared
(A) Cervical → Lumbar → Thoracic → Sacral property of malignant tumors.
→ Соссух Reason-(R):- Cells sloughed from such tumors
(B) Cervical → Thoracic →Lumbar → Cоссух reach distant sites through blood and
→Sacral interfere in functions of other tisues.
(C) Cervical → Sacral → Lumbar→ Thoracic → (A) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Coccyx → Reason is a correct explanation of the
(D) Cervical → Thoracic → Lumbar → Sacral Assertion.
→Cocсух (B) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
147. Identify the correct match from the column-I Assertion.
and column-II. (C) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
Column I Column II (D) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
i. Anti viral a. Mucous
proteins membrane 155. AIDS is not a :-
ii Phagocytosis b Macrophage (A) Viral disease
iii Physiological c Interferons (B) STD
barrier (C) Immuno deficiencey disease
d Fever (D) Genetic disease

(A) i-b, ii-c, iii-a (B) i-c, ii-a, iii-d 156. The secondary follicle soon transformed into
(C) i-a, ii-c, iii-d (D) i-c, ii-b, iii-d tertiary follicle which is characterised by a fluid
filled cavity called :-
148. Principle of vaccination is based on :- (A) Theca interna
(A) Discrimination between self-non self (B) Theca externa
(B) Diversity (C) Antrum
(C) Memory (D) Zone pellucida
(D) Specificity
157. The first movement of foetus is during which
149. The type of epithelium which line the inner month?
surface of fallopian tubes (A) 5th (B) 1st (C) 2nd (D) 7th
(A) Squamous epithelium
(B) Compound epithelium 158. Which hormone acts on the uterine muscles
(C) Ciliated epithelium during parturition?
(D) Cuboidal epithelium (A) Prolactin (B) Relaxin
(C) Oxytocin (D) LH
150. How many ovarioles are found in each ovary
of cockroach? 159. A Russian scientist who proposed the theory
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 16 of origin of life was?
(A) Oparin (B) Haldane
151. The number of cardiac cycle per minute in a (C) Miller (D) Fox
normal man is :-
160. Which pair of organs shows analogy ?
(A) 60 (B) 100 (C) 120 (D) 72
(A) Mouth parts of insects
152. Uric acid is the nitrogenous waste in: (B) Potato and Ginger
(A) Land snails (C) Eye of the octopus and of mammals
(D) Vertebrate hearts

13
 (B) a (ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
161. Founder effect can be seen in a population (C) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d (iv)
because of :- (D) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d (iii)
(A) Gene flow
(B) Hybridisation 168. Match the following genera with their
(C) Genetic drift respective phylum:
(D) Natural selection (a) Ophiura (i) Mollusca
(b) Physalia (ii) Platyhelminthes
162. After the biosynthetic phase, the product is (c) Pinctada (iii) Echinodermata
separated & purified by the process called :- (d) Planaria (iv) Coelenterata
(A) Agarose gel electrophoresis Select the correct option :-
(B) PCR (A) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), d-(ii)
(C) Downstream processing (B) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), d-(ii)
(D) Insertional inactivation (C) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), d-(ii)
(D) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), d-(i)
163. During the processing of the prohormone
"proinsulin" into the mature "insulin" 169. Identify the correct sequence of events in a
(A) C-peptide is added to proinsulin cardiac cycle :-
(B) C-peptide is removed from proinsulin (A) Joint diastole → Atrial systole →
(C) B-peptide is added to proinsulin Ventricular systole
(D) B-peptide is removed from proinsulin (B) Joint diastole → Atrial diastole →
Ventricular systole
164. QRS complex of ECG represents :
(C) Ventricular systole → Atrial systole →
(A) Ventricular repolarisation
Joint diastole
(B) Atrial repolarisation
(D) Atrial systole → Joint diastole
(C) Ventricular depolarisation
→Ventricular systole
(D) Atrial depolarization
𝐸𝑛𝑧𝑦𝑚𝑒
165. Assertion (A) :- hCG is released only during 170. 𝐻 + + 𝐻𝐶𝑂3− → 𝐻2 𝐶𝑂3
pregnancy. Statement I: Given reaction takes place in
Reason (R) :- hCG is released by ovary. WBC.
(A) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Statement II :Enzyme is carbonic anhydrase.
Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Find correct answer from below.
Assertion. (A) Statement I is incorrect
(B) Assertion is true but Reason is false. (B) Statement II is correct
(C) Assertion is false but Reason is true. (C) Both statement I & II correct
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are true and (D) Both option A & B are correct
Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion
171. Which part of brain control urge for eating
166. Nearly ____a_____ million MTPs are and drinking?
performed in a year all over the world which (A) Thalamus (B) Hypothalamus
accounts to ___b___ of the total number of (C) Medulla (D) Cerebellum
conceived pregnancies is a year :
(A) a-40 to 50, b = 1/4th 172. Hormones are ________ chemical which act
(B) a-40 to 50, b = 1/2th as _________ messengers and are produced in
(C) a-45 to 50, b = 1/3rd _______ amounts.
(D) a-45 to 50, b = 1/5th (A) Non-nutrient, intercellular, trace
(B) Nutrient, intercellular, trace
167. Match the columns (C) Nutrient, intercellular, large
(a) Australopithecus (i) More man like (D) Non-nutrient, intercellular, large
(b) Dryopithecus (ii) Hunted with
stone weapons 173. A sarcomere consists of:
(c) Ramapithecus (iii) Brain capacity (A) One A-band and one l-band
between 650- (B) Half A-band and two half l-band
800 cc (C) Half A-band and one l-band
(d) Homo habilis (iv) more ape like (D) One A-band and two half l-band
(A) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d (iii)

14
174. During shortening of muscle : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) I-bands get reduced (A) a c b d
(b) A-bands retains its length (B) d a b c
(c) Sarcomere shortens (C) c a d b
In the given correct statements are :- (D) c b a d
(A) Only a & c (B) Only b & c
(C) Only a & b (D) All a, b & c 178. Animals belonging to phylum-chordata are
fundamentally characterized by the presence of
175. The mouth part of the cockroach shown in structures shown in the figure below.
the given diagram acts as a/an:

(A) Upper lip (B) Tongue

(C) Lower lip (D) Uvula Identify I, II, III and IV correctly:
(A) I- Notochord, II - Nerve cord, III - Gill slits,
176. The graph given below is showing the concept IV - Post anal part
of activation energy. Identity A and B in options (B) I- Nerve cord, II - Notochord, III - Gill slits,
given below. IV - Post anal part
(C) I- Nerve cord, II - Notochord, III - Post anal
part, IV - Gill slits
(D) I- Nerve cord, II - Gill slits, III -Notochord,
IV - Post anal part

179. A hormone produced by juxta glomerular cells

of kidneys, which converts angiotensinogen into
angiotensin-l is
(A) Erythropoietin (B) Renin
(C) Aldosterone (D) ADH
A B
(A) Transition state Potential energy 180. A and B in the pBR 322, shown in the diagram
given below, respectively represent recognition
(B) Potential energy Transition state
sequences of:
(C) Activation energy Activation energy
without enzyme with enzyme
(D) Activation energy Activation energy
with enzyme without enzyme

177. Match the columns and choose the correct

option:

(A) BamH I and Sma I

(B) Hind II and Sma I
(C) BamH I and Sal I
(D) Sal I and Hind II

15