Test Code: B1 Time Allowed: 20 mins

Biology
1. Which of these substances face most difficulty in passing through plasma membrane?
A) Lipid particles B) Ionic particles C) Glucose D) Gases
2. __________ always pass passively through cell membrane:
A) Gases B) Larger particles C) Food particles D) Ionic substances
3. Protein synthesis occurs at all sites in a eukaryotic cell except
A) Mitochondria C) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
B) Chloroplast D) Golgi bodies
4. Which of the fallowing’s is not a part of plasma membrane?
A) Cholesterol B) Phospholipids C) Peptidoglycan D) Glycoproteins
5. In case of plant cells, nucleus is pushed towards periphery due to the presence of:
A) Mitochondria B) Vacuole C) Golgi bodies D) Endoplasmic reticulum
6. Charged pores in a cell membrane are formed by:
A) Lipid bilayer B) Extrinsic proteins C) Integral proteins D) Phospholipids
7. Pancreatic enzymes are finally processed and secreted by:
A) Ribosomes B) Mitochondria C) Endoplasmic reticulum D) Golgi apparatus
8. Generally, eukaryotic cells have
A) One nucleus B) Two nuclei C) No nucleus D) Many nuclei
9. In any cell, ribosomes can exist in all of the following forms except:
A) Dispersed in cytoplasm C) Attached with RER
B) Attached with cell membrane D) Attached with Golgi bodies
10. Which of these metabolic processes do not occur in mitochondria?
A) Fatty acid metabolism C) Glucose breakdown
B) Krebs cycle D) Aerobic Respiration
11. Which of the following does not contain tubulin protein?
A) Ribosomes B) Centrioles C) Centrosome D) Basal bodies
12. This is not true regarding cytoplasm of bacterial cell:
A) Transcription is carried out in it C) It contains single stranded circular DNA
B) It lacks membranous organelles D) It does not show cyclosis
13. Nucleus is involved directly in all of the fallowing’s except:
A) Replication B) Transcription C) Translation D) Ribosome formation
14. Cell organelle responsible for turgor movement in plants is:
A) Nucleus B) Cell wall C) Cytoplasm D) Vacuole
15. Lysosomes are believed to originate from:
A) SER B) Golgi complex C) Mitochondria D) Food vacuole
16. Which of these processes require energy from respiration?

Key
✓= energy required  = energy not required
17. The outer nuclear membrane is connected with:
A) Ribosomes B) Endoplasmic reticulum C) Golgi bodies D) Extracellular fibers
18. It is responsible for movement of chromosomes during anaphase of mitosis:
A) Actin B) Myosin C) Tubulin D) Histone
19. Regions of nucleolus that has DNA is:
A) Peripheral granular area C) Central fibril area
B) Peripheral fibril area D) Central granular area
20. It is not a function of SER:
A) Storage of Ca+2 C) Mechanical support
B) Protein synthesis D) Detoxification
21. The entire cell wall of prokaryotic cell is formed of sugars and amino acids, it is also known as
A) Peptidoglycan B) Murein C) Sacculus D) All
22. Mitochondria is power house of the cell; it generates ATPs from:
A) Glucose B) ADP C) Acetyl Co-A D) Amino acids
23. Which of the following features is not shared by prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
(A) Ribosome (B) Cytoplasm (C) Cell membrane (D) Nuclear membrane
24. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum helps to:
(A) Synthesize proteins (B) Detoxify the harmful drugs
(C) Prepare food (D) Decompose proteins
25. Which of the following statement is wrong?
 (A) Fungi have mitochondria
(B) Mitochondria have DNA and ribosomes (80S)
(C) Mitochondrial ribosomes resemble more to eukaryotic ribosomes
(D) Both B & C
26. Which of the following is not a characteristic of prokaryotes?
(A) Linear DNA (B) Cell membrane (C) Endoplasmic reticulum (D) both a & c
27. Oxidative metabolism is carried out ___________ of mitochondria:
(A) In the intermembrane space (B) On the surface of the inner membrane
(C) In the inside of the outer membrane (D) in the matrix
28. The complex of sugar polymers and proteins which are patchily distributed on the plasma
membranes of animal cells is called:
(A) Cellulose (B)Chitin (C) Glyocalyx (D) Cytoskeleton
29. According to the fluid mosaic model of cell membranes:
(a) The most common type of molecules in the membrane are proteins
(b) basic membrane structure results horn how the proteins interact with water
(C) The membrane is a highly mobile mixture of phospholipids and proteins
(d) The unique properties of cell types are determined by their phospholipids
30. Each cell of frog contains __________ autosomes:
(A) 18 (B)24 (C)26 (D) 48
31. The free ribosome’s of the mitochondria are present in its
(A) Mitochondrial matrix (B) inter-membrane space
(C) On the outer-membrane (D) On the cristae of the inner membrane
32. To enter or leave a cell, substances must pass through
(A) The plasma membrane (B) A microtubule
(C) The Golgi apparatus (D) A ribosome
33. Bacterial cell are prokaryotic; in comparison to a typical eukaryotic cell they would
(A) Lack a plasma membrane (B) Have a smaller nucleus
(C) Be smaller (D) Have a greater variety of organelle
34. Two functions of rough endoplasmic reticulum are to
(A) Detoxify and transport drugs (B) Modify and activate hormones
(C) Synthesize and transport proteins (D) Join with and hydrolyze food vacuoles
35. In which of the following is the greatest amount of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) found?
(A) Nucleus (B) Ribosome (C) Nucleolus (D) Nuclear envelope
36. The space between the outer and inner mitochondrial membranes is
(A) Per mitochondrial space (C) Intermembrane space
(B) Periplasmic space (D) Both b & c
37. It is not a difference of plant cell with animal cell:
A) Plant cell has large vacuole while animal cell has small vacuoles
B) Plant cells contain glyoxysomes while absent in animal cells
C) Plant cell offers more barriers to movement of substances than animal cell
D) Plant cell forms spindle and asters while animal cell forms only spindles
38. This is not always true regarding cytoplasm of bacterial cell:
A) Its peripheral parts are gel like C) It contains single circular DNA
B) It lacks membranous organelles D) It does not show cyclosis
39. Cell is considered as a unit of life in:
A) All prokaryotes B) All eukaryotes C) All living organisms D) All bacteria
40. The outer convex surface of Golgi apparatus is formed by the budding of:
A) Endoplasmic reticulum C) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
B) Rough endoplasmic reticulum D) Lysosomes
41. All can be explained on the basis of cell theory except:
A) HIV B) Yeast C) Nostoc D) Neuron
42. Technically, autophagosome are also known as:
A) Primary lysosomes C) secondary lysosomes
B) Tertiary lysosomes D) Complex lysosomes
43. In unit membrane model, the region of lipid bilayer attached to globular protein is:
A) Hydrophobic B) Non-polar C) Hydrophilic D) Hyper phobic
44. Which of the following function is not performed by cell membrane?
A) It helps in nervous co-ordination C) It prevents cell from osmotic lysis
B) It helps in chemical co-ordination D) Phagocytosis
45. Select the storage disease which can be seen in the absence of lipase?
A) Sickle cell anemia C) Glycogenosis type II
B) Taysach disease D) Both b and c
46. Opening and closing of stomata is controlled by?
A) Cell wall B) Cell membrane C) Vacuole D) Cytoskeleton
47. Select the cell which show phagocytosis?
A) basophil B)eosinophil C) neutrophils D)all of these
48. Taking in water through cell membrane is?
A) Phagocytosis C) Endocytosis
B) Pinocytosis D) Osmosis
49. According to fluid mosaic model, extrinsic proteins are attached with which part of lipids bilayer?
A) Hydrophobic head C) Hydrophobic tail
B) Hydrophilic head D) Hydrophilic tail
50. Blebs from tips of smooth endoplasmic reticulum fuse with Golgi apparatus cisternae at
A) Golgi vesicles B) Forming face C) Maturing face D) Finalizing stage
51. Phragmoplasts are formed by
A) ER C) Mitochondria
B) Golgi bodies D) Nucleus
52. Following cell organelles are derived from special assemblies of microtubules EXCEPT:
A) Cilia and flagella B) Centrioles C) Basal bodies D) Chromatin fibers
53. Cisternae are the membranes found in:
A) Endoplasmic reticulum C) Golgi apparatus
B) Lysosomes D) All A,B,C
54. Mitochondria contains enzymes for all of the following processes except:
A) Glycolysis C) Translation
B) Respiratory chain D) Fatty acid metabolism
55. Structure of a centriole is correctly represented by:
A) Nine tubules C) Double central and nine peripheral fibrils
B) Nine microtubule triplets D) Nine peripheral double fibrils
56. A human cheek cell and a spongy mesophyll cell from a leaf are examined under a
microscope. The structures observed common in both are:
A) Cell membrane, nucleus and cytoplasm
B) Cytoplasm, cell wall and cell membrane
C) Cell wall, cell membrane and nucleus
D) Nucleus, cytoplasm and cell wall
57. What is the similarity between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell?
A) Composition of flagella C) Composition of cell wall
B) Composition of cell membrane D) composition of ribosomes
58. A process in which energy of system is not used:
A) Active transport C) Gated transport
B) Endocytosis D) Pumping transport
59. The correct statement is?
A) All prokaryotic cells are diploid C) All prokaryotic cells are triploid
B) All prokaryotic cells are haploid D) All prokaryotic cells can be haploid or diploid
60. Which of the following is characteristic of phospholipids of plasma membrane
A) one non polar head and two polar tails C) Two non – polar head and two polar tails
B) one polar head and two non – polar tails D) Two polar head and one non – polar tails
61. True mitochodria are absent in:
(A) Algal cell (B) Fungal cell (C) Bacteria cell (D) Animal cell
62. Infolding of inner membrane in mitochondria are called:
(A) Cisternae (B) Thyllakoid (C) F1-particles (D) Cristae
63. Resolution power of a electron microscope is:
(A) 2.0 µm (B) 2-4 Angstrom (C) 1.0 mm (D) 24 Angstrom
64. The human naked eye can diferentiate between two points, which are at least______apart.
(A) 2.0 µm (B) 2-4 Angstrom (C) 1.0 mm (D) 24 Angstrom
65. Which of the following is not present in mitochondria?
(A) Enzymes (B) Co-enzymes (C)Ribosomes (D) Linear DNA

66. On the inner surface the inner membrane of mitochondria cristae small knob-like structures are
present. These are called
A) Oxysomes B) Elementary particles C) F1-particles D)All of these
67. In electron microscope, the source of illumination is a beam of
A) Protons B) Neutrons C) Electrons D) Photons
68. Which of the following criteria does not relate to facilitated transport?
A) Uphill transport C) Requirement of special membrane proteins
B) High selectivity D) Transport saturation
69. Specific proteins responsible for the flow of materials and information into the cell are called:
A) Membrane receptors B) Integral proteins C) Carrier proteins D) None of these
70. Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane?
 A) Glycolipids B) Phospholipids C) Proline D) Cholesterol
71. Transport proteins are required for
A) Diffusion C)Osmosis
B) Facilitated transport D) Facilitated transport and active transport
72. Which statement is not true of membrane carbohydrates?
A) Most are bound to proteins
B) Carbohydrates are added to proteins in the Golgi apparatus
C) Some are bound to lipids
D) They show little diversity
73. Which statement is not true of channels in membranes?
A) The channels are pores in the membrane
B) The channels are proteins
C) All ions pass through the same kind of channel
D) Some channels are gated
74. Cell membrane carbohydrates participate in
A) Transporting substances across the membrane
B) Cell to cell recognition
C) Attaching the membrane to cytoskeleton
D) Cell Adhesion
75. Golgi apparatus is absent in
A) Blue-green alga B) Liver cells C) Red blood cells D) Higher plants
76. In which one of the following would you expect to find glyoxysomes?
A) Endosperm of wheat C) Endosperm of castor
B) Palisade cells in leaf D) Root hairs
77. Which of the following is responsible for the mechanical support, protein synthesis and enzyme
transport?
A) Plasmid B) Nucleolus C) Karyolymph D) Nuclear reticulum
78. Main difference between active and passive transport across cell membranes is that
A)Active transport occurs more rapidly than passive transport
B) Passive transport is confined to anions and cations
C) Passive transport is nonselective
D) Passive transport requires a concentration gradient across the membrane, whereas active transport
requires metabolic energy.
79. Vacuole in a plant cell
A) Is membrane –bound and contains storage proteins and lipids
B) Is membrane – bound and contains water and excretory substances
C) Lacks membrane and contains air
D) Lacks membrane and contains water and excretory substances
80. In mitochondria, cristae act as sites for _____________.
A) Protein synthesis C) Oxidation reduction reaction
B) Breakdown of macromolecules D) Phosphorylation of flavopnote

CHEMISTRY
81. Consider the reaction; 3Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2. Find the weight of Iron which will be
converted into its oxide by the action of 36g steam.
A) 56 g B) 52 g C) 46 g D) 84 g
82. The no. of gram molecules of oxygen in 6.02x1023 CO Molecules are:
A) 1 gm molecule C) 0.5 gm molecules
B) 2 gm molecules D) 5 gm molecules
83. A pure substance X has molarity 55.56 M and assumed to be very weak electrolyte. Which one
may be represent as X .
A) sulphuric acid B) water C) ethanol D) Potassium Hydroxide
84. 2g of O2 at RTP (room temperature and pressure) occupies. (L = Litre)
A) 1.4 L B) 2.8 L C) 11.4 L D) 3.2 L
85. 15 g of a gas occupies 11.2 dm3 at STP. The gas is
A) CO B) C2H6 C) CO2 D) N2O
86. The amount of NH3 formed by the complete reaction of 1 dm3 of N2 and 1 dm3 of H2 is;
A) 2 dm3 B) 1 dm3 C) 0.66 dm3 D) 1.33 dm3
87. Number of molecules in 4.25 g of NH3 is approximately
A) 6 x 1023 B) 3 x 1023 C) 1.5 x 1023 D) 0.5 x 1023
3
88. The decomposition of a certain mass of CaCO3 gave 22.414 dm of CO2 gas at STP. The mass of
KOH required to completely neutralize the gas is; (KOH + CO 2 → KHCO3)
 A) 56 g B) 28 g C) 42 g D) 20 g
89. 90 grams of glucose are dissolved in water to make 250cm3 of its solution, its molarity is:
A) 2 B) 1.5 C) 0.1 D) 1
90. Increasing the temperature of an aqueous solution will cause
A) decrease in molarity C) decrease in mole fraction
B) decrease in molality D) decrease in % w/w
91. If 9.8g H2SO4 is present in one dm3 of solution, the solution is
A) 0.1N B) 0.1M C) 0.1m D) 0.5M
92. 54 g of H2O are mixed with 92 g of ethanol. The mole fraction of water is
A) 0.2 B) 0.3 C) 0.4 D) 0.6
93. The molarity of 20% (w/v) NaOH solution is.
A) 0.5 B) 5 C) 2.5 D) 0.25
94. The units of mole fraction when partial pressure of a gas and total pressure of all gases takes
into account:
A) torr B) atm C) mmHg D) No units
95. Which is always true for a balanced chemical equation; it contain equal;
A) Moles of reactants and products C) Mass of reactants and products
B) Moecules of reactants and products. D) Volume of reactants and products
96. Consider the reaction, CH4 + H2O → CO + 3H2. What volume of hydrogen gas can be obtained
from 50cm3 of CH4 at STP.
A) 300 cm3 B) 200 cm3 C) 150 cm3 D) 100 cm3
97. Which one of the following pair is not iso – electronic
A) CO, N2 B) Na+ , Ne C) K, Ar D) K+ , Ar
98. How many sigma electrons are present in 4.5 g of ice?
NA NA
A) B) C) 2N A D) 3N A
2
99. The volume occupied by 11 g of CO2 at STP is
A) 5.6 dm3 B) 22.4 dm3 C) 112 cm3 D) 1.12 dm3
100. In a sample of glucose, 3.6 x 1023 atoms of carbon are present. Mass of Glucose sample is;
A) 180 g B) 360 g C) 1.8 g D) 342 g
101. Which one of the following is molecular formula of hydrocarbon which contain 80% by mass of
carbon and 20% by mass of hydrogen?
A) CH4 B) C2H6 C) C3H6 D) C4H8
102. Isotopes of an element differ in
A) arrangement of electrons in an orbit C) electronic configuration
B) Chemical properties D) properties which depend upon mass
103. 20 grams of H2 reacts with 4 moles of O2, The no. of moles of H2O produced are:
A) 4 moles B) 8 moles C) 12 moles D) 16 moles
104. The relative atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5amu. what is the mass of 4 – moles of chlorine gas.
A) 35.5g B) 71g C) 142g D) 284g
105. Which of the following compound does not have empirical formula CH 2O.
A) HCHO B) CH3COOH C) C6H12O6 D) CH3CH2OH
106. 11.2 dm3 of a gas at STP weighs 14 g. The gas could be
A) N2 B) NO2 C) CO2 D) N2O
107. One mole of CH3OCH3 and one mole of C2H5OH have
A) equal no. of molecules C) equal volume at S.T.P
B) equal no. of atoms D) both A & B
108. By knowing the empirical formula, what other information is also needed to calculate molecular
formula of a compound?
A) % age composition B) Atomic ratio C) Mass of each atom D) Relative molecular mass

109. Stoichiometric calculations are not possible when;

A) all the reactants are completely converted into products
B) 100% reaction takes place
C) Law of conservation of mass is obeyed
D) Side reaction occurse
110. The mass of 2 moles of electrons is
A) 1.008 mg B) 0.55 mg C) 1.10 mg D) 0.275 mg
111. Which one of the following contain highest %age of carbon.
A) CH4 B) C2H6 C) CO2 D) CO
112. Which one is not equal to one mole at STP.
 A) 22.414 dm3 of mercury C) 22.414 dm3 of H2
3
B) 22.414 dm of CH4 D) 22.414 dm3 of CO2
113. H2 burns in chlorine to produce hydrogen chloride. The exact mass of Cl 2 required to convert 2g
H2 into HCl according to following equation is H2+Cl2→2HCl
A) 35.5g B) 71 g C)142 g D)71.5 g
114. The no. of oxygen atoms in 4.4 g of CO2 are
A) 6 x 1023 B) 11 x 1023 C) 12 x 1023 D) 1.2 x 1023
115. From the complete decomposition of 50 g CaCO3 at S.T.P. the volume of CO2 obtained is
A) 2.24 L B) 11.2 L C) 44.8 L D) 48.4 L
116. Combustion analysis help us to find out:
A) Percentage of element in compound C) Empirical formula
B) chemical nature of compound D) Both a & c
117. A collection of 2NA helium atoms weighs.
A) 1 g B) 2 g C) 4 g D) 8 g
118. A solution contain three components A, B, C in the molar ration 2 : 4 : 4. The percentage mole
fraction of B is:
A) 20 % B) 30 % C) 40 % D) 50 %
119. A gold (Ar=197) pendant weighs 19.7 grams. The number of atoms it contains
A) 6.02x1023 B) 3.01 x 1022 C) 6.02x1021 D) 6.02 x 1022
3
120. 11.2 dm of ethene (C2H4) at STP has _________ moles of hydrogen atoms
A)1 B) 8 C) 2 D) 16
𝒎𝒐𝒍𝒆𝒄𝒖𝒍𝒂𝒓 𝒎𝒂𝒔𝒔
121. Compounds having same empirical and molecular formula must have ratio.
𝒆𝒎𝒑𝒆𝒓𝒊𝒂𝒄𝒂𝒍 𝒇𝒐𝒓𝒎𝒖𝒍𝒂 𝒎𝒂𝒔𝒔
A) = 1 B) > 1 C) < 1 D) > 1
122. The number of H+ produced when 9.8g of sulphuric acid are completely ionized
A) 1.20 x 1023 B) 6.02 x 1023 C) 3.01 x 1022 D) 3.01 x 1023
123. 4 moles of oxygen atoms are present in
A) 4.0 moles of H2SO4 C) 0.5 moles of H2SO4
B) 2.0 moles of H2S04 D) 1.0 mole of H2SO4
124. For which compound, integral multiple to get molecular formula from empirical formula is "2"
A) H2O B) H2S C) C6Hl2O6 D) CH3COOH
125. If the theoretical yield for a reaction was 180 grams and the student actually made 90 grams of the
product, what is his percentage yield?
A) 75% B) 80% C) 90% D) 50%
126. Fractional atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5 amu. Chlorine consist of two isotopes ( 35CI and 37CI).
The percentage relative abundance of 35Cl will be:
A) 75 B) 25 C) 80 D) 20
127. A compound contains two elements X and Y percentage of X is 20% (At.wt = 40) and that of Y is
80% (At.wt =80). The empirical formula of the compound is
A) XY2 B) X3Y C) X2Y D) XY
128. Which one of the following contains least number of molecules?
A) 16 g of CH4 C) 16 g SO2
B) 16 g O2 D) 16 g He
129. The empirical formula of acetic acid is same as that of
A) Formic acid B) Propanoic acid C) Lactic acid D) Sucrose
130. During mass spectrometric analysis, which ion will have largest radius of curvature?
20 + 21 + 22 +
A) 10 Ne B) 10 Ne C) 10 Ne D) all have same
radius
131. Carbon disulfide undergoes a single displacement reaction with oxygen to form carbon dioxide.
If 50 grams of each reactant are provided, then limiting reactant will be? CS2 + O2 → CO2+2S
A) Carbon disulfide B) Carbon dioxide C) Oxygen D) Sulfur
132. Concentration unit which is temperature independent
A) Molarity B) Mole fraction C) %w/v D) %v/v
133. How many moles of potassium chlorate should be decomposed completely to obtain 67.2 litres
of oxygen at STP?
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
134. What is the weight of oxygen required for the complete combustion of 2.8 kg of ethylene?
A) 9.6 kg B) 6.9 kg C) 96 kg D) 6.8 kg
135. The number of moles of KCI in 1000 mL of 3 molar solution is:
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 6
136. A boy drinks 500 mL of 9% glucose solution. The number of glucose molecules he has
consumed are [mol. wt of glucose = 180]
A) 0.5 × 1023 B) 1.0 × 1023 C) 1.5 × 1023 D) 2.0 × 1023
137. Find the number of atoms present in 0.016 g of methane:
A) 0.5 NA B) 0.05 NA C) 0.005 NA D) 1.6 NA
138. What is the molarity of H2SO4 solution that has a density 1.84 g/cc at 35oC and contains 98%
H2SO4 by weight?
A) 1.84 M B) 81.4 M C) 18.4 M D) 184 M
139. The volume in litres of CO2 liberated at STP, when 10g of 90% pure limestone is heated
completely is:
A) 1.12 B) 22.4 C) 2.016 D) 20.16
140. How many grams of CH3OH would have to be added to water to prepare 500 mL of a solution
that is 2.0 M CH3OH?
A) 9.6 g B) 32 g C) 4.3 × 102 g D) 9.6 × 103 g

PHYSICS
141. Watt hour is unit of
A) Electric energy B) Current C) Power D) Voltage
142. The change in velocity of a body is (12.5 ± 0.2)ms-1 in a time (5.0 ± 0.3) sec. Find percentage
uncertainty in average value of acceleration.
A) 6% B) 7.6% C) 9 % D) 1.6%
143. Random errors can be minimized by
A) Taking mean of many observations C) Both A and B
B) reducing zero error in device D) Using instrument of small L.C
144. The heat produce in a circuit depends upon resistivity current and time. If the errors in measuring
these quantities are 1%,2% and 1% respectively. The maximum errors in measuring heat
A) 1% B) 2% C) 3% D) 6%
145. One light year is equal to
A) 9.5 × 1015 cm B) 7.88 × 104m C) 9.5 × 1015 m D) 9.5 × 1015 km
146. Which of the following represent the length in FPS and CGS system both
A) foot, decimeter C) decimeter, centimeter
B) meter, kilometer D) foot, centimeter
147. When two quantities are added, the absolute error in the final result is the _______ of the individual
errors
A)Sum B) Both A and C C) Subtractions D) Multiplication
148. Unit of resistivity, expressed in terms of base units, is given by kg x3 y–2 z–3 . Which base units
are
x, y and z?
x y z
A ampere metre second
B metre ampere second
C metre second ampere
D second ampere metre
149. The time dependence of physical quantity P is found to be of the form
2
P = P0𝑒 −𝜶𝑇 Where ‘t’ is the time and 𝜶 is some constant. Then the constant 𝜶 will
(A) be dimensionless
(B) have dimensions of T–2
(C) have dimensions of P
(D) have dimensions of P multiplied by T –2
150. The least count of stop which is 1/5 sec. The time of 20 oscillations of a pendulum is measured to
be 25 sec. The minimum percentage error in measurement of time will be:
A) 0.1% B) 0.8% C) 1.8% D) 8%
151. Which of the given is correct record for the diameter of a wire which is measured with a screw
gauge of least count 0.001 cm.
A) 2.3 cm B) 2.31 cm C) 2.314 cm D) 2.3105 cm
152. In an experiment the length of steel bar is to be measured. For this purpose a student find two
devices A and B in Lab. Device A can measure the length with an absolute uncertainty of 0.5 cm
while device B can make the same measurement with an absolute uncertainty 0.05 cm. For precise
measurement the student should use.
A) Use device A
B) Use both devices A and B and take average value
 C) Use device B
D) Use both devices A and B and take minimum value
153. A physical quantity x depends on quantities y and z as follows: x = Ay + B tan Cz , where A, B and
C are constants. Which of the following do not have the same units?
A) x and B B) y and B / A C) C and z −1 D) x and A
8 2
154. pressure of 10 dynes/cm is equivalent to
A) 105 N/m2 B) 109 N/m2 C) 107 N/m2 D) 1011 N/m2
155. An accurate measurement is the one which has ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ fractional error.
A) negative B) highest C) less D) positive
156. Base units are those which
A) Cannot split further C) Use to define other units
B) Cannot define in term of other D) All are correct
157. Which one is the base SI unit
A) volt B) kilo meter C) kilogram D) Both kilometer and kilogram
158. A measurement which on repetition gives same or nearly same result is called
A) accurate measurement C) precise measurement
B) average measurement D) estimated measurement
159. The pressure on a square plate is measured by measuring the force on the plate and the length
of the sides of the plate. If the maximum error in the measurement of force and length are
respectively 4% and 2%, The maximum error in the measurement of pressure is
(A) 1% (B) 2% (C) 6% (D) 8%
160. 100 picometer = ...............
(A)10–8 cm (B) 10–7 m (C) 10×10–6 𝜇m (D) 10×10–8 𝜇m
161. Which product-pair of metric prefixes has the least magnitude?
(A) tera × mega (B) nano × kilo (C) micro × giga (D) milli × tera
162. If q, V and T represents charge, potential and time period respectively then their product
represents
A)Dielectric constant (B)Stefan’s constant
C)Plank’s constant (D)Coulomb’s constant
163. Which of the following is not the unit of energy?
(A) watt-hour (B) electron volt (C) N m (D) kg m2 s-2
164. 1 g = ............... amu
(A) 6.02×1023 (B) 6.02 ×10–23 (C) 1.66×10–27 (D) 1.66 ×1027
165. A thermometer can be read to an accuracy of + 0.5 °C. This thermometer is used to measure a
temperature rise from 40 °C to 100 °C. What is the percentage uncertainty in the measurement of
the temperature rise?
A) 0.5 % B) 0.8 % C) 1.3 % D) 1.7%
166. The length of a rod is (10.15 + 0.06) cm what is the length of two such rods ?
A) (20.30 +0.06) cm B) (20.30+1.6) cm
C) (10.30 +0.12) cm D) (20.30 +0.12) cm
167. Of the following readings of length which is more precise
(A)430m (B)430.55m (C) 430.5m (D) 430.565m
168. If the percentage uncertainty in calculating a length of 5m is 2% the absolute uncertainty is
(A)0.1 (B)0.6 (C) 0.2 (D) 1
169. Which of the following is not the unit of charger?
(A) A s (B) J V-1 (C) C (D) None of these
170. Radian is a unit of angular displacement which can also be measured in degrees. How many
degrees are equal to one radian?
(A) π/180 (B) 180/π (C) 2π/180 (D) π/57.3

171. Which of the following definitions is correct and uses only quantities rather than units?
(A) Charge is ampere second.
(B) electric field intensity is change in potential per unit length
(C) Pressure is force per meter square.
(D) Speed is distance travelled per second.
172. The unit of electric field is newton/coulomb. Its other equivalent term is potential gradient. What
 will be its unit?
A) Vm B) Vm2 C) Vm–2 D) Vm–1
2 –2 –3
173. Which of the following quantities can be written as kg m A s in S.I. units ?
A) resistance B) inductance C) capacitance D) magnetic flux
174. The diameter of atom is of the order of
A) 10–10 m B) 10–14m C) 10–19 m D) 10–15 m
175. _______ is needed for the experimental verification of various theories.
(A) Unit (B) Instrument (C) Symbol (D) Measurement
176. The reference standard used for the measurement of a physical quantity is called_______.
(A) standard quantity (B) dimension (C) constant (D) unit
177. Instrumental error can be minimised by
(A) taking large number of readings.
(B) using different accurate instrument for the same reading.
(C) adjusting zero of the instrument.
(D) maintaining the temperature of the surrounding.
178. Thickness of the paper measured by micrometer screw gauge of least count 0.01 mm is 1.03 mm,
the percentage error in the measurement of thickness of paper is
(A) 1.1% (B) 1% (C) 0.97% (D) 0.8%
179. Choose the INCORRECT statement out of the following.
(A) Every measurement by any measuring instrument has some error.
(B) Every calculated physical quantity that is based on measured values has some error.
(C) A measurement can have more accuracy but less precision and vice versa.
(D) The percentage error is different from relative error
180. Which of the following system of units is not based on units of mass, length and time alone?
(A) S.I. (B) M.K.S (C) F.P.S (D) C.G.S

ENGLISH
Choose the correct word words to complete each sentence.
181. He ________ to the waiter to bring more food as he was still ravenous.
A) dismayed B) hemmed C) beckoned D) elevated
182. After she ________ the lamb chops in the broiler, she sat down to open the package.
A) Put B) Was putting C) Puts D) Had put
183. Opening the door, she picked up the package and carried it into the kitchen _____ it on the table.
A) Leaving B) Left C) Leaves D) Was leaving
184. An _________ number of women died from the disease.
A) appalling B) confounded C) appalled D) brimming

SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentences some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your
task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be
corrected. Fill the circle corresponding to that letter under the segment in the MCQ Response Form.
185. The candidates observed a good number of aberrations that was, in fact, affecting the system.
A B C D
186. The faculties of his brain are going to tell him that he in addition to his friends have not allayed the fears
A B C D
of society.
187. Norma put the button unit besides her on the couch.
A B C D
188. “This is the way, Jess”, said my father pointing with his cane over the deep valley below us.
A B C D
189. Not only palatable patisseries but also beaded walnut are my favorite ingredients of morning diet.
A B C D
190. I managed to stand on the path by holding on with a little sapling, because it was too steep for my feet to
A B C
hold unless I braced myself.
D
In each of the following questions, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one
and fill the circle corresponding to that letter in the MCQ Response Form.
191.
A) All we guarantees is that you don’t know them and of course that you wouldn’t have to watch them die.
B) All we guarantee is that you doesn’t know them and of course that you wouldn’t have to watch them die.
 C) All we guarantee is that you don’t know them and of course that you wouldn’t have to watch them die.
D) All we guarantee are that you don’t know them and of course that you wouldn’t have to watch them die.
192.
A) Just a few steps in front of him a fox squirrel crossed the path and ran up a hickory tree.
B) Just few steps in front of him a fox squirrel crossed the path and ran on a hickory tree.
C) Just a few steps in front of him a fox squirrel crossed the path and ran on a hickory tree.
D) Just few steps in front of him a fox squirrel crossed the path and ran up a hickory tree.
193.
A) This antibiotic destroys red corpuscles in the blood causes pernicious anemia.
B) This antibiotic destroy red corpuscles in the blood causes pernicious anemia.
C) This antibiotic destroys red corpuscles in the blood cause pernicious anemia.
D) These antibiotics destroy red corpuscles in the blood causes pernicious anemia.
194.
A) She struggled on her feet and walked in the kitchen numbly.
B) She struggled to her feet and walked in the kitchen numbly.
C) She struggled on her feet and walked into the kitchen numbly.
D) She struggled to her feet and walked into the kitchen numbly.
195.
A) He put the wire guard in front of the fire, turned out the gas, and carried a detective novel to bed.
B) He put the wire guard in front of the fire, turned out the gas, and carried a detective novel on bed.
C) He put the wire guard in front of the fire, turned out the gas, and carried a detective novel in bed.
D) He put the wire guard in front of the fire, turned off the gas, and carried a detective novel to bed.
196.
A) And we raised more than a barrel of corn with the shock.
B) And we raised more than a barrel of corn of the shock.
C) And we raised more than a barrel of corn to the shock.
D) And we raised more than a barrel of corn for the shock.
197.
A) Big Hall full of lusty barbarians ready to pounce on him as their legitimate prey.
B) Big Hall full of lusty barbarians ready to pounce over him as their legitimate prey.
C) Big Hall full of lusty barbarians ready to pounce on him as their legitimate pray.
D) Big Hall full of lusty barbarians ready to pounce on him as its legitimate prey.
198.
A) He said as he let the dirt run between his fingers.
B) He said as he let the dirt ran among his fingers.
C) He said as he let the dirt ran between his fingers.
D) He said as he let the dirt run among his fingers.
In each of the following questions, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the EAREST
CORRECT MEANING of the given word and fill the appropriate Circle on the MCQ Response Form.
199. Anxieties
A) trepidation B) Adornment C) Copious D) Estimation
200. Apparently
A) appealing B) atrociously C) astoundingly D) ostensibly
201. Brimming
A) consummate B) mitigated C) admonishing D) perceiving
202. Capacious
A) tiny B) squeezed C) expensive D) expansive
203. Bashful
A) demure B) bold C) confident D) confidant
In each of the following questions, four alternative words are given. You have to select the option
OPPOSITE in meaning to the given word and fill the appropriate Circle on the MCQ Response Form.
204. Briskly
A) sagaciously B) indolently C) fervently D) eagerly
205. Baffling
A) bewildering B) confounding C) intricate D) fathomable